Professional Documents
Culture Documents
GMAT Real Exam
GMAT Real Exam
+
x
x x x
= (D) 36
(E) 42
(A) 2 3
2
+ x x
9. A part-time employee whose hourly wage was
increased by 25 percent decided to reduce the number
of hours worked per week so that the employees
total weekly income would remain unchanged. By
what percent should the number of hours worked be
reduced?
(B) 1 3
2
+ x
(C)
2
3x
(D) 1 3
2
x
2
(E) 2 3 x
(A) 12.5%
(B) 20%
14. In a certain school, 40 more than
3
1
of all the
students are taking a science course and
4
1
of those
taking a science course are taking physics. If
8
1
of all
the students in the school are taking physics, how
many students are in the school?
(C) 25%
(D) 50%
(E) 75%
10. If x > 0,
50
x
+
25
x
is what percent of x?
(A) 6%
(A) 240
(B) 25%
(B) 300
(C)
2
1
37 %
(C) 480
(D) 720 (D) 60%
(E) 960 (E) 75%
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16. The inside dimensions of a rectangular wooden box
are 6 inches by 8 inches by 10 inches. A cylindrical
canister is to be placed inside the box so that it stands
upright when the closed box rests on one of its six
faces. Of all such canisters that could be used, what is
the radius, in inches, of the one that has the
maximum volume?
15. If d > 0 and 0 <
d
c
1 < 1, which of the following
must be true?
I. c > 0
II.
d
c
< 1
III.
2
d c + > 1
2
(A) 3
(A) I only
(B) 4
(B) II only
(C) 5
(C) I and II only
(D) 6
(D) II and III only
(E) 8
(E) I, II, and III
S T O P
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SECTION 4
Time30 minutes
23 Questions
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer
to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what
is stated or implied in that passage.
1. According to the passage, job segregation by sex in
the United States was
Historians of women's labor in the United States at first
largely disregarded the story of female service workers
women earning wages in occupations such as salesclerk,
(A) greatly diminished by labor mobilization during
the Second World War
Line
domestic servant, and office secretary. These historians
(5) focused instead on factory work, primarily because it
(B) perpetuated by those textile-mill owners who
argued in favor of womens employment in wage
labor
seemed so different from traditional, unpaid womens
work in the home, and because the underlying economic
forces of industrialism were presumed to be gender-blind
and hence emancipatory in effect. Unfortunately, emanci-
(C) one means by which women achieved greater job
security
(10) pation has been less profound than expected, for not even
industrial wage labor has escaped continued sex segregation
(D) reluctantly challenged by employers except when
the economic advantages were obvious
in the workplace.
To explain this unfinished revolution in the status of
women, historians have recently begun to emphasize the
(E) a constant source of labor unrest in the young
textile industry
(15) way a prevailing definition of femininity often determines
the kinds of work allocated to women, even when such
2. According to the passage, historians of womens labor
focused on factory work as a more promising area of
research than service-sector work because factory
work
allocation is inappropriate to new conditions. For instance,
early textile-mill entrepreneurs in justifying women's
employment in wage labor, made much of the assumption
(20) that women were by nature skillful at detailed tasks and
(A) involved the payment of higher wages patient in carrying out repetitive chores; the mill owners
thus imported into the new industrial order hoary stereo-
(B) required skill in detailed tasks
types associated with the homemaking activities they
(C) was assumed to be less characterized by sex
segregation
presumed to have been the purview of women. Because
(25) women accepted the more unattractive new industrial tasks
more readily than did men, such jobs came to be regarded
(D) was more readily accepted by women than by
men
as female jobs. And employers, who assumed that women's
real aspirations were for marriage and family life,
(E) fitted the economic dynamic of industrialism
better
declined to pay women wages commensurate with those of
(30) men. Thus many lower-skilled, lower-paid, less secure jobs
came to be perceived as female.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that early
historians of women's labor in the United States paid
little attention to women's employment in the service
sector of the economy because
More remarkable than the origin has been the persistence
of such sex segregation in twentieth-century industry. Once
an occupation came to be perceived as female, employers
(35) showed surprisingly little interest in changing that
perception, even when higher profits beckoned. And despite
(A) the extreme variety of these occupations made it
very difficult to assemble meaningful statistics
about them
the urgent need of the United States during the Second
World War to mobilize its human resources fully, job
segregation by sex characterized even the most important
(B) fewer women found employment in the service
sector than in factory work
(40) war industries. Moreover, once the war ended, employers
quickly returned to men most of the male jobs that
(C) the wages paid to workers in the service sector
were much lower than those paid in the industrial
sector
women had been permitted to master.
(D) women's employment in the service sector tended
to be much more short-term than in factory work
(E) employment in the service sector seemed to have
much in common with the unpaid work
associated with homemaking
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7. Which of the following words best expresses the
opinion of the author of the passage concerning the
notion that women are more skillful than men in
carrying out detailed tasks?
4. The passage supports which of the following
statements about the early mill owners mentioned in
the second paragraph?
(A) They hoped that by creating relatively
unattractive "female" jobs they would discourage
women from losing interest in marriage and
family life.
(A) "patient" (line 21)
(B) "repetitive" (line 21)
(C) "hoary" (line 22)
(B) They sought to increase the size of the available
labor force as a means to keep men's wages low.
(D) "homemaking" (line 23)
(E) "purview" (line 24)
(C) They argued that women were inherently suited
to do well in particular kinds of factory work.
8. Which of the following best describes the
relationship of the final paragraph to the passage as a
whole?
