Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Wastewater Study Guide
Wastewater Study Guide
Study Material
Wastewater Questions
1. The name of the State Agency responsible for enforcing pollution control
laws in Texas is
a. Texas Water Development Board
b. Texas Water Commission
c. Texas Section of EPA
d. Texas Commission on Environmental Quality
e. Texas Water Resource and Conservation Commission
2. The term
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
pathogenic means
Aerobic Bacteria
Anaerobic Bacteria
Fecal Matter
Coliform Bacteria
Capable of Causing Disease
3. The minimum separation between sewer lines and potable water lines is
a. 5 feet
b. 7 feet
c. 9 feet
d. 11 feet
e. 24 feet
4. A licensed wastewater operator is a professional who
a. Consistently does the best job possible
b. Practices personal safety
c. Strives to improve job knowledge
d. Strives to keep the plant and collection system in the best
appearance and working order
e. All the above
5. An important step in testing a sample for Total Suspended Solids (TSS) is
a. Settling the sample
b. Filtering the sample
c. Incubating the sample
d. Burning the sample
e. Evaporating the sample
11. Which of the following types of pipe are commonly used in a wastewater
collection system?
a. Vitrified Clay
b. Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC)
c. Ductile Iron
d. Stainless Steel
e. Both a & b
12. Before entering a confined space a worker should
a. Use approved monitoring device and check for the presence of
dangerous gases
b. Ventilate the space with a blower
c. Wear a safety harness and attach a life line
d. Enter the confined space even if another co-worker in not present
e. a, b, & c
13. A properly designed and operated primary sedimentation tank should
remove ______ percent of incoming BOD?
a. 10 to 15 %
b. 20 to 30 %
c. 30 to 40 %
d. 35 to 50%
e. None of the above
14. Which device may be used to determine the level of sewage in a lift station?
a. Air bubbler tube
b. Parshall Flume
c. Altitude Valve
d. Air Actuated Valve
e. All the above
15. What is the most important role of aerobic bacteria in the treatment of
wastewater?
a. Enhance organic matter
b. Decompose organic matter
c. Introduce workers to dangerous diseases
d. Enhance oxygen production
e. Produces Odor and Offensive Smells
19. Offensive and objectionable odors which sometimes occur in trickling filters
usually indicate that
a. The filter should be backwashed
b. The flow is too great for the filter area
c. Chlorinator is not working properly & algae is growing on the media
d. Septic conditions are present
e. All the above
20. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in the aeration tank of an activated sludge plant
should be maintained at or about
a. 1 to 2 mg/L
b. 2 to 3 mg/L
c. 2 to 4 mg/L
d. 4 to 6 mg/L
e. 0.5 to 0.75 mg/L
26.
27. An operators flow meter at the plant indicates there was 2.6 MGD flow
through the plant. What is the GPM?
a.
1805
b. 18,055
c.
1083
d. 10,833
e. None of the above
28. Point source discharges are
a. Discharges that show up in the system and at the plant from an
unidentified or explained source.
b. Discharges that come from pipes or ditches that are monitored,
controlled and inspected.
c. Discharges that have Intermittent, dispersed flows having little or no
control.
d. Discharges that contribute greatly to the BOD and COD and typically
come from dairies and farm related activities.
e. None of the above
29. Non-Point Source Discharges are
a. Discharges that have Intermittent, dispersed flows having little or no
control.
b. Discharges that come from pipes or ditches that are monitored,
controlled and inspected.
c. Discharges that come from municipalities, or industry.
d. Discharges that are high in BOD & typically come from food
establishments.
e. None of the above
30. The Texas Water Code establishes the protection of water quality and
quantity of the state by
a. Limiting what farmers can use for irrigation.
b. Establishing minimum standards for how close cattle or dairy
operations can be to a lake or receiving stream.
c. Setting stream standards, issues permits for discharges, identifies
non-point source controls, and establishes water reuse.
d. Making it almost impossible to meet effluent discharge standards.
e. None of the above.
