HR MCQsssss
HR MCQsssss
2. Human resource managers generally exert _____ within the human resources department and
_____ outside the human resources department.
a. line authority; implied authority
b. staff authority; line authority
c. line authority; staff authority
d. functional control; authoritarian control
e. staff authority; specific authority
6. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?
a. instituting flexible work hours
b. providing elder care
c. hiring more women
d. rehiring retirees
e. lowering the retirement age
8. Quantitative performance measures used by human resource managers to assess operations are
called _____.
a. ratios
b. benchmarks
c. metrics
d. grades
e. goals
9. The _____ metric can be used as a measurement to show improvements to savings in recruitment
and retention costs.
a. absence rate
b. cost per hire
c. HR expense factor
d. human capital ROI
e. time to fill
10. Which metric indicates the cost of health care per employee by providing the per capita cost of
employee benefits?
a. HR expense factor
b. human capital ROI
c. health care costs per employee
d. human capital value added
e. revenue factor
11. The _____ metric views human resource expenses in relation to the total operating expenses of
the organization.
a. HR expense factor
b. human capital ROI
c. health care costs per employee
d. human capital value added
e. revenue factor
12. _____ are a useful tool for determining why employees are leaving an organization.
a. BNA Turnover Reports
b. Exit interviews
c. Benchmarks
d. HR portals
e. Turnover rates
13. Which of the following human resource practices can be useful in reducing workers
compensation cost per employee?
a. safety training
b. disability management
c. safety incentives
d. all of the above
15. The term _____ means contributing in a measurable way to achieving the companys strategic
goals.
a. competitive advantage
b. achievement success
c. value creation
d. success metric
e. none of the above
16. Managers use a (n) _____ to measure the HR functions effectiveness and efficiency in
producing employee behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic goals.
a. metric
b. HR Scorecard
c. benchmark
d. high performance work system
e. MBO format
21. In which area must HR managers be proficient in order to perform well in todays environment?
HR MCQS
a. HR proficiencies
b. business proficiencies
c. leadership proficiencies
d. learning proficiencies
e. all of the above
22. Companies may use a (n) _____ to provide employees with a single access point or gateway on a
companys intranet to all human resource information.
a. database
b. HR portal
c. data warehouse
d. ASP
e. URL
24. _____ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a
member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group.
a. Disparate treatment
b. Disparate impact
c. Unintentional discrimination
d. Adverse impact
HR MCQS
e. Prima facie
25. _____ refers to the total employment process those results in a significantly higher percentage of
a protected group in the candidate population being rejected for employment, placement, or
promotion.
a. Disparate treatment
b. Disparate impact
c. Unintentional discrimination
d. Adverse impact
e. Prima facie
26. A _____ approach to showing adverse impact means demonstrating that the employers policy
intentionally or unintentionally excluded members of a protected group.
a. disparate rejection rates
b. restricted policy
c. population comparisons
d. McDonnell-Douglas test
e. prima facie
27. The _____ approach compares the percentage of the minority/protected group and white workers
in the organization with the percentage of the corresponding groups in the labor market.
a. disparate rejection rates
b. restricted policy
c. population comparisons
d. McDonnell-Douglas test
e. all of the above
29. Performing external and internal audits is the _____ step in the strategic management process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
31. A companys _____ strategy identifies the portfolio of businesses that comprise the company
and ways in which these businesses relate to each other.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
d. vertical integration
e. competitive
32. A companys _____ strategy identifies the how to build and strengthen the businesss long-term
competitive position in the marketplace.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
d. vertical integration
e. competitive
33. A companys _____ strategy identifies the basic courses of action that each department will
pursue in order to help the business attain its competitive goals.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
d. vertical integration
e. competitive
34. A _____ strategy implies that the firm will expand by adding new product lines.
a. consolidation
b. diversification
c. geographic expansion
d. integration
e. competitive
35. A _____ means the firm is expanding by producing its own materials or acquiring a retail outlet
to sell its own products.
a. consolidation
b. diversification
c. geographic expansion
d. vertical integration
e. competitive
HR MCQS
37. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule is
included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
45. A (n) _____ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed.
a. organization chart
b. process chart
c. value chain
d. job preview
e. job description
46. _____ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the
job done.
a. job specification
b. job analysis
HR MCQS
c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
48. Which two data collection methods are frequently used together?
a. direct observation and interviewing
b. questionnaires and direct observation
c. interviewing and questionnaires
d. diaries and interviewing
e. most are used individually
50. What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
e. none of the above
51. The _____ assigns a quantitative score to each job based on its decision-making, skilled activity,
physical activity, equipment operation, and information-processing characteristics. This
technique can be conducted online?