(D) They thought that factory work bettered the
condition of women by emancipating them from
dependence on income earned by men.
(A) The central idea is reinforced by the citation of
evidence drawn from twentieth-century history
(E) They felt guilty about disturbing the traditional
division of labor in the family.
(B) The central idea is restated in such a way as to
form a transition to a new topic for discussion.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the
unfinished revolution the author mentions in line
13 refers to the
(C) The central idea is restated and juxtaposed with
evidence that might appear to contradict it.
(D) A partial exception to the generalizations of the
central idea is dismissed as unimportant.
(A) entry of women into the industrial labor market
(B) recognition that work done by women as
homemakers should be compensated at rates
comparable to those prevailing in the service
sector of the economy
(E) Recent history is cited to suggest that the central
idea's validity is gradually diminishing.
(C) development of a new definition of femininity
unrelated to the economic forces of industrialism
(D) introduction of equal pay for equal work in all
professions
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(E) emancipation of women wage earners from
gender-determined job allocation
6. The passage supports which of the following
statements about hiring policies in the United States?
(A) After a crisis many formerly "male" jobs are
reclassified as "'female" jobs.
(B) Industrial employers generally prefer to hire
women with previous experience as homemakers.
(C) Post-Second World War hiring policies caused
women to lose many of their wartime gains in
employment opportunity.
(D) Even war industries during the Second World
War were reluctant to hire women for factory
work.
(E) The service sector of the economy has proved
more nearly gender-blind in its hiring policies
than has the manufacturing sector.
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11. The passage implies that which of the following steps
would be the first performed by explorers who wish
to maximize their chances of discovering gold?
According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz
vein systems were formed over two billion years ago from
magmatic fluids that originated from molten granitelike
Line
bodies deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is
(A) Surveying several sites known to have been
formed more than two billion years ago
(5) contrary to the widely held view that the systems were
deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been
formed from metamorphic fluid
formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.
The recently developed theory has considerable practical
importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a
site for further exploration
(10) the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earths surface
and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over
a broad area
gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods.
Although these same methods still lead to an occasional
discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold
has previously been found
(15) undetected because they are buried and have no surface
expression.
The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the
12. Which of the following statements about discoveries
of gold deposits is supported by information in the
passage?
subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of
buried minerals. Methods widely used today include\
(20) analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological
(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually
has increased between the time of the original
gold rushes and the present.
overview; geophysical techniques that provide date on the
magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of
the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that
are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often (B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be
the result of exploration techniques designed to
locate buried mineralization.
(25) envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-
technology methods are of any value if the sites to which
they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits
will ever yield as much as did those deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes.
the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay
particular attention to selecting the ground formations most
(30) likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of
the utility of simple prospecting methods as a
source of new discoveries of gold deposits.
varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into
account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
These models are constructed primarily from empirical
observations of known mineral deposits and from theories
(E) Models based on the theory that gold originated
from magmatic fluids have already led to new
discoveries of gold deposits.
(35) of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to
identify those geological features that are critical to the
formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then
tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of
13. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is easiest to detect?
the critical features as possible.
9. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
magmatic fluids (A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
metamorphic fluids
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely
used methods (C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold (D) describing events leading to a discovery
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos (E) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is
based
10. According to the passage, the widely held view of
Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such
systems
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(B) originated in molten granitelike bodies
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally have surface expression
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests
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16. It can be inferred from the passage that the efficiency
of model-based gold exploration depends on which of
the following?
14. The theory mentioned in line 1 relates to the
conceptual models discussed in the passage in which
of the following ways?
I. The closeness of the match between the geological
features identified by the model as critical and the
actual geological features of a given area
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming
processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
models that have great practical significance.
II. The degree to which the model chosen relies on
empirical observation of known mineral deposits
rather than on theories of ore-forming processes
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations,
long believed to be mineralized, are in fact
mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual
models.
III. The degree to which the model chosen is based
on an accurate description of the events leading to
mineralization
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough
similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein
systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual
models.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical
halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a basis
for correcting current conceptual models.
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still
have a higher success rate in the discovery of
gold deposits than do more modern methods.
(E) I, II, and III
15. According to the passage, methods of exploring for
gold that are widely used today are based on which of
the following facts?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
still molten.
(B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
exposed at the surface.
(C) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
buried and have no surface expression.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold deposits
are found in regions difficult to reach.
(E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold deposits
are unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of
gold.
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While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely
17. According to the passage, all of the following were
benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the
United Kingdom EXCEPT:
government-controlled economy into a free one, the
experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly
Line
shows one approach that works: privatization, in which
(5) state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By (A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the
government. 1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries were running at about 3 billion a year. By
(B) The government gained revenue from selling
state-owned industries.
selling many of these industries, the government has
decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over 34
(C) The government repaid some its national debt.
(10) billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from
the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically
(D) Profits from industries that were still state-owned
increased.
improved overall economy, the government has been able
to repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a
(E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries decreased.
two-year period.
(15) In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual
industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but
18. According to the passage, which of the following
resulted in increased productivity in companies that
have been privatized?
has also raised the level of performance in every area. At
British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity
per employee has risen by 20 percent. At Associated
(20) British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970s and
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase
shares in their companies.
early 1980s have now virtually disappeared. At British
Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list as there always
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual
shareholders.
was before privatization to have a telephone installed.
Part of this improved productivity has come about
(C) The government ceased to regulate major
industries.
(25) because the employees of privatized industries were given
the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They
responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares: at British
(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for
employees.
Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought
shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages
lowered.
(30) British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal
stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work
to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium, the
19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
considers labor disruptions to be
new employee-owners grew so concerned about their
companys profits that during wage negotiations they
(35) actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national
economy
Some economists have suggested that giving away free
shares would provide a needed acceleration of the private-
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a
company
zation process. Yet they miss Thomas Paines point that
what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly. In
(40) order for the far-ranging benefits of individual ownership to
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a companys
offer to sell shares to them
be achieved by owners, companies, and countries,
employees and other individuals must make their own
(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned
industries than in private companies
decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own
resources to the choice.
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an
industry
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22. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the privatization process in the United
Kingdom?
20. The passage supports which of the following
statements about employees buying shares in their
own companies?
(A) It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on
individual ownership of shares.
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine
out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
shares in their companies.
(B) It conforms in its most general outlines to
Thomas Paines prescription for business
ownership.
(B) Approximately 90% of the eligible workers at
three different companies chose to buy shares in
their companies.
(C) It was originally conceived to include some
giving away of free shares. (C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged
by at least some labor unions.
(D) It has been successful, even though privatization
has failed in other countries. (D) Companies that demonstrated the highest
productivity were the first to allow their
employees the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) It is taking place more slowly than some
economists suggest is necessary.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on
employees agreeing to increased work loads. 23. The quotation in line 39 is most probably used to
(A) counter a position that the author of the passage
believes is incorrect
21. Which of the following statements is most consistent
with the principle described in lines 30-32?
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the
previous sentence
(A) A democratic government that decides it is
inappropriate to own a particular industry has in
no way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian
of the public interest.
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the
author of the passage have supported their
arguments
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect
employee interests is to force companies to
maintain their share of a competitive market
without government subsidies.
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial
viewpoint
(E) present a historical maxim to challenge the
principle introduced in the third paragraph
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is
an important reason that state-owned industries
perform poorly.
(D) Governments that want to implement
privatization programs must try to eliminate all
resistance to the free-market system.
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a
minute share of the gains from whatever
sacrifices he or she makes to achieve these gains.
S T O P
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DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
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SECTION 5
Time25 Minutes
16 Questions
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the best of the
answer choices given.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: Figures that accompany problems in this section are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are
drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in
a plane unless otherwise indicated.
4. Of the following, which is the closest approximation
of
8 . 199
49 . 0 2 . 50
? 1. =
+
6
1
4
1
2
1
(A)
10
1
(A)
5
6
(B)
8
1
(B)
6
5
(C)
4
1
(C)
24
5
(D)
4
5
(D)
5
1
(E)
2
25
(E)
12
1
5. Last year Manfred received 26 paychecks. Each of
his first 6 paychecks was $750; each of his remaining
paychecks was $30 more than each of his first 6
paychecks. To the nearest dollar, what was the
average (arithmetic mean) amount of his paychecks
for the year?
2. Kelly and Chris packed several boxes with books. If
Chris packed 60 percent of the total number of boxes,
what was the ratio of the number of boxes Kelly packed
to the number of boxes Chris packed?
(A) 1 to 6
(B) 1 to 4
(A) $752
(C) 2 to 5
(B) $755
(D) 3 to 5
(C) $765
(E) 2 to 3
(D) $773
(E) $775
3. A train travels from New York City to Chicago, a
distance of approximately 840 miles, at an average rate
of 60 miles per hour and arrives in Chicago at 6:00 in
the evening, Chicago time. At what time in the
morning, New York City time, did the train depart for
Chicago? (Note: Chicago time is one hour earlier than
New York City time.)
(A) 4:00
(B) 5:00
(C) 6:00
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(D) 7:00
(E) 8:00
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6. A certain pair of used shoes can be repaired for
$12.50 and will last for 1 year. A pair of the same
kind of shoes can be purchased new for $28.00 and
will last for 2 years. The average cost per year of the
new shoes is what percent greater than the cost of
repairing the used shoes?
11. In a certain calculus class, the ratio of the number of
mathematics majors to the number of students who
are not mathematics majors is 2 to 5. If 2 more
mathematics majors were to enter the class, the ratio
would be 1 to 2. How many students are in the class?
(A) 3% (A) 10
(B) 12 (B) 5%
(C) 21 (C) 12%
(D) 28 (D) 15%
(E) 35 (E) 24%
12. Machines A and B always operate independently
and at their respective constant rates. When working
alone, machine A can fill a production lot in 5 hours,
and machine B can fill the same lot in x hours.
When the two machines operate simultaneously to fill
the production lot, it takes them 2 hours to complete
the job. What is the value of x ?
7. In a certain brick wall, each row of bricks above the
bottom row contains one less brick than the row just
below it. If there are 5 rows in all and a total of 75
bricks in the wall, how many bricks does the bottom
row contain?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(A)
3
1
3
(D) 17
(E) 18
(B) 3
(C)
2
1
2
8. If 25 percent of p is equal to 10 percent of q , and
, then p is what percent of q ? 0 pq
(D)
3
1
2
(E)
2
1
1
(A) 2.5%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 35%
(E) 40%
9. If the length of an edge of cube X is twice the length
of an edge of cube Y , what is the ratio of the volume
of cube Y to the volume of cube X ?