31. The wastewater plant operator is primarily responsible for
a. Treating potable water to Safe Water Standards
b. Treating wastewater discharged from the community
c. Developing, implementing, and complying with budget
d. Collection and Containment of all non-point source water
e. Traffic law compliance while vehicles are on plant property
32. Chapter ____ of the Texas Water Code is the state law controlling water
pollution and _____ authority to control discharges in Texas.
a. Chapter 30 & Texas Commission on Environmental Quality
b. Chapter 30 & Texas Water Commission
c. Chapter 26 & Texas Commission on Environmental Quality
d. Chapter 26 & Texas Water Commission
e. Chapter 290 & Texas Commission on Environmental Quality
33. The Texas Commission on Environmental Quality can revoke an Operators
license if the operator
a. Causes a permit violation, Falsifies records, or Neglects their duty
b. Causes a permit violation, is convicted of a Felony, or DWI
c. Knowingly violates plant permit under authority of the mayor
d. Causes an environmental impact event under direction of supervisor
e. TCEQ cannot revoke a license once it has been issued
44. The majority of Dissolved Oxygen in raw sewage come from _________
a. Inorganic Decomposition
b. Facultative Decomposition
c. Organic Decomposition
d. Organic Solids
e. Potable Drinking Water
45. Each person contributes approximately ______ lbs of BOD to the system
daily.
a. 0.17
b. 0.71
c. 1.7
d. 17
e. 17.4
46. Sources of wastewater include
a. Domestic, Storm Water, Commercial, Food Processing, Agricultural, &
Industrial.
b. Domestic, Storm Water, Commercial, Agricultural & Hazardous
c. Domestic, Commercial, Agricultural, & Industrial
d. Commercial, Storm Water, Food Processing, & Industrial
e. Domestic, Commercial, Agricultural, & Industrial
47. A sewer manhole provides access into the system for cleaning or service. A
manhole is located
a. At changes in pipe composition, grade, direction & intersection
b. At changes in pipe composition, grade, direction, & intersection
c. At changes in alignment, diameter, grade, direction, & intersection
d. At the discretion of the engineer & public works director
e. Where a sewer clean out is not feasible
48. New manholes must have an inside diameter of at least _______ feet and
the entry access must be at least ______ inches.
a. 3 feet and 24 inches
b. 4 feet and 24 inches
c. 4 feet and 30 inches
d. 5 feet and 30 inches
e. There is no current standard or requirement
49. In the past _____ was used to construct manholes. This product is
prohibited for construction or grading today.
a. Concrete
b. Fiberglass
c. Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC)
d. Brick & Mortar
e. Ductile Iron or Cast
50. Vitrified clay and Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC) are the most common pipe
materials used for sewer lines but other materials are available such as
a. Ductile Iron, Cast Iron, Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene(ABS) Concrete,
Polyethylene & Asbestos Concrete
b. Stainless Steel, Galvanized, Fiberglass, Orangeburg & Copper
c. Ductile Iron, Cast Iron, Stainless Steel, & Galvanized
d. Poly, SDR-35, Orangeburg, C-900, & Schedule 80 PVC
e. Both a & b
51. In order to maintain two (2) feet per second velocity in a six (6) inch main
line, the fall per 100 feet of pipe will be
a. 0.25 percent or 3 inches
b. 0.33 percent or 4 inches
c. 0.50 percent or 6 inches
d. 0.75 percent or 8 inches
e. 1.00 percent or 10 inches
52. Whenever wastewater cannot flow to the treatment plant by _______ a
_______ is typically used.
a. Gravity / Lift Station
b. Pressure / Pressure Pump
c. Gravity / Booster Pump
d. Pressure / Lift Station
e. Gravity / Positive Displacement Pump
53. The primary cause of stoppage in a collection system is _____ and ______
a. Line breakage / Roots
b. Grit / Roots
c. Grease / Roots
d. Poor Construction / Roots
e. Customer Abuse / Grease
64. ________ are the smallest, most numerous, and most important of the
activated sludge microorganisms.
