Electronics Engg.: Detailed Solutions of
Electronics Engg.: Detailed Solutions of
Electronics Engg.: Detailed Solutions of
Detailed Solutions of
ELECTRONICS ENGG.
PAPER-II
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3
A single-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. The load connected to the collector
is 500 and its input impedance is 1 k. Two such stages are connected in cascade
through an R-C coupling. The overall gain is
(a) 10000
(b) 6666.66
(c) 5000
(d) 1666.66
Ans.
(b)
A1
Vi
A2
Vo
Av vi1
V01 =
whereas AV2 = 100
Overall gain,
2.
Ri2 V01
Av Ri 2
100 1
= 66.66
=
R01 + Ri 2 0.5 + 1
A v = AV1 AV2
= 66.66 100 = 6666.66
Assuming VCE (Sat)= 0.3 V for a Silicon transistor at ambient temperature of 25C and
hFE = 50, the minimum base current IB required to drive the transistor into saturation
for the circuit shown is
+5 V
1 k
IB
Q
(a) 64 A
(c) 94 A
Ans.
(b) 78 A
(d) 140 A
(c)
IC
sat
IB min =
5 VCE sat
RC
IC sat
= 4.7 mA
4.7
= 94 mA
50
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3.
Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the
transistor under switching operation?
1. Saturation region
2. Cut-off region
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans.
(b)
4.
In a sinusoidal oscillator, sustained oscillations will be produced only if the loop gain
(at the oscillation frequency) is
(a) Less than unity but not zero
(b) Zero
(c) Unity
(d) Greater than unity
Ans.
(c)
Oscillators have unity loop gain.
5.
The Class-B push-pull amplifier is an efficient two-transistor circuit, in which the two
transistors operate in the following way :
(a) Both transistors operate in the active region throughout the negative ac cycle
(b) Both transistors operate in the active region for more than half-cycle but less than
a whole cycle
(c) One transistor conducts during the positive half-cycle and the other during the
negative half-cycle
(d) Full supply voltage appears across each of the transistors
Ans.
(c)
6.
Ans.
(a)
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5
7.
For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(a)
8.
Ans.
(c)
9.
The capacitance of a full wave rectifier, with 60 Hz input signal, peak output voltage
Vp = 10 V, load resistance R = 10 k and input ripple voltage Vr = 0.2 V, is
(a) 22.7 F
(b) 33.3 F
(c) 41.7 F
(d) 83.4 F
Ans.
(c)
IDC
Vr =
C=
Vm
10
=
= 1mA
RL 10 k
IDC
2foC
IDC
2fo Vr
103
= 41.66 F
2 60 0.2
10.
A full wave rectifier connected to the output terminals of the mains transformer produces
an RMS voltage of 18 V across the secondary. The no-load voltage across the secondary
of the transformer is
(a) 1.62 V
(b) 16.2 V
(c) 61.2 V
(d) 6.12 V
Ans.
(b)
VRMS =
Vm
= 18 V
2
Vm = 18 2 V
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VDCNL =
2Vm
2 18 2
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6
= 16.2 V
11.
An
1.
2.
3.
(a)
(c)
Ans.
(a)
12.
Ans.
(c)
If feedback voltage is reduced then overall gain increases.
13.
The transient response rise time (unity gain) of an Op-Amp is 0.05 s. The small signal
bandwidth is
(a) 7 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 7 MHz
(d) 20 MHz
Ans.
(c)
Bandwidth =
14.
0.35
= 7 MHz
tr
Ans.
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7
(d)
Af =
A
1 + A
Af =
800
= 266.7
1 + 25 103 800
15.
Ans.
(b)
Bandwidth =
fo
Q
16.
Ans.
(b)
17.
The most commonly used transistor configuration for use as a switching device is
(a) Common-base configuration
(b) Common-collector configuration
(c) Collector-emitter shorted configuration
(d) Common-emitter configuration
Ans.
(d)
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8
18.
The value of hFE (the hybrid parameters) of a Common-Emitter (CE) connection of a Bipolar
Junction Transistor (BJT) is given as 250. What is the value of dc (ratio of collector current
to emitter current), for this BJT?
(a) 0.436
(b) 0.656
(c) 0.874
(d) 0.996
Ans.
(d)
=
19.
