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Module 11A New
Module 11A New
Aeroplane Aerodynamics
Question Number. 2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. elevators.
Correct Answer is. ailerons.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe TextbookPage 1-12.
Question Number. 3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?.
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.
Correct Answer is. To the left.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.
Question Number. 4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?.
Option A. Down.
Option B. Up.
Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Correct Answer is. Up.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.
Question Number. 5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?.
Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Option C. To increase the lift.
Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32.
Question Number. 6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.
Option A. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
Option B. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which causes
adverse aileron yaw.
Question Number. 7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load.
Option A. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Option B. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
Option C. only when the rudder is moved.
Correct Answer is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Explanation. Rudder deflection or yaw.
Question Number. 8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit
would be.
Option A. moved up causing the left aileron to move up.
Option B. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Option C. moved down causing the left aileron to move down.
Correct Answer is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Explanation. Down aileron required - which requires up trim.
Question Number. 11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.
Option A. Tip stalls first.
Option B. Root stalls first.
Option C. Both stall together.
Correct Answer is. Tip stalls first.
Explanation. The tip of a swept wing stalls first.
Question Number. 12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly.
Option A. right wing low.
Option B. nose up.
Option C. left wing low.
Correct Answer is. right wing low.
Explanation. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.
Question Number. 13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.
Option A. not be affected.
Option B. lower.
Option C. rise.
Correct Answer is. rise.
Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.
Question Number. 14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?.
Option A. Increase the angle of attack.
Option B. Decrease the angle of attack.
Option C. No effect on angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.
Option A. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option B. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option C. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Correct Answer is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.
Option A. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
Option B. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.
Option C. nose should be raised, increasing AoA.
Correct Answer is. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
Explanation. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better
view of the runway.
Question Number. 24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?.
Option A. Up to move elevator up.
Option B. Down to move elevator up.
Option C. Up to move elevator down.
Correct Answer is. Down to move elevator up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.
Option A. Both wings have an equal increase in drag.
Option B. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Option C. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more.
Correct Answer is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26.
Question Number. 29. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?.
Option A. Split.
Option B. Slot.
Option C. Fowler.
Correct Answer is. Fowler.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20.
Question Number. 30. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is.
Option A. low.
Option B. high or low.
Option C. high.
Correct Answer is. high.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.
Option A. left and right spoilers extending.
Option B. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Option C. left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.
Correct Answer is. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will.
Option A. sink.
Option B. pitch nose down.
Option C. pitch nose up.
Correct Answer is. pitch nose down.
Explanation. Due to the centre of pressure moving aft.
Question Number. 34. Dutch roll is.
Option A. a type of slow roll.
Option B. primarily a pitching instability.
Option C. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Correct Answer is. a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by.
Option A. increasing tailplane incidence.
Option B. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Option C. up movement of the elevator trim tab.
Correct Answer is. decreasing tailplane incidence.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?.
Question Number. 40. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?.
Option A. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Option B. Aspect ratio.
Option C. Fineness ratio.
Correct Answer is. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to.
Option A. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Option B. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder.
Option C. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators.
Correct Answer is. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane.
Option A. may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load.
Option B. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.
Option C. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Correct Answer is. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it
would be necessary to.
Option A. lower the nose.
Option B. keep the pitch attitude constant.
Option C. raise the nose.
Correct Answer is. lower the nose.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?.
Option A. Flap and slat.
Option B. Flap.
Option C. Slat.
Correct Answer is. Slat.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is.
Option A. an increase in gradient with wing speed.
Option B. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Option C. no change in gradient with wing speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease in gradient with wing speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. If an aircraft is yawing left, the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned.
Option A. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Option B. to the centre.
Option C. to the right, moving the rudder left.
Correct Answer is. to the left, moving the rudder right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. Instability giving roll and yaw.
Option A. is longitudinal stability.
Option B. is lateral stability.
Option C. is dutch roll.
Correct Answer is. is dutch roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the.
Option A. pressure to increase, velocity to decrease.
Option B. pressure to increase, velocity to increase.
Option C. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Correct Answer is. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 340.
Question Number. 3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will.
Option A. not change.
Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease.
Question Number. 4. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced.
Option A. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Option B. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Option C. tip stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Correct Answer is. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 45.
Question Number. 5. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will
form.
Option A. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Option B. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber.
Option C. on the upper surface only and move aft.
Correct Answer is. on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Explanation. Shockwaves form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature, gradually moving back.
Question Number. 6. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is.
Option A. subsonic.
Option B. supersonic.
Option C. stationary.
Correct Answer is. subsonic.
Explanation. A dumb question, as the definition of the boundary layer is 'airflow ranges from zero to 99% of free flow speed'
However, by same definition, some flow in the boundary layer is ALWAYS less than Mach 1.
Question Number. 8. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?.
Option A. 20,000 ft.
Option B. 10,000 ft.
Option C. Sea level.
Correct Answer is. Sea level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?.
Option A. Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings.
Option B. Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings.
Option C. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Correct Answer is. Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to.
Option A. turn into a shock wave.
Option B. move rearward.
Option C. move forward.
Correct Answer is. move rearward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and.
Option A. decrease temperature and increase density.
Option B. increase temperature and increase density.
Option C. increase temperature and decrease density.
Correct Answer is. increase temperature and increase density.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11.4.
Question Number. 12. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is thicker than if the aircraft
were travelling slower than.
Option A. Mach 1.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. supersonic.
Correct Answer is. stationary.
Explanation. Boundary layer at supersonic speeds is very thin and considered negligible. Part of it is stationary. b) is the 'best'
answer.
Question Number. 13. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing.
Option A. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Option B. at the leading edge.
Option C. at the trailing edge.
Correct Answer is. at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will.
Option A. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Option B. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Option C. warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded.
Correct Answer is. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Explanation. Mach overspeed warning (aka 'henpecker' - cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit (shown by the barber pole on some
ASIs).
Question Number. 15. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient.
Option A. remains the same.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals.
Option A. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Option B. such as aluminium, become brittle.
Option C. will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved.
Correct Answer is. lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what
would be the most probable cause?.
Option A. Atmospheric conditions.
Option B. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
Option C. Severe head winds.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft reached its critical mach number.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. A Mach Trimmer is a device which.
Option A. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No.
Option B. switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range.
Option C. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Correct Answer is. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is.
Option A. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
Option B. subsonic upstream, sonic downstream.
Option C. sonic upstream and downstream.
Correct Answer is. sonic upstream, subsonic downstream.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to.
Option A. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Option B. decrease boundary layer.
Option C. decrease wave drag.
Correct Answer is. enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. start to increas.
Option C. start to decrease.
Correct Answer is. start to increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be.
Option A. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option B. lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option C. the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Correct Answer is. higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience.
Option A. an oscillation in pitch.
Option B. a nose up pitch.
Option C. a nose down pitch.
Correct Answer is. a nose down pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region, fuel
is pumped.
Option A. backwards.
Option B. forwards.
Option C. sideways.
Correct Answer is. backwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. To make flying controls more effective at high speed.
Option A. vortex generators are used.
Option B. area rule is used.
Option C. area rule is used.
Correct Answer is. vortex generators are used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19.
Question Number. 56. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially.
Option A. near the point of maximum curvature.
Option B. near the point of maximum curvature.
Option C. at the leading edge.
Correct Answer is. near the point of maximum curvature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is.
Option A. 0.005ohms.
Option B. 1/50 ohms.
Option C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8.
Question Number. 3. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?.
Option A. Earthing Strap.
Option B. Bonding Strip.
Option C. Special paint.
Correct Answer is. Bonding Strip.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343.
Question Number. 8. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be.
Option A. 0.25 in wide and 22 AWG.
Option B. 22 AWG.
Option C. 0.5 in wide.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 in wide.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. 3.3.1 (a).
Question Number. 10. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by.
Option A. conductive paint.
Option B. conductive paint.
Option C. bonding strips.
Correct Answer is. conductive paint.
Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5.
Question Number. 11. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.
Option A. longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines.
Option B. frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.
Option C. frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines.
Correct Answer is. frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6. corrected
Question Number. 12. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?.
Option A. Longeron.
Option B. Spar.
Option C. Stringer.
Correct Answer is. Stringer.
Explanation. Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity.
Question Number. 14. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of.
Option A. 600.
Option B. 800.
Option C. 400.
Correct Answer is. 800.
Explanation. Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations.
Question Number. 15. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.
Option A. Pressure cabin.
Option B. Control surfaces.
Option C. Control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. Pressure cabin.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7.
Question Number. 19. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.
Option A. Diverter strips.
Option B. Special paint.
Option C. Special grease on the hinges.
Correct Answer is. Diverter strips.
Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2.
Question Number. 20. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge
read?.
Option A. Centre scale.
Option B. Full scale deflection.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Zero.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.10.2 B.
Question Number. 21. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as.
Option A. bending.
Option B. strain.
Option C. shear.
Correct Answer is. strain.
Explanation. Strain is 'best' of the answers. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent deformation.
Question Number. 26. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by.
Option A. bonding.
Option B. static wicks.
Option C. earthing.
Correct Answer is. bonding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than.
Option A. 22 SWG * 0.25.
Option B. 22 SWG * 0.5.
Option C. 18 SWG for a single wire.
Correct Answer is. 18 SWG for a single wire.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii).
Question Number. 28. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.
Option A. Flying Hours.
Option B. Pressure Cycles.
Option C. Landings.
Correct Answer is. Flying Hours.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. The main forces on an aircraft structure are.
Option A. tension, compression, torsion and strain.
Option B. tension, compression, twisting and shear.
Option C. tension, compression, torsion and shear.
Correct Answer is. tension, compression, torsion and shear.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by.
Option A. conductive paint.
Option B. bonding.
Option C. non-conductive paint.
Correct Answer is. conductive paint.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. A member taking a compression load is called a.
Option A. cable.
Option B. beam.
Option C. strut.
Correct Answer is. strut.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?.
Option A. Semi-monocoque.
Option B. Truss type.
Option C. Monocoque.
Correct Answer is. Semi-monocoque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in.
Option A. feet.
Option B. feet and inches.
Option C. inches.
Correct Answer is. inches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?.
Option A. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Option B. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life.
Option C. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
Correct Answer is. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years,
regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?.
Option A. Fail-safe.
Option B. Condition monitored.
Option C. Safe-life.
Correct Answer is. Safe-life.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary, what action should
you adopt?.
Option A. Upgrade it to primary.
Option B. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary.
Option C. Grade it as secondary.
Correct Answer is. Upgrade it to primary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is.
Option A. Notice 65.
Option B. Notice 79.
Option C. Notice 89.
Correct Answer is. Notice 89.
Explanation. These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747.
Question Number. 48. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the.
Option A. maintenance engineer.
Option B. manufacturer.
Option C. operator.
Correct Answer is. manufacturer.
Explanation. AWN 89.
Question Number. 51. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft,
electricity is discharged through.
Option A. electrically connected primary conductors.
Option B. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint.
Option C. a sprayed coat of conductive paint.
Correct Answer is. electrically connected primary conductors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. A structural member intended to resist compression is a.
Option A. tie.
Option B. strut.
Option C. web.
Correct Answer is. strut.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a.
Option A. safe-life design.
Option B. fail-safe design.
Option C. monocoque design.
Correct Answer is. fail-safe design.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.
Option A. sagging.
Option B. hogging.
Option C. shedding.
Correct Answer is. sagging.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of
the fuselage is.
Option A. fuselage station.
Option B. butt line.
Option C. water line.
Correct Answer is. water line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?.
Option A. Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.
Option B. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Option C. Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain.
Correct Answer is. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as.
Option A. primary.
Option B. tertiary.
Option C. secondary.
Correct Answer is. primary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.
Option A. ANO 25.
Option B. JAR 25.
Option C. CS 25.
Correct Answer is. CS 25.
Explanation. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25.
Question Number. 64. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put
through a series of crash tests. This is to.
Option A. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the
force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).
Option B. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity.
Option C. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
Correct Answer is. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure
the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).
Explanation. JAr25.562 (b) para 5.
Question Number. 7. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?.
Question Number. 9. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.
Option A. Longerons.
Option B. Stringers.
Option C. Skin.
Correct Answer is. Skin.
Explanation. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28.
Question Number. 11. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.
Option A. Aluminium alloys.
Option B. Magnesium alloys.
Option C. Ferrous alloys.
Correct Answer is. Magnesium alloys.
Explanation. CAIPs BL/7-3.
Question Number. 12. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally
used?.
Option A. Lateral alignment method.
Option B. Longitudinal alignment method.
Option C. Steel tape and spring balance.
Correct Answer is. Steel tape and spring balance.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i.
Question Number. 13. Paint remover substances.
Option A. are damaging to some aircraft parts.
Option B. should only be used once.
Option C. should only be used once.
Correct Answer is. are damaging to some aircraft parts.
Explanation. should only be used once.
Question Number. 16. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.
Option A. to seal the cabin.
Option B. to prevent corrosion.
Option C. to provide external streamlining.
Correct Answer is. to seal the cabin.
Explanation. CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7 and http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm.
Question Number. 18. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:.
Option A. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.
Option B. according to SB instructions.
Option C. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.
Correct Answer is. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.
Explanation. Chapter 51 is General Practices.
Question Number. 19. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a.
Option A. jury strut.
Option B. tear stopper.
Option C. shear tie.
Correct Answer is. tear stopper.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.4).
Question Number. 23. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are.
Option A. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.
Option B. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
Option C. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.
Correct Answer is. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
Explanation. BL/6-20 5.
Question Number. 24. What are the types of true bonded joints?.
Option A. Mechanical and specific.
Option B. Mechanical and cemented.
Option C. Mechanical and cemented.
Correct Answer is. Mechanical and specific.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?.
Question Number. 31. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.
Option A. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Option B. Determine the fuel tanks are empty.
Option C. Remove all optional equipment.
Correct Answer is. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and.
Option A. asphalt.
Option B. cellulose.
Option C. acrylics.
Correct Answer is. acrylics.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.
Option A. is easier to manufacture.
Option B. shares the loads.
Option C. takes all the loads in the skin.
Correct Answer is. shares the loads.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.
Option A. longerons.
Option B. frames.
Option C. skin.
Correct Answer is. skin.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.
Option A. failsafe joints.
Option B. secondary joints.
Option C. crack limiting joints.
Correct Answer is. failsafe joints.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be.
Option A. plastic.
Option B. aluminium alloy.
Option C. stainless steel.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.
Option A. too much kinetic energy on landing.
Option B. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.
Option C. an excessive fuel load on take-off.
Correct Answer is. too much kinetic energy on landing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to.
Option A. help bonding for top-coat.
Option B. provide a flexible surface for top-coat.
Option C. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.
Correct Answer is. help bonding for top-coat.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. page 6-8.
Question Number. 41. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member.
Option A. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.
Option B. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location.
Option C. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member.
Correct Answer is. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate.
Option A. humidity.
Option B. temperature.
Option C. toxic gases.
Correct Answer is. humidity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is.
Option A. 1 in 600.
Option B. 1 in 200.
Option C. 1 in 400.
Correct Answer is. 1 in 600.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13.
Question Number. 1. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurized aircraft to.
Option A. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option B. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option C. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Correct Answer is. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Explanation. Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused floor to collapse.
Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter.
Question Number. 2. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have.
Option A. slight shrinkage due to age.
Option B. smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Option C. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Correct Answer is. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Explanation. Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy.
Question Number. 5. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is.
Option A. class B.
Option B. class A.
Option C. class E.
Correct Answer is. class B.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25.857.
Question Number. 7. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?.
Option A. 30°C to 50°C.
Option B. 50°C to 70°C.
Option C. 50°F to 70°F.
Correct Answer is. 50°F to 70°F.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 6.1.
Question Number. 8. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?.
Option A. 104°F.
Option B. 125°F.
Option C. 40°F.
Correct Answer is. 104°F.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6.1 says 40°C, which is 104°F.
Question Number. 9. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?.
Option A. By door stops.
Option B. By the pressure seal.
Option C. Through the latching mechanism.
Correct Answer is. By door stops.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal flight
conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?.
Option A. Outer.
Option B. Inner.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer is. Outer.
Explanation. The inner panel has a small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel.
Question Number. 11. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?.
Option A. By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
Option B. By both front and back legs.
Option C. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle.