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Amoebic
e. Rotifers
65. Organic loading refers to the pounds per day of _______ per acre feet or
1,000 cubic feet of filter media
a. DO
b. BOD
c. TSS
d. Filtered Solids
e. Unsettleable Solids
66. Hydraulic loading refers to the volume of ________, including recirculation,
applied to the filter.
a. Sludge
b. Air or Oxygen
c. Water
d. Mixed Liquor
e. Total Suspended Solids
67. The most common type(s) of trickling filters are
a. Standard rate (1-4 mgd) & High rate (10-40 mgd)
b. Standard rate (2-6 mgd) & High rate (12-50 mgd)
c. Pressure rate (1-4 mgd) & Super High Rate (15-70 mgd)
d. Sand (.5 to 2 mgd) & Higher rate (7-40mgd)
e. Being replaced by Micro Filtration and are no longer being used
68. Odors occur when treatment becomes
a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic
c. Clogged
d. Overloaded
e. Infiltrated
69.
70. Using the above numbers (question 68) BOD will be reduced
a. 50 to 75 %
b. 75 to 80 %
c. 80 to 85 %
d. 85 to 90 %
e. 90 to 95 %
71. Anaerobic digesters are covered to keep out _______, and to trap useful
methane which can be used to keep the digester warm.
a. Free Oxygen
b. Free Carbon Dioxide
c. Flies, Mosquitoes, and unwanted insects
d. Trespassers
e. TCEQ Field Inspectors
72. Unstable anaerobic sludge contains streaks of _______ or _______.
a. Brown / Black
b. Brown / Green
c. Green / Black
d. Gray / Black
e. Gray / Green
73. Aerobic digestion is an __________ process whereby the aerobic bacteria
consume themselves.
a. Endemic
b. Endogenous
c. Endothermic
d. Endocrine
e. Endorphin
74. Approved disposal methods for digested, dewatered, sludges are landfill,
_____________ and ____________.
a. Incineration & Land Application
b. Belt Press & Centrifuges
c. Incineration & Solid Waste Disposal (dumpster)
d. Compost & Land Application
e. Compost & Using as a fertilizer
75. Landfill applied sludge must have a solids content of at least _______ %
a. 10 %
b. 15 %
c. 20 %
d. 25 %
e. There is no requirement or stipulation
76. Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH) is a strong _________ and reacts violently with
_________________.
a. Disinfectant / Bacteria
b. Oxidizer / Oil & hydrocarbons
c. Neutralizer / Ozone
d. Oxidizer / microorganisms
e. Disinfectant / microorganisms
77. When added to water chlorine forms _________ & __________ acid.
a. Muriatic & Hypochloric
b. Sulfuric & Muriatic
c. Hypochlorous & Sulfuric
d. Hydochlorous & Hydrochloric
e. Hydrochloric & Muriatic
78. When ammonia is present in wastewater and reacts with chlorine ________
are formed.
a. Chloramines
b. Floc
c. Methane gas
d. Hydrogen Sulfide gas
e. Nothing happens when the two are combined
79. Effluent dosage of chlorine in the contact chamber must produce a total
combine residual of
a. 0.5 mg/L after 15 minutes
b. 0.5 mg/L after 20 minutes
c. 1.0 mg/L after 10 minutes
d. 1.0 mg/L after 20 minutes
e. 2.0 mg/L after 20 minutes
80. Besides disinfection, chlorine has other uses at the wastewater treatment
plant such as
a. Reduce flies & need for other chemicals
b. Reduces BOD, Odor, Algae growth, Helps with grease
c. Reduces COD, Aids in Algae growth, & the need for other chemicals
d. Good antiseptic scrub for floors in the office & lab
e. Operators can take it home for household use
81. TCEQ allows the reuse of wastewater, some of these uses include
a. Irrigation, Aquifer Recharge, Cooling Towers, & Fire Protection
b. Irrigation, Cooling Towers & Fire Protection
c. Irrigation, Consumption by livestock, Gardens
d. Irrigation Only
e. Effluent water must be evaporated or used for irrigation only
82. All reclaimed water piping must be _______ in color.
a. White
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Brown
e. Purple
83. Before entering a manhole the operator should test for _________ and
oxygen levels and ________ the manhole before entering.
a. Methane & Washout
b. Hydrogen Sulfide & Ventilate
c. All Hazardous Gases & Ventilate
d. Gases & Put on a SCBA & life line
e. Chlorine & Wait for a co-worker
84. How many gallons will a pump pumping 650-gpm produce in 24 hours?
a.