= 0.996
1+
For realizing a binary half-subtractor having two inputs A and B, the correct set of logical
expressions for the outputs D (A minus B ) and X (borrow) are
1. The difference output D = AB + AB
2. The borrow output B = AB
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
(a)
The truth table of Half subtractor is shown below
A B Diff Borrow
0 0 0
0
0
1
1
0
1
1
1
0
Difference = AB + AB
Borrow = AB
20.
Ans.
(b)
f=
=
=
=
=
=
=
AB + A(B + C) + B(B + C)
AB + AB + AC + BB + BC
AB + AC + B + BC
AB + AC + B (1 + C)
AB + AC + B
B (A + 1) + AC
B + AC
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21.
Ans.
(b)
F = BD + AD + BD
BD
A
BD BD BD
0
1 1 31
A
A
BD
2
6
F = m(1, 3, 5, 7)
Converting the function from Minterms form to Maxterms form,
F = M(0, 2, 4, 6)
22.
Ans.
(b) (A + B + C )(A + B + C )
(c) (A + B )(A + C )
(d) A (B + C)
(b)
Y = (AB + C)(A + B + C)
= (AB + C) + (A + B + C )
= (AB C ) + (A + B) C
= AC + BC + AC + BC
= m(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
= M(0, 7)
= (A + B + C ) ( A + B + C )
23.
What is the maximum frequency for a sine wave output voltage of 10 V peak with an
Op-Amp whose slew rate is 1 V/s?
(a) 15.92 kHz
(b) 19.73 kHz
(c) 23.54 kHz
(d) 27.336 kHz
Ans.
(a)
fo
SR 106
2Vm
fo
1 106
2 10
fo 15.92 kHz
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24.
Ans.
(d)
In an AND gate, the output is high only when all inputs are high.
25.
The slew rate is the rate of change of output. voltage of an operational amplifier when
a particular input is applied. What is that input?
(a) Sine wave input
(b) Ramp input
(c) Pulse input
(d) Step input
Ans.
(d)
Slew rate of op-amp in measured by applying step input.
26.
Except at high frequencies of switching, nearly all the power dissipated in the switch
mode operation of a BJT occurs, when the transistor is in the
(a) Active region
(b) Blocking state
(c) Hard saturation region
(d) Soft saturation region
Ans.
(d)
27.
Ans.
(d)
A
B
C
f
Combi
g
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11
28.
Ans.
(c)
Data is routed from a single input to one of many outputs in a demultiplexer and not
in a multiplexer.
29.
Ans.
(a)
A half adder adds 2 bits.
A full adder adds 3 bits.
These are the two types of basic adder circuits.
30.
Ans.
(c)
An 8-input MUX can implement only some functions of 4 variables and not all functions
of 4 variables.
31.
For an n-bit binary adder, what is the number of gates through which a carry has to
propagate from input to output?
(a) n
(b) 2n
(c) n2
(d) n + 1
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12
Ans.
(b)
In a single adder, the carry propagates through 2 gates.
in an n-bit binary adder, the carry would propagate through 2n gates.
32.
Ans.
(d)
The propagation delay of DTL logic circuits is about 30 ns, which is relatively quite large.
33.
Which one of the following statements best describes the operation of a negativeedge-triggered D flip-flop?
(a) The logic level at the D input is transferred to Q on NGT of CLK.
(b) The Q output is always identical to the CLK input if the D input is high.
(c) The Q output is always identical to the D input when CLK = PGT.
(d) The Q output is always identical to the D input.
Ans.
(a)
Input
clk
Q+ = D
The logic level at the D input is transferred at negative edge.
34.
A 3-bit ripple counter is constructed using three T flip-flops to do the binary counting.
The three flip-flops have T -inputs fixed at
(a) 0, 0 and 1
(b) 1, 0 and 1
(c) 0, 1 and 1
(d) 1, 1 and 1
Ans.
(d)
In a ripple counter, the T inputs of all T flip flops are always applied logic 1.
35.
Ans.
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13
(b) M3 M2 M4 M0
(d) M4 M3 M2 M1
(c)
Y = A + BC
the function is plotted on K map below,
BC
A
BC
A
A
0
4
BC
1
BC
3
1
1
BC
2
Y = m(1, 4, 5, 6, 7)
Converting the function from SOP to POS form
Y = M(0, 2, 3)
= M0 M2 M3
36.