13. In the xy-coordinate system, if (a, b) and
(a + 3, b + k) are two points on the line defined by
the equation x = 3y 7, then k =
(A) 9
(A)
2
1
(B) 3
(B)
4
1
(C)
3
7
(C)
6
1
(D) 1
(E)
3
1
(D)
8
1
(E)
27
1
10. ( )( )( )( ) = + + 1 3 1 3 1 2 1 2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6 2
(D) 5
(E) 6
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14. What is the units digit of ? ( ) ( ) ( )
3 2 4
29 17 13
(A) 9
(B) 7
A
v
e
n
u
e
C
A
v
e
n
u
e
A
A
v
e
n
u
e
B
4
th
Street
2
nd
Street
3
rd
Street
Y
X
1
st
Street
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) 1
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
15 in
18 in
16. Pat will walk from intersection X to intersection Y
along a route that is confined to the square grid of
four streets and three avenues shown in the map
above. How many routes from X to Y can Pat take
that have the minimum possible length ?
15. The shaded region in the figure above represents a
rectangular frame with length 18 inches and width 15
inches. The frame encloses a rectangular picture that
has the same area as the frame itself. If the length and
width of the picture have the same ratio as the length
and width of the frame, what is the length of the
picture, in inches?
15. The shaded region in the figure above represents a
rectangular frame with length 18 inches and width 15
inches. The frame encloses a rectangular picture that
has the same area as the frame itself. If the length and
width of the picture have the same ratio as the length
and width of the frame, what is the length of the
picture, in inches?
(A) Six
(B) Eight
(C) Ten
(D) Fourteen
(E) Sixteen
(A) (A) 2 9
(B)
2
3
(C)
2
9
(D)
2
1
1 15
(E)
2
9
S T O P
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SECTION 6
Time25 minutes
22 Questions
Directions: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence
you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think
the original is the best of these answer choices, choose answer A; otherwise, choose one of the others. Select the best version and fill
in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
This is a test of correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English;
that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective
sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.
1. Lawmakers are examining measures that would
require banks to disclose all fees and account
requirements in writing, provide free cashing of
government checks, and to create basic savings
accounts to carry minimal fees and require minimal
initial deposits.
4. Unlike the United States, where farmers can usually
depend on rain or snow all year long, the rains in
most parts of Sri Lanka are concentrated in the
monsoon months, June to September, and the skies
are generally clear for the rest of the year.
(A) provide free cashing of government checks, and
to create basic savings accounts to carry
(A) Unlike the United States, where farmers usually
depend on rain or snow all year long, the rains in
most parts of Sri Lanka
(B) provide free cashing of government checks, and
creating basic savings accounts carrying
(B) Unlike the United States farmers who can usually
depend on rain or snow all year long, the rains in
most parts of Sri Lanka
(C) to provide free cashing of government checks,
and creating basic savings accounts that carry
(D) to provide free cashing of government checks,
creating basic savings accounts to carry
(C) Unlike those of the United States, where farmers
can usually depend on rain or snow all year long,
most parts of Sri Lanka's rains
(E) to provide free cashing of government checks,
and to create basic savings accounts that carry
(D) In comparison with the United States, whose
farmers can usually depend on rain or snow all
year long, the rains in most parts of Sri Lanka
2. Cajuns speak a dialect brought to southern Louisiana
by the four thousand Acadians who migrated there in
1755; their language is basically seventeenth-century
French to which has been added English, Spanish and
Italian words.
(E) In the United States, farmers can usually depend
on rain or snow all year long, but in most parts of
Sri Lanka the rains
(A) to which has been added English, Spanish, and
Italian words
5. Presenters at the seminar, one who is blind, will
demonstrate adaptive equipment that allows visually
impaired people to use computers.
(B) added to which is English, Spanish, and Italian
words
(A) one who
(C) to which English, Spanish, and Italian words
have been added
(B) one of them who
(C) and one of them who
(D) with English, Spanish, and Italian words having
been added to it
(D) one of whom
(E) one of which
(E) and, in addition, English, Spanish, and Italian
words are added
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3. NOT SCORED
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6. Dr. Tonegawa won the Nobel Prize for discovering
how the body can constantly change its genes to
fashion a seeming unlimited number of antibodies,
each specifically targeted at an invading microbe or
foreign substance.
9. Because the Earth's crust is more solid there and thus
better able to transmit shock waves, an earthquake of
a given magnitude typically devastates an area 100
times greater in the eastern United States than it does
in the West.
(A) seeming unlimited number of antibodies, each
specifically targeted at
(A) of a given magnitude typically devastates an area
100 times greater in the eastern United States
than it does in the West
(B) seeming unlimited number of antibodies, each
targeted specifically to
(B) of a given magnitude will typically devastate 100
times the area if it occurs in the eastern United
States instead of the West
(C) seeming unlimited number of antibodies, all
specifically targeted at
(C) will typically devastate 100 times the area in the
eastern United States than one of comparable
magnitude occurring in the West
(D) seemingly unlimited number of antibodies, all of
them targeted specifically to
(E) seemingly unlimited number of antibodies, each
targeted specifically at
(D) in the eastern United States will typically
devastate an area 100 times greater than will a
quake of comparable magnitude occurring in the
West
7. It is possible that Native Americans originally have
migrated to the Western Hemisphere over a bridge of
land that once existed between Siberia and Alaska.
(E) that occurs in the eastern United States will
typically devastate 100 times more area than if it
occurred with comparable magnitude in the West
(A) have migrated to the Western Hemisphere over a
bridge of land that once
(B) were migrating to the Western Hemisphere over a
bridge of land that existed once
10. Although Napoleons army entered Russia with far
more supplies than they had in their previous
campaigns, it had provisions for only twenty-four
days.