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. position analysis questionnaire
c. functional job analysis
d. log approach
e. all of the above
52. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
a. job title
b. job summary
c. relationships statement
d. major functions or activities
e. all of the above
54. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include _____.
a. quality of training
b. length of previous service
c. previous job performance
d. physical traits
e. all of the above
55. Which of the following work behaviors is considered generic or important to all jobs?
a. industriousness
b. intelligence
c. experience
d. morality
e. motivation
56. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the number of
activities they perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
57. _____ means systematically moving workers from one job to another.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
58. ______ means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to
experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
59. _____ refers to broadening the responsibilities of the companys jobs, and encouraging
employees not to limit themselves to whats on their job descriptions.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Dejobbing
60. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic
improvements in performance is called _____.
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a. job redesign
b. reengineering
c. process engineering
d. job enlargement
e. outsourcing
61. Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral competencies
necessary for good job performance is called a _____.
a. competency-based job analysis
b. Department of Labor Procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. SOC classification system
e. none of the above
62. When interviewers write a job description with a list of job duties, required knowledge, skills,
abilities and other worker qualifications, they are _____.
a. analyzing the job
b. rating the jobs duties
c. creating interview questions
d. creating benchmark answers
e. appointing the interview panel
HR MCQS
64. When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called _____.
a. employment planning
b. succession planning
c. selection
d. interviewing
e. testing
66. Which term below means studying variations in a firms employment levels over time?
a. ratio analysis
b. trend analysis
c. graphical analysis
d. computer analysis
e. all of the above
68. The process of making forecasts based on the ration between some causal factor like sales
volume and the number of employees required is called _____.
a. ratio analysis
b. trend analysis
c. graphical analysis
d. computer analysis
e. all of the above
70. _____ contain data on employees performance records, educational background, and promotion
recommendations.
a. Computerized information systems
b. Replacement charts
c. Qualifications inventories
d. Trend records
e. Personnel files
72. Which tool below can be used in databases to protect the information?
a. passwords
b. encryption
c. access matrices
d. work experience codes
e. intranets
74. Which of the following is not a reason to recruit through a central office?
a. reduction of duplication of efforts
b. shared expenses
c. development and availability of recruitment experts
d. autonomous divisions
e. synergistic recruiting opportunities
76. When evaluating the effectiveness of recruitment sources, what should be measured?
a. the cost of using each source
b. the number of applicants produced
c. the quality of applicants produced
d. the time involved in using each source
e. both b and c
HR MCQS
77. Which method listed below has the highest level of validity for predicting job performance?
a. work sample tests
b. biographical data
c. grade point average
d. SAT scores
e. ratings of training and experience
78. A _____ can be used to calculate the number of applicants necessary to result in hiring the
required number of new employees.
a. trend analysis
b. ratio analysis
c. recruiting yield pyramid
d. computer information system
e. log function
79. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant
positions?
a. knowledge of candidates strengths and weaknesses
b. potential to upset or lose employees who arent promoted
c. accurate view of skill sets
d. high commitment to the company
e. reduced training and orientation required
85. When constructing the ad, it is important to consider how to best _____.
a. attract attention to the ad
b. develop interest in the job
c. create desire for the job
d. prompt action
e. all of the above
86. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
a. it may be faster than in-house recruiting
b. it does not require internal recruitment specialists
c. screening may not be as thorough
d. it may be better for attracting minority candidates
e. it is more comfortable when approaching candidates from competitors
87. Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers?
a. part-time
b. just-in-time
c. collateral
d. temporary
e. all are terms for contingent workers
89. _____ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management
talent for their clients.
a. State-run employment agencies
b. Private employment agencies
c. Temporary agencies
d. Executive recruiters/Headhunters
e. Job banks
90. What is the typical compensation structure for on demand recruiting services?
a. hourly rate
b. 30% of each hires salary
c. percentage fee
d. commission
e. menu of fees based on specific services
HR MCQS
91. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an executive recruiter?