The initial content of a four-bit shift register is 1000. What is the register content after
it is shifted four times to the right, with the serial input being 111100?
(a) 1111
(b) 1100
(c) 1000
(d) 0011
Ans.
(b)
1
37.
Ans.
(c)
Conversion time of successive approximation ADC is less than up counter type, updown counter and dual slope ADC.
38.
For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(b)
In ECL, the transistors operate only in Active and Cut off regions.
39.
A flip-flop is a
(a) Combinational logic circuit and edge sensitive
(b) Sequential logic circuit and edge sensitive
(c) Combinational logic circuit and level sensitive
(d) Sequential logic circuit and level sensitive
Ans.
(b)
Flip-flop is sequential and edge triggered.
40.
Ans.
Page
14
dc
dc
dc
dc
gain
gain
gain
gain
1
0
1
0
and
and
and
and
1
will have
2s + 1
high frequency gain
high frequency gain
high frequency gain
high frequency gain
0
1
(c)
TF=
M=
M at
41.
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1
2S + 1
1
4 2 + 1
= 0 is 1 and at = is 0.
(a) 0.8 s
(c) 1.5 s
(b) 1.2 s
(d) 2.1 s
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(a)
TF=
100
S + 10S + 100
2
2n = 10 n = 5
4
4
ts (2%) = = 5 = 0.8 s
n
42.
Ans.
(c)
Wn =
600 24.5
2n = 70
= 1.43
43.
In Force-Voltage Analogy
(a) Force is analogous to current
(b) Mass is analogous to capacitance
(c) Velocity is analogous to current
(d) Displacement is analogous to magnetic flux linkage
Ans.
(c)
As per theory of analogy velocity is analogous to current.
44.
For a unity feedback control system having an open-loop transfer function G(s) =
25
,
s(s + 6)
what is the time tp at which the peak of the step input response occurs?
(a) 0.52 s
(b) 2.75 s
(c) 0.79 s
(d) 1.57 s
Ans.
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(c)
GH(s) =
25
S (S + 6)
q(s) = 1 + GH(s) = S2 + 6S + 25 = 0
n = 5 ; = 0.6 d = 4
45.
tp = = 0.79 s
d
10(s 1)
represents
(s + 10)
(c)
GH(s) =
10(s 1)
S + 10
If a system has at least a zero (or) a pole in right side of S plane then it is called Nonminimum phase system.
46.
What is the maximum input frequency limit of a 3-bit Ripple counter configured around
flip-flops, with inherent propagation delay time tpd = 50 ns?
(a) 6670 MHz
(b) 667 MHz
(c) 66.7 MHz
(d) 6.67 MHz
Ans.
(d)
fCLK =
47.
1
1
=
= 6.67 MHz
N TPD 3 50 ns
Ans.
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(c)
13 K
36
S1
36 4 4K
4
S0
48.
(a)
(c)
Ans.
n
2
2 n
(b)
(d)
3 n
2
(a)
TF=
OLTF GH(s) =
n2
S 2 + 2 nS + n2
n2
S (S + 2 n )
SGH (s)
Velocity error constant = Kv = slim
0
49.
n
S
= n
Kv = slim
0 S (S + 2 n )
2
2 3
1
1. Completely controllable
2. Completely observable
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Ijaz M Yousuf
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10
Selections in Top 20
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10
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18
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Out of
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Vacancies
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Selections in Top 10
Selections in Top 20
16
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Selections in Top 10
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Ans.
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18
(c)
0 1
0
x& = 2 3 + 1 U
[1 1] X
Y=
0 1
QC = [B AB ] = 1 3 ; QC = 1 0
For controllability
QC 0
C
1 1
Q0 = =
CA
2
2
Q0 = 4 0
For observability
50.
Q0 0
K (s + 2)
and H (s ) = 1. The breakaway point(s) of
s + 2s + 3
2
(b)
GH(s) =
K (S + 2)
S 2 + 2S + 3
Solution of
51.
dK
that lies on root locus.
dS
dK
are 2 3
dS
2 3 = 3.73 lies on root locus
How would a binary number 0010 be represented by a 4-bit binary word, if the range
of voltage is 0 to 10 V?
(a) 0.666 V
(b) 1.333 V
(c) 0.333 V
(d) 2000 V
Ans.