(C) migrated over a bridge of land to the Western
Hemisphere that once existed
(A) they had in their previous campaigns (D) migrated to the Western Hemisphere over a
bridge of land that once existed
(B) their previous campaigns had had
(E) were migrating to the Western Hemisphere over a
bridge of land existing once
(C) they had for any previous campaign
(D) in their previous campaigns
8. In the fall of 1985, only 10 percent of the women
entering college planned to major in education, while
28 percent chose business, making it the most
popular major for women as well as for men.
(E) for any previous campaign
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) as well as for men
(B) as well as the men
(C) and men too
(D) and men as well
(E) and also men
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13. After the Civil War, contemporaries of Harriet
Tubmans maintained that she has all of the qualities
of a greater leader: coolness in the face of danger, an
excellent sense of strategy, and an ability to plan in
minute detail.
11. Certain pesticides can become ineffective if used
repeatedly in the same place; one reason is suggested
by the finding that there are much larger populations
of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a
relatively long history of pesticide use than in soils
that are free of such chemicals.
(A) Tubmans maintained that she has
(A) Certain pesticides can become ineffective if used
repeatedly in the same place; one reason is
suggested by the finding that there are much
larger populations of pesticide-degrading
microbes in soils with a relatively long history of
pesticide use than in soils that are free of such
chemicals.
(B) Tubmans maintained that she had
(C) Tubmans have maintained that she had
(D) Tubman maintained that she had
(E) Tubman had maintained that she has
14. From 1982 to 1987 sales of new small boats
increased between five and ten percent annually.
(B) If used repeatedly in the same place, one reason
that certain pesticides can become ineffective is
suggested by the finding that there are much
larger populations of pesticide-degrading
microbes in soils with a relatively long history of
pesticide use than in soils that are free of such
chemicals.
(A) From 1982 to 1987 sales of new small boats
increased between five and ten percent annually.
(B) Five to ten percent is the annual increase in sales
of new small boats in the years 1982 to 1987.
(C) Sales of new small boats have increased annually
five and ten percent in the years 1982 to 1987.
(C) If used repeatedly in the same place, one reason
certain pesticides can become ineffective is
suggested by the finding that much larger
populations of pesticide-degrading microbes are
found in soils with a relatively long history of
pesticide use than those that are free of such
chemicals.
(D) Annually an increase of five to ten percent has
occurred between 1982 and 1987 in the sales
(E) Occurring from 1982 to 1987 was an annual
increase of five and ten percent in the sales of
new small boats.
(D) The finding that there are much larger
populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in
soils with a relatively long history of pesticide
use than in soils that are free of such chemicals is
suggestive of one reason, if used repeatedly in
the same place, certain pesticides can become
ineffective.
15. In recent years cattle breeders have increasingly used
crossbreeding, in part that their steers should acquire
certain characteristics and partly because
crossbreeding is said to provide hybrid vigor.
(A) in part that their steers should acquire certain
characteristics
(E) The finding of much larger populations of
pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a
relatively long history of pesticide use than in
those that are free of such chemicals suggests one
reason certain pesticides can become ineffective
if used repeatedly in the same place.
(B) in part for the acquisition of certain
characteristics in their steers
(C) partly because of their steers acquiring certain
characteristics
(D) partly because certain characteristics should be
acquired by their steers
12. One view of the economy contends that a large drop
in oil prices should eventually lead to lowering
interest rates, as well as lowering fears about inflation
a rally in stocks and bonds, and a weakening of the
dollar.
(E) partly to acquire certain characteristics in their
steers
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) lowering interest rates, as well as lowering fears
about inflation,
(B) a lowering of interest rates and of fears about
inflation,
(C) a lowering of interest rates, along with fears
about inflation,
(D) interest rates being lowered, along with fears
about inflation,
(E) interest rates and fears about inflation being
lowered, with
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16. The peaks of a mountain range, acting like rocks in a
streambed, produce ripples in the air flowing over
them; the resulting flow pattern, with crests and
troughs that remain stationary although the air that
forms them is moving rapidly, are known as
"standing waves."
19. Teratomas are unusual forms of cancer because they
are composed of tissues such as tooth and bone not
normally found in the organ in which the tumor
appears.
(A) because they are composed of tissues such as
tooth and bone
(A) crests and troughs that remain stationary although
the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are
(B) because they are composed of tissues like tooth
and bone that are
(B) crests and troughs that remain stationary although
they are formed by rapidly moving air, are
(C) because they are composed of tissues, like tooth
and bone, tissues
(C) crests and troughs that remain stationary although
the air that forms them is moving rapidly, is
(D) in that their composition, tissues such as tooth
and bone, is
(D) stationary crests and troughs although the air that
forms them is moving rapidly, are
(E) in that they are composed of tissues such tooth
and bone, tissues
(E) stationary crests and troughs although they are
formed by rapidly moving air, is
20. The Senate approved immigration legislation that
would grant permanent residency to millions of aliens
currently residing here and if employers hired illegal
aliens they would be penalized.
17. Like Auden, the language of James Merrill is chatty,
arch, and conversational-given to complex syntactic
flights as well as to prosaic free-verse strolls.
(A) if employers hired illegal aliens they would be
penalized
(A) Like Auden, the language of James Merrill
(B) Like Auden. James Merrill's language
(B) hiring illegal aliens would be a penalty for
employers
(C) Like Auden's, James Merrill's language
(C) penalize employers who hire illegal aliens
(D) As with Auden, James Merrill's language
(D) penalizing employers hiring illegal aliens
(E) As is Auden's the language of James Merrill
(E) employers to be penalized for hiring illegal aliens
18. In the textbook publishing business, the second
quarter is historically weak, because revenues are low
and marketing expenses are high as companies
prepare for the coming school year.