15,600
b.
39,000
c.
93,600
d.
936,000
e. 9,360,000
85. If an operator does not have an electronic flow measuring device but knows
that the population of his entity is 3,250 he could determine that
approximately _______ gallons per day is being discharged to the
collection system.
a.
10,140
b.
42,250
c.
422,500
d. 1,014,000
e. Not enough information to compute
86. An operator knows his / her entity has a total population of 26,540.
Approximately how many pounds of BOD is discharged to the distribution
system every 24 hours?
a.
451
b. 4,511
c. 45,110
d. 1,105
e. 11,050
87. How many hours will it take to fill a 400,000 gallon wet well if the flow is
250 GPM ?
a. 16.6
b. 24.6
c. 26.4
d. 26.6
e. 28.6
88. When a municipal wastewater effluent has a high nitrate level and low
ammonia level this most likely means that
a. The effluent has received a high degree of aerobic treatment
b. The effluent has received anaerobic treatment
c. The effluent has received very little treatment
d. Nitrification has been stopped most likely by toxic materials
e. Nitrogen is being consumed by algae.
Test Questions Made Possible By TWUA
Answer Key Available To TWUA Members Contact [email protected]
114. The protozoa that causes dysentery would most likely be destroyed by
a. Aeration
b. Sun Light & Algae Blooms
c. Primary Treatment
d. Disinfection
e. Recirculation & Mixing with Influent
115. Using final plant effluent in cooling towers would be
a. Strictly prohibited by TCEQ Rules & Regulations
b. Beneficial way to reuse treated effluent
c. Obnoxious due to algae & odor issues
d. Acceptable but the water would have to be treated again before use
e. Chlorinated to 50mg/L for 2 hours before using
116. TCEQ may authorize discharge of untreated wastewater into or near a
receiving stream in extreme cases. This is referred to as
a. Beneficial Nutrients in a receiving stream
b. Avoiding Treatment
c. Bypass
d. Operator Screw Up
e. Not possible without a hugh fine from TCEQ
117. Enforcement action from TCEQ may be taken if pollution or waste violates
the Texas Water Code. Violations of the Water Code may include
a. Unauthorized Discharge, Accidental Discharge, & Health Hazard
b. Authorized Discharge, Accidental Discharge, & Health Hazard
c. Unreported Discharge, or Health Code Violation
d. Bypass, Unreported Discharge, or Health Hazard
e. Enforcement is not typically imposed for Water Code Violations
118. Solids in wastewater are classified as
a. Total (TR), Suspended (TSS), Dissolved (TDS), Settleable (SS), Nonsettleable, Floatable, Organic & Inorganic.
b. Total (TR), Dissolved (TDS) Organic, Inorganic, & Unknown
c. Treatable, Non-treatable, Volatile, Non-Volatile, & Unknown
d. Total, In suspension, Settleable, Organic & Inorganic
e. Household, Industrial, Agricultural, or inert
148. When using Hydraulic Hydro Jetting sewer cleaning equipment the
operator will want to go from a _________ manhole and clean toward the
stoppage to avoid ___________.
a. Clear or open / Forcing sewage into customer homes or businesses
b. Full or clogged / Adding unaccounted for water to treatment plant
c. Clear or open / The possibility of personal contact with untreated
sewage.
d. TCEQ approved / The possibility of a sewer spill or overflow
e. First accessible / Customer inconvenience
149. You as a new operator are directed by your supervisor to enter a sewer
manhole to retrieve large grease balls that are restricting flow. The
entity you work for does not have air monitoring / sampling equipment,
external blower to ventilate the manhole, safety line, or other safety
equipment. You voice your concerns to the supervisor and his reply is
I have been in this business more than 20 years and I have never
experience methane or hydrogen sulfide gas in this system, so if you
value your job you will get in that manhole and retrieve those grease
balls the operator should
a. Respectfully tell the supervisor to go to hell
b. Respectfully tell the supervisor that you are concerned for your
personal safety and if they provide the necessary safety equipment
you would comply with the directive.
