Mock Board Examination in Esat B
Mock Board Examination in Esat B
Mock Board Examination in Esat B
b) an SWR meter
c) a counter
d) a variable LC oscillator with metered feedback
current
18) Refers to an emission designation for facsimile
a) J3E and F4E
b) A3J and A4E
c) A3C and F3C
d) R3E and A3E
19) How does a SSB transmitter output power
normally expressed?
a) Average power
b) Peak power
c) In terms of peak-to-peak power
d) In terms of peak envelope power
20) An increase in the effective power radiated by an
antenna in a certain desired direction at the
expense of power radiated in other directions.
a) Antenna gain
b) Antenna back lobe ratio
c) Antenna total ratio
d) Antenna efficiency
21) Designates the sensation of low or high in the
sense of the base and treble.
a) SPL
b) Pitch
c) Frequency
d) Intensity
22) Sound intensity is given as:
a) df / dP
b) dP / dA
c) dE / dP
d) dA / dP
23) A method of expressing the amplitude of complex
non-periodic signals such as speech.
a) volume
b) frequency
c) pitch
d) wavelength
24) A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm
and above).
a) tweeter
b) triaxial speaker
c) coaxial speaker
d) woofer
25) Another SEG function that allows a person to be
superimposed on another scene.
a) special effect generator
b) chroma keying
c) wiper
d) visual effect
26) A form of telecommunication for the transmission
of transient images of fixed moving objects.
a) E-mail
b) Internet
c) Television
d) Radio
27) A good example of a pilot tone system used in
commercial frequency modulation stations.
a) FDM
b) Time division
c) Stereo multiplexing
d) Frequency modulation
28) A convenient method of determining antenna
impedance.
a) reactance circle
b) stub matching
c) Smith chart
d) Trial and error
29) Unity gain antenna.
a) half-wave dipole
b) rhombic
c) dummy
d) isotropic
30) A region in front of a parabolic antenna.
a) Transmission zone
b) All of these
c) Fraunhofer
d) Fresnel
31) An antenna that can only receive a television
signal.
a) Isotropic antenna
b) Reference antenna
c) TVRO
d) Yagi antenna
32) Radiation pattern of a discone
a) figure of eight
b) bi-directional
c) omnidirectional
d) unidirectional
33) Radio wave concentration in the direction of the
signal emitted by a directional antenna.
a) Back lobe radiation
b) Transmitted signal
c) Side lobe radiation
d) Major lobe radiation
34) The reflector and director of an antenna array are
considered as:
a) Transcendental elements
b) Feed-points
c) Driver elements
d) Parasitic elements
35) An electronic equipment used to measure
standing wave ratio.
a) Altimeter
b) Multimeter
c) Reflectometer
d) Wavemeter
36) The product of the power supplied to the antenna
and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole in a
given direction.
a) Rated power
b) ERP
c) Peak envelope power
d) Carrier power
37) What makes an antenna physically long but
electronically short?
a) Adding C in series
b) All of these
c) Top loading
d) Adding L in series
38) Gateway can interconnect LANs that have ___
protocols and formats.
a) the same
b) different or the same
c) totally different
d) none of these
39) Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
a) quantizing, sampling & coding
b) sampling, quantizing, & coding
c) sampling, coding, & quantizing
d) coding, quantizing, & coding
40) Transmission sent in both directions
simultaneously
a) Full duplex
b) Duplex
c) Half-duplex
d) Simplex
41) ____ detects the satellite signal relayed from the
feed and convers it to an electric current, amplifies
and lower its frequency.
a) Feedhorn
b) Satellite dish
c) Satellite receiver
d) LNB
42) What kind of battery panels is used in some
advance satellites?
a) Gallium Arsenide solar panel
b) Germanium based panels
c) Silicon based panels
d) Gallium Phosphate solar panel
43) Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe.
a) Satellite radiation polarization
b) Satellite navigation
c) Satellite radiation pattern
d) Satellite coverage
44) AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia?
a) 38
b) 40
c) 44
d) 42
45) Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a
single-mode fiber cable.