21. Scientists have recently discovered what could be the
largest and oldest living organism on Earth, a giant
fungus that is an interwoven filigree of mushrooms
and rootlike tentacles spawned by a single fertilized
spore some 10,000 years ago and extending for more
than 30 acres in the soil of a Michigan forest.
(A) low and marketing expenses are high as
companies prepare
(B) low and their marketing expenses are high as they
prepare
(A) extending
(B) extends
(C) low with higher marketing expenses in
preparation
(C) extended
(D) low, while marketing expenses are higher to
prepare
(D) it extended
(E) is extending
(E) low, while their marketing expenses are higher in
preparation
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22. The period when the great painted caves at Lascaux
and Altamira were occupied by Upper Paleolithic
people has been established by carbon-14 dating, but
what is much more difficult to determine are the
reason for their decoration, the use to which primitive
people put the caves, and the meaning of the
magnificently depicted animals.
(A) has been established by carbon-14 dating, but
what is much more difficult to determine are
(B) has been established by carbon-14 dating, but
what is much more difficult to determine is
(C) have been established by carbon-14 dating, but
what is much more difficult to determine is
(D) have been established by carbon-14 dating, but
what is much more difficult to determine are
(E) are established by carbon-14 dating, but that
which is much more difficult to determine is
S T O P
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SECTION 7
Time 25 minutes
20 Questions
Directions: Each of the data sufficiency problems below consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain
data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data
given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of
counterclockwise), you are to fill in oval
A if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question
asked;
B if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question
asked;
C if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient;
D if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked;
E if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional
data specific to the problem are needed.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: A figure in a data sufficiency problem will conform to the information given in
the question, but will not necessarily conform to the additional information given
in statements (1) and (2).
You may assume that lines shown as straight are straight and that angle measures are greater than zero.
You may assume that the positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown.
All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
Note: In questions that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in the statements are
sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for
the quantity.
Example:
In PQR, what is the value of x?
P
x
Q y z R
(1) PQ = PR
(2) y = 40
Explanation: According to statement (1), PQ = PR; therefore, PQR is isosceles and y = z. Since x + y + z = 180, it follows that x + 2y
= 180. Since statement (1) does not give a value for y, you cannot answer the question using statement (1) alone. According to
statement (2), y = 40; therefore, x + z = 140. Since statement (2) does not give a value for z, you cannot answer the question using
statement (2) alone. Using both statements together, since x + 2y = 180 and the value of y is given, you can find the value of x.
Therefore, the answer is C.
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A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
1. If the list price of a new car was $12,300, what was
the cost of the car to the dealer?
(1) The cost to the dealer was equal to 80 percent of
the list price.
(2) The car was sold for $11,070, which was 12.5
percent more than the cost to the dealer.
2. If p, q, x, y, and z are different positive integers,
which of the five integers is the median?
(1) p + x < q
(2) y < z
3. A certain employee is paid $6 per hour for an 8-hour
workday. If the employee is paid
2
1
1 times this rate
time worked in excess of 8 hours during a single day,
how many hours did the employee work today?
(1) The employee was paid $18 more for hours
worked today than for hours worked yesterday.
(2) Yesterday the employee worked 8 hours.
4. If n is a member of the set
{33, 36, 38, 39, 41, 42},
what is the value of n ?
(1) n is even.
(2) n is a multiple of 3.
5. What is the value of x ?
(1) 2x + 1 = 0
(2) ( )
2 2
1 x x = +
6. In the figure above, what is the length of AD ?
(1) AC = 6
(2) BD = 6
7. A retailer purchased a television set for x percent
less than its list price, and then sold it for y percent
less than the list price. What was the list price of the
television set?
(1) x = 15
(2) x y = 5
8. Is greater than x ?
2
x
(1) is greater than 1 .
2
x
(2) x is greater than 1 .
9. What is the value of
2 2
s r
+ ?
(1) 5
2
=
+ s r
(2) r + s = 10
10. If x, y, and z are numbers, is z = 18 ?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) of x, y, and z is 6.
(2) x = y
B
C
A
11. The circular base of an above-ground swimming pool
lies in a level yard and just touches two straight sides
of a fence at points A and B , as shown in the figure
above. Point C is on the ground where the two sides
of the fence meet. How far from the center of the
pools base is point A ?
A B C D
(1) The base has area 250 square feet.
(2) The center of the base is 20 feet from point C .
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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D EACH Statement ALONE is sufficient.
E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
12. In 1979 Mr. Jackson bought a total of n shares of
stock X and Mrs. Jackson bought a total of 300
shares of stock X . If the couple held all of the
respective shares throughout 1980, and Mr. Jacksons
1980 dividends on his n shares totaled $150, what
was the total amount of Mrs. Jacksons 1980
dividends on her 300 shares?
17. After winning 50 percent of the first 20 games it
played, Team A won all of the remaining games it
played. What was the total number of games that
Team A won?
(1) In 1980 the annual dividend on each share of
stock X was $0.75.
(1) Team A played 25 games altogether.
(2) Team A won 60 percent of all the games it
played. (2) In 1979 Mr. Jackson bought a total of 200 shares
of stock X .
+
13. If Saras age is exactly twice Bills age, what is
Saras age?
(1) Four years ago, Saras age was exactly 3 times
Bills age.