c. Respectfully and tactfully, inform the supervisor that in your training
the instructors have warned about the dangers of entering a confined
space without proper safety equipment or testing air quality.
d. Refuse to enter and threaten the supervisor with reporting his action
to the city manager, TCEQ, and OSHA.
e. Both b & c
150. You as a new operator are working at the wastewater treatment plant that
discharges into a receiving stream and several issues over the month
have caused the plant to be out of compliance with the TCEQ permit. The
supervisor tells you to change the results of the testing so that TCEQ does
not find out about the issues or fine the entity. The operator should
a. Comply with the supervisor since the supervisor has a higher TCEQ
license than you.
b. Comply with the supervisor but retain original copies of the test results
to CYA.
c. Respectfully inform the supervisor that that is grounds for TCEQ to
revoke a license
d. Respectfully hand the test results to the supervisor and tell him to
change whatever he wants
e. Both b & c
151. The Activated Sludge Process can produce a high degree of treatment.
Typically one could expect a _______ to _______ % BOD removal
a. 50 to 75 %
b. 75 to 85 %
c. 80 to 90 %
d. 90 to 99 %
e. Properly maintained a AS Plant should produce 100 % BOD removal
152. The Activated Sludge plant has five (5) Critical Components. They are
a. Oxygen supply, Aeration tanks, Clarifiers, Return, & Waste
b. Chlorinate, Oxygenate, Aerate, Sedimentation, & Waste
c. Chlorinate, Oxygenate, Sedimentation, Clarification, & Return
d. Oxygen supply, Aeration, Sedimentation, Clarification, & Waster
e. Microorganisms, Oxygen, Aeration, Clarification, & Waste
153. The Activated Sludge process is an _____________ process.
a. Anaerobic
b. Aerobic
c. Facultative
d. Zoogleal Mass
e. Chemically Demanding
154. In the activated sludge process aeration tanks provide the space
necessary to _______, ________, & _______ and return biological solids.
a. Mix, Aerate, & Hold Influent
b. Chlorinate, Aerate, & Settle
c. Mix, Chlorinate, & Hold Influent
d. Oxygenate, Settle, & Hold Effluent
e. Mix, Aerate, & Hold Effluent
155. In the active sludge process, Utilization is the process of
a. Food digestion that changes food source into waste
b. Food supply that changes food sources into waste
c. Food supply that is changed into a liquid state for use
d. Microorganisms getting rid of unusable food source
e. None of the above
156. In the activated sludge process, Stabilization is
a. Food sources biologically converted to water, carbon dioxide, or cells
b. Food sources that are changes into a liquid state for use
c. The biological process whereby excess food supply is converted to
waste.
d. Wastes biologically converted to water, carbon dioxide, or new cells
e. None of the above
157. In the activated sludge process, the _______ is called the heart of the
activated sludge process.
a. Contact Stabilization
b. Mechanical Bar Screen & Grit Removal
c. Clarifier
d. Sludge Recycling
e. Sludge Waste
158. In the activated sludge process, factors that will influence the operation of
the final clarifier are
a. Loading, Solids applied, Settling, Thickness of solids, Rate of return &
Wasting
b. COD of solids applied, Sedimentation time, Thickness of sludge
blanket, & Sludge wasting.
c. Liquids applied, Settling time, Thickness of sludge, Recirculation, &
Wasting
d. Chlorine Contact time, Thickness of sludge, Rate of return & Wasting
e. Time, Temperature, Loading, Settling, & Wasting
Test Questions Made Possible By TWUA
Answer Key Available To TWUA Members Contact [email protected]
159. In the activated sludge process, the clarifier will concentrate return sludge
and waste sludge about ______ to _______ times the solids concentration
of the mixed liquor.
a. One (1) to Three (3)
b. One (1) to Four (4)
c. Two (2) to Three (3)
d. Two (2) to Four (4)
e. Two (2) to Five (5)
160. In the activated sludge process, for the clarifier to do its job, the _______
must be retained long enough to allow ______ to settle and liquid to rise.