Correct Answer is. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle.
Explanation. The back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop.
Question Number. 12. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is.
Option A. PTFE.
Option B. aluminium.
Option C. soft rubber.
Correct Answer is. soft rubber.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3.9.
Question Number. 13. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for.
Option A. expansion of the acrylic due to heat.
Option B. galvanic corrosion of the metal.
Option C. expansion of the metal due to heat.
Correct Answer is. expansion of the acrylic due to heat.
Explanation. AL/7-4 para 4.
Question Number. 15. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by.
Option A. the scratch panel.
Option B. the inner pane only.
Option C. both main panes.
Correct Answer is. both main panes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is.
Option A. to improve on brittle behaviour.
Option B. to enable inclusion of heater film.
Option C. to increase static strength.
Correct Answer is. to improve on brittle behaviour.
Explanation. AL/7-10 3.1.1.
Question Number. 17. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones.
Option A. there should be at least one exit per zone.
Option B. the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
Option C. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed.
Correct Answer is. there should be at least one exit per zone.
Explanation. JAR 25.783.
Question Number. 19. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from.
Option A. Kevlar.
Option B. monolithic Nomex.
Option C. Fibreglass and resin.
Correct Answer is. Fibreglass and resin.
Explanation. AWN 80 Para.2.3 and 4.1.1.
Question Number. 20. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on.
Option A. the number of explosive decompressions.
Option B. the total number of pressurizations.
Option C. the number of negative differential pressure applications.
Correct Answer is. the total number of pressurizations.
Explanation. AL/3-23.
Question Number. 21. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays.
Option A. are unpressurised.
Option B. may be pressurized or unpressurised.
Option C. are pressurized.
Correct Answer is. are unpressurised.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called.
Option A. frames.
Option B. longerons.
Option C. spars.
Correct Answer is. longerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the.
Option A. light microswitches.
Option B. trim.
Option C. catches.
Correct Answer is. catches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in.
Option A. one foot increments.
Option B. half inch increments.
Option C. one inch increments.
Correct Answer is. one inch increments.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to.
Option A. rails.
Option B. tracks.
Option C. stanchions.
Correct Answer is. stanchions.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is.
Option A. locked.
Option B. not fully opened.
Option C. not locked.
Correct Answer is. not locked.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated.
Option A. be electrical ground power.
Option B. by alternate actuators.
Option C. manually by winding.
Correct Answer is. manually by winding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may
be removed by use of soap and water and.
Option A. Methylated spirits.
Option B. Cellulose thinners.
Option C. MEK.
Correct Answer is. Methylated spirits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. not change.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for the
relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of.
Option A. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.
Option B. the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.
Option C. the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing.
Correct Answer is. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?.
Option A. No action is required with this defect.
Option B. Replace the defective window.
Option C. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision.
Correct Answer is. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision.
Explanation. AL/7-10 5.1.6.
Question Number. 38. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have.
Option A. two structural panes.
Option B. one structural pane.
Option C. three structural panes.
Correct Answer is. two structural panes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give
warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a.
Option A. Class 'B' compartment.
Option B. Class 'C' compartment.
Option C. Class 'E' compartment.
Correct Answer is. Class 'E' compartment.
Explanation. JAR25.857 & Transport Category Aircraft Systems, Jeppesen, 9-3.
Question Number. 46. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the.
Option A. frames.
Option B. stringers.
Option C. longerons.
Correct Answer is. longerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by.
Option A. spar cap.
Option B. skin.
Option C. main spar.
Correct Answer is. main spar.
Explanation. The main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.
Question Number. 6. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and.
Option A. leading edge flaps.
Option B. trailing edge flaps.
Option C. slots.
Correct Answer is. leading edge flaps.
Explanation. Slots are fixed features - no linkages, or are produced when the slats open.
Question Number. 10. The principle load bearing members of the wing are.
Option A. spars.
Option B. struts.
Option C. ribs.
Correct Answer is. spars.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 1. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.
Option A. Shear.
Option B. Tension.
Option C. Bending.
Correct Answer is. Shear.
Explanation. A 'web' always takes shear loads.
Question Number. 3. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are.
Option A. spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels.
Option B. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
Option C. spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.
Correct Answer is. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of
the tailplane would be.
Option A. decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Option B. decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge.
Option C. increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Correct Answer is. decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane.
Option A. may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position.
Option B. will decrease tailplane download.
Option C. will increase tailplane download.
Correct Answer is. will increase tailplane download.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by.
Option A. a gearbox.
Option B. solenoid operated clutches.
Option C. direction of rotation of the electric motor.
Correct Answer is. solenoid operated clutches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes.
Option A. if the control column is moved back or forward.
Option B. automatically if the elevator moves.
Option C. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
Correct Answer is. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 1. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly.
Option A. serves as a 'servo' system of balance.
Option B. has same effect of the balance tab.
Option C. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. has same effect of the balance tab.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59, balance tab 1-23 -para 3.
Question Number. 8. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure.
Option A. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
Option B. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
Option C. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Correct Answer is. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.
Option A. Elevator.
Option B. Aileron.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.
Option A. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Option B. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.
Option C. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
Correct Answer is. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Control surface flutter may be caused by.
Option A. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Option B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
Option C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.
Correct Answer is. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.
Option A. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Option B. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Option C. increase stability.
Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.
Question Number. 16. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to.
Question Number. 17. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.
Option A. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.
Option B. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.
Option C. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Correct Answer is. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks.
Option A. provide wing bending relief.
Option B. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing.
Option C. reduce tailplane download.
Correct Answer is. provide wing bending relief.
Explanation. NIL.
11A.04.1. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Supply.
Question Number. 4. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to.
Option A. control the airflow out of the cabin.
Option B. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.
Option C. ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded.
Correct Answer is. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by.
Option A. automatic control devices.
Option B. engine speed variations.
Option C. spill valves.
Correct Answer is. spill valves.
Explanation. AL/3-24 Fig. 3.
Question Number. 7. The function of spill valves is to control.
Option A. air supply to the cabin.
Option B. cabin pressure differential.
Option C. the rate of pressurisation.
Correct Answer is. air supply to the cabin.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.
Question Number. 8. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is.
Option A. to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.
Option B. to give a heating effect.
Option C. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.
Correct Answer is. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.
Question Number. 9. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to.
Option A. ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded.
Option B. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.
Option C. ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude.
Correct Answer is. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by.
Option A. the compressor of the gas turbine engine.
Option B. the gas turbine exhaust.
Option C. the engine exhaust heat.
Correct Answer is. the compressor of the gas turbine engine.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is.
Option A. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.
Option B. constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.
Option C. variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.
Correct Answer is. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?.
Option A. Whatever the captain sets.
Option B. 10 lbs/minute.
Option C. 10 cubic feet/minute.
Correct Answer is. 10 cubic feet/minute.
Explanation. JAR 25.831.
11A.04.2. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Conditioning.
Question Number. 3. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed.
Option A. 40 feet per second.
Option B. 120 feet per second.
Option C. 20 feet per second.
Correct Answer is. 120 feet per second.
Explanation. BCAR Section D6.
Question Number. 10. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?.
Option A. At the outlet of the blower.
Option B. At the inlet to the cabin.
Option C. At the inlet of the blower.
Correct Answer is. At the outlet of the blower.
Explanation. AL/3-24 Figure 3.
Question Number. 11. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?.
Option A. At high altitudes.
Option B. At low altitudes.
Option C. It is not affected by altitude.
Correct Answer is. It is not affected by altitude.
Explanation. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve).
Question Number. 12. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the.
Option A. TCV.
Option B. flow control valve.
Option C. TCV and mixer valve.
Correct Answer is. TCV.
Explanation. b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack temperature control for
amount of hot air bypassing the Air Cycle Machine. b737-300 name the same valve as mixer valve.
Question Number. 13. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions.
Option A. 50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air.
Option B. 60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.
Option C. 40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air.
Correct Answer is. 60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.
Option A. varying cabin pressure.
Option B. extracting heat from the pressurising air.
Option C. adding heat to the pressurising air.
Correct Answer is. extracting heat from the pressurising air.
Explanation. CAIPS AL/3-24 4.
Question Number. 17. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will.
Option A. not contaminate the air.
Option B. contaminate the air.
Option C. not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard.
Correct Answer is. contaminate the air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.
Option A. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.
Option B. driving the units compressor.
Option C. reducing pressure.
Correct Answer is. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.
Explanation. AL/3-24 4.2.2.
Question Number. 20. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be.
Option A. same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating.
Option B. lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating.
Option C. a little more than ambient air temperature.
Correct Answer is. a little more than ambient air temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.
Option A. directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.
Option B. air supply to the cabin.
Option C. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.
Correct Answer is. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.
Question Number. 22. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside
the muffler, this is an.
Option A. exhaust heater.
Option B. combustion heater.
Option C. thermal heater.
Correct Answer is. exhaust heater.
Explanation. AL/3-24 3.3.
Question Number. 23. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is.
Option A. ram air from ambient conditions.
Option B. air bled directly from engine or through blower.
Option C. bled from cabin air supply duct.
Correct Answer is. ram air from ambient conditions.
Explanation. Cooling air for heat exchanger is taken from the ambient ram air which is control by varying opening of the ram air
exhaust louvers. Ref B737-400 AMM 21-00-00 page 8.
Question Number. 24. Conditioned air is.
Option A. oxygen added.
Option B. moisture removed.
Option C. temperature and pressure adjusted.
Correct Answer is. temperature and pressure adjusted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?.
Option A. Throttle switches.
Option B. Undercarriage switches.
Option C. Flap position switches.
Correct Answer is. Throttle switches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use the aircraft engines because you can test the
whole.
Option A. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.
Option B. ground trolley and clean air.
Option C. a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.
Explanation. The ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight
on single pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both left and right engine. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201.
Question Number. 27. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of.
Option A. 60 percent.
Option B. 30 percent.
Option C. 20 percent.
Correct Answer is. 30 percent.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from.
Option A. ram air at the wing leading edge.
Option B. gas turbine intake ram air.
Option C. gas turbine compressor bleed air.
Correct Answer is. gas turbine compressor bleed air.
Explanation. B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system which draw air from the
5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8.
Question Number. 29. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at.
Option A. 12ºC to 18ºC.
Option B. 18ºC to 24ºC.
Option C. 20ºC to 24ºC.
Correct Answer is. 18ºC to 24ºC.
Explanation. B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29 deg C. For alternate
operation when all selectors to OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C.
Question Number. 30. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first passes across an expansion turbine, then directly
to the.
Option A. heat exchanger.
Option B. passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
Option C. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
Correct Answer is. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. The humidity within a passenger cabin should.
Option A. not be less than 60%.
Option B. not be greater than 40%.
Option C. be between 30% and 70%.
Correct Answer is. be between 30% and 70%.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is.
Option A. by compression of ambient air across a turbine.
Option B. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
Option C. by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
Correct Answer is. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34.
Question Number. 34. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than.
Option A. 300 ft/min.
Option B. 25 ft/min.
Option C. 200 ft/min.
Correct Answer is. 25 ft/min.
Explanation. BCAR Section D.
Question Number. 35. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to.
Option A. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.
Option B. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent
moisture precipitation during rapid decompression.
Option C. ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue life of
the fuselage.
Correct Answer is. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to
prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. OR maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.
Explanation. CAIP AL/3-23 para 2.1 says 1) to maintain a safe cabin altitude relative to aircraft altitude. 2) to provide a comfortable
environment when flying at higher altitudes.
Question Number. 36. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by.
Option A. reducing the pressure of a vapour.
Option B. changing a vapour into a liquid.
Option C. changing a liquid into a vapour.
Correct Answer is. changing a liquid into a vapour.
Explanation. AL/3-24 para 13.3.2.
Question Number. 37. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system
flows to the.
Option A. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger.
Option B. turbine.
Option C. fan.
Correct Answer is. fan.
Explanation. Fan' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2.
Question Number. 38. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by.
Option A. engine bleed air or blower air.
Option B. air bled from the main cabin supply duct.
Option C. ambient ram air.
Correct Answer is. ambient ram air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are.
Option A. triangles.
Option B. dots.
Option C. rectangles.
Correct Answer is. dots.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. A cabin humidifier is operated.
Option A. at high altitudes.
Option B. at low altitudes.
Option C. on the ground.
Correct Answer is. at high altitudes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to the air by.
Option A. restricting duct outlets.
Option B. restricting compressor inlet.
Option C. restricting compressor outlet.
Correct Answer is. restricting compressor outlet.
Explanation. We think this is referring to the temperature rise in the ACM compressor, which is done via a centrifugal compressor
(i.e. smaller inlet area to outlet area).
Question Number. 44. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will.
Option A. not affect the charge air pressure.
Option B. increase the pressure but decrease the temperature.
Option C. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.
Correct Answer is. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 1. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. stay the same.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 2. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause.
Option A. it will not effect on cabin pressure.
Option B. the cabin pressure to increase.
Option C. the cabin pressure to decrease.
Correct Answer is. the cabin pressure to increase.
Explanation. The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will
increase. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22.
Question Number. 4. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control.
Option A. the rate of pressurisation.
Option B. cabin air flow.
Option C. cabin differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 5. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the
differential capsule in the pressure controller will.
Option A. have a constant mass flow.
Option B. let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.
Option C. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Correct Answer is. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.3.13.
Question Number. 6. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is.
Option A. 500 ft. per min.
Option B. 100 ft. per min.
Option C. 300 ft. per min.
Correct Answer is. 500 ft. per min.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 9. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be.
Option A. removed.
Option B. all open.
Option C. all closed.
Correct Answer is. all open.
Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.4.
Question Number. 10. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to.
Option A. reset/disable the pressure controller.
Option B. set QFE.
Option C. disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve.
Correct Answer is. reset/disable the pressure controller.
Explanation. The pressurisation system must be controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic control of the valves.
Question Number. 11. In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows.
Option A. cabin pressure altitude.
Option B. aircraft altitude.
Option C. cabin differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-23.
Question Number. 12. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between.
Option A. 8,000ft and standard barometric pressure.
Option B. sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.
Option C. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.
Correct Answer is. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down.
Option A. aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.
Option B. outflow valve opens immediately.
Option C. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.
Correct Answer is. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for.
Option A. constant mass flow.
Option B. pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.
Option C. all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Correct Answer is. constant mass flow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a.
Option A. pressure controller/dump valve combination.
Option B. pressure controller/discharge valve combination.
Option C. discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.
Correct Answer is. pressure controller/discharge valve combination.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 9.
Question Number. 23. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a.
Option A. cabin V.S.I.
Option B. cabin pressure gauge.
Option C. cabin altimeter.
Correct Answer is. cabin V.S.I.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3.
Question Number. 24. Pressurisation control ensures that.
Option A. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.
Option B. pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.
Option C. the cabin is always maintained at sea level.
Correct Answer is. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 25. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be.
Option A. disconnected.
Option B. connected.
Option C. cross connected.
Correct Answer is. connected.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 12.2.5.
Question Number. 26. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.
Option A. discharge valve should be adjusted.
Option B. discharge valve should be adjusted.
Option C. pressure controller should be adjusted.
Correct Answer is. pressure controller should be adjusted.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10.2.2 iv.
Question Number. 27. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the.
Option A. discharge valve closes.
Option B. discharge valve opens.
Option C. mass flow ceases through the cabin.
Correct Answer is. discharge valve opens.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?.
Option A. No.
Option B. Occasionally.
Option C. Yes.
Correct Answer is. Yes.
Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.9.
Question Number. 29. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?.
Option A. Pressure regulator controller.
Option B. Pressure discharge valve.
Option C. Pressure relief valve.
Correct Answer is. Pressure discharge valve.
Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.10.
Question Number. 30. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is.
Option A. most undesirable because of the drag created.
Option B. not effective in any way.
Option C. most desirable because it increases the air-flow.
Correct Answer is. most undesirable because of the drag created.
Explanation. AL/7-11 3.2.2.
Question Number. 32. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained.
Option A. all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere.
Option B. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.
Option C. the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced.
Correct Answer is. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by.
Option A. regulating the position of the outflow valve.
Option B. regulating the position of the inward relief valve.
Option C. regulating the mass flow into the cabin.
Correct Answer is. regulating the position of the outflow valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches
overridden, then the outflow valve will normally.