a. many contacts in field
b. adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market
c. unfamiliar with company perceptions of ideal candidate
d. ability to keep identity of firm confidential
e. screening of many applicants
94. Besides determining whether a candidate is worth further consideration, college recruiters also
seek to _____.
a. fill the position
b. cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews
c. develop a pool of applicants for future screening
d. attract good candidates
e. all of the above
95. Which tool or approach listed below is recommended for selling the employer to the
interviewee?
a. informal attitude
b. attractive recruiters
c. emphasis on the job location
d. well written job descriptions
e. all of the above
96. One Consulting Firm plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management
positions this year. In choosing the colleges to visit, it should consider _____.
a. school location
b. school reputation
c. cost to attend school
d. size of school
e. all of the above
97. One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is _____.
a. getting access to the Internet to search job sites
b. balancing work and family life
c. getting a sufficient salary
d. finding permanent job positions
e. all of the above
HR MCQS
98. Which of these refers to the temporary, part time and self-employed workers?
a. Internal labor force
b. Contingent work force
c. High-performance work systems
d. Downsized employees
102. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of item
designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items
vary together.
a. Equivalent form estimate
HR MCQS
b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
106. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and then compares their
test scores with current performance.
a. concurrent validation
b. predictive validation
c. correlation analysis
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
107. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are
then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job
performance measures are compared to the test scores under development.
a. concurrent validation
b. predictive validation
c. correlation analysis
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
110. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation tool?
a. criterion validation
b. predictive validation
c. content validation
d. concurrent validation
e. all of the above
111. _____ means there is a significant discrepancy between rates of members of the protected groups
and others.
a. Discrimination
b. Disparate impact
c. Criterion validity
d. Negligent hiring
e. Discrimination discrepancy
113. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to measure motivation and
interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.
a. attitude
b. motivation
c. temperament
d. all of the above
114. Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for measuring aspects of an
applicants personality?
a. Make a Picture Story
b. House-Tree-Person
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Structured Sentence Completion Test
e. All of the above are projective
115. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except
a. neuroticism
b. optimism
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
e. agreeableness
HR MCQS
116. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative
effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
117. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to experience positive effects
such as energy and zeal.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
118. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and
unconventional?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
119. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring,
and gentle?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
122. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection
process?
a. intelligence tests
HR MCQS
b. miniature job training and evaluation
c. management assessment center
d. work sampling technique
e. video-based simulation technique
123. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance during the selection
process?
a. intelligence tests
b. motor abilities tests
c. personality tests
d. work sampling technique
e. interests inventories
124. What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who
steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?
a. personality tests
b. interest inventories
c. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
d. graphology
e. handwriting analysis
125. Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job
applicants except _____.
a. polygraph tests
b. credit checks
c. background checks
d. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
e. drug tests
126. Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called _____.
a. numerology
b. astrology
c. handwriting analysis
d. reasoning analysis
e. polygraph output assessment
127. What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future
insurance claims?
a. physical examinations
b. personality tests
c. polygraph tests
d. substance abuse screening
e. all of the above
HR MCQS
129. _____ Interviews can provide insight into sources of dissatisfaction for employees.
a. Selection
b. Appraisal
c. Exit Interview
d. Preview
e. Structured
131. Which type of interview could also be described as somewhat like a general conversation?
a. nondirective
b. directive
c. standardized
d. situational
e. all of the above
(A; easy; p. 236)
134. In a board interview, a team of interviewers interviews the candidate in a _____ fashion.
a. serial
b. sequential
c. simultaneous
d. systematic
e. symmetrical
135. A mass interview differs from traditional panel interviews in that the team of interviewers
interviews _____.
a. several candidates simultaneously
b. several candidates serially
c. several candidates sequentially
d. each candidate by using sub-groups of the team
e. candidates in front of other employees
136. Which interview format listed below should result in the highest validity?
a. structured, situational
b. unstructured, situational
c. structured, behavioral
d. unstructured, behavioral
e. structured, job-related
137. _____ means that the order in which an interviewer sees applicants affects how the candidates
are rated.
