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    National Registry Paramedic Study Questions
    National Registry Paramedic Study Questions
    National Registry Paramedic Study Questions
    Ebook300 pages3 hours

    National Registry Paramedic Study Questions

    By Steve Roberts

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    About this ebook

    If you’re a paramedic student, you’ll find this book of questions and answers an essential resource as you study for the National Registry Exam.

    Steve Roberts, a paramedic with more than forty years of experience, wrote it based on a lifetime of knowledge, experience, and love for emergency medicine. He shares hundreds of sample test questions to help students pass the National Registry Exam.

    Divided into separate tests to promote learning, the multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions will equip you with the knowledge you need to pass the most important test of your life.
    LanguageEnglish
    PublisherLulu Publishing Services
    Release dateAug 24, 2015
    ISBN9781483436517
    National Registry Paramedic Study Questions
    Author

    Steve Roberts

    The Mud and Slime Mysteries is Joel Stewart and Steve Roberts' first book collaboration. Previously to this they have collaborated on TV animation including Abney & Teal and BOT and the Beasties. Steve created DipDap and Twirlywoos for Ragdoll, which both won Children's BAFTAs. Before his work in television Steve was a freelance illustrator in comics.

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      National Registry Paramedic Study Questions - Steve Roberts

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      PARAMEDIC STUDY QUESTIONS

      Test 1

      1.   Which of the following is not a national group that is involved in future development of EMS?

      A. National Association of Search and Rescue (NASAR)

      B. National Association of EMS Physicians (NAEMSP)

      C. New York State Ambulance Association

      D. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT)

      2. __________ is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being.

      A. Nutrition

      B. Health

      C. Wellness

      D. Fitness

      3. The basics of physical fitness include all of the following except:

      A. Strength, flexibility, and back safety

      B. Drug dependencies and other addictions

      C. Cardiovascular

      D. Nutrition and weight control

      4. Which of the following is not a nationally recognized level of EMS Technician?

      A. EMT- Paramedic

      B. First Responder

      C. EMT- Basic

      D. EMT- Cardiac Technician

      5. A major side effect of certain types of diuretic therapy is:

      A. Hyperkalemia

      B. Hypokalemia

      C. Hypenatremia

      D. Hypocalcemia

      6. Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:

      A. Biot’s respirations

      B. Kussmaul’s respirations

      C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

      D. Agonal respirations

      7. The components of wellness include physical well-being, proper nutrition and:

      A. Compliance with prescribed medications

      B. Mental and emotional health

      C. Vaccinations

      D. Past medical history

      8. The drug of choice to treat hyperkalemia in the pre-hospital setting is:

      A. Potassium Hydrochloride

      B. Magnesium Sulfate

      C. Calcium chloride

      D. Atropine

      9. The principle that allows the paramedic to function in the field under the auspices and license of a physician is called:

      A. Delegation of authority

      B. Medicum ad litum

      C. Medical Direction

      D. Good Samaritan principle

      10. Which patient should be transported immediately, with minimal on-scene care and any attempts at stabilization performed en route to the hospital?

      A. Female, age 45, pulse 132, systolic BP 78

      B. Male, age 54, pulse 98, diastolic PB 80

      C. Female, age 28, systolic BP 96, respiratory rate 18

      D. Male, age 60, pulse 115, respiratory rate 12

      11. The most important way for a paramedic to identify that a patient is having an MI is by:

      A. Vital signs

      B. History

      C. EKG reading

      D. Secondary survey

      12. Poor diet and nutrition contribute to the development of degenerative diseases that include all the following major killers, except:

      A. Gout

      B. Heart disease

      C. Stroke

      D. Diabetes

      13. Signs and symptoms of radiation sickness include:

      A. Severe headache

      B. Excessive thirst

      C. Hair loss

      D. Hearing problems

      14. Leaving the non-traumatic cardiac arrest victim, after adequate trial of ALS and BLS has been done, to support the survivors would be an example of a Class ____ guideline.