Option A. open.
Option B. remain closed.
Option C. not operate.
Correct Answer is. remain closed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by.
Option A. the vent valves.
Option B. the outflow valves.
Option C. the dump control valves.
Correct Answer is. the outflow valves.
Explanation. CAIP AL/3-23 para 5.1.
Question Number. 40. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show.
Option A. a rate of climb.
Option B. a rate of descent.
Option C. zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits.
Correct Answer is. a rate of descent.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'.
Option A. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant.
Option B. the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached.
Option C. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.
Correct Answer is. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.
Explanation. AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3.
Question Number. 45. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the
cabin pressure would.
Option A. decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
Option B. remain at ground level pressure.
Option C. decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
Correct Answer is. remain at ground level pressure.
Explanation. AL3/23 Fig 2.
Question Number. 47. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly.
Option A. during descent.
Option B. when cabin pressure is decreasing.
Option C. during ascent.
Correct Answer is. during descent.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that.
Option A. sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin.
Option B. the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached.
Option C. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may
be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent.
Option A. inward relief valve operation.
Option B. pressure controller hunting.
Option C. safety valve operation.
Correct Answer is. pressure controller hunting.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to.
Option A. extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere.
Option B. collect any rain accompanying the ram air.
Option C. extract surplus water from the charge air.
Correct Answer is. extract surplus water from the charge air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of.
Option A. cabin mass air flow.
Option B. outflow valve position.
Option C. inward relief valve position.
Correct Answer is. outflow valve position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. Ditching control is used for.
Option A. rapid aircraft depressurisation.
Option B. closing all valves and inlets.
Option C. deploying life rafts.
Correct Answer is. closing all valves and inlets.
Explanation. NIL.
11A.04.4. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning devices.
Question Number. 1. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by.
Option A. cabin over pressure relief valve.
Option B. altitude sensor.
Option C. bellows in the outflow valve.
Correct Answer is. altitude sensor.
Explanation. CAIP AL/3-23 para 7.
Question Number. 2. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum.
Option A. compressor delivery is automatically boosted.
Option B. an inward relief valve opens.
Option C. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.4.4.
Question Number. 3. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the
heater reset?.
Option A. On ground only by engineer.
Option B. After it cools the pilot resets.
Option C. After cooling below 300°C it auto resets.
Correct Answer is. On ground only by engineer.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features.
Question Number. 7. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding.
Option A. 0.5 p.s.i.
Option B. 1.2 p.s.i.
Option C. 0.16 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 p.s.i.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting.
Option A. inwards relief valves.
Option B. airport altitude selectors.
Option C. safety relief valve.
Correct Answer is. safety relief valve.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 6.1.
Question Number. 9. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?.
Option A. Closed.
Option B. Both position.
Option C. Open.
Correct Answer is. Closed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft.
Option A. to achieve maximum pressure differential.
Option B. to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater.
Option C. to allow controlled pressure during descent.
Correct Answer is. to allow controlled pressure during descent.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5.
Question Number. 13. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of.
Option A. +0.5 PSI.
Option B. -0.5 PSI.
Option C. +9.25 PSI.
Correct Answer is. -0.5 PSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by.
Option A. cabin safety relief valves.
Option B. inwards relief valve.
Option C. spill valves.
Correct Answer is. cabin safety relief valves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?.
Option A. Machmeter.
Option B. VSI.
Option C. ASI.
Correct Answer is. VSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from.
Option A. pitot and static pressures.
Option B. indicated airspeed and altitude.
Option C. indicated air speed and total air temperature.
Correct Answer is. indicated airspeed and altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the.
Option A. Indicated Airspeed Module.
Option B. Mach Module.
Option C. Altitude Module.
Correct Answer is. Altitude Module.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from.
Option A. static pressure only.
Option B. pitot pressure only.
Option C. pitot and static air pressure.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pitot-static leak check?.
Option A. vertical speed indicator.
Option B. Altimeter.
Option C. Air speed indicator.
Correct Answer is. Altimeter.
Explanation. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.
Question Number. 10. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.
Option A. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running.
Option B. Aircraft in the air with both engines running.
Option C. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391.
Question Number. 11. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pitot-static leak check?.
Option A. vertical speed indicator.
Option B. Altimeter.
Option C. Air speed indicator.
Correct Answer is. Altimeter.
Explanation. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.
Question Number. 16. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to.
Option A. move probe down.
Option B. move probe up.
Option C. move probe laterally.
Correct Answer is. move probe up.
Explanation. Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner.
Question Number. 20. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?.
Option A. QFE.
Option B. QNH.
Option C. 1013.25.
Correct Answer is. 1013.25.
Explanation. 1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap III page 592.
Question Number. 22. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from.
Option A. ambient and minus.
Option B. zero and positive.
Option C. zero and positive.
Correct Answer is. ambient and minus.
Explanation. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.
Question Number. 23. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to.
Option A. dampen sudden pressure changes.
Option B. prevent FOD ingestion.
Option C. prevent FOD ingestion.
Correct Answer is. dampen sudden pressure changes.
Explanation. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure.
Question Number. 25. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?.
Option A. Error warning in view.
Option B. Rad. alt. flag in view.
Option C. Rad. alt. goes out of view.
Correct Answer is. Rad. alt. goes out of view.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195.
Question Number. 27. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is.
Option A. below ambient pressure.
Option B. above zero pressure.
Option C. above zero pressure.
Correct Answer is. below ambient pressure.
Explanation. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.
Question Number. 28. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.
Option A. Red, blue, green.
Option B. Yellow, cyan, magenta.
Option C. Red, blue, yellow.
Correct Answer is. Red, blue, green.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290.
Question Number. 29. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________when close to stall.
Option A. thrust levers.
Option B. flap position.
Option C. fast/slow switch.
Correct Answer is. thrust levers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick
release disconnect connection is disturbed.
Option A. a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.
Option B. the allowances for the system should be halved.
Option C. a full test of the system should be carried out.
Correct Answer is. a full test of the system should be carried out.
Explanation. Download TGL No.6 at http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm PAra.8.3.
Question Number. 31. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be.
Question Number. 34. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error -2 degrees. The coefficient C is.
Option A. 0 degrees.
Option B. +2 degrees.
Option C. -2 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 0 degrees.
Explanation. AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0.
Question Number. 35. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is.
Option A. 1 degrees.
Option B. 5 degrees.
Option C. 3 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 5 degrees.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note.
Question Number. 36. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with.
Option A. spirit level.
Option B. an inclinometer.
Option C. an inclinometer.
Correct Answer is. an inclinometer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The apparent wander for directional gyros is.
Option A. compensated by applying a constant torque.
Option B. dependant on longitude.
Option C. maximum at the pole.
Correct Answer is. compensated by applying a constant torque.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for.
Option A. toppling.
Option B. drift.
Option C. erection.
Correct Answer is. drift.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192.
Question Number. 42. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence.
Option A. when parallel to each other.
Option B. when 90 degrees apart.
Option C. when 45 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is. when 90 degrees apart.
Explanation. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence.
Question Number. 43. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.
Option A. Gauge requires re-calibration.
Option B. This is normal.
Option C. Transmitter is unserviceable.
Correct Answer is. Gauge requires re-calibration.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system.
Option A. both are adjusted on each heading.
Option B. master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only.
Option C. master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.
Correct Answer is. master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.
Explanation. Al/10-5 9.2 Note.
Question Number. 46. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?.
Option A. 20 inches.
Option B. 24 inches.
Option C. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass.
Correct Answer is. 24 inches.
Explanation. AL/10-5 9.2.
Question Number. 47. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?.
Option A. Lower.
Option B. Upper.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer is. Upper.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.b737.org.uk/probes.htm
Question Number. 50. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?.
Option A. EICAS.
Option B. Pitot static probes.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. INS.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 128.
Question Number. 51. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake.
Option A. restricts inner gimbal.
Option B. stops outer gimbal.
Option C. restricts outer gimbal.
Correct Answer is. restricts inner gimbal.
Explanation. Used for gimbal lock prevention. Energised off.
Question Number. 55. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?.
Option A. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below
the aircraft.
Option B. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated
capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.
Option C. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb).
Correct Answer is. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it
normally fitted?.
Option A. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft.
Option B. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft.
Option C. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Correct Answer is. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 182.
Question Number. 59. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303.
Option A. 300 ft.
Option B. 200 ft.
Option C. 500 ft.
Correct Answer is. 200 ft.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199.
Question Number. 61. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs.
Option A. slower.
Option B. same speed.
Option C. faster.
Correct Answer is. faster.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings.
Option A. a leak check is not required.
Option B. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Option C. a leak check is always required.
Correct Answer is. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will.
Option A. go hard over.
Option B. be sluggish.
Option C. oscillate.
Correct Answer is. oscillate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?.
Option A. A compass swing must be performed.
Option B. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old.
Option C. The swing can be performed at a later date.
Correct Answer is. A compass swing must be performed.
Explanation. AL/10-5 10.
Question Number. 73. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must
steer.
Option A. 180 degrees.
Option B. 181 degrees.
Option C. 179 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 179 degrees.
Explanation. AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8.
Question Number. 74. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?.
Option A. A measuring device.
Option B. Torque synchro.
Option C. Servomotor.
Correct Answer is. Torque synchro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?.
Option A. Square-Law compensation.
Option B. Hair spring.
Option C. Compensation is not required.
Correct Answer is. Square-Law compensation.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems - Pallett, page 45.
Question Number. 76. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.
Option A. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option C. No effect.
Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 77. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by.
Option A. increasing the rotor speed.
Option B. decreasing the mass of the rotor.
Option C. decreasing the rotor speed.
Correct Answer is. increasing the rotor speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 78. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession.
Option A. increases with a lower rotor speed.
Option B. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed.
Option C. increases with a higher rotor speed.
Correct Answer is. increases with a lower rotor speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 80. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of.
Option A. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option B. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option C. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port.
Correct Answer is. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Explanation. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port.
Question Number. 81. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in
pitch by a.
Option A. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis.
Option B. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis.
Option C. mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings.
Correct Answer is. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft
axis.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for 'athwartship).
Question Number. 82. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected.
Option A. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'.
Option B. during turns.
Option C. when the fast erection button is pressed.
Correct Answer is. during turns.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 bottom.
Question Number. 83. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to.
Option A. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.
Option B. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn.
Option C. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn.
Correct Answer is. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51.
Question Number. 84. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on
because.
Option A. the normal erection switch contact will burn out.
Option B. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur.
Option C. excessive hunting will take place.
Correct Answer is. excessive hunting will take place.
Explanation. AL/10-2 9.3.2 a).
Question Number. 87. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would
be increased if the.
Option A. rotor speed decreases.
Option B. spring tension was increased.
Option C. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases.
Correct Answer is. rotor speed decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be.
Option A. it would over read.
Option B. it would have no effect.
Option C. it would under read.
Correct Answer is. it would under read.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?.
Option A. By a flux take-off device.
Option B. By a switch on the outer gimbal.
Option C. By a switch on the inner gimbal.
Correct Answer is. By a flux take-off device.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78.
Question Number. 91. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?.
Option A. To prevent outer gimbal rotating.
Option B. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.
Option C. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly.
Correct Answer is. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately.
Option A. 4,200 rpm.
Option B. 2,400 rpm.
Option C. 22,500 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 4,200 rpm.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 53.
Question Number. 93. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to.
Option A. 15 sine latitude.
Option B. 15 cosine latitude.
Option C. 15 sine longitude.
Correct Answer is. 15 sine latitude.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 37/8.
Question Number. 94. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon.
Option A. change in resistance to operate.
Option B. change in inductance to operate.
Option C. change in voltage applied to operate.
Correct Answer is. change in resistance to operate.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 50/51.
Question Number. 97. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate.
Option A. slower.
Option B. the same speed.
Option C. faster.
Correct Answer is. slower.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 41.
Question Number. 100. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately.
Option A. 15,000 rpm.
Option B. 15,000 rpm.
Option C. 4,200 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 15,000 rpm.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 46.
Question Number. 102. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates.
Option A. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
Option B. 100 ft/minute rate of climb.
Option C. 100 ft/minute rate of climb.
Correct Answer is. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 24.
Question Number. 103. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to
allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument.
Option A. fifteen minutes should elapse.
Option B. three minutes should elapseq.
Option C. three minutes should elapse.
Correct Answer is. fifteen minutes should elapse.
Explanation. AL/10.2 8.1 c).
Question Number. 104. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to.
Option A. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
Option B. reduce compressibility error.
Option C. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system.
Correct Answer is. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?.
Option A. Running gyro at low speed.
Option B. Inverting the gyro.
Option C. Inverting the gyro.
Correct Answer is. Running gyro at low speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 108. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight,
cause the instrument to indicate.
Option A. zero.
Option B. a rate of climb.
Option C. a rate of descent.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22.
Question Number. 109. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until.
Option A. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force.
Option B. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
Option C. as long as the force is applied.
Correct Answer is. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 116. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in.
Option A. miles per hour (mph).
Option B. hundreds of feet per minute.
Option C. knots (kts).
Correct Answer is. hundreds of feet per minute.
Explanation. (Light aircraft only - large aircraft are 1000s ft/min.
Question Number. 117. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from.
Option A. a tapping from the induction manifold.
Option B. a pitot head.
Option C. a venturi.
Correct Answer is. a venturi.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 40.
Question Number. 118. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a.
Option A. float valve.
Option B. NACA duct.
Option C. self draining non-return valve.
Correct Answer is. self draining non-return valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 120. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is.
Option A. less accurate.
Option B. more instantaneous.
Option C. more accurate.
Correct Answer is. more accurate.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 55.
Question Number. 122. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is.
Option A. descending.
Option B. in level flight.
Option C. climbing.
Correct Answer is. descending.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22/23.
Question Number. 123. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to.
Option A. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
Option B. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply.
Option C. calibrate the instrument concerned.
Correct Answer is. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
Explanation. AL/10-1 15.5.
Question Number. 124. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection, application of
pressure to the pitot head would cause the.
Option A. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb.
Option B. altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Option C. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Correct Answer is. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 125. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause.
Option A. a continual precession in roll.
Option B. a roll error and gyro topple.
Option C. a pitch error and gyro topple.
Correct Answer is. a continual precession in roll.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a.
Option A. rate 3 turn.
Option B. rate 2 turn.
Option C. rate 1 turn.
Correct Answer is. rate 1 turn.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 54.
Question Number. 131. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured.
Option A. in degrees from the desired track.
Option B. in degrees from True North.
Option C. in degrees from the aircraft's heading.
Correct Answer is. in degrees from True North.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to.
Option A. reduce gimbal nutation.
Option B. limit the outer gimbal movement.
Option C. prevent gimbal lock.
Correct Answer is. prevent gimbal lock.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 133. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.
Option A. by a control synchro.
Option B. by a torque synchro.
Option C. by a differential synchro.
Correct Answer is. by a control synchro.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20.
Question Number. 138. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.
Option A. by a differential synchro.
Option B. by a torque synchro.
Option C. by a control synchro.
Correct Answer is. by a control synchro.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give.
Question Number. 141. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will
cause the.
Option A. outer ring to move.
Option B. inner ring to move.
Option C. outer and inner ring to move.
Correct Answer is. outer ring to move.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case.
Option A. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand.
Option B. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
Option C. will not affect the aneroid capsule.
Correct Answer is. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5.
Question Number. 144. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield
level (QFE).
Option A. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
Option B. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A. standards.
Option C. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea level.
Correct Answer is. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 9.
Question Number. 145. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the
atmosphere by.
Option A. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes.
Option B. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
Option C. removing the static connector from its static vent.
Correct Answer is. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 148. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option B. Both vertical and horizontal.
Option C. Vertical.
Correct Answer is. Horizontal.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 8.
Question Number. 150. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the.
Option A. instrument case.
Option B. inner gimbal.
Option C. rotor.
Correct Answer is. instrument case.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5.
Question Number. 151. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of.
Option A. mach number and temperature.
Option B. mach number and temperature.
Option C. airspeed and temperature.
Correct Answer is. mach number and temperatureq.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272.
Question Number. 152. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is.
Option A. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Option B. it does not require pitot/static pressure.
Option C. it does not require warming up.
Correct Answer is. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 27.