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19
(b)
VFS = 10 V
n=4
0010 D = 2
R=
VFS
n
2 1
10
= 0.66667
15
52.
25
, the resonant peak
s(s + 6)
(b)
GH (s ) =
25
s(s + 6)
q(s ) = 1 + GH (s ) = s2 + 6s + 25 = 0
n = 5 : = 0.6
Wr = n 1 22 = 2.67
Mr =
1
2 1 2
= 1.04
53.
The transfer function of a control system is said to be All Pass System, if it has
(a) Unit magnitude at all frequencies with anti-symmetric pole-zero pattern
(b) Unit magnitude at all frequencies with symmetric pole-zero pattern
(c) Magnitude varying with frequency and with anti-symmetric pole-zero pattern
(d) Unit magnitude at some frequencies with symmetric pole-zero pattern
Ans.
(b)
All pass system has constant magnitude response for all frequencies. This can happen
only if poles and zeros are symmetric w.r.t. j -axis.
54.
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20
Ans.
(d)
All the mentioned plots are popular and commonly used in control analysis.
55.
An
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(c)
Successive approximation ADC
DAC
Va
Control
circuit
SAR
Start EOC
56.
G(s) =
The corner frequencies in Bode's plot for this transfer function are as
(a) 10 r/s and 10 r/s
(b) 100 r/s and 10 r/s
(c) 10 r/s and 1 r/s
(d) 100 r/s and 1 r/s
Ans.
(c)
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57.
Consider the transfer function (0.1 + 0.1s) for a PD controller. What is the frequency at
which the magnitude is 20 dB (by using asymptotic Bodes plot)?
(a) 2000 r/s
(b) 1000 r/s
(c) 200 r/s
(d) 100 r/s
Ans.
(b)
20 dB
0 dB
20 dB
1
10 100 1000
58.
Ans.
(d)
Root locus obtained mainly to obtain response and stability of system.
59.
Ans.
(a)
Total number of poles = 4
Total number of zeros = 1
(2K + 1)180
PZ
K = 0, 1, 2
Angles = 60, 180, 300 (or) 60
Angles of asymptotes =
60.
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22
K
. The
s(s + 5)
(a)
GH(s) =
K
S (s + 5)
q(s) = 1 + GH(s) = S 2 + 5S + K = 0
n =
K; =
5
2 K
PM = 100 = 100
K 35
5
= 45
2 K
61.
Ans.
(a)
GM and PM of unstable system are always negative
62.
Ans.
1 + 0.5s
. The maximum
1 + 0.05s
phase lead and the corresponding frequency, respectively are nearly
(a) sin1 (0.9) and 6 r/s
(b) sin1 (0.82) and 4 r/s
1
(d) sin1 (0.82) and 6 r/s
(c) sin (0.9) and 4 r/s
(d)
Gc(s) =
Zero :
1 + 0.5S
1 + 0.05S
S = 2; pole : S = 20 ; =
Z
= 0.1
P
1 1
1
M = sin
= sin [0.82]
+
M =
Z P = 40 6
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23
63.
Ans.
(d)
Lead compensator is high pass filter hence it increases bandwidth Lag compensator
is low pass filter hence it decreases bandwidth.
64.
A proportional controller with transfer function, Kp is used with a first-order system having
its transfer function as Gc (s) =
K
, in unity feedback structure. For step inputs, an
(1 + s)
increase in Kp will
(a) Increase the time constant and decrease the steady state error
(b) Decrease the time constant and decrease the steady state error
(c) Decrease the time constant and increase the steady state error
(d) Increase the time constant and increase the steady state error
Ans.
(b)
GH(s) =
K
; G (s) = kP
1 + ST c
KK p
1 + KK p
KK p
=
CLTF =
T
1 + ST + KK p
S +1
KKP
T
time constant = 1 + KK
P
1
ess = KK
P
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65.
For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(c)
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66.
Ans.
(c)
67.
A carrier waveform 10 cos ct and modulating signal 3 cos mt have fc = 100 kHz and
fm = 4 kHz. Given that sensitivity of FM is 4 kHz/V and FM spectra beyond J6 is
negligible, what are the channel bandwidth requirements for AM and FM, respectively?
(a) 12 kHz and 48 kHz
(b) 8 kHz and 48 kHz
(c) 12 kHz and 24 kHz
(d) 8 kHz and 24 kHz
Ans.