a. Solids / Water
b. Supernatant / Water
c. Water / Solids
d. Solids / Waste Sludge
e. Solids / Floc
161. In the activated sludge process, as more mixed liquor flows to the
clarifier, the thickness of the sludge blanket will
a. Increase as solids accumulate
b. Decrease as solids are used
c. Stay constant
d. Require more recycling & waste to drying beds
e. Mixed liquor flow has no effect on the sludge blanket
162. In the activated sludge process, biological solids from the bottom of the
clarifier must be returned to the aeration basin for re-seed. This process
is accomplished by
a. Hydraulic pump, Roller pump, Split case pumps, Screw pumps &
Gravity flow.
b. Air lift pumps, Centrifugal pumps, Diaphragm pumps, Screw pumps &
Gravity flow.
c. Pressure pump, Submersible pump, Centrifugal pump, Screw pump &
Gravity flow.
d. Vertical turbine pump, Centrifugal pump, Screw pump, & Gravity flow.
e. The only way to move the solids without damaging microorganisms is
Gravity flow.
163.
167. In the activated sludge process, the term Gould Sludge Age refers to
a. How long in minutes a pound of solids stays in the aerator
b. How long in hours a pound of solids stays in the aerator
c. How long in days a pound of solids stays in the aerator
d. How long in total time sludge has been in the aeration chamber
e. How long it takes for sludge to make it through all treatment
processes
168. In the activated sludge process, Gould Sludge Age (GSA) is calculated by
a. Subtracting the total pounds of TSS in the aerator by the pounds of
TSS entering the aerator as raw
b. Dividing the total pounds of TSS in the aerator by the pounds of TSS
entering the aerator as raw
c. Adding the total pounds of TSS in the aerator by the pounds of TSS
entering the aerator as raw
d. Dividing the BOD of treated sludge in aerator by the BOD of sludge
entering the aerator as raw
e. Taking a sample of the sludge in the aerator and estimating in days
how long it will take to break down.
169. In the activated sludge process, the term Mean Cell Residence Time
(MCRT) refers to
a. The longer a cell is kept in the aeration the more resistant it becomes
b. The number of times that a living cell is circulated
c. The amount of time the living cells are kept in the plant
d. The amount of time that it takes to draw sludge to a drying bed
e. The amount of time that it takes from raw sludge entering the plant to
processed sludge being wasted to dewatering.
170. In the activated sludge process, daily observation of the aeration basin
treatment processes are essential. The operator should pay close
attention to
a. Temperature, Foaming, Color, & Inflow
b. Inflow, Sludge floating, Recirculation, Chlorination, & Odors
c. Flies, Snails, Foaming, Odors, & Effluent quality
d. Surface turbulence, Foam, Odors, & Color
e. The activated sludge plant requires very little maintenance or daily
care
171. In the activated sludge process, daily observation of the final clarifier is
also essential. The operator should pay close attention to
a. Temperature, Sludge blanket, Weir Flow, Clarifier Sloughing, & Outflow
b. Surface scum, Sludge blanket, Weir flow, Rising solids, & Clarifier
overflow
c. Floating solids, Sludge going over the weir, Rising solids, & Clarifier
overflow
d. Microorganisms, Surface scum, Weir flow, Rising solids, & Clarifier
Overflow
e. Color, Odor, Foaming, Surface scum, Weir flow, Rising solids, &
Outflow quality
172. In the activated sludge process, five (5) important control parameters are
a. BOD level, Aerator solids level, Solids quality, Rate of returned sludge,
& Wasting rate
b. TSS levels of inflow, Aerator detention time, Solids quality, Rate of
returned sludge, & Wasting rate
c. Dissolved Oxygen level, Aerator solids level, Solids quality, Rate of
returned sludge, & Wasting rate
d. Total suspended solids, Total settled solids, Detention time, Sludge
quality, amount of sludge sent to dewatering
e. Floating solids, Dissolved Oxygen levels, Foaming, Odor, Weir Overflow
173. In the activated sludge process, Dissolved Oxygen levels throughout the
aeration basins are measured using a portable DO Meter. The operator
should keep DO levels between _______ and _________.