Question Number. 153. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
Option A. increases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. remains the same.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 24.
Question Number. 156. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.
Option A. No effect.
Option B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option C. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 159. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the.
Option A. Charle's Law.
Option B. Boyle's Law.
Option C. Brahm's press principle.
Correct Answer is. Brahm's press principle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 160. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is.
Option A. anti-freeze oil.
Option B. castor-oil.
Option C. kerosene.
Correct Answer is. castor-oil.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.bcmsensor.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH.htm
Question Number. 162. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as.
Option A. a tied gyro.
Option B. an earth gyro.
Option C. a rate gyro.
Correct Answer is. a rate gyro.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 52.
Question Number. 164. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?.
Option A. To reduce 'backlash'.
Option B. To return the pointer to zero.
Option C. To act a controlling force.
Correct Answer is. To reduce 'backlash'.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 165. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's.
Option A. attitude rate gyros.
Option B. directional gyros.
Option C. vertical gyros.
Correct Answer is. vertical gyros.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 166. One dot VOR deviation represents.
Option A. 5°.
Option B. 2 miles.
Option C. 1¼°.
Correct Answer is. 5°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 169. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to.
Option A. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure.
Option B. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Option C. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer is. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 170. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to.
Option A. a VOR station.
Option B. an ILS station.
Option C. an ADF station.
Correct Answer is. a VOR station.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 171. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute
pressure, this represents.
Option A. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Option B. 985.3 p.s.i.
Option C. 1,000 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 173. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will read.
Question Number. 176. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the.
Option A. cube root of the speed.
Option B. square root of the speed.
Option C. square of the speed.
Correct Answer is. square of the speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 15.
Question Number. 178. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is.
Option A. accelerating.
Option B. decelerating.
Option C. climbing.
Correct Answer is. accelerating.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13.
Question Number. 179. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to.
Option A. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.
Option B. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
Option C. the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers.
Correct Answer is. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 180. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be.
Option A. less than the ground speed.
Option B. greater than the ground speed.
Option C. equal to the ground speed.
Correct Answer is. equal to the ground speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 181. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed is.
Option A. 400 knots.
Option B. 450 knots.
Option C. 350 knots.
Correct Answer is. 350 knots.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 183. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of.
Option A. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level.
Option B. sound relative to the aircraft's altitude.
Option C. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19, and Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Pallett Page 45.
Question Number. 186. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the
altimeter should read.
Option A. below zero feet (negative altitude).
Option B. zero feet.
Option C. positive altitude.
Correct Answer is. below zero feet (negative altitude).
Explanation. Assuming aircraft is on the ground.
Question Number. 187. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. After passing over
thestation, on the same course, the indications will be.
Option A. 120° and FROM.
Option B. 300° and TO.
Option C. 300° and FROM.
Correct Answer is. 120° and FROM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 188. The command bars in a flight director system indicate.
Option A. the actual path with respect to required path.
Option B. the required path with respect to actual path.
Option C. true horizon.
Correct Answer is. the required path with respect to actual path.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 189. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity.
Option A. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt.
Option B. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.
Option C. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window.
Correct Answer is. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 190. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is.
Option A. the relative bearing.
Option B. the complimentary bearing.
Option C. the magnetic bearing.
Correct Answer is. the relative bearing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 194. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?.
Option A. 550 knots.
Option B. 662 knots.
Option C. 278 knots.
Correct Answer is. 278 knots.
Explanation. True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level.
Question Number. 195. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?.
Option A. 293 knots.
Option B. 296 knots.
Option C. 304 knots.
Correct Answer is. 304 knots.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 14.
Question Number. 197. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of.
Option A. both a) & b).
Option B. an orifice.
Option C. a capillary.
Correct Answer is. both a) & b).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's.
Option A. longitudinal axis.
Option B. both lateral and longitudinal axis.
Option C. lateral axis.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal axis.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 64/65.
Question Number. 202. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would.
Option A. set it to zero datum.
Option B. carry out a new compass swing.
Option C. set it up the same as the one removed.
Correct Answer is. carry out a new compass swing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 203. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is.
Option A. -2 degrees.
Option B. 0 degrees.
Option C. +2 degrees.
Correct Answer is. -2 degrees.
Explanation. AL/10-5 Table 1. This is not he same as a previous question.
Question Number. 204. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of.
Option A. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
Option B. selection of altitude.
Option C. altitude information.
Correct Answer is. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.domingoaereo.hpg.ig.com.br/Boeing727/Manual/warnings.htm
Question Number. 205. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is.
Option A. +/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Option B. +/- 500ft system tolerance.
Option C. +/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Correct Answer is. +/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Explanation. Download TGL No.6 at http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm Para.8.3.
Question Number. 4. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the.
Option A. EHSI & EADI.
Option B. EADI.
Option C. EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI and EADI.
Question Number. 13. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?.
Option A. Four.
Option B. Two.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-36.
Question Number. 20. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?.
Option A. Very High Frequency.
Option B. High Frequency.
Option C. Low Frequency.
Correct Answer is. Low Frequency.
Explanation. Decca navigation is low frequency.
Question Number. 23. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to.
Option A. transport category aircraft only.
Option B. private aircraft.
Option C. aerial work and transport category aircraft.
Correct Answer is. transport category aircraft only.
Explanation. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N.
Question Number. 24. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.
Option A. to allow the pilot to override.
Option B. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway.
Option C. to limit the range of control movement.
Correct Answer is. to allow the pilot to override.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289.
Question Number. 26. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?.
Option A. 3.
Option B. 1.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160.
Question Number. 32. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?.
Option A. Ailerons.
Option B. THS.
Option C. Elevators.
Correct Answer is. THS.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-35.
Question Number. 33. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will.
Option A. increase the angle of incidence of the THS.
Option B. angle of incidence remains the same.
Option C. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.
Correct Answer is. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause.
Option A. column to move and trim system to move.
Option B. column to move but trim system not to move.
Option C. column will not move and trim system will move.
Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
Question Number. 38. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?.
Option A. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second.
Option B. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Option C. Number of pulses per signal.
Correct Answer is. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters.
Question Number. 54. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?.
Option A. Amber.
Option B. Blue.
Option C. White.
Correct Answer is. Amber.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2.
Question Number. 68. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give.
Option A. red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'.
Option B. amber warning.
Option C. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
Correct Answer is. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will show.
Question Number. 74. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in.
Option A. cruise.
Option B. approach.
Option C. take off.
Correct Answer is. take off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for.
Option A. aircraft type.
Option B. location.
Option C. magnetic orientation.
Correct Answer is. location.
Explanation. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose being to tell the
installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all.
Question Number. 77. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:.
Option A. Air speed indicator.
Option B. Pressure altimeter.
Option C. Radio altimeter.
Correct Answer is. Radio altimeter.
Explanation. Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.
Question Number. 80. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?.
Option A. 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path.
Option B. 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.
Option C. 150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline.
Correct Answer is. 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70.
Question Number. 81. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?.
Option A. 108.00 - 117.95 MHz.
Option B. 190 - 1759 KHz.
Option C. 1025 - 1150 KHz.
Correct Answer is. 190 - 1759 KHz.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13.
Question Number. 82. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?.
Option A. By modulation of an audio tone.
Option B. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Option C. By using an alternate frequency.
Correct Answer is. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106.
Question Number. 83. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
(DDRMI)?.
Option A. From ADF only.
Option B. From VOR and ADF systems.
Option C. From VOR only.
Correct Answer is. From VOR and ADF systems.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197.
Question Number. 84. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?.
Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF and UHF.
Option C. VHF.
Correct Answer is. VHF and UHF.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166.htm
Question Number. 85. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?.
Option A. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Option B. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length.
Option C. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band.
Correct Answer is. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Explanation. NIL. http://dspace.dial.pipex.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2.html
Question Number. 86. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather
radar?.
Option A. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Option B. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display.
Option C. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.
Correct Answer is. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.artietheairplane.com/radar.htm
Question Number. 87. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(GPWS).
Option A. Autothrottle.
Option B. Flaps/undercarriage.
Option C. Rudder/ailerons.
Correct Answer is. Flaps/undercarriage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it
operate?.
Option A. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS.
Option B. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies.
Option C. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN.
Correct Answer is. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224.
Question Number. 92. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for.
Option A. as part of the passenger telephone system.
Option B. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically.
Option C. communications between the aircraft and base.
Correct Answer is. communications between the aircraft and base.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. What are the main areas of the autopilot?.
Option A. Error, correction , demand, resolved.
Option B. Error, correction, follow up, demand.
Option C. Error, correction, follow up, command.
Correct Answer is. Error, correction, follow up, command.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a.
Option A. hi tone chime.
Option B. horn.
Option C. Low Tone.
Correct Answer is. hi tone chime.
Explanation. B737.
Question Number. 100. How is the next database on the FMC activated?.
Option A. Manually in the air.
Option B. Manually, on the ground.
Option C. Automatically by due date.
Correct Answer is. Manually, on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?.
Option A. Mode 6.
Option B. Mode 2.
Option C. Mode 3.
Correct Answer is. Mode 2.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9.19.
Question Number. 102. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be.
Option A. Mode A.
Option B. Mode S.
Option C. Mode C.
Correct Answer is. Mode S.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance).
Question Number. 104. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches.
Option A. on inner gimbal ring.
Option B. on both gimbal rings.
Option C. on outer gimbal ring.
Correct Answer is. on inner gimbal ring.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?.
Option A. TA.
Option B. RA.
Option C. either RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 107. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?.
Option A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option B. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Option C. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 114. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight.
Option A. it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
Option B. the failed FMS has a blank screen.
Option C. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.
Correct Answer is. the failed FMS has a blank screen.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406.
Question Number. 115. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?.
Option A. Resolution Advisories.
Option B. Gear position warning.
Option C. Stall warning.
Correct Answer is. Stall warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 116. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of.
Option A. 75 MHz.
Option B. 100 MHz.
Option C. 50 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 75 MHz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311.
Question Number. 117. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to.
Option A. the RMI.
Option B. the ILS system.
Option C. the CDI offset bar.
Correct Answer is. the CDI offset bar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 119. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of.
Option A. 6 satellites.
Option B. 4 satellites.
Option C. 3 satellites.
Correct Answer is. 4 satellites.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as
position. http://www.tycoelectronics.com/gps/basics.asp
Question Number. 120. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?.
Option A. TCAS.
Option B. GPWS.
Option C. altitude alert.
Correct Answer is. GPWS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. When will the decision height aural warning sound?.
Option A. Before decision height.
Option B. At decision height.
Option C. After decision height.
Correct Answer is. At decision height.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must.
Option A. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Option C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 82.
Question Number. 128. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a.
Option A. non-linear force.
Option B. linear force.
Option C. constant force.
Correct Answer is. linear force.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 129. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to.
Option A. 10-2 g.
Option B. 10-6 g.
Option C. 10-3 g.
Correct Answer is. 10-6 g.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A. a single integration.
Option B. a differential followed by an integration.
Option C. two successive integrations.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 81.
Question Number. 134. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a.
Option A. pendulous suspension.
Option B. linear spring.
Option C. force balance system.
Correct Answer is. force balance system.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 76.
Question Number. 135. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted.
Option A. orthogonally.
Option B. parallel to each other.
Option C. 120 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is. orthogonally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option A. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option B. provide attitude reference.
Option C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77.
Question Number. 141. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum.
Option A. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical.
Option B. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
Option C. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Correct Answer is. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 86.
Question Number. 147. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted.
Option A. 120º apart.
Option B. 90º to each other.
Option C. parallel to each other.
Correct Answer is. 90º to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?.
Option A. E.T.A.
Option B. Waypoints.
Option C. Present position.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 151. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made.
Option A. when navigation information is lost.
Option B. when attitude information is lost.
Option C. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays.
Correct Answer is. when navigation information is lost.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 152. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides.
Option A. standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage.
Option B. standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase.
Option C. both when airborne and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. both when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 153. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays.
Option A. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
Option B. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 88.
Question Number. 158. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).
Option A. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.
Option B. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option C. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Correct Answer is. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 160. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the.
Option A. the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
Option B. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Option C. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power down.
Correct Answer is. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 162. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the.
Option A. VHF comm system.
Option B. VHF nav system.
Option C. flight director computer.
Correct Answer is. VHF nav system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 163. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode.
Option A. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course.
Option B. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Option C. comes direct from the compass system.
Correct Answer is. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 164. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the.
Option A. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Option B. difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading.
Option C. selected course counter.
Correct Answer is. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 165. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the.
Option A. VHF nav set.
Option B. DME system.
Option C. VLF nav system.
Correct Answer is. VHF nav set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 166. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is.
Option A. 90 Hz.
Option B. 90 KHZ.
Option C. 150 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 90 Hz.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181, Fig.6.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Page 72, top of L/H column.
Question Number. 167. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser
transmitter, is.
Option A. 150 Hz.
Option B. 90 Hz.
Option C. 90 KHz.
Correct Answer is. 150 Hz.
Explanation. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'.
Question Number. 168. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is.
Question Number. 169. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the.
Option A. equi-signal sector.
Option B. 90 Hz modulation sector.
Option C. 150 Hz modulation sector.
Correct Answer is. equi-signal sector.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 170. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of.
Option A. the horizontal plane.
Option B. the vertical plane.
Option C. distance to touch down.
Correct Answer is. the horizontal plane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 173. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of.
Option A. the vertical plane.
Option B. distance to touchdown.
Option C. the horizontal plane.
Correct Answer is. the vertical plane.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181.
Question Number. 176. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing.
Option A. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
Option B. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation.
Option C. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations.
Correct Answer is. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids, R.B.Underdown and DavidCockburn Page 72.
Question Number. 177. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is.
Option A. 360.
Option B. infinite.
Option C. 180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°.
Correct Answer is. infinite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 181. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable
signals will be.
Option A. in phase.
Option B. 270° out of phase.
Option C. 180° out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 180° out of phase.
Explanation. Aircraft is due South of the station.
Question Number. 182. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.
Option A. dashes.
Option B. dots.
Option C. alternate dots and dashes.
Correct Answer is. alternate dots and dashes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 184. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is.
Option A. 3 miles.
Option B. 3500 ft.
Option C. 7 miles.
Correct Answer is. 3500 ft.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.avionicswest.com/marker_beacon_receiver.htm
Question Number. 189. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is.
Option A. they both have the same sensitivity.
Option B. VOR.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 190. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would
show.
Option A. from.
Option B. no indication.
Option C. to.
Correct Answer is. from.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 191. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?.
Option A. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Option B. Trigger pulse from ground station.
Option C. Discriminator on control panel.
Correct Answer is. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 193. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the.
Option A. left of the control column.
Option B. right of the control column.
Option C. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Correct Answer is. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 133.
Question Number. 194. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning.
Option A. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Option B. switches off after a time interval.
Option C. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.
Correct Answer is. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Explanation. JAR AWO Para 153.
Question Number. 195. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have.
Option A. no decision height.
Option B. a decision height depending on RVR.
Option C. a decision height of 50ft.
Correct Answer is. a decision height of 50ft.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279.
Question Number. 196. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is.
Option A. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Option B. a matter of choice for the operator.
Option C. mandatory.
Correct Answer is. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Explanation. JAR AWO Para 306 b.
Question Number. 197. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will.
Option A. disconnect the autothrottle.
Option B. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
Option C. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
Correct Answer is. disconnect the autothrottle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to.
Option A. supply altitude readout.
Option B. mute coms transmission during transponder operation.
Option C. mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
Correct Answer is. mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 201. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;.
Option A. None of above.
Option B. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon.
Option C. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon.
Correct Answer is. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 203. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by.
Option A. 70 ft.
Option B. 700 ft.
Option C. 7 ft.
Correct Answer is. 700 ft.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200.
Question Number. 204. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Option C. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 205. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option C. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 206. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely.
Option A. capacitive.
Option B. inductive.
Option C. resistive.
Correct Answer is. resistive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 215. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?.
Option A. The airspeed indicator.
Option B. The altimeter.
Option C. The ATC control panel.
Correct Answer is. The ATC control panel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 216. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?.
Option A. 3 (one is used for redundancy).
Option B. 1.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 217. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?.
Option A. Roll.
Option B. Yaw.
Option C. Pitch.
Correct Answer is. Pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 219. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?.