      A. I

      B. III

      C. IIA

      D. IIB

      15. Immediate management for chemical burn injuries is:

      A. Irrigation with copious amounts of water

      B. Applying a neutralizing agent

      C. A dry, sterile dressing

      D. Irrigation with alcohol

      16. You suspect that a patient has a complete airway obstruction when she:

      A. Cannot cough

      B. Can exhale with some effort

      C. Cannot swallow

      D. Can only whisper

      17. Angina is due to the imbalance in:

      A. Supply and demand for oxygenated blood

      B. Catecholamines in the blood

      C. Oxygen in the blood

      D. Hemoglobin in the blood

      18. The upper limit of the normal P-R interval is:

      A. 0.12 second

      B. 0.20 second

      C. 0.10 second

      D. 1.0 second

      19. In performing emergency synchronized cardioversion, you would synchronize the electrical shock with which of the following wave forms?

      A. QRS complex

      B. R wave

      C. P wave

      D. P-R interval

      20. An early sign of increasing intracranial pressure is:

      A. Bradypnea

      B. Noisy respirations

      C. Tachypnea

      D. None of the above

      21. ________ volume is the amount of gas inspired or expired in a minute.

      A. Minute

      B. Adequate

      C. Tidal

      D. Inadequate

      22. All of the following are true statements concerning acute mountain sickness except:

      A. The most important part of the treatment is descent to a lower altitude

      B. It usually occurs after rapid ascent to elevations of 5000 feet

      C. Symptoms occur because of decreased oxygen saturation in the blood

      D. Symptoms may include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and irritability

      23. You would be likely to receive an order to administer intravenous thiamine to a patient who appeared to be:

      A. Profoundly intoxicated

      B. In status epilepticus

      C. In metabolic shock

      D. Hyperventilating

      24. You have been called by a man who says that his wife is going to commit suicide. Upon arrival, your job will be to do all of the following EXCEPT:

      A. Relay information to the hospital so that the physician can direct disposition

      B. Name the type of depression involved

      C. Interview the patient to clarify the situation

      D. Identify immediate threats to the safety of the patient or others

      25. A QRS complex is considered abnormal if it lasts longer that how many seconds?

      A. 0.12 seconds

      B. 0.04 seconds

      C. 0.10 seconds

      D. 0.08 seconds

      26. The best was to break a front windshield is:

      A. Hurst tool

      B. Center punch to mid windshield

      C. Fire axe

      D. Center punch to corner of windshield

      27. Depression is an example of a:

      A. Organic disease

      B. Psychiatric illness

      C. Psychosis

      D. Mood disorder

      28. Which of the following is not a sign of pure right sided heart failure?

      A. Pedal edema

      B. Hepatomegaly

      C. Pulmonary edema

      D. Positive hepatojugular reflex

      29. At what rate should the chest be compressed for an adult patient?

      A. 120

      B. 100

      C. 60

      D. 80

      30. The pause following the QRS complex is called the:

      A. T-T complex

      B. S-T complex

      C. T wave

      D. P-R interval

      31. Your patient has an extremity fracture and has a large area of swelling, which of the following signs should you not elicit?

      A. Tenderness

      B. Crepitus

      C. Ecchymosis

      D. Swelling

      32. Which of the following routes of administration is fastest?

      A. Sublingual

      B. IM

      C. ET

      D. Subcutaneous

      33. One teaspoon equals:

      A. 1 oz

      B. 5cc

      C. 30cc

      D. 10cc

      34. Anytime a patient has received a high energy impact from the clavicles or superior to the clavicles, the paramedic must consider the possibility of:

      A. Neck injury

      B. Hypovolemia

      C. Low blood sugar

      D. Hypoxia

      35. Injuries to the small intestines may produce:

      A. Peritonitis

      B. Intense blood loss

      C. No clinical significance

      D. Respiratory distress

      36. All of the following are types of pneumonia except:

      A. Tuberculosis

      B. AIDS

      C. Aspiration

      D. Myoplasma

      37. Which drug can cause users to behave violently and aggressively?

      A. PCP

      B. LSD

      C. Phenobarbital

      D. Elavil

      38. Which statement about the pain that accompanies a myocardial infarction is incorrect?

      A. The pain is relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin

      B. Pain due to AMI radiates like anginal pain

      C. Patients often describe the pain as crushing.

      D. The pain is present only during exertion or stress

      39. A mini-drip IV set delivers how many drops per minute of solution?

      A. 60gtts

      B. 10gtts

      C. 30gtts

      D. 15gtts

      40. A disease process that destroys the myelin sheath and infects the nerve fibers, impairing nerve function is called:

      A. Epliepsy

      B. Multiple sclerosis

      C. Lou Gehrig’s disease

      D. Parkinson’s disease

      41. The hormone responsible for allowing blood sugar to enter the cells is called:

      A. Insulin

      B. Glucagon

      C. Glucose

      D. Glycogen

      42. Which type of radiation is the most serious?

      A. Gamma rays

      B. Delta rays

      C. Alpha particles

      D. Beta particles

      43. When do you not give lidocaine?

      A. A PVC’s

      B. Bradycardia with PVC’s

      C. V-fib

      D. V-tach

      44. After administration of epinephrine, what drug may be given to help epinephrine stop an allergic reaction?

      A. Diphenhydramine

      B. Oxygen

      C. Terbutaline

      D. Albuterol

      45. Hyperextension of the neck, followed by hyperflexion, is common in:

      A. Lateral impacts

      B. Rear-end impacts

      C. Frontal impacts

      D. Rotational impacts

      46. The speed of an anaphylactic reaction depends on the route of exposure and the:

      A. Pre-existing medical conditions

      B. Degree of sensitivity

      C. Level of consciousness

      D. Patient’s age

      47. Arriving at the scene of a vehicle accident, you find one of the autos in flames with a single occupant in the car. Your first priority after assuring scene safety and resource utilization is to:

      A. Apply a cervical collar

      B. Open the airway

      C. Remove him from the vehicle

      D. Check the pulse

      48. If you are asked to set up a staging area for additional responding rescue units, which of the following would be the best location?

      A. Upwind, no visual range, in a building

      B. Downwind, no visual, in a building

      C. Upwind, close visual range, in an open area

      D. Downwind, close visual range, in an open area

      49. Which of the following penetrating MOI’s has the greatest potential for energy Exchange?

      A. Hanging

      B. Shotgun

      C. High power rifle

      D. Knife

      50. Which of the following does not suggest child neglect?

      A. Long-standing skin infections

      B. Multiple insect bites

      C. Extreme malnutrition

      D. Prolonged respiratory infection

      51. During a multi-casualty incident, a conscious patient presents with a fractured femur, a palpable radial pulse, and a respiratory rate of 24/min. According to START, this patient would be placed into what triage category?

      A. Deceased- black

      B. Delayed- yellow

      C. Minor- green

      D. Immediate- red

      52. Which of the following would not be an appropriate treatment for a rape victim:

      A. Cleanse the perineum with sterile saline

      B. Assess and treat major trauma

      C. Allow family members to be present

      D. Provide strong emotional support

      53. The P wave on an EKG strip reflects what event inside the heart?

      A. Ventricular repolarization

      B. Atrial repolarization

      C. Atrial depolarization

      D. Ventricular depolarization

      54. A drug used to decrease ICP is:

      A. Pitocin

      B. Mannitol

      C. Magnesium sulfate

      D. Valium

      55. Cushing’s syndrome is caused by the hypersecretion of glucocorticoids by the _______ glands (s).

      A. Pancreas

      B. Thymus

      C. Adrenal

      D. Reproductive 100mg

      56. 100ml of a 1:000 solution will contain what weight of the drug?

      A. 100mg

      B. 10gm

      C. 10mg

      D. 1gm

      57. Which of the following is NOT a component of the START triage method?

      A. Neuro-muscular function

      B. Circulation assessment

      C. Mentation-level of consciousness

      D. Respiration assessment

      58. Medications and drugs are most often delivered to a newborn through the use of which circulatory vessel?

      A. Jugular vein

      B. Umbilical vein

      C. Umbilical artery

      D. Femoral artery

      59. When involved with a motorcycle accident, if the victim was wearing a helmet:

      A. The likelihood of deceleration injury is greatly diminished

      B. The likelihood of head injury is greatly diminished

      C. The likelihood of spinal injury is greatly diminished

      D. Both A and B

      60. Which of the meninges is the highly vascular covering of the spinal cord and brain?

      A. Pia mater

      B. Falx cerebelli

      C. Dura mater

      D. Arachnoid membrane

      61. Two common tricyclic antidepressants are:

      A. Valium and Thorazine

      B. Compazine and Thorazine

      C. Elavil

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