(2) Eight years from now, Saras age will be exactly
1.5 times Bills age.
14. What is the value of
yz
x
?
(1) x =
2
y
and z =
5
2x
.
(2)
z
x
=
2
5
and
y
1
=
10
1
.
15. An infinite sequence of positive integers is called an
alpha sequence if the number of even integers in
the sequence is finite. If S is an infinite sequence of
positive integers, is S an alpha sequence?
(1) The first ten integers in S are even.
(2) An infinite number of integers in S are odd.
16 If xy > 0, does (x 1)(y 1) = 1?
(1) x + y = xy
(2) x = y
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18. In the addition problem above, each of the symbols
, , and represents a positive digit. If < ,
what is the value of ?
(1) = 4
(2) = 1
CANCELATION FEES
Days prior to
departure
Percent of
Package Price
46 or more 10%
45 31 35%
30 16 50%
15 5 65%
4 or fewer 100%
19. The table above shows the cancellation fee schedule
that a travel agency uses to determine the fee charged
to a tourist who cancels a trip prior to departure. If a
tourist canceled a trip with a package price of $1,700
and a departure date of September 4, on what day
was the trip canceled?
(1) The cancellation fee was $595.
(2) If the trip had been canceled one day later, the
cancellation fee would have been $255 more.
20. Is 5 less than 1,000?
k
(1) 000 , 3 5
1
>
+ k
(2) 500 5 5
1
=
k k
S T O P
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DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
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ANSWER KEY Test Code 28
Section 2 Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 Section 7
1. B 1. C 1. B 1. A 1. E 1. D
2. E 2. D 2. C 2. E 2. C 2. E
3. C 3. D 3. E 3. B 3. Not Scored 3. C
4. C 4. C 4. C 4. B 4. E 4. E
5. B 5. E 5. E 5. D 5. D 5. D
6. A 6. C 6. C 6. C 6. E 6. E
7. D 7. E 7. C 7. D 7. D 7. E
8 .D 8. E 8. A 8. E 8. A 8. A
9. B 9. B 9. B 9. D 9. D 9. D
10. A 10. A 10. A 10. A 10. E 10. C
11. B 11. E 11. C 11. D 11. A 11.A
12. D 12. B 12. B 12. A 12. B 12. D
13. E 13. D 13. D 13. D 13. D 13. D
14. C 14. A 14. A 14. E 14. A 14. B
15. E 15.C 15. C 15. A 15. E 15. E
16. D 16. B 16. D 16. C 16. C 16. A
17. D 17. C 17. D
18. A 18. A 18. A
19. E 19. E 19. C
20. B 20. C 20. B
21. C 21. A
22. E 22. B
23. A
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CONVERSION TABLE FOR VERBAL AND QUANTITATIVE SCORES
Graduate Management Admission Test, Code 28
Scaled Score Scaled Score Scaled Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Verbal
Score
Quantitative
Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Verbal
Score
Quantitative
Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Verbal
Score
Quantitative
Score
36 32 40 11 15 21
60 51 35 32 40 10 14 21
59 50 34 31 39 9 13 20
58 49 33 30 38 8 13 19
57 48 32 29 37 7 12 18
56 47 31 29 37 6 11 17
55 46 30 28 36 5 11 16
54 45 29 27 35 4 10 15
53 44 28 27 34 3 9 14
52 43 51 27 26 34 2 9 13
51 43 51 26 25 33 1 8 12
50 42 51 25 25 32 0 7 11
49 41 50 24 24 31
48 41 50 23 23 31
47 40 49 22 22 30
46 39 48 21 22 29
45 39 47 20 21 28
44 38 47 19 20 28
43 37 46 18 20 27
42 36 45 17 19 26
41 36 44 16 18 25
40 35 44 15 18 25
39 34 43 14 17 24
38 34 42 13 16 23
37 33 41 12 16 22
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CONVERSION TABLE FOR TOTAL SCORES
Graduate Management Admission Test, Code 28
Corrected
Raw
Score
Total
Scaled
Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Total
Scaled
Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Total
Scaled
Score
Corrected
Raw
Score
Total
Scaled
Score
83 660 53 500 23 340
112 800 82 650 52 500 22 340
111 800 81 650 51 490 21 330
110 800 80 640 50 490 20 330
109 790 79 640 49 480 19 320
108 790 78 630 48 480 18 320
107 790 77 630 47 470 17 310
106 780 76 620 46 460 16 310
105 770 75 620 45 460 15 300
104 770 74 610 44 450 14 300
103 760 73 610 43 450 13 290
102 760 72 600 42 440 12 290
101 750 71 590 41 440 11 280
100 750 70 590 40 430 10 280
99 740 69 580 39 430 9 270
98 740 68 580 38 420 8 270
97 730 67 570 37 420 7 260
96 730 66 570 36 410 6 260
95 720 65 560 35 410 5 250
94 710 64 560 34 400 4 250
93 710 63 550 33 400 3 240
92 700 62 550 32 390 2 220
91 700 61 540 31 390 1 210
90 690 60 540 30 380 0 200
89 690 59 530 29 380
88 680 58 530 28 370
87 680 57 520 27 370
86 670 56 520 26 360
85 670 55 510 25 360
84 660 54 510 24 350
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SCORING INFORMATION
Calculating and Verifying Your Multiple-Choice Scores
Proceed with the following steps.