Option A. Take-off.
Option B. Cruise.
Option C. Approach.
Correct Answer is. Take-off.
Explanation. E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph.
Question Number. 221. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use.
Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. VLF.
Correct Answer is. HF.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 222. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must be.
Option A. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC.
Option B. in-phase with other generators and ABC.
Option C. in-phase with other generators and CBA only.
Correct Answer is. in-phase with other generators and ABC.
Explanation. AC generators are paralleled for phase, voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.
Question Number. 5. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system, the phase of the second generator to be
brought on line.
Option A. is unimportant.
Option B. must be in-phase prior to paralleling.
Option C. is important if the first generator fails.
Correct Answer is. is unimportant.
Explanation. The question says it is unparalleled.
Question Number. 6. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the
voltage across the shunt winding?.
Option A. 206V.
Option B. 200V.
Option C. 212V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
Explanation. The 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output is split between the 0.06
ohm and the 100 ohm load, but only by 0.06/100 * 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06 ohm). So the voltage across the shunt winding is
closer to 200V than the other two answers.
Question Number. 8. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming
generators voltage is.
Option A. above bus voltage.
Option B. below bus voltage.
Option C. the same as bus voltage.
Correct Answer is. above bus voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. What does the differential sensing coil sense?.
Option A. Current.
Option B. Power.
Option C. Volts.
Correct Answer is. Current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Where does the GCU gets its power?.
Option A. PMG.
Option B. Battery.
Option C. RAT.
Correct Answer is. PMG.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. PMG is main supply for GCU, battery is back up power for
GCU.
Question Number. 15. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others.
Option A. is unimportant.
Option B. must be BCA.
Option C. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Correct Answer is. is unimportant.
Explanation. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled, thereby
changing the question???).
Question Number. 16. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected
by.
Option A. over-current and under-current protection circuits.
Option B. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.
Option C. over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits.
Correct Answer is. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 49.
Question Number. 17. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by.
Option A. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
Option B. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators.
Option C. automatic load shedding.
Correct Answer is. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
Explanation. Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. Generators are always controlled
by adjusting the field strength.
Question Number. 19. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft.
Option A. carry out a capacity test.
Option B. take the temperature of the electrolyte.
Option C. allow to stabilise for one hour.
Correct Answer is. take the temperature of the electrolyte.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1.
Question Number. 20. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins.
Option A. CD.
Option B. AB.
Option C. EF.
Correct Answer is. EF.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72.
Question Number. 32. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by.
Option A. underfrequency.
Option B. undervoltage.
Option C. overcurrent.
Correct Answer is. undervoltage.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120.
Question Number. 33. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?.
Option A. Bicarbonate of soda.
Option B. Distilled water.
Option C. Boric acid.
Correct Answer is. Boric acid.
Explanation. Boric acid.
Question Number. 34. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent.
Option A. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits.
Option B. large circulating currents developing.
Option C. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines.
Correct Answer is. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 52.
Question Number. 36. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for.
Option A. differential current protection.
Option B. negative sequence protection.
Option C. overload protection.
Correct Answer is. differential current protection.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121.
Question Number. 38. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation.
Option A. must be out of phase prior to paralleling.
Option B. is of no consequence after paralleling.
Option C. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Correct Answer is. must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 48.
Question Number. 40. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will.
Option A. disconnect all power to the main busbar.
Option B. shut down the APU.
Option C. isolate the battery from the main busbar.
Correct Answer is. isolate the battery from the main busbar.
Explanation. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged from the
generator(s).
Question Number. 41. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain
generatoroutputs at the same voltage.
Option A. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators.
Option B. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs.
Option C. to prevent CSD shock loading.
Correct Answer is. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field.
Option A. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output.
Option B. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output.
Option C. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Correct Answer is. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin page 199-200.
Question Number. 43. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate.
Option A. low oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Option B. low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Option C. high oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Correct Answer is. low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50.
Question Number. 44. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by.
Option A. an IDG.
Option B. an hydraulically actuated swash plate.
Option C. a CSD.
Correct Answer is. an hydraulically actuated swash plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of.
Option A. low oil quantity / low oil temperature.
Option B. high oil temperature / low oil pressure.
Option C. High oil temperature / low oil quantity.
Correct Answer is. high oil temperature / low oil pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook , page 7-50.
Question Number. 49. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with.
Option A. Nomex.
Option B. PVC.
Option C. Teflon.
Correct Answer is. Teflon.
Explanation. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition
Page 69. Also AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE).
Question Number. 51. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because.
Option A. it will damage the drive shaft.
Option B. it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators.
Option C. it will trip the GCR.
Correct Answer is. it will trip the GCR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on.
Option A. amplitude of voltage.
Option B. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves.
Option C. time delay circuit.
Correct Answer is. amplitude of voltage.
Explanation. Inverse time delay -c could also be considered correct. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, page 203.
Question Number. 55. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?.
Option A. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted.
Option B. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery.
Option C. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Correct Answer is. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Explanation. B737 switches to trickle charge. However, see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1.32 for charger
disconnect system.
Question Number. 56. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. remain the same.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases.
Question Number. 57. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?.
Option A. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel.
Option B. On the GCU.
Option C. By means of a remote trimmer.
Correct Answer is. By means of a remote trimmer.
Explanation. Adjusted with a remote trimmer.
Question Number. 58. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is.
Option A. by CSU.
Option B. by IDG.
Option C. by angle of swash plate.
Correct Answer is. by angle of swash plate.
Explanation. Control of an HPG is via a swashplate.
Question Number. 62. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial
high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current.
Option A. the battery is faulty.
Option B. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines.
Option C. no cause for concern.
Correct Answer is. no cause for concern.
Explanation. This is normal.
Question Number. 64. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
Option A. It must be replaced.
Option B. It needs topping up.
Option C. It is defective.
Correct Answer is. It must be replaced.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be
expected to power essential equipment?.
Option A. 60 minutes.
Option B. Forever.
Option C. 30 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 30 minutes.
Explanation. AWN 81 para 3.1.2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4.
Question Number. 66. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for.
Option A. ground handling bus.
Option B. the interlock circuit.
Option C. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket.
Correct Answer is. the interlock circuit.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290.
Question Number. 71. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?.
Question Number. 75. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is.
Option A. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option B. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option C. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.
Question Number. 76. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is.
Option A. 144 degrees C.
Option B. 71 degrees F.
Option C. 144 degrees F.
Correct Answer is. 144 degrees F.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 77. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by.
Option A. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage.
Option B. constant voltage.
Option C. constant current.
Correct Answer is. constant voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is.
Option A. fluctuating.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. pulse width modulating.
Correct Answer is. stationary.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.1.
Question Number. 79. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by.
Option A. zeners and transistors.
Option B. transformers and transistors.
Option C. diodes and transformers.
Correct Answer is. zeners and transistors.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1.
Question Number. 80. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by.
Option A. voltage coil.
Option B. current coil.
Option C. voltage and current coil.
Correct Answer is. voltage and current coil.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16, 17, 18.
Question Number. 83. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of.
Option A. real power from the generator that does work.
Option B. apparent power from the generator that does work.
Option C. reactive power from the generator that does work.
Correct Answer is. real power from the generator that does work.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be.
Option A. rotating at idle.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. rotating at Nsync.
Correct Answer is. stationary.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is.
Option A. activation of the time delay circuit.
Option B. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs.
Option C. energise the bus tie relay.
Correct Answer is. activation of the time delay circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the.
Option A. CSD driveshaft had sheared.
Option B. phase sequence detection circuit has operated.
Option C. bus tie interlock is inoperative.
Correct Answer is. CSD driveshaft had sheared.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output
voltage will.
Option A. increases and amperage output increases.
Option B. remain constant and amperage output increases.
Option C. decrease and amperage output increases.
Correct Answer is. remain constant and amperage output increases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 90. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option C. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Correct Answer is. either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 23/26/27.
Question Number. 91. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?.
Option A. Positive to battery relay.
Option B. Positive to external power relay.
Option C. Ground or earth.
Correct Answer is. Positive to external power relay.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 70.
Question Number. 95. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?.
Option A. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit.
Option B. To help plug location/fit.
Option C. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
Correct Answer is. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
Explanation. The short prongs are for DC only. Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett pg 72.
Question Number. 96. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a.
Option A. voltage regulating coil in parallel.
Option B. voltage regulating coil in series.
Option C. current regulation coil in series.
Correct Answer is. current regulation coil in series.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 11.
Question Number. 99. The small pins in the power connector plug are.
Option A. neutral.
Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer is. positive.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70.
Question Number. 100. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit.
Option A. trips after a time delay.
Option B. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
Option C. trips at a set level.
Correct Answer is. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120.
Question Number. 101. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to.
Option A. supply essential services.
Option B. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.
Option C. provide a means of monitoring the load.
Correct Answer is. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81.
Question Number. 102. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is.
Option A. in series with the field windings.
Option B. across the generator output.
Option C. in parallel with the field windings.
Correct Answer is. in parallel with the field windings.
Explanation. EEL/1-2 Page 5, Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11.
Question Number. 103. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for.
Option A. phase sequence monitoring.
Option B. differential protection.
Option C. load monitoring.
Correct Answer is. differential protection.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121.
Question Number. 107. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?.
Option A. Variable AC.
Option B. Slightly variable DC.
Option C. Pulse width modulated DC.
Correct Answer is. Pulse width modulated DC.
Explanation. A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and
one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). The answer here depends upon which output they are
referring.
Question Number. 108. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power
maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?.
Option A. By power fed from static inverter only.
Option B. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only.
Option C. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
Correct Answer is. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. 5.2.
Question Number. 109. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the
generator exciter?.
Option A. Generator line contactor.
Option B. Generator power pilot relay.
Option C. Generator control relay.
Correct Answer is. Generator control relay.
Explanation. Not sure of the point of this question. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the GCU. (Never heard of
a 'generator power pilot relay').
Question Number. 112. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?.
Option A. Under-frequency.
Option B. Under-current.
Option C. Under-volt.
Correct Answer is. Under-frequency.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120.
Question Number. 113. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?.
Option A. Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Option B. Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of
generator fields.
Option C. Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives.
Correct Answer is. Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49.
Question Number. 114. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger
switched off automatically?.
Option A. When the alternators are fully loaded.
Option B. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
Option C. When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system.
Correct Answer is. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 115. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is.
Option A. in parallel with the generator volts coil.
Option B. in series with the generator volts coil.
Option C. in series with the generator field.
Correct Answer is. in series with the generator volts coil.
Explanation. EEL/1-2 Fig 1.
Question Number. 116. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset.
Option A. on the ground only.
Option B. after the fault has been cleared.
Option C. by cycling the generator switch.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 117. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and.
Option A. CBA must equal ABC.
Option B. phase rotation does not matter.
Option C. CBA must equal CBA.
Correct Answer is. CBA must equal CBA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 118. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically.
Option A. bus bar current decreases.
Option B. bus bar current rises.
Option C. bus bar voltage rises.
Correct Answer is. bus bar current decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. The generator warning light will come on when.
Option A. voltage is above battery voltage.
Option B. voltage is too high.
Option C. voltage is below battery voltage.
Correct Answer is. voltage is below battery voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 125. What is the function of the generator control relay?.
Option A. Bring the generator on-line.
Option B. Connect the generator to the busbar.
Option C. Control output voltage.
Correct Answer is. Bring the generator on-line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?.
Option A. Ambient temperature.
Option B. Electrolyte temperature.
Option C. Battery charge.
Correct Answer is. Electrolyte temperature.
Explanation. EEL/1-1 4.3.4.
Question Number. 131. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?.
Option A. By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.
Option B. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal.
Option C. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load.
Correct Answer is. By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23.
Question Number. 132. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system.
Option A. modifies generator field excitation voltage.
Option B. modifies generator field excitation current.
Option C. modifies generator drive speed.
Correct Answer is. modifies generator field excitation current.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 49.
Question Number. 133. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil.
Option A. in parallel with the generator output.
Option B. in series with the generator output.
Option C. in series with the current coil.
Correct Answer is. in parallel with the generator output.
Explanation. EEL/1-2 3.2.1.
Question Number. 134. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to.
Option A. prevent contact pitting and burning.
Option B. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts.
Option C. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.
Correct Answer is. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out.
Option A. during flight.
Option B. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench.
Option C. only off the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. only off the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 137. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?.
Option A. Undercharging current.
Option B. Evaporation.
Option C. Over charging current.
Correct Answer is. Over charging current.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1.3 Page 3 Para 3.4.1.
Question Number. 140. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?.
Option A. A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above
20°C.
Option B. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F.
Option C. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte
temperature.
Correct Answer is. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte
temperature. OR The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F.
Explanation. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.3.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80°F
as the standard, but CAIPs specifies 60°F as standard - take your pick).
Question Number. 141. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant
action in the voltage regulator:-.
Option A. The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field.
Option B. The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile.
Option C. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.
Correct Answer is. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.
Explanation. EEL/1-2 3.1.1.
Question Number. 142. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will.
Option A. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.
Option B. be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled.
Option C. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled.
Correct Answer is. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200.
Question Number. 143. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because.
Question Number. 144. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a
constant voltage source?.
Option A. The total plate area of the battery.
Option B. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
Option C. The state-of-charge of the battery.
Correct Answer is. The state-of-charge of the battery.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes.
Option A. constant current and constant voltage.
Option B. constant current and varying voltage.
Option C. constant voltage and varying current.
Correct Answer is. constant voltage and varying current.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.1.
Question Number. 146. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery
cells that have been in service for time is an indication of.
Option A. normal operation.
Option B. excessive gassing.
Option C. excessive plate sulphation.
Correct Answer is. excessive gassing.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/1-
3 4.2 (h).
Question Number. 147. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area
is likely to result in.
Option A. normal battery service life.
Option B. contamination of both types of batteries.
Option C. increased explosion and/or fire hazard.
Correct Answer is. contamination of both types of batteries.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11.
Question Number. 148. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from
No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow.
Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator.
Option B. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Option C. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Correct Answer is. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive
and.
Option A. it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified.
Option B. resetting can only be carried out on the ground.
Option C. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off.
Correct Answer is. resetting can only be carried out on the ground.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p7-25.
Question Number. 150. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the.
Option A. voltage regulator.
Option B. generator drive torque.
Option C. generator speed.
Correct Answer is. generator drive torque.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 48-49.
Question Number. 151. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication.
Option A. for low speed.
Option B. for low oil pressure.
Option C. for when it is disconnected from the generator.
Correct Answer is. for low oil pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 152. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is.
Option A. in a discharged condition.
Option B. being charged.
Option C. under load condition.
Correct Answer is. in a discharged condition.
Explanation. EEL/1-3 3.4.2.
Question Number. 153. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because
the.
Option A. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates.
Option B. fluid level was not periodically replenished.
Option C. fluid evaporates through vents.
Correct Answer is. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates.
Explanation. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. a) could also be correct.
Question Number. 156. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?.
Option A. By measuring discharge.
Option B. By the level of the electrolyte.
Option C. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
Correct Answer is. By measuring discharge.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6.
Question Number. 157. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?.
Option A. No adverse results since water may be added anytime.
Option B. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output.
Option C. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.
Correct Answer is. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.3.
Question Number. 159. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only.
Option A. when the electrolyte level is low.
Option B. if they are defective.
Option C. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Correct Answer is. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.5.
Question Number. 160. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator.
Option A. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil.
Option B. is connected in series with the carbon pile.
Option C. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises.
Correct Answer is. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 161. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the.
Option A. generator drive torque.
Option B. generator speed.
Option C. voltage regulator.
Correct Answer is. voltage regulator.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48.
Question Number. 164. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out.
Option A. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
Option B. by washing with distilled water.
Option C. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly.
Correct Answer is. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 166. The three voltages of a three phase generator are.
Option A. 120 degrees apart.
Option B. 90 degrees apart.
Option C. 180 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is. 120 degrees apart.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 167. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging.
Question Number. 169. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading willbe.
Question Number. 171. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under
varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the.
Option A. number of conductors in the armature.
Option B. strength of the magnetic field.
Option C. speed at which the armature rotates.
Correct Answer is. strength of the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 172. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will.
Option A. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Option B. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
Option C. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Correct Answer is. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Explanation. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise b is the answer.
Question Number. 173. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery.