(b)
AM BW = 2 fm = 8 kHz
FM BW = 12 fm (significant sidebands upto 6th order, so bandwidth 12 fm)
= 48 kHz
68.
When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system is
1. Amplitude modulation
2. Phase modulation
3. Frequency modulation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
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25
(c)
For FM;
kf Am
fm
69.
What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 100 kHz and
modulating frequency of 8 kHz?
(a) 4.75
(b) 5.50
(c) 6.25
(d) 7.50
Ans.
(c)
Carrier swing
2f = 100 kHz
f = 50 kHz
=
f 50
=
= 6.25
fm
8
70.
In a Pulse Code Modulated system, the number of bits is increased from 7 to 8 bits.
The improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio will be
(a) 2 dB
(b) 4 dB
(c) 6 dB
(d) 8 dB
Ans.
(c)
If k bits increased, then SQNR is increased by 6 k dB.
if one bit is increased, then SQNR is increased by 6 dB
71.
Ans.
(a)
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26
72.
If the sampling is carried out at a rate higher than twice the highest frequency of the
original signal (fmax), then it is possible to receive the original signal from the sampled
signal by passing it through
(a) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency equal to fmax
(b) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency equal to fmax
(c) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency greater than fmax
(d) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency greater than fmax
Ans.
(b)
In sampling process with sampling frequency greater than nyquist frequency for
reconstruction of original signal, LPF is used.
73.
Ans.
10(1 + 0.2s)
. The
(1 + 0.5s)
(d)
GH(s) =
10 [1 + 0.25]
1 + 0.5S
type = 0 ; P Z = 0
Phase at = 0 is 90 type = 0
phase at = is 90 (P Z) = 0
74.
The conversion time for a 10-bit successive approximation A / D converter, for a clock
frequency of 1 MHz is
(a) 1 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 15 s
Ans.
(c)
fCLK = 1 MHz
TCLK = 1 s
In successive approximation ADC, the conversion time is always constant, and is equal
to number of bits in ADC. Tconv. = 10 1 s = 10 s.
75.
The minimum bandwidth of the link needed for a guard band of 10 kHz frequency to
prevent interference between six channels, each with 100 kHz frequency, is
(a) 425 kHz
(b) 575 kHz
(c) 650 kHz
(d) 725 kHz
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27
Ans.
(c)
6 signals multiplexed. So 5 guard bands will exist
BW = 6 100 kHz + 5 10 kHz
= 650 kHz
76.
The different access methods which permit many satellite users to operate in parallel
through a single transponder without interfering with each other are
1. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
2. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
3. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(b)
In TDMA, different users access the transponder in different time slots, not parallely.
77.
Ans.
(c)
78.
Ans.
(b)
79.
Consider the following statements for multiple access system in a satellite earth station:
1. Access to same repeater sub-systems and same RF channel is possible.
2. Frequency division multiple access is used.
3. Several carriers are not amplified by same TWT.
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(c)
80.
The Bode plot of the open-loop transfer function of a system is described as follows:
Slope 40 dB/decade < 0.1 rad/s
Slope 20 dB/decade 0.1 < < 10 rad/s
Slope 0 > 10 rad/s
The system described will have
(a) 1 pole and 2 zeros
(b) 2 poles and 2 zeros
(c) 2 poles and 1 zero
(d) 1 pole and 1 zero
Ans.
(b)
As per given details Bode plot is
40
20
P=Z = 2
81.
From the Nichols chart, one can determine the following quantities pertaining to a closedloop system:
(a) Magnitude, bandwidth and phase (b) Bandwidth and phase only
(c) Magnitude and phase only
(d) Bandwidth only
Ans.
(a)
Nichols chart provides complete frequency response of a system.
82.
Ans.
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29
(a)
Tacho generator (or) derivative controller mainly used to increase system damping
K D n
2
KD = tachometer constant
new = old +
83.
Ans.
(d)
84.
Ans.
(c)
85.
In a waveguide with perfectly conducting flat wall, the angle of reflection is equal to the
angle of
(a) Diffraction
(b) Incidence
(c) Refraction
(d) Penetration
Ans.
(b)
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30
86.
Ans.
(a)
87.