1. As you match the responses on your answer sheet with the answer key on page 29, use marks to indicate
whether each answer is correct or incorrect. Cross out any questions you omitted, or for which you
marked more than one answer, because they are not counted in the scoring. The number of questions
crossed out should equal the raw score total omit figure on your score report. The number of
questions crossed out in the three sections that contributed to your verbal score and the similar number
for the three sections that contributed to the quantitative score should match the raw score verbal omit
and raw score quantitative omit figures on your score report.
2. Count the total number of questions you answered correctly in the three sections that contributed to the
verbal score. This number should match the raw score verbal right figure on your score report.
3. Then count the total number of questions you answered incorrectly in these three sections. This number
should match the raw score verbal wrong figure on your score report.
4. Divide the number answered incorrectly from Step 3 by four.
5. Subtract the result in Step 4 from the number answered correctly in Step 2. This is the correction for
guessing.
6. Round the resulting number to the nearest whole number by adding .5 and then dropping all digits to the
right of the decimal point. This number should equal the verbal corrected raw score figure on your
score report.
The table below shows three examples of corrected raw score calculations based on 40 questions (total
number of omitted or multiple-marked questions, number correct, and number wrong):
Example 1 Example 2 Example 3
Step 1- Number omitted or multiple-marked.. 8 0 5
Step 2- Number correct 20 25 30
Step 3- Number wrong. 12 15 5
Step 4- Number wrong in step 3 divided by 4... 3 3.75 1.25
Step 5- Number in step 2 minus number in step 4 17 21.25 28.75
Step 6- Rounding- Add .5 to the number in step 5 17.5 21.75 29.25
Final raw score corrected for guessing: Drop all digits
to the right of the decimal in step 6...
17 21 29
Repeat these steps using the three sections contributing to the quantitative score to calculate your
quantitative corrected raw score and all six sections contributing to the total score to obtain your total corrected
raw score. The figures you calculate should match the respective figures on your score report. The sum of your
verbal and quantitative corrected raw scores may be one point higher or lower than the total corrected raw score
due to the rounding procedure for each score.
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Conversion of Corrected Raw Scores to Scaled Scores
Use the score conversion tables on pages 30 and 31 to find the scaled score associated with each of your
corrected raw scores. The equivalent scaled scores should match those on your score report.
Your Analytical Writing Scores
Analytical Writing Assessments are offered in this test preparation product for practice purposes only. When
calculating the GMAT equivalent score on GMAT Paper Tests, the essay portion should be ignored. When
taking the GMAT, the Analytical Writing Assessment results are reported on your official score report to
schools.
Essay Insight (SM), available through www.mba.com, lets you write two practice essays on actual AWA topics
and has them scored automatically by the same technology used to score the GMAT. Your scores are objective
and accurate, so you can practice to improve.
Rescoring Service
If there are any discrepancies between your self-scoring results and those on your score report, you may request
that ETS rescore your answer sheet by submitting the appropriate fee and the form for this purpose youre your
GMAT Examinee Score Interpretation Guide. But first check your answer sheet from incomplete erasures or
light or partial marking, and check your calculations to be sure that they are accurate.
Caveats Regarding Raw Score Interpretation
1. The GMAT is designed to yield only the reported verbal, quantitative, and total scaled scores. One
should not calculate raw scores or individual test sections and infer specific strengths or weaknesses
from a comparison of the raw scores results by section. There are two reasons for this. First, different
sections have different numbers of questions, and, even if the number were the same of if percentages
were used to make the numbers comparable, the sections might not be equally difficult. For illustrative
purposes only, suppose that one section had 20 items and another had 25. Furthermore, suppose you
received corrected raw scores of 10 on the first and 10 on the second. It would be inappropriate to
conclude that you had equal ability in the two sections because the corrected raw scores were equal, as
you really obtained 50 percent for the first section and only 40 percent for the second. It would be
equally inappropriate, however, to conclude from the percentages that you did better on the first section
than on the second. Suppose the first section was relatively easy for most examinees (say, an average
corrected raw score percentage across examines of 55 percent) and the second was relatively difficult
(an average raw score percentage of 35 percent). Now you might conclude that you did less well than
average on the first section and better than average on the second.
Differences in difficulty level between editions are accounted for in the procedure for converting the
verbal, quantitative, and total corrected raw scores to scaled scores. Since the corrected raw scores for
individual sections are not converted to produce scales scores by section, performance on individual
sections of the test cannot be compared.
Second, corrected raw scores by section ate not converted to scaled scores by section because the
GMAT is not designed to reliably measure specific strengths and weaknesses beyond the general verbal
and quantitative abilities for which separate scaled scores are reported. Reliability is dependent, in part,
on the number of questions in the test- the more questions, the higher the reliability. The relatively few
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questions in each section, taken alone, are not sufficient to produce a reliable result for each section (see
Accuracy of the Scores in the GMAT Examinee Score Interpretation Guide.) Only the reported
verbal, quantitative, and total scaled scores (which are based on questions from several sections) have
sufficient reliability to permit their use in counseling and predicting graduate school performance.
2. It is possible, if you repeat the test, that your second raw scores corrected for guessing could be high
than on the first test, but your scaled scores could be lower and vice versa. This is a result of the slight
differences in difficulty level between editions of the test, which are taken into account when corrected
raw scores are converted to the GMAT scaled scores. That is, for a given scaled score, a more difficult
edition requires a lower corrected raw score and an easier edition requires a high corrected raw score.
Additional Information
If you have questions about any of the information in this booklet, please write to:
Graduate Management Admission Test
Educational Testing Service
P.O. Box 6102
Princeton, NJ 08541-6102
If you have questions about specific test questions, please indicate that test code and the number(s) of the
question(s) as well as your query or comment.
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