Option A. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ.
Option B. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same.
Option C. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals.
Correct Answer is. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 174. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.
Option A. cells begin to gas freely.
Option B. S.G. reaches 1.180.
Option C. S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Correct Answer is. S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.7.
Question Number. 175. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?.
Option A. Standby compass.
Option B. Hydraulic pump.
Option C. Windscreen heating.
Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating.
Explanation. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild.
Question Number. 177. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft.
Option A. the electrolyte temperature must be noted.
Option B. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize.
Option C. the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.
Correct Answer is. the electrolyte temperature must be noted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 179. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of.
Option A. 24 Kw.
Option B. 37.5 kW.
Option C. 30 kW.
Correct Answer is. 24 kW.
Explanation. PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24.
Question Number. 180. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery.
Option A. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
Option B. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the
electrolyte.
Option C. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge.
Correct Answer is. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge.
OR changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 181. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10
hour rate will deliver.
Option A. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand.
Option B. 60 amps for 10 hours.
Option C. 6 amps for 10 hours.
Correct Answer is. 6 amps for 10 hours.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 182. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce.
Option A. 12V with 50 ampere hour capacity.
Option B. 12V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Option C. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Correct Answer is. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 183. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator.
Option A. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
Option B. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current.
Option C. the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator.
Correct Answer is. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 184. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output voltage
will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 185. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be.
Option A. AC at 400 c.p.s.
Option B. AC at 50 c.p.s.
Option C. DC.
Correct Answer is. DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 186. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging.
Option A. a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Option B. an A.C. inverter would be required.
Option C. an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Correct Answer is. an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 187. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option B. 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option C. 24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
Correct Answer is. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 189. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability.
Option A. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips.
Option B. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
Option C. a hydrometer must be used.
Correct Answer is. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 192. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored.
Option A. in a totally dry condition.
Option B. in the fully charged condition.
Option C. in the fully discharged condition.
Correct Answer is. in the fully discharged condition.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 8.
Question Number. 193. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is.
Option A. by checking the voltage of each cell under load.
Option B. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge.
Option C. by checking the specific gravity of each cell.
Correct Answer is. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge.
Explanation. EEL/1-3 4.5.6.
Question Number. 194. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to.
Option A. increasing battery voltage.
Option B. a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator.
Option C. increasing generator voltage.
Correct Answer is. increasing generator voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 197. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-.
Option A. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.
Option B. Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL.
Option C. An audio bell and red PFWL.
Correct Answer is. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 199. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by.
Question Number. 201. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of.
Option A. 80%.
Option B. 90%.
Option C. 50%.
Correct Answer is. 80%.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.energysys.com/defense/documents/aft_manual.pdf
Question Number. 202. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the.
Option A. positive.
Option B. negative.
Option C. positive earth.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 206. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary
to.
Option A. alter the driving speed.
Option B. alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit.
Option C. alter the field current.
Correct Answer is. alter the field current.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 46.
Question Number. 208. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between.
Option A. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Option B. the phase and earth only.
Option C. phases A and B only.
Correct Answer is. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 210. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give.
Option A. 36V 40Ah.
Option B. 12V 120Ah.
Option C. 36V 120Ah.
Correct Answer is. 36V 40Ah.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 211. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give.
Option A. 12V 40Ah.
Option B. 36V 120Ah.
Option C. 12V 120Ah.
Correct Answer is. 12V 120Ah.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 213. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries.
Option A. add water to acid.
Option B. add acid to water.
Option C. the method of mixing is unimportant.
Correct Answer is. add acid to water.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 215. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the.
Option A. efficiency.
Option B. power factor.
Option C. power rating.
Correct Answer is. power factor.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 3.
Question Number. 217. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?.
Option A. 20V.
Option B. 24V.
Option C. 22V.
Correct Answer is. 22V.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 218. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.
Option A. speed.
Option B. voltage.
Option C. current.
Correct Answer is. current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 219. When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each.
Option A. must be in opposition to one another.
Option B. must be synchronized.
Option C. is unimportant.
Correct Answer is. is unimportant.
Explanation. It says 'UNparalleled'.
Question Number. 222. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.
Option A. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
Option B. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
Option C. The maximum load permitted is 32KW.
Correct Answer is. The maximum load permitted is 32KW.
Explanation. PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 * 0.8 = 32 KW.
Question Number. 224. A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which.
Option A. only rotates during starting.
Option B. only rotates after starting.
Option C. provides initial excitation.
Correct Answer is. provides initial excitation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 225. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same.
Option A. frequency, RPM and phase relationship.
Option B. frequency, voltage and phase relationship.
Option C. frequency, RPM and speed.
Correct Answer is. frequency, voltage and phase relationship.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 228. The real load of an alternator is directly related to.
Option A. output shaft rpm.
Option B. output shaft torque.
Option C. output voltage.
Correct Answer is. output shaft torque.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48.
Question Number. 229. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is available
from the voltage regulator?.
Option A. A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line.
Option B. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles.
Option C. Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence.
Correct Answer is. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 232. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase
relationship is.
Option A. not the same.
Option B. the outputs are constant.
Option C. the same.
Correct Answer is. not the same.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 233. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be synchronised when.
Question Number. 234. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency.
Option A. cannot be checked.
Option B. can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel.
Option C. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator.
Correct Answer is. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 235. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of.
Option A. disconnection of the other alternators.
Option B. ground power disconnection.
Option C. crash engagement.
Correct Answer is. crash engagement.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 236. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?.
Option A. Low oil temperature and low oil press.
Option B. Low oil press and CSD speed.
Option C. Hi oil temperature and low oil press.
Correct Answer is. Hi oil temperature and low oil press.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 238. An external ground power supply can be used for.
Option A. only the ground handling busbar services.
Option B. all normal services required by flight and ground crew.
Option C. only the emergency busbar services.
Correct Answer is. all normal services required by flight and ground crew.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 245. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?.
Option A. Cell is defective, replace the battery.
Option B. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water.
Option C. Replace the defective cell.
Correct Answer is. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 1. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under.
Option A. Class C.
Option B. Class D.
Option C. Class B.
Correct Answer is. Class D.
Explanation. JAR 25.857.
Question Number. 2. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with.
Option A. oxygen.
Option B. helium.
Option C. CO2.
Correct Answer is. CO2.
Explanation. All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2.
Question Number. 3. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be.
Option A. 4 inches.
Option B. 3 inches.
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is. 3 inches.
Explanation. AWN 64 Para 4.3 (now in CAP747).
Question Number. 5. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is.
Option A. 15.
Option B. dependant upon aircraft type.
Option C. 24.
Correct Answer is. 15.
Explanation. JAR 25.815.
Question Number. 7. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?.
Option A. AWN 99.
Option B. BCARs.
Option C. ANO.
Correct Answer is. AWN 99.
Explanation. CAP 747.
Question Number. 10. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?.
Option A. JARs.
Option B. Cabin safety on-board card.
Option C. Cabin operations manual.
Correct Answer is. Cabin operations manual.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment will.
Option A. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.
Option B. be briefed by the cabin crew.
Option C. have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket.
Correct Answer is. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?.
Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7.
Option B. Schedule 4 of the ANO.
Option C. Airworthiness Notice 79.
Correct Answer is. Schedule 4 of the ANO.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:.
Option A. 1 megaphone is required.
Option B. 3 megaphones are required.
Option C. 2 megaphones are required.
Correct Answer is. 2 megaphones are required.
Explanation. JAR Ops 1.810.
Question Number. 15. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of.
Option A. 15g.
Option B. 9g.
Option C. 12g.
Correct Answer is. 9g.
Explanation. JAR 25.561 and 25.1421.
Question Number. 1. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?.
Option A. 28 inches.
Option B. 24 inches.
Option C. 26 inches.
Correct Answer is. 26 inches.
Explanation. AWN 64 Para 4.1.
Question Number. 5. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called.
Option A. controlled equipment.
Option B. uncontrolled equipment.
Option C. minimum equipment.
Correct Answer is. uncontrolled equipment.
Explanation. AWN 99 4.1, 4.2.
Question Number. 8. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above.
Option A. 65°C.
Option B. 55°C.
Option C. 45°C.
Correct Answer is. 45°C.
Explanation. CAP 455 AWN No.99 5.2.
Question Number. 10. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light.
Question Number. 11. On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by.
Option A. rope.
Option B. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.
Option C. netting.
Correct Answer is. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as.
Option A. an uncontrolled item.
Option B. a controlled item.
Option C. neither, as it is removable.
Correct Answer is. a controlled item.
Explanation. AWN99 Para 4.1.
Question Number. 13. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is.
Option A. 7 inches.
Option B. 3 inches.
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is. 3 inches.
Explanation. CAP 747 GR No.2 Dimension C.
Question Number. 2. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to.
Option A. 1250 psi.
Option B. 600 psi.
Option C. 1500 psi.
Correct Answer is. 600 psi.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage 166";.
Question Number. 3. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a.
Option A. class A compensation.
Option B. class D compensation.
Option C. class B compensation.
Correct Answer is. class B compensation.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25.857.
Question Number. 5. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when.
Option A. the system and the extinguishing system are the same.
Option B. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same.
Option C. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different.
Correct Answer is. the system and the extinguishing system are the same.
Explanation. JAR 25 1203 f2.
Question Number. 6. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out.
Option A. a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning.
Option B. it checks the integrity of the contacts.
Option C. the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning.
Correct Answer is. it checks the integrity of the contacts.
Explanation. Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner system.This is the same system
the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2.2.4 in para d.
Question Number. 12. What external warning is there for an APU fire?.
Option A. Aural.
Option B. Both aural and a red light.
Option C. Red light.
Correct Answer is. Both aural and a red light.
Explanation. AL/3-26 2.8.
Question Number. 13. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by.
Option A. AC or DC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out.
Option A. every two years.
Option B. every five years.
Option C. only when equipment items fail random tests.
Correct Answer is. only when equipment items fail random tests.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?.
Option A. Volts drop.
Option B. Dirty contacts.
Option C. Integrity comparator.
Correct Answer is. Dirty contacts.
Explanation. EEL/1-7 2.2.4 (d).
Question Number. 18. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done.
Option A. every 2 years.
Option B. when a sample fails.
Option C. every 5 years.
Correct Answer is. when a sample fails.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?.
Option A. Bottles are fired.
Option B. Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage.
Option C. A continuity check.
Correct Answer is. A continuity check.
Explanation. Trick question. A continuity check is carried out - with a safety ohmmeter. But a safety ohmmeter does not check
voltage.
Question Number. 20. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?.
Option A. Continuity.
Option B. Pressure.
Option C. Capacitance increase.
Correct Answer is. Pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System.
Question Number. 21. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in.
Option A. AWN 83.
Option B. CAAIPs.
Option C. AWN 80.
Correct Answer is. AWN 83.
Explanation. AWN 83 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 20.
Question Number. 23. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class.
Option A. A.
Option B. D.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.
Explanation. JAR 25.857.
Question Number. 25. In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?.
Option A. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin.
Option B. Light in the cabin.
Option C. Audible warning in the cabin.
Correct Answer is. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin.
Explanation. JAR 25.854.
Question Number. 26. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?.
Option A. The firewire, sensor & controller.
Option B. The outside of the firewire to earth.
Option C. The firewire.
Correct Answer is. The firewire.
Explanation. Pallets Aircraft Electrical System Third Edition page 163 fig 10.17.
Question Number. 1. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?.
Option A. 3 BCF.
Option B. 4 Fire Extinguishers.
Option C. 4 Methyl Bromide.
Correct Answer is. 4 Fire Extinguishers.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.790, AWN 60.
Question Number. 2. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?.
Option A. Bi-annually.
Option B. Every 5 years.
Option C. Annually.
Correct Answer is. Annually.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3 and 7.1.
Question Number. 7. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 5.
Correct Answer is. 6.
Explanation. JAR 25.851.
Question Number. 1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the
main control surface.
Option A. would not prevent movement of the control column.
Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind.
Option C. would also prevent movement of the control column.
Correct Answer is. would not prevent movement of the control column.
Explanation. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, Second Edition Page 253 (first line).
Question Number. 5. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted.
Option A. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Option B. the secondary stops have been over-ridden.
Option C. the secondary stops will just be in contact.
Correct Answer is. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops.
Question Number. 6. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of.
Option A. excessive cable tension.
Option B. pulley misalignment.
Option C. cable misalignment.
Correct Answer is. pulley misalignment.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-45.
Question Number. 7. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed.
Option A. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude.
Option B. with the aileron in the neutral position.
Option C. with the aileron in the down position.
Correct Answer is. with the aileron in the neutral position.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-40.
Question Number. 10. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is
restricted.
Option A. would make no difference to the movement.
Option B. for 'down' travel movement.
Option C. for 'up' travel movement.
Correct Answer is. for 'up' travel movement.
Explanation. Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction range.
Question Number. 14. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will.
Option A. decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Option B. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Option C. keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant.
Correct Answer is. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Explanation. Could also be answered 'b', depending on whether it means the cause or the effect. The downgoing aileron (the right
one) has an increase in AoA locally, which makes the wing lift, thusreducing the AoA of the wing as a whole. Choose your
interpretation.
Question Number. 15. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will.
Question Number. 16. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with.
Option A. integrated fuel monitoring system.
Option B. symmetrical flight control trim.
Option C. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical flight control trim.
Explanation. Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29.
Question Number. 18. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the
control surface and the balance tabs.
Option A. would prevent the movement of the control column.
Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible.
Option C. would not prevent the movement of the control column.
Correct Answer is. would prevent the movement of the control column.
Explanation. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-29.
Question Number. 19. The two switches for pitch trim are located.
Option A. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
Option B. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.
Option C. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch.
Correct Answer is. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
Explanation. The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage the clutch. The
other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to operate the trim.
Question Number. 20. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be.
Option A. flap tracks out of rigging.
Option B. bearing seized.
Option C. flap motor internal leakage.
Correct Answer is. flap motor internal leakage.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19.
Question Number. 21. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by.
Option A. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another.
Option B. operation of the elevator.
Option C. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2.
Question Number. 24. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?.
Option A. Droop.
Option B. Remain in last position.
Option C. Go to neutral.
Correct Answer is. Droop.
Explanation. "The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston to the
other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually controlled surfaces."
Question Number. 25. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by.
Option A. fitting a tachogenerator.
Option B. feedback from the servo motor.
Option C. feedback from control surface.
Correct Answer is. fitting a tachogenerator.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd edition, page-157 (feedback, para 2).
Question Number. 26. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by.
Option A. 4%.
Option B. 7%.
Option C. 10.321%.
Correct Answer is. 7%.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Edition Page-370.
Question Number. 29. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the.
Option A. flight augmentation computer.
Option B. flight control computer.
Option C. flight management and guidance computer.
Correct Answer is. flight control computer.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.
Question Number. 30. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?.
Option A. Flight control computer.
Option B. Flight augmentation computer.
Option C. Flight management computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.
Question Number. 34. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to.
Option A. protect the servo motor.
Option B. damp the system oscillation.
Option C. prevent control surface runaway.
Correct Answer is. prevent control surface runaway.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle.
Question Number. 35. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on
ground and.
Option A. brakes are deployed.
Option B. thrust reversers are deployed.
Option C. weight on ground switch is activated.
Correct Answer is. thrust reversers are deployed.
Explanation. A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram - also. http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm.
Question Number. 36. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the.
Option A. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Option B. electric flight control unit.
Option C. Flight Guidance and Management Computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.
Question Number. 37. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to.
Option A. prevent nose pitching down.
Option B. prevent nose pitching up.
Option C. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer is. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?.
Option A. During manual control only.
Option B. During either manual or automatic control.
Option C. During automatic control only.
Correct Answer is. During either manual or automatic control.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 - 226.
Question Number. 43. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power.
Option A. servos lock at last position.
Option B. servos remain stationary and provide damping.
Option C. servos move to neutral and lock.
Correct Answer is. servos remain stationary and provide damping.
Explanation. A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual.
Question Number. 44. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate.
Option A. operation of the trim controls is required.
Option B. autopilot need not be engaged.
Option C. autopilot must be engaged.
Correct Answer is. autopilot need not be engaged.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 213 - 218.
Question Number. 45. In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached.
Option A. both ailerons are down.
Option B. one is up one is down.