A straight dipole radiator fed in the centre will produce maximum radiation at
1. The plane parallel to its axis
2. The plane normal to its axis
3. Extreme ends
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans.
(b)
88.
Ans.
(b)
Modulation is the process of transmitting low frequency message signal by combining
with high frequency carrier signal.
89.
Ans.
(c)
Sampling is done in time domain and quantization is done is amplitude domain.
90.
Ans.
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(b)
For dominant mode, fc10 =
C
3 108
=
= 15 GHz
2a 2 (1 102 )
fc10
f 1
2 (109 ) 15
1 = 313.46
3 108 1
91.
Ans.
(b)
r 1 = 1; r 1 = 1 (air) r 2 = 9 ; r 2 = 1 (dielectric)
Pt
n 2 r 1
=T2 1 =
Fraction of power transmitted =
Pin
n2 r 1 + r 2
r 2
r 1
2
2 1 9 2 2
Pt
3
1
(3)
=
=
=
2 3 = 4
1 1 + 3
Pin
1
9
+
92.
A microwave antenna with the absorbing cross-section area (A) and the power flux
density(S) in the incident wave is employed as an absorber. The absorbed power (P )
of the antenna is
(a)
A
S
(c) SA
Ans.
(b)
S
A
(d)
S +1
A 1
(c)
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93.
LASER beam of light essentially finds its application in transmission of a signal in the
optical fibre communication systems due to
(a) Incredible speed of signal communication
(b) Low loss transmission of the signal
(c) Inexpensive installation cost
(d) Bulk availability of LASER sources
Ans.
(b)
94.
Ans.
(b)
PD controller increases system bandwidth since it is analogous to high pass filter. Hence
it is highly sensitive to noise because Bandwidth Noise.
95.
Ans.
(b)
The binary equivalent of 17 is 10001
the signed magnitude system representation of +17 is 010001
2s complement representation iof 17 is
0 1 0 0 0 1
2s comp
1 0 1 1 1 1
96.
Ans.
(d)
(84)16
(2A)16
+ 84 H
2AH
5AH = (5A)16
ESE-2015
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Rank
Name
Mechanical Engineering
Personality Test
Total Marks
Rank
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Total Marks
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150
783.67
36
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148
659
Piyush Pathak
150
783.67
56
Harmandeep Singh
148
640
150
766.46
29
146
675
21
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144
712.45
39
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142
657
59
144
678.23
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140
708
11
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732.88
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140
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140
745.57
31
140
665
23
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140
709.24
41
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140
653
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140
642
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140
598
24
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140
705.12
54
65
Yogendra Singh
140
676.44
74
Electrical Engineering
Personality Test
Total Marks
Rank
Personality Test
Total Marks
13
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150
708
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144
754.88
12
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149
712
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142
801.22
11
Ankita Gupta
146
714
18
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142
743.22
22
146
687
140
791.57
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140
747.22
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97.
Ans.
(a)
In VSB bandwidth requirement will be reduced to half compared to AM.
98.
Ans.
(b)
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0 0 1111 0 0
Right shift by "3" times
0 0 0 0 0 111
99.
What is the base of the numbers for the following operation to be correct?
(54)b
= (13)b
(4)b
(a) 2
(c) 8
Ans.
(b) 4
(d) 16
(c)
(54)b
= (13)b
(4)b
100.
5.b + 4
= b+3
4
56 + 4 = 4b + 12
b=8
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34
Ans.
(b)
The signed magnitude system, has two different representation for the digit 0.
For example, for 4 bits
+0 0 000
0 1 000
101.
Ans.
(b)
Using pointer we can,
1. Goto table any entry change contents accordingly.
2. If you want to pass array no need to pass total array pass only 1st ele address.
It will reduce the length of the program and it will reduce complexity.
102.
Data transfer between the main memory and the CPU register takes place through two
registers, namely,
(a) General purpose register and MDR (b) Accumulator and Program counter
(c) MAR and MDR
(d) MAR and Accumulator
Ans.
(c)
MAR Memory Address Register
MDR Memory Data Register
When data is transferred between memory and CPU, MAR holds address of memory,
MDR holds data from memory or to memory.
103.
In a binary tree, the number of internal nodes of degree 1 is 3, and the number of internal
nodes of degree 2 is 6. The number of leaf nodes in the binary tree is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans.