a) 0.2 dB
b) 0.3 dB
c) 0.09 db
d) 0.38 dB
b) 1300 nm
c) 1550 nm
d) any of these
55) What wavelength has the minimum loss in optical
fibers?
a) 850 nm
b) 1300 nm
c) 1550 nm
d) 1310 nm
56) The easy way to avoid intermodal dispersion is to
use
a) graded index fiber
b) plastic fiber
c) glass fiber
d) single mode fiber
57) Intermodal dispersion may be overcome by using
a) coherent light source
b) highly sensitive detectives
c) step index fiber
d) graded index fiber
58) A microcomputer attached to a network requires a
___.
a) dongle
b) network interface card
c) RS-232
d) Software
59) To ___ is to send a file to a remote computer.
a) upload
b) download
c) call
d) transmit
60) ___ network topology has more than one level of
host computer.
a) Star
b) Bus
c) Hierarchical
d) Ring
61) It is the term that is used to describe the form or
the shape of a network.
a) network model
b) network layer
c) network topology
d) network protocol
62) The term ___ was devised by the telephone
company to describe a specific type of equipment
but today, it is used to describe a general carrier
system, a date rate, and various framing
conventions.
a) OSI System
b) T1 System
c) Digital Service Unit
d) Channel Service Unit
63) It describes how terminals are connected logically
by an international link while each terminal is
operating within its own packet mode data
network.
a) X.24
b) X.25
c) RS-232
d) X.75
64) The connectionless-mode network service
manages ___ as independent entities.
a) packets
b) routers
c) frames
d) token
65) It is a widely used transport protocol which has the
job to deliver and receive data across network
boundaries.
a) Data Link Protocol
b) Transmission Control Protocol
c) Data Field
d) Control Field
66) The ___ protocol provides the user interface to the
Medium Access Control Sublayer.
a) Data Link Control
b) Logical Link Control
c) IEEE protocol 802.4
d) IEEE protocol 802.3
67) It is the transmission of documents or graphics.
a) E-mail transmission
b) Facsimile transmission
c) Digital transmission
d) Analog transmission
68) A network switching that creates a dedicated
temporary connection between computers in a
network.
a) Circuit switching
b) Message switching
c) Packet switching
d) Virtual switching
69) A data network that is built and owned by a
common carrier.
a) Public data network
b) Private data network
c) Leased line network
d) Node
70) A data communications component that provides
control or supporting services for other computers,
terminals, or devices in a network.
a) Host
b) Communications controller
c) Cluster controller
d) Interface equipment
71) A conceptual network in which all transmission
lines handle digital or digitized data.
a) Local Area Network
b) Wide Area Network
c) Integrated Services Digital Network
d) Public Switch Telephone Network
72) A device that provides a communication between
logically or physically separated network.
a) Router
b) Hub
c) Bridge
d) Modem
73) A radio system that uses digital multiplexing
technology to increase the capacity of the special
mobile radio channels.
a) Electronic Data System
b) Enhanced Radio Technology
c) Enhanced Special Mobile Radio
d) Electronic Mobile System
74) A feature that permits a subscriber to dial a
number by calling the number out to the cellular
phone, instead of punching the numbers in the
phone. This technology has been offered to
several models of mobile phones which contribute
to convenience as well as driving safety.
a) automatic dialing system
b) voice-activated dialing
c) automatic call system
d) voice-controlled system
75) It is the commonly used cellular network that
transmits voice and data over cellular channels
using analog technology.
a) A system
b) B system
c) Circuit-switched
d) Amplitude Modulated System
76) The amount of time the subscriber can leave the
fully charges cellular portable or transportable
phone turned on before the phone will completely
discharge the batteries.
a) battery time
b) standby time
c) battery life
d) cellular time
77) A process that provides security for wireless
information. Information is encoded so that it can
be read by a device with a matching decoding
procedure.
a) wireless decoder
b) cellular decoder
c) encryption
d) decoder
78) A measure of the probability that a call offered to a
group of trunks or circuits will fail to find idle circuit
at the first attempt.