Option C. the ailerons are faired.
Correct Answer is. the ailerons are faired.
Explanation. Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability, the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn.
Question Number. 48. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in.
Option A. spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Option B. ailerons moving symmetrically upward.
Option C. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?.
Option A. Mach/Speed Trim.
Option B. Pitch Trim.
Option C. Electric Trim.
Correct Answer is. Mach/Speed Trim.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to.
Option A. increasing the sensitivity of the control system.
Option B. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.
Option C. prevent overloading of the power control units.
Correct Answer is. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that
it must be.
Option A. operated by the standby hydraulic system.
Option B. automatic and instantaneous.
Option C. possible, but not recommended.
Correct Answer is. automatic and instantaneous.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by.
Option A. travel of the jack body.
Option B. mechanical stops in the control system.
Option C. travel of the jack ram.
Correct Answer is. mechanical stops in the control system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. elevator.
Correct Answer is. elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the.
Option A. elevato.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. ailerons.
Correct Answer is. rudder.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is.
Option A. to provide pressure to operate the control.
Option B. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.
Option C. to revert the system to manual operation.
Correct Answer is. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38.
Question Number. 67. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. elevator.
Option C. rudder.
Correct Answer is. ailerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit.
Option A. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Option B. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.
Option C. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability.
Correct Answer is. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by.
Option A. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops.
Option B. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.
Option C. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops.
Correct Answer is. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this
may be compensated for by.
Option A. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.
Option B. use of the rudder control.
Option C. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators.
Correct Answer is. use of the rudder control.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a.
Option A. split flap.
Option B. plain flap.
Option C. Fowler flap.
Correct Answer is. Fowler flap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?.
Option A. Split flap.
Option B. Slotted flap.
Option C. Fowler flap.
Correct Answer is. Fowler flap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?.
Option A. Tailplane.
Option B. Elevator.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Tailplane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 77. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction
to the control surface is called a.
Option A. trim tab.
Option B. servo tab.
Option C. geared balance tab.
Correct Answer is. geared balance tab.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence,
or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?.
Option A. Wheel brakes.
Option B. Air brakes.
Option C. Lift dumpers.
Correct Answer is. Air brakes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. elevators.
Option C. rudder.
Correct Answer is. ailerons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?.
Question Number. 81. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control
surfaces.
Option A. stay at neutral.
Option B. droop.
Option C. remain in the position they were when power was removed.
Correct Answer is. droop.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by.
Option A. Q feel.
Option B. air loads on the control surfaces.
Option C. stretching springs.
Correct Answer is. air loads on the control surfaces.
Explanation. AL/3-7 8.1 and 8.2.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power 'operated'controls use a Q feel
system.
Question Number. 87. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed.
Option A. pitch trim is not affected.
Option B. no yaw takes place.
Option C. roll will not occur.
Correct Answer is. pitch trim is not affected.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft.
Option A. because at low level air density is high.
Option B. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.
Option C. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 93. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to.
Option A. the control system computer.
Option B. the hydraulic actuator.
Option C. the pilots input.
Correct Answer is. the hydraulic actuator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to.
Option A. prevent inadvertent operation.
Option B. lock the speed brakes down during flight.
Option C. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown.
Correct Answer is. prevent inadvertent operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 95. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of.
Option A. yawing.
Option B. rolling.
Option C. pitch changes.
Correct Answer is. rolling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads.
Option A. greater than 75%.
Option B. greater than 50%.
Option C. greater than 90%.
Correct Answer is. greater than 75%.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 98. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left.
Option A. the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down.
Option B. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.
Option C. the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down.
Correct Answer is. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. If the control column is moved forward and to the left.
Option A. left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down.
Option B. left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.
Option C. left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up.
Correct Answer is. left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.
Option A. left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted.
Option B. right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.
Option C. both spoilers extending.
Correct Answer is. right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 103. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an
aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will.
Option A. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.
Option B. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree.
Option C. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up.
Correct Answer is. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the
trim tab?.
Option A. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down.
Option B. The elevator trim tab has moved up.
Option C. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
Correct Answer is. The elevator trim tab has moved down.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from.
Option A. brass.
Option B. stainless steel.
Option C. Tufnol or aluminium alloy.
Correct Answer is. Tufnol or aluminium alloy.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to.
Question Number. 108. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's.
Option A. pitch Frequency.
Option B. roll frequency.
Option C. dutch roll frequency.
Correct Answer is. dutch roll frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall.
Option A. flap position.
Option B. fast/slow switch.
Option C. throttle lever.
Correct Answer is. throttle lever.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the.
Option A. aircraft tends to go nose down.
Option B. aircraft tends to go nose up.
Option C. aircraft tends to roll to the right.
Correct Answer is. aircraft tends to go nose up.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 113. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by.
Option A. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.
Option B. increasing the altitude of the aircraft.
Option C. decreasing the velocity of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by.
Option A. bolts.
Option B. contact adhesive.
Option C. press type rivets.
Correct Answer is. press type rivets.
Explanation. AL/3-15 4.1.3 says press studs or cords.
Question Number. 11. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with.
Option A. tanks completely full.
Option B. tanks completely empty.
Option C. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
Correct Answer is. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
Explanation. AL/10-3 11.14.1.e.
Question Number. 12. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at.
Option A. tank outlet.
Option B. engine inlet.
Option C. tank shut-off valve point.
Correct Answer is. engine inlet.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place.
Option A. below the fungal colonies.
Option B. the top of the tank.
Option C. the bottom 2 inches of the tank.
Correct Answer is. below the fungal colonies.
Explanation. AL/3-15 para 8.3.
Question Number. 14. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to.
Option A. shut off fuel before structural damage.
Option B. provide overflow facility to dump fuel.
Option C. stop engine from using tank during transfer.
Correct Answer is. shut off fuel before structural damage.
Explanation. JAR 25.957.
Question Number. 19. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from.
Option A. tank to tank.
Option B. left tank to right tank.
Option C. any tank to any engine.
Correct Answer is. any tank to any engine.
Explanation. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1.
Question Number. 20. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?.
Option A. An anti-corona device.
Option B. A corona device.
Option C. A nozzle.
Correct Answer is. An anti-corona device.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?.
Option A. Depends on altitude.
Option B. Increases.
Option C. Decreases.
Correct Answer is. Decreases.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 353.
Question Number. 22. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should.
Option A. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out.
Option B. be full.
Option C. be empty.
Correct Answer is. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out.
Explanation. AL/3-15 9.3.
Question Number. 24. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is.
Option A. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently.
Option B. to ensure that all available fuel can be used.
Option C. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination.
Correct Answer is. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 6.17.
Question Number. 25. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates.
Option A. pump failure.
Option B. the tank does not pressurise.
Option C. ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail.
Correct Answer is. ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A fuel tank suction valve will open when.
Option A. the booster pump fails.
Option B. both the engine driven and booster pump fail.
Option C. the engine driven pump fails.
Correct Answer is. the booster pump fails.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up.
Option A. ram air is circulated around the tank.
Option B. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted.
Option C. cabin air is bled around the tank.
Correct Answer is. cabin air is bled around the tank.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show.
Option A. amber and in line.
Option B. amber and cross line.
Option C. green and in line.
Correct Answer is. amber and cross line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to
leaks?.
Option A. Rigid.
Option B. Integral.
Option C. Flexible.
Correct Answer is. Integral.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this
could be caused by.
Option A. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.
Option B. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed.
Option C. fuel leaking past the inlet screens.
Correct Answer is. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on.
Option A. fuel tank vent pipes.
Option B. fuel jettison system.
Option C. the APU fuel feed.
Correct Answer is. fuel tank vent pipes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would.
Option A. close the cross bleed valve.
Option B. close the HP fuel lock.
Option C. pull the fire handle.
Correct Answer is. pull the fire handle.
Explanation. After first pulling teh firebottle CBs.
Question Number. 36. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a.
Option A. stain.
Option B. seep.
Option C. run.
Correct Answer is. run.
Explanation. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5.4.1.
Question Number. 37. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be
wetted with.
Option A. Water.
Option B. Methylated Spirit.
Option C. Kerosene.
Correct Answer is. Water.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to.
Option A. prevent the centre from being defuelled.
Option B. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks.
Option C. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time.
Correct Answer is. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they.
Option A. are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.
Option B. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.
Option C. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.
Correct Answer is. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using.
Option A. a parallel system.
Option B. the same system for each engine.
Option C. a separate system for each engine.
Correct Answer is. the same system for each engine.
Explanation. "This question can be interpreted an many ways, and all three answers arguably correct.
However, based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank, we have interpreted it as 'every engine is fed
from the same system'."
Question Number. 5. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.
Option A. In the pressure line.
Option B. In the suction line.
Option C. In the case drain.
Correct Answer is. In the case drain.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8.
Question Number. 11. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of.
Option A. natural rubber.
Option B. synthetic rubber.
Option C. butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.
Correct Answer is. butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3.3.1.
Question Number. 12. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in.
Option A. acidity.
Option B. alkalinity.
Option C. viscosity.
Correct Answer is. acidity.
Explanation. Overheating causes acidity.
Question Number. 14. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being
used?.
Option A. Pressure relief valve.
Option B. Return line back to pump.
Option C. ACOV.
Correct Answer is. ACOV.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 12.2.
Question Number. 15. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by.
Option A. restriction valve.
Option B. angle of swashplate.
Option C. IDG.
Correct Answer is. angle of swashplate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?.
Option A. Vent to atmosphere.
Option B. Pass through a restriction.
Option C. Pass over a tray.
Correct Answer is. Pass over a tray.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts.
Option A. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block.
Option B. Swash Plate & Valve Block.
Option C. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.
Correct Answer is. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.
Explanation. AL/3-21 Figure 2.
Question Number. 32. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is
to."
Option A. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation.
Option B. absorb pressure surges.
Option C. relieve excess pressure.
Correct Answer is. absorb pressure surges.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to.
Option A. prevent a leak back of pressure.
Option B. prevent excess temperature.
Option C. relieve excess pressure.
Correct Answer is. relieve excess pressure.
Explanation. Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature.
Question Number. 34. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is.
Option A. accumulator.
Option B. engine driven pump.
Option C. selector.
Correct Answer is. accumulator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to.
Option A. restrict the rate of pressure build up.
Option B. control the rate of system operation.
Option C. limit the maximum pressure.
Correct Answer is. control the rate of system operation.
Explanation. AL/3-21 6.2.
Question Number. 37. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of.
Option A. landing gear and doors.
Option B. safety switches.
Option C. brake anti-skid units.
Correct Answer is. landing gear and doors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to.
Option A. facilitate bleeding of the system.
Option B. allow a full flow from the valve.
Option C. prevent incorrect installation.
Correct Answer is. prevent incorrect installation.
Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10.
Question Number. 40. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. When the hydraulic system
pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure is.
Option A. 4000 PSI.
Option B. 3000 PSI.
Option C. 1000 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by.
Option A. low accumulator pressure.
Option B. moisture in the fluid.
Option C. relief valve set too high.
Correct Answer is. low accumulator pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the.
Option A. two NRVS fitted.
Option B. relief valve.
Option C. piston ram displacement.
Correct Answer is. two NRVS fitted.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6.
Question Number. 43. During a leak test of an hydraulic system, system pressure.
Option A. is not important.
Option B. must be minimum working.
Option C. must be at maximum.
Correct Answer is. must be at maximum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator.
Option A. the reservoir must be checked for correct level.
Option B. the fluid pressure must be released.
Option C. all air must be bled from the system.
Correct Answer is. the fluid pressure must be released.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an.
Option A. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.
Option B. accumulator and shuttle valve.
Option C. accumulator and relay valve.
Correct Answer is. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?.
Option A. Butyl Rubber.
Option B. Synthetic Rubber.
Option C. Natural Rubber.
Correct Answer is. Butyl Rubber.
Explanation. AL/3-21 3.3.
Question Number. 59. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures.
Option A. a pressure reducing valve is used.
Option B. a pressure regulating valve is used.
Option C. a pressure relief valve is used.
Correct Answer is. a pressure reducing valve is used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to.
Option A. area * volume.
Option B. area * pressure.
Option C. pressure * stroke.
Correct Answer is. area * pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure.
Question Number. 63. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with.
Option A. a fixed volume pump.
Option B. pressures above 3000 PSI.
Option C. a variable volume pump.
Correct Answer is. a fixed volume pump.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?.
Option A. 7°F at 100 PSI.
Option B. 70°C at 100 PSI.
Option C. 70°F at 10 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 70°C at 100 PSI.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-3 5.2.2.
Question Number. 6. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must.
Option A. remove all paint.
Option B. paint the surface.
Option C. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
Correct Answer is. remove all paint.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 4.2.2.
Question Number. 9. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck.
Option A. goes out immediately.
Option B. goes out after one more cycle.
Option C. goes out after a set period of time.
Correct Answer is. goes out after a set period of time.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-6 3.4.1.
Question Number. 11. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to.
Option A. provide smoother airflow over leading edge.
Option B. prevent electrical static build up.
Option C. provide more efficient deicer cycles.
Correct Answer is. prevent electrical static build up.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. In which case the answer is b).
Question Number. 15. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at.
Option A. blade attachment end.
Option B. centre point of the blade.
Option C. the shaft end.
Correct Answer is. the shaft end.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense,
tough and sticks closely to the surface is called.
Option A. glaze Ice.
Option B. rime Ice.
Option C. hoar Frost.
Correct Answer is. glaze Ice.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by.
Option A. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Option B. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Option C. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett, page 174.
Question Number. 20. Windscreen heating is supplied from.
Option A. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
Option B. DC generator, via a transformer.
Option C. frequency wild generator, via a rectifier.
Correct Answer is. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett, page173, fig.10-29.
Question Number. 21. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being
made. The most probable cause would be.
Option A. a short circuit.
Option B. an open circuit.
Option C. normal.
Correct Answer is. a short circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from.
Option A. air conditioning ducting.
Option B. engine compressors.
Option C. a combustion heater.
Correct Answer is. engine compressors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system.
Option A. stainless steel.
Option B. Monel.
Option C. nylon.
Correct Answer is. nylon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to.
Option A. use slow wiper only.
Option B. use water as lubricant when operating.
Option C. place soft cloth between blade and window.
Correct Answer is. use water as lubricant when operating.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5.1.2.
Question Number. 8. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75-14. What does the 10.75 refer to.
Option A. Section Width.
Option B. Bead diameter.
Option C. Overall diameter.
Correct Answer is. Section Width.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1.
Question Number. 9. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?.
Option A. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.
Option B. Leaking air/oil seals.
Option C. Separator plate stuck open.
Correct Answer is. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6.
Question Number. 10. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon.
Option A. type of fluid most readily available.
Option B. the type of seal material.
Option C. heat generated in operation of the system.
Correct Answer is. heat generated in operation of the system.
Explanation. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system.
Question Number. 12. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to.
Option A. ensure the separator does not bottom.
Option B. damp the rebound.
Option C. absorb the landing shock.
Correct Answer is. damp the rebound.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-5.
Question Number. 13. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to.
Option A. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension.
Option B. restrict the compression of the air.
Option C. separate the oil from the air.
Correct Answer is. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Made up wheels should be stored.
Option A. vertical at working pressure.
Option B. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.
Option C. horizontal no more than 4 high.
Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.
Explanation. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and 15-3.
Question Number. 15. "After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated
n the flight deck. The possible causes are."
Option A. shorted sensor.
Option B. out of adjustment sensor.
Option C. wiring problem.
Correct Answer is. out of adjustment sensor.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 176.
Question Number. 17. These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10.45 R 14.What does the number 32 mean?.
Option A. Outer diameter.
Option B. qwidth.
Option C. Inner diameter.
Correct Answer is. Outer diameter.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1.
Question Number. 18. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents.
Option A. breather points.
Option B. the light part of the tyre.
Option C. military reference.
Correct Answer is. breather points.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2.4.
Question Number. 19. In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by.
Option A. a retainer plate.
Option B. a lock ring.
Option C. bolts.
Correct Answer is. a lock ring.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 4.7.1.
Question Number. 22. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is.
Option A. caused by a leaky seal.
Option B. normal.
Option C. due to excessive charging pressure.
Correct Answer is. caused by a leaky seal.
Explanation. AL/3-6 3.3.3 iii.