a. 0.5 mg/L and 1.5 mg/L
b. 1.0 mg/L and 3.0 mg/L
c. 1.75 mg/L and 5.0 mg/L
d. 2 mg/L and 4.0 mg/L
e. 2.5mg/L and 5.0 mg/L
174. In the activated sludge process, Classic Bulking is a common problem
typically caused by
a. Low density sludge
b. High density sludge
c. Low Detention Times
d. Unexpected High BOD loading
e. Dying microorganisms
175. In the activated sludge process, Sludge Rising differs from Sludge
Bulking and Sludge Rising is typically associated
a. Carbon Dioxide trapped in the sludge blanket
b. Nitrification De-nitrification process
c. Ammonia & Oxygen released from the sludge blanket
d. Too much chlorine in the influent
e. Dissolved Oxygen level in the final clarifier too high
176. In the activated sludge process, techniques used to reduce Frothing &
Foaming typically include
a. Adjusting sludge age, Reducing the amount of air, Spraying the
frothing area with water, Applying de-foaming agents
b. Adjusting recycle rate, Increasing DO, Spraying the frothing area with
Ammonia, & Wasting sludge
c. Reducing sludge age, Increasing air, Increasing detention times, &
wasting more of the sludge blanket
d. Adjusting sludge age, Increasing DO, Return more processed sludge
and mix with raw inflow
e. Frothing only occurs in extreme cases and typically takes care of itself
without operator interference
177. In the activated sludge process, floc is very important to the settling
process. Floc is composed primarily of
a. Bacteria, Synthetic polymers, & Fungi
b. Enzymes, Bacteria, Synthetic polymers & Fungi
c. Microtopes, Protozoa, & Fungi
d. Bacteria, Protozoa, Microscopic Animals, & Fungi
e. Chemically injected after the grit chamber but prior to sedimentation
178.
179. In the activated sludge plants the operator will experience problems.
Some of the common Influent problems include
a. Organic overloading, Pump stations have more capacity than plant,
Inflow & Infiltration typically not considered in plant design so short
cycle times are a problem, Shock loading, & Toxic substances
b. Septic inflow, Organic overloading or under loading, Hydraulic
overloading, Solids washout during storm inflow, Toxic substances,
Shock loads, & Nutrient deficiencies
c. Grease, chemicals, chlorine residual too high, BOD too low, need a
constant supply & level of solids, Inflow & Infiltration & Nutrient
deficiencies
d. Inflow to a activated sludge plant has very little effect on operation but
the operator should watch for illegal dumping of toxic materials
e. No consistency, high flow & low flows create a surging in the plant
which disrupts sludge sedimentation and causes bulking
180. In the activated sludge plants, the operator will experience problems.
Some of the common Operational problems include
a. Sludge quality, Foaming, Improper operating techniques
b. Sludge consistency, Mechanical failures, Microorganisms die off
c. Odors, Foaming, Operators not understanding lab analysis or how to
correct deficiencies
d. Recycling pumps and lines are typically undersized causing septic
sludge, foaming, Operator training & Understanding of the plant
e. Both a & d
181. In the activated sludge plants, the operator will experience problems.
Some of the common Environmental problems include
a. High temperatures, High pH, & Excessive algae growth
b. Sunlight, Wind, temperatures & pH
c. Temperature fluctuations , Odor discharges, & pH on effluent
d. Low temperatures, Odors, System pH out of range, & sludge wasting
e. Low temperatures, System pH out of range, & Excessive algae growth
182. In the activated sludge plants, to properly set the clarifier return rate the
operator must know three things
a. Waste sludge rate, Detention time, & TSS
b. Return activated sludge rate, Sludge blanket thickness, & the Solids
concentration of the return flow
c. Inflow BOD, Detention time, Outflow DO level
d. Return activated sludge rate, DO level in the final clarifier, & Total
Solids in the return flow
e. Sludge flows downhill, Keep your mouth shut around filter flies, & The
Boss is a grouchy SOB.