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(a)
2
2
2
1
1
0
0
0
0
0
degree 2 6
degree 1 3
degree 0 7
104.
Ans.
(a)
105.
Ans.
(a)
In indirect addressing mode, once a pointer is set to memory only increment and
decrement operations are required to access or send data so less machine cycles are
required.
106.
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Ans.
(c)
Analog signal can be converted to digital by performing sampling quantization and
coding.
107.
A computer employs RAM chips of 256 bytes and ROM chips of 1024 bytes. If the
computer system needs 1 kB of RAM and 1 kB of ROM, then how many address lines
are required to access the memory?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans.
(b)
RAM 256 B
ROM 1024 B. i.e. 1 KB
1 KB of RAM and 1 KB of ROM total 2 KB
2n = N = 2 KB = 21(210) = 211
n = 11 (bits are required)
108.
A computer system has a cache with access time 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80% and average
memory access time is 20 ns. Then what is the access time for physical memory?
(a) 50 ns
(b) 40 ns
(c) 30 ns
(d) 20 ns
Ans.
(a)
Tavg
20
20
0.2x
x
=
=
=
=
=
109.
In a synchronous TDM, there are four inputs and data rate of each input connection is
3 kbps. If 1 bit at a time is multiplexed, what is the duration of each frame?
(a) 0.02 ms
(b) 0.03 ms
(c) 0.33 ms
(d) 0.22 ms
Ans.
(c)
In synchronous TDM, frame duration is equal to bit duration
frame duration =
1sec
= 0.33 msec
3000
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110.
Consider the following statements comparing static RAM with dynamic RAM :
1. In static RAM typical cell requires more number of transistors than the dynamic RAM.
2. Power consumption per bit of static RAM is less than that of dynamic RAM.
3. Dynamic RAM is less expensive than the static RAM.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans.
(d)
Static RAM More cost, power consumption
DRAM low cost and power consumption
111.
An addressing mode in which the location of the data is contained within the mnemonic,
is known as
(a) Immediate addressing mode
(b) Implied addressing mode
(c) Register addressing mode
(d) Direct addressing mode
Ans.
(b)
Location of data within Mnemonic i.e. in CMA no operands are there but operation is
done on Accumulator only.
112.
A processor has 32-bit architecture. Each instruction is 1 word long (32 bits). It has 64
registers. It supports 50 instructions, which have 2 register operands +1 immediate
operand. Assuming that the immediate operand is an unsigned integer, what is its
maximum value?
(a) 16383
(b) 32767
(c) 65536
(d) 1024
Ans.
(a)
Opcode
Reg
Reg
6 bit
6 bit
Immediate
14 bit
6 bit
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Ans.
(d)
114.
The serial connection of interrupt lines for establishing hardware priority is known as
(a) Daisy Chaining Priority
(b) Parallel Priority
(c) Polling
(d) Serial-line Priority
Ans.
(a)
In daisy changing priority, each device is verified whether it has interrupt or not
separately so more time is wasted.
Directions:
'Statement
and select
Codes:
(a)
Each of the next six (6) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
(I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully
the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
115.
Ans.
(a)
PAM can be demodulated by a process of envelope detection, where suitable integrator
will acts as envelope detector.
116
116.
Statement (I): The direction flag D in 8086 selects increment or decrement mode for
DI and/or SI registers.
Statement (II) : If D = 0, the registers are automatically decremented.
Ans.
(c)
D Direction flag in to set direction in string manipulation instructions.
D 0 ; Auto increment mode
D 1 ; Auto decrement mode
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(c)
118.
Statement (I) : The complex conjugate poles and zeros of the open-loop transfer function
have no effect on the root-loci on the real axis.
Statement (II): Angle contribution of such a pair of conjugate poles or zeros is 2 radians
on the real axis.
Ans.
(a)
Complex poles and zeros exists in pair. Hence they dont have any effect on root locus
on real axis. 2 radian angle means 0 angle. Hence it cannot change the phase of
the system.
119.
Ans.
(a)
The binary data stored in a flip flop changes only when the circuit is triggered by an
external input signal. This is the characteristic of a Bistable Multivibrator.
120.
Statement (I) : Multimode fibres are now used for long distance communication.
Statement (II): Multimode fibres have larger core-radius than single-mode fibres.
Ans.
(d)