Question Number. 23. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means.
Option A. military reference.
Option B. the light part of the tyre.
Option C. breather points.
Correct Answer is. the light part of the tyre.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3.7.
Question Number. 24. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is.
Option A. a faulty selector valve.
Option B. a faulty actuator.
Option C. gear lowered at too high an airspeed.
Correct Answer is. a faulty selector valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned.
Option A. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.
Option B. opposite the charging valve.
Option C. adjacent to the charging valve.
Correct Answer is. adjacent to the charging valve.
Explanation. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para 3.2.1.10.
Question Number. 28. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be.
Option A. the emergency system.
Option B. a leaky selector valve.
Option C. a stuck relief valve.
Correct Answer is. a leaky selector valve.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?.
Option A. 150°C.
Option B. 250°C.
Option C. 200°C.
Correct Answer is. 200°C.
Explanation. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel, Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 - Yellow Plug Temperature
390°F.
Question Number. 34. .Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?.
Option A. To reduce vibration and shimmy.
Option B. To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection.
Option C. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection.
Correct Answer is. To reduce vibration and shimmy.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?.
Option A. The material of the leg.
Option B. The types of seals the leg uses.
Option C. Neither, any oil can be used.
Correct Answer is. The types of seals the leg uses.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most
likely reason for this warning is.
Option A. the airspeed is too high.
Option B. the landing gear is not locked down.
Option C. the rate of descent is too high.
Correct Answer is. the landing gear is not locked down.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12.
Question Number. 40. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the.
Option A. landing gear up line.
Option B. landing gear down line.
Option C. return line from the landing gear selector.
Correct Answer is. landing gear up line.
Explanation. The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension, to slow the rate
of extension. CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 sows them in the down line - this is a well known error in CAIPs.
Question Number. 41. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems.
Option A. to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped.
Option B. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.
Option C. to ensure the aircraft is still rolling.
Correct Answer is. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position.
Option A. neither system will be available.
Option B. emergency braking will not be available.
Option C. normal braking will not be available.
Correct Answer is. emergency braking will not be available.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will.
Option A. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.
Option B. melt at a specified elevated temperature.
Option C. eliminate the need to check air pressure
Correct Answer is. melt at a specified elevated temperature.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of.
Option A. under-inflation.
Option B. over-inflation.
Option C. excessive toe-in.
Correct Answer is. under-inflation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to.
Option A. the top of the tie bar.
Option B. the base of the tie bar.
Option C. 1 mm from the rib base.
Correct Answer is. the top of the tie bar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to.
Option A. spread the weight over a large area.
Option B. absorb increased landing shock.
Option C. prevent skidding.
Correct Answer is. spread the weight over a large area.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a.
Option A. castoring damper is used.
Option B. snubber is used.
Option C. hop damper is used.
Correct Answer is. hop damper is used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with.
Option A. nitrogen.
Option B. an argon and CO2 mixture.
Option C. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
Correct Answer is. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
Explanation. JAR 25.733 (e).
Question Number. 52. Brake deboosters.
Option A. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Option B. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Option C. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.
Correct Answer is. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 54. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay.
Option A. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure.
Option B. is subject to cabin pressure.
Option C. is not pressurized.
Correct Answer is. is not pressurized.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 55. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type.
Option A. Articulated.
Option B. Hydro Mechanical.
Option C. Direct Acting.
Correct Answer is. Direct Acting.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is.
Option A. 9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Option B. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Option C. 8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar.
Correct Answer is. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Explanation. http://www.gremline.com/page13.html
Question Number. 59. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows.
Option A. red light.
Option B. no indication.
Option C. green light.
Correct Answer is. no indication.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12.
Question Number. 60. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check.
Option A. symmetry, tracking, camber.
Option B. symmetry, tracking, twist.
Option C. symmetry, tracking, splay.
Correct Answer is. symmetry, tracking, camber.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem.
Option A. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch.
Option B. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.
Option C. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.
Correct Answer is. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have.
Option A. water dispersing treads.
Option B. a plain tread.
Option C. twin contact.
Correct Answer is. water dispersing treads.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will.
Option A. keep the wheel in track.
Option B. assist the wheel to castor.
Option C. allow the wheel to shimmy.
Correct Answer is. keep the wheel in track.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician textbook page 9-12.
Question Number. 66. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with.
Option A. maker's serial number.
Option B. the valve assembly.
Option C. opposite side to the valve assembly.
Correct Answer is. the valve assembly.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 9-49.
Question Number. 67. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate.
Option A. light spot.
Option B. balance indicator.
Option C. heavy spot.
Correct Answer is. heavy spot.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by.
Option A. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate.
Option B. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.
Option C. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released.
Correct Answer is. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.
Explanation. Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch. 32-42-98.
Question Number. 5. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?.
Option A. 15%.
Option B. 25%.
Option C. 20%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.
Explanation. AWN 56 2.11.
Question Number. 8. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?.
Option A. 110°.
Option B. 125°.
Option C. 180°.
Correct Answer is. 110°.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146, and JAR 25.1387, and EEL/1-10 301 a).
Question Number. 10. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured.
Option A. green.
Option B. red.
Option C. white.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2.
Question Number. 11. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by.
Option A. AC handling bus.
Option B. DC handling bus.
Option C. the battery bus.
Correct Answer is. AC handling bus.
Explanation. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC ground bus.
Question Number. 12. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?.
Option A. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.
Option B. All lights will illuminate.
Option C. Dome lights will illuminate.
Correct Answer is. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Escape route lighting must not have more than.
Option A. 20% obscured.
Option B. 10% obscured.
Option C. 15% obscured.
Correct Answer is. 20% obscured.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?.
Option A. 25%.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. None.
Correct Answer is. 25%.
Explanation. JAR 25.812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.11.1.
Question Number. 15. The angle of a runway turnoff light is.
Option A. 40°.
Option B. 60°.
Option C. 50°.
Correct Answer is. 50°.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146.
Question Number. 16. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with.
Option A. 28 V DC.
Option B. 115 V AC.
Option C. 28 V AC.
Correct Answer is. 115 V AC.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115).
Question Number. 17. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?.
Option A. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
Option B. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.
Option C. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel.
Correct Answer is. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during
flight.
Option A. Armed.
Option B. OFF.
Option C. ON.
Correct Answer is. Armed.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23.
Question Number. 19. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation
of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is.
Option A. 15%.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. 25%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.
Explanation. JAR 25.812.
Question Number. 20. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of.
Option A. 100 candelas.
Option B. 50 candelas.
Option C. 20 candelas.
Correct Answer is. 20 candelas.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. 11 (2) (d).
Question Number. 22. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?.
Option A. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.
Option B. Select full 'RETRACT'.
Option C. It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced.
Correct Answer is. Select full 'RETRACT'.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.3.1.
Question Number. 23. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock
or burning. That time period is at least.
Option A. 2 minutes.
Option B. 5 minutes.
Option C. 1 minute.
Correct Answer is. 2 minutes.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 5.5.
Question Number. 24. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of.
Question Number. 27. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on.
Option A. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units.
Option B. and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed.
Option C. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.
Correct Answer is. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.flightsim.com/cgi/kds?$=main/special/real777
Question Number. 28. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed.
Option A. individually - they are wired in parallel.
Option B. together - they are wired in series.
Option C. First Officer's only in emergency mode.
Correct Answer is. together - they are wired in series.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems. Page 153.
Question Number. 29. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured.
Option A. red.
Option B. amber.
Option C. green.
Correct Answer is. amber.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4.4.1.
Question Number. 30. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?.
Option A. Fire warning.
Option B. Hydraulic pump failure.
Option C. Duct overheat.
Correct Answer is. Fire warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?.
Option A. Freon.
Option B. Halon.
Option C. Xenon.
Correct Answer is. Xenon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced.
Option A. at 60 inch intervals.
Option B. at 70 inch intervals.
Option C. at 40 inch intervals.
Correct Answer is. at 40 inch intervals.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.7.1.
Question Number. 34. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is
what?.
Option A. Xenon Gas and blue-white.
Option B. Helium gas and white.
Option C. Neon gas and blue.
Correct Answer is. Xenon Gas and blue-white.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.2.3.
Question Number. 35. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system.
Option A. continue with reduced passenger load.
Option B. ferry flight to main base for rectification.
Option C. ground the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. continue with reduced passenger load.
Explanation. A club66 user who got this question, queried it with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA assessor)that the answer is b.
However, no reference has been found.
Question Number. 36. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit.
Option A. Dual circuit.
Option B. Single circuit.
Option C. Individual circuits.
Correct Answer is. Single circuit.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250.
Question Number. 5. 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?.
Option A. Supernumerator regular.
Option B. Temperature compensator.
Option C. Breathing regulator.
Correct Answer is. Breathing regulator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?.
Option A. Thermal Relief Valve.
Option B. Loose connection.
Option C. Breathing mask.
Correct Answer is. Loose connection.
Explanation. No TRV on O2 system. Breathing mask will only leak if system is turned on.
Question Number. 14. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?.
Option A. 300 PSI.
Option B. 1800 PSI.
Option C. 3000 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 1800 PSI.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2, and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.3.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8.
Question Number. 15. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be.
Option A. turned on by crew.
Option B. turned off.
Option C. turned on and safety wire-locked.
Correct Answer is. turned on and safety wire-locked.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is.
Option A. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
Option B. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
Option C. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
Explanation. A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598.
Question Number. 18. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?.
Option A. Line valve.
Option B. Shut-off valve.
Option C. Charging connection.
Correct Answer is. Charging connection.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e).
Question Number. 20. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for.
Option A. additional flightcrew.
Option B. changes in altitude.
Option C. extra supply in case of emergency.
Correct Answer is. additional flightcrew.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft.
Option A. passenger must get mask from overhead stowage.
Option B. masks drop automatically.
Option C. attendant must drop masks.
Correct Answer is. masks drop automatically.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8.
Question Number. 25. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least.
Option A. 15 minutes.
Option B. 30 minutes.
Option C. 5 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 15 minutes.
Explanation. AL/3-25, and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8 and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.6.3 and JAR 25.1439.
Question Number. 26. The oxygen line service valve must be.
Option A. wire locked open.
Option B. wire locked closed.
Option C. only be wire locked with telltale wire.
Correct Answer is. wire locked open.
Explanation. AL/3-25.
Question Number. 27. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above.
Option A. 4,000 ft.
Option B. 10,000ft.
Option C. 8,000ft.
Correct Answer is. 10,000ft.
Explanation. AL/3-25 3.1.
Question Number. 28. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately.
Option A. 38,000 ft.
Option B. 25,000 ft.
Option C. 4,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. 25,000 ft.
Explanation. AL/3-25 Table 1.
Question Number. 29. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be.
Option A. at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
Option B. at or below 8,000 ft.
Option C. below 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. at or below 8,000 ft.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 33. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in.
Option A. 100% oxygen at positive pressure.
Option B. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
Option C. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales.
Correct Answer is. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.7 ©.
Question Number. 34. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of.
Option A. aluminium.
Option B. stainless steel.
Option C. alloy steel.
Correct Answer is. alloy steel.
Explanation. AL/3-25 3.6.
Question Number. 35. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to.
Option A. 1,800 p.s.i.
Option B. 2,000 p.s.i.
Option C. 1,200 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is. 1,800 p.s.i.
Explanation. AL/3-25 3.6.
Question Number. 37. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested.
Option A. every 3 years.
Option B. every 6 years.
Option C. every 4 years.
Correct Answer is. every 4 years.
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.8.
Question Number. 40. After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is.
Option A. left in the 'on' position.
Option B. left in the 'off' position until required.
Option C. wire locked in the 'on'.
Correct Answer is. wire locked in the 'on'.
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 (h).
Question Number. 43. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?.
Option A. The whims of the aircraft designer.
Option B. The length of the pipe runs.
Option C. The pressure used in the system.
Correct Answer is. The pressure used in the system.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.3.
Question Number. 44. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated.
Option A. by visual inspection.
Option B. by colour coding.
Option C. by an arrow.
Correct Answer is. by an arrow.
Explanation. AL/3-25 Page 8.
Question Number. 46. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by.
Option A. flow indicators.
Option B. pressure indicators.
Option C. lack of Anoxia.
Correct Answer is. flow indicators.
Explanation. CAAIP's Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4.11.
Question Number. 48. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of.
Option A. diamonds.
Option B. dots.
Option C. rectangles.
Correct Answer is. rectangles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted.
Option A. black with a white collar.
Option B. black.
Option C. white with a black collar.
Correct Answer is. black with a white collar.
Explanation. ZAL/3-25 4.2.2.
Question Number. 50. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is.
Option A. leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B.
Option B. soapy water.
Option C. grease free medical soap.
Correct Answer is. leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B.
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.7.1, AL/3-21 3. http://www.chemsol.com/chemsol/lubricants.html
Question Number. 51. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is.
Option A. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
Option B. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.
Option C. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi).
Question Number. 52. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving.
Option A. traces of oils or greases.
Option B. acrylic based plastic materials.
Option C. magnesium particles.
Correct Answer is. traces of oils or greases.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd para.
Question Number. 57. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be.
Option A. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Option B. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
Option C. applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
Correct Answer is. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 5.7.
Question Number. 58. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of.
Option A. stainless steel.
Option B. aluminium alloy.
Option C. titanium.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.3.1.
Question Number. 1. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps.
Option A. just the moisture trap.
Option B. the whole system.
Option C. the system between compressor and regulator valve.
Correct Answer is. just the moisture trap.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. CAIPs AL/3-22.
Question Number. 3. In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to.
Option A. essential equipment.
Option B. all equipment.
Option C. non-essential equipment.
Correct Answer is. non-essential equipment.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the reference). Although
they protect the flow to the essential systems, they do so by being situated in the non-essential lines, and closing off if the pressure
drops.
Question Number. 6. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain.
Option A. between the compressor and the PRV.
Option B. just the moisture trap.
Option C. all the system.
Correct Answer is. between the compressor and the PRV.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1.
Question Number. 7. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of
time, the system would.
Option A. lose pressure from the compressor side only.
Option B. lose pneumatic pressure partially.
Option C. lose all pressure.
Correct Answer is. lose pressure from the compressor side only.
Explanation. AL/3-22 figure 1.
Question Number. 9. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?.
Option A. It must be filtered.
Option B. It must be pressure controlled.
Option C. It must be temperature controlled.
Correct Answer is. It must be filtered.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.avweb.com/news/maint/182905-1.html
Question Number. 2. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?.
Option A. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard.
Option B. Prevent toilet freezing.
Option C. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable.
Correct Answer is. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard.
Explanation. AWN 57 Para.2.3.
Question Number. 4. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
Option A. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
Option B. the tank must be de-fuelled.
Option C. the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced.
Correct Answer is. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by.
Option A. installation of neoprene foam insulation.
Option B. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.
Option C. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping.
Correct Answer is. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in.
Option A. erased only after end of sector.
Option B. non-volatile memory.
Option C. volatile memory.
Correct Answer is. non-volatile memory.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271.
Question Number. 3. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC.
Option A. all faults are recorded in Volatile memory.
Option B. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
Option C. only Primary Faults are recorded.
Correct Answer is. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271.
Question Number. 4. In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?.
Option A. In Test.
Option B. In Fault History.
Option C. In Fault.
Correct Answer is. In Fault.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, page 270-273. 'Real time' means reporting of a fault as it occurs, not in
Fault History or Test.
11A.19.
Question Number. 1. To purge and unpleasant odour/ moisture from an oxygen system you must.
Option A. completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times.
Option B. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
Option C. completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times.
Correct Answer is. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to.
Option A. ensure positive duct pressure is maintained.
Option B. ensure conditioned air is distributed.
Option C. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Correct Answer is. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded the temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM
compressor will.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. rise.
Option C. fall.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. Pack outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim air).The ACM is
unaffected.
Question Number. 5. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires.
Option A. checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures.
Option B. checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures.
Option C. ensuring the target contacts the sensor.
Correct Answer is. checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. In a constant colume hydraulic EDP the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would have.
Question Number. 9. Large aircraft air conditioning systems cabin temperature control.
Option A. is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.
Option B. all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch.
Option C. involves modulating the pack valve.
Correct Answer is. is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.
Explanation. AMM 767 21-61-00.