183. The typical sludge age for extended aeration plants is
a. 10 to 30 days
b. 15 to 45 days
c. 20 to 30 days
d. 20 to 40 days
e. 40 to 90 days
184. In the activated sludge plant, good quality sludge will settle _______ &
__________ over __________ minute period.
a. Gently & Uniformly over 20 to 30 minutes
b. Gently & Uniformly over 15 to 20 minutes
c. Rapidly and ragged over 10 to 15 minutes
d. Rapidly and uniformly over 10 to 20 minutes
e. Evenly and stacked over 15 to 20 minutes
185. In the activated sludge plant, old sludge quality will settle _________ &
___________ over ___________ minute period.
a. Rapidly and ragged over 5 minutes
b. Rapidly and ragged over 10 minutes
c. Gently and ragged over 5 minutes
d. Gently and ragged over 10 minutes
e. Rapidly and uniformly over 5 minutes
186. In the activated sludge plant, there are five (5) important nitrogen
transformation processes that occur by microorganisms. They are
a. Assumption, Nitrification, Denitrification, Nitrogen Fixation, &
Neutralization
b. Binding, Ammonification, Nitrification, Denitrification, Nitrogen Fixation
c. Assumilation, Ammonification, Nitrification, Denitrification, & Nitrogen
fixation
d. Ammonification, Nitrification, Denitrification, Absorption, &
Neutralization
e. Assumilation, Absorption, Ammonification, Nitrification, & Fixation
187. ________ in the effluent from an activated sludge process is a pollutant
and may create toxic conditions for aquatic life in the receiving stream
a. Ammonia
b. Nitrates
c. Nitrides
d. Nitrogen
e. Alkalinity
188. Denitrification occurs in an activated sludge system when there is
_________________________ to maintain the aerobic metabolism of the
carbon stabilizing bacteria.
a. Too high BOD in plant influent
b. Too low BOD in plant influent
c. Abundant Dissolved Oxygen
d. Nitrite level is too low
e. Insufficient Dissolved Oxygen
189. The lack of _______________ triggers the facultative bacteria to change
from aerobic to anaerobic.
a. Compressed Oxygen
b. Nitrogen Source
c. Carbon Source
d. Dissolved Oxygen
e. Floc
193. In the activated sludge system if the operator observed uneven surface
aeration, dead spots or inadequate mixing in some areas, the operator
would suspect
a. Plugged diffusers
b. Not enough air in the treatment process so increase air SCFM to retain
more DO
c. Inflow greater than treatment capacity of unit
d. Someone has dumped toxic chemicals and microorganisms are dying
e. The power outage to the plant is effecting the decomposition rate
194. In the activated sludge system, if the operator observes white thick
billowing sudsy foam on the aeration tank, the operator would suspect
a. Low flow to the aeration tank and or not enough sludge wasting
b. Low flow to the aeration tank and or excessive sludge wasting
c. Overloaded aeration tank and or excessive sludge wasting
d. Overloaded aeration tank and not enough sludge wasting
e. Organics in the inflow have changed and the entire process will need
to be recalibrated.
195. In the activated sludge system, if the operator observes excessive air
being used with no apparent change in organic or hydraulic loading, the
operator would suspect
a. Sludge blanket is turning over, Plugged air diffusers & High inorganic
loading
b. Leaks in the system piping, Plugged air diffusers & High organic
loading
c. Short circuit in detention basin, Plugged air diffusers & High organic
loading
d. Plugged air diffusers, High organic loading, & Time to waste sludge
e. Temperature has dropped, plugged air diffusers, & too much sludge
was wasted
196.
197. As an operator of a wastewater plant you are treating a flow of 21 MGD, what
is the flow in gallons per minute?
a. 1,458
b. 5,833
c. 8,750
d. 14,583
e. 87,500
198. The maximum safe withdrawal rate for a 150 lb. chlorine cylinder is
a. 25 lbs
b. 30 lbs
c. 35 lbs
d. 40 lbs
e. Draw as much as needed or until the cylinder lines freeze
.96
15.0
28.8
96.5
Not enough information to compute