a) busy hour
b) traffic quantity
c) grade of service
d) erlang
79) The aggregate engagement time or occupancy
time of one or more traffic paths.
a) busy hour
b) traffic quantity
c) grade of service
d) erlang
80) Continuous hour period that has the maximum
average traffic intensity.
a) busy hour
b) traffic quantity
c) grade of service
d) erlang
81) What is the basic measurement of quality in PCM
link?
a) slipping rate
b) bit error rate
c) S/N ratio
d) Average power
82) The part of PCM signal which consist of a series
of bit stream after quantizing and coding which
contains a full sequence or cycle of PCM process.
a) pulse frame
b) period
c) address
d) data
83) In AM, 100% modulation means an increase in
total power by ___.
a) 25%
b) 75%
c) 100%
d) 50%
84) Emission with only one sideband transmission
a) A3E
b) 3AJ
c) 11BE
d) H3E
85) In radio emission designation, what letter in the in
the first symbol represent a double-sideband type
of modulation?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
86) In radio receivers, mixing process means?
a) interference elimination
b) The combination of two signals to produce
sum and difference frequencies.
c) The elimination of noise in a wideband
receiver by phase differentiation
d) The elimination of noise in a wideband
receiver by phase comparison
87) Emission F3F refers to
a) Facsimile
b) Modulated CW
c) RTTY
d) Television
88) Sound intensity is given as:
a. dP/dA
b. dE/dP
c. df/dP
d. dP/dE
a. 20 millipascal
b. 20 micropascal
c. 30 micropascal
d. 40 micropascal
96) A sound pressure amplitude level of 0.4 Pa
corresponds to a sound pressure level in dB equal
to:
a. 26
b. 40
c. 86
d. 56
97) An SPL of 58 dB means:
a. 0.15 Pa
b. 0.016 Pa
c. 1.8 Pa
d. 2 Pa
98) Absence of reception.
a. skip distance
b. maximum usable
c. shadow zone
d. twilight zone
99) Each point on a spherical wavefront maybe a
source of a secondary spherical wavefront.
a. Snells Law
b. Huygens Principle
c. Rayleighs Principle
d. De Morgans theorem
100) Determine the field strength at 1 mile for a
vertical antenna wavelengths high when
power is 1 kw and antenna loop resistance is 8
ohms.
a. 0.4 V/m
b. 5 mV/m
c. 1 mV/m
d. 0.2 V/m
52. D corner
53. D material dispersion and wavelength
dispersion
54. B 1300 nm
55. C 1550 nm
56. D single mode fiber
57. D graded index fiber
58. B network interface card
59. A upload
60. C Hierarchical
61. C network topology
62. B T1 System
63. D X.75
64. A packets
65. B Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
66. B Logical Link Control
67. B Facsimile transmission
68. A Circuit Switching
69. A Public Data network
70. A Host
71. C Integrated Services Digital Network
72. C Bridge
73. C Enhanced Special Mobile Radio
74. B voice-activated dialing
75. C Circuit-switched
76. B standby time
77. C encryption
78. C grade of service
79. B traffic quantity
80. A busy hour
81. B bit error rate
82. A pulse frame
83. D 50%
84. D H3E
85. A A
86. B The combination of two signals to produce
sum and difference frequencies.
87. D Television
88. A dP/dA
89. C 10-8 to 10-1 W/m2
90. B 10W
P = IA = (103W/m2)(104m2) = 10 W
91. A 10 log I/Iref
92. B 10 12 W/m2
93. A 90
dB = 10 log (I/Iref)
dB = 10 log [(10-3W/m2) / (10-12W/m2)]
dB = 90
94. A 20 log P/Pref
95. B 20 micropascal
96. C 86
SPL = 20 log (P/Pref)
Where:
P = pressure amplitude in pascals, Pa
Pref = 20 Pa
SPL = 20 log [(0.4) / (20 x 10-6)] = 86
97. B 0.016 Pa
SPL = 20 log (P/Pref)
58 = 20 log (P/20 x 10-6)
P = 0.01588 Pa
98. C Shadow zone
99. B Huygens Principle
100.
0.4 V/m