a. Context error
b. Contrast error
c. Order effect
d. Recency error
e. Primacy effect
138. What interviewer behaviors can interfere with the interview process?
a. talking too much
b. telegraphing
c. playing psychologist
d. letting the applicant dominate the interview
e. all of the above
139. What is the first step in developing a guide for structured situational interviews?
a. rate the jobs main duties
b. create interview questions
c. write a job description
d. create benchmark answers
e. appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
140. The second step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
a. rate the jobs main duties
HR MCQS
b. create interview questions
c. write a job description
d. create benchmark answers
e. appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
141. The third step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
a. rate the jobs main duties
b. create interview questions
c. write a job description
d. create benchmark answers
e. appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
142. The fourth step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
a. rate the jobs main duties
b. create interview questions
c. write a job description
d. create benchmark answers
e. appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
143. Which of the following types of questions is not typically part of a structured situational
interview?
a. situational questions
b. job knowledge questions
c. ability questions
d. willingness questions
e. all question types used in structured situational interviews
144. How many interviewers are usually on an interview panel for structured situational interviews?
a. 3 or less
b. 3-6
c. 6-9
d. 10 or more
e. it varies
145. All of the following are ways that interviewers can control the interview except _____.
a. limit interviewers follow-up questions
b. ensure that all interviewees get the same questions
c. use a large number of questions
d. prohibit questions from candidates until the end of the interview
e. use multiple interviewers or panel interviews
152. Which of the following is recommended for training sessions to maximize learning?
a. a full day
b. a half-day
c. one hour
d. three hours
e. two hours
HR MCQS
153. _____ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. Which
produces analysis form (without employee name) to be attached with job description.
a. Needs analysis
b. Task analysis
c. Performance analysis
d. Training strategy
e. Development planning
154. The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such
deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called _____.
a. needs analysis
b. task analysis
c. performance analysis
d. training strategy
e. development planning
155. When low expectations on the trainers part translate into poor trainee performance, this is called
the _____.
a. golem effect
b. expectations fallacy
c. what you ask for is what you get effect
d. expectancy risk
e. trainer bias
156. A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of
classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called _____.
a. job instruction training
b. understudy training
c. programmed learning
d. apprenticeship training
e. coaching
157. When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the appropriate
training method to use is _____.
a. job instruction training
b. informal learning
c. job rotation
d. programmed learning
e. apprenticeship training
159. Because illiterate employees will usually try to hide their problem, supervisors can try to identify
illiteracy problems by looking for employees who _____.
a. do not follow written instructions
b. take forms home to complete
HR MCQS
c. are multilingual
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
160. With _____, a trainer in a central location teaches groups of employees at remote locations via
television hookups.
a. lecturing
b. audiovisual-based instruction
c. teletraining
d. teleteaching
e. distance learning
161. Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or
increasing skills is called _____.
a. diversity training
b. on-the-job training
c. performance improvement programs
d. management development
e. coaching
163. In a (n ) _____, carefully selected teams tackle real world business programs that extend
beyond their usual areas of expertise and receive coaching and feedback on their work.
a. management development program
b. action learning program
c. role playing program
d. job instruction program
e. understudy program
164. The transparent, but often impermeable barrier that women face when trying to move to top
management is called the _____.
a. glass ceiling
b. glass wall
c. invisible corner office
d. iron wall
165. The basic aim of _____ is to increase the participants insight into his or her own behavior and
the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group.
a. sensitivity training
b. action research
c. group therapy
d. diversity training
e. coaching
HR MCQS
166. In a _____, measures are taken before and after the training program so they can be compared to
assess the effectiveness of the program.
a. Solomon four-factor design
b. time series design
c. controlled experiment
d. post-test only design
e. factorial design
167. When _____ are measured to assess the effectiveness of a training program, variables such as
liking of the program, satisfaction with the program, and attitude toward the program are
assessed.
a. learning outcomes
b. behavioral outcomes
c. results
d. reactions
e. productivity levels
169. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single,
common system designed to ensure that employee performance supports a companys strategy, it
is called _____.
HR MCQS
a. strategic organizational development
b. performance management
c. performance appraisal
d. human resource management
e. strategic management
170. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the
organizations higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into
departmental goals is called _____.
a. role clarification
b. goal alignment
c. developmental goal setting
d. direction sharing
e. coaching and support
171. The component of an effective performance management process that explains each employees
role in terms of his or her day-to-day work is called _____.
a. role clarification
b. goal alignment
c. developmental goal setting
d. direction sharing
e. coaching and support
172. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?
a. alternation ranking
b. graphic rating scale
c. Liker
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale
173. The _____ method of performance appraisal involves listing all the subordinates to be rated,
crossing out the names of any not known well enough to rank, indicating the employee who is
the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating
between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked.
a. alternation ranking
b. graphic rating scale
c. Liker
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale
174. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees
for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair.
Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the
_____ method of performance appraisal.
a. graphic ranking scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison
e. forced distribution
HR MCQS
175. When a supervisor evaluates performance by assigning predetermined percentages of rates into
performance categories, he or she has used the _____ method of performance appraisal.
a. graphic ranking scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison
e. forced distribution
176. With the _____ method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples of a
subordinates work-related behavior.
a. alternation ranking
b. constant sums rating
c. forced distribution
d. narrative forms
e. critical incident
177. Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified
scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
a. behaviorally anchored rating scale
b. graphic rating scale
c. constant sums rating scale
d. alternation ranking
e. none of the above
178. Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems except _____.
a. unclear standards
b. halo effects
c. complexity
d. central tendency
e. leniency
179. _____ is defined as the influence of a raters general impression on ratings of specific rate
qualities.
a. Impression management
b. Halo effect
c. Central tendency
d. Stereotyping
e. Bias
180. Some supervisors, when filling in rating scales, tend to avoid the highs and lows on the scale and
rate most people in the middle. This _____ means that all employees may be rated average.
a. halo effect
b. stereotyping
c. central tendency
d. strictness
e. leniency
181. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
HR MCQS
d. bias
e. halo effect
182. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
d. bias
e. halo effect
183. When an employees personal characteristics such as age, race, and gender influence a
supervisors evaluation of his or her performance, the problem of _____ has occurred.
a. bias
b. stereotyping
c. central tendency
d. halo affect
e. strictness
184. The best way of reducing the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to _____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
e. consider the purpose of the appraisal
185. The best way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to
_____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
186. Which big five personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too
strict?
a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. openness
e. neuroticism
187. Which big five personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too
lenient?
a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. openness
e. neuroticism
188. Which of the following could result in a legally questionable appraisal process?
a. conduct a job analysis to establish criteria and standards for successful performance
b. base appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
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c. administer and score appraisals in a standardized fashion
d. use clearly defined job performance dimensions
e. avoid abstract trait names when using graphic rating scales
189. While peer appraisals have many benefits, one problem is _____, when several peers collaborate
to rate each other highly.
a. social loafing
b. group think
c. logrolling
d. alliance forging
190. Firms that use _____ let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisors performance and
______ allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify
potential people problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary?
a. downward feedback
b. upward feedback
c. MBO
d. narratives
e. critical incident
192. _______refers to lifelong series of activities that contributes to a persons career exploration,
establishment, success, and fulfillment.
a. organizational development
b. career management
c. career development
d. career planning
e. training
193. ______refers to process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests,
knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and
establishes action plans to attain those goals.
a. organizational development
b. career management
c. career development
d. career planning
e. training
HR MCQS
194. How does human resource management with a career development focus differ from human
resource management with a traditional focus?
a. it includes job analysis
b. it includes skill analysis
c. it projects needs
d. it uses statistical data
e. it includes information about individual interests and preferences
195. How do training and development with a career development focus differ from training and
development with a traditional focus?
a. it provides opportunities for learning skills
b. it provides opportunities for identifying job-related attitudes
c. it provides career path information
d. it provides information about ones job
e. there is no difference
196. How does performance appraisal with a career development focus differ from performance
appraisal with a traditional focus?
a. it focuses on ratings
b. it focuses on rewards
c. it includes an appraisal of job performance
d. it includes individual development plans
e. there is no difference
197. How do recruiting and placement with a career development focus differ from recruiting and
placement with a traditional focus?
a. it matches an organizations needs with qualified individuals
b. it attempts to gather a sufficient pool of applicants
c. it includes testing to determine the best fit
d. it matches individuals with jobs based on an employees career interests
e. there is no difference
198. Who is responsible for the planning, guiding, and developing an employees career?
a. the immediate supervisor
b. the employee
c. the organization
d. human resources
e. the development officer
201. Assessing interests, seeking out career information, and utilizing development opportunities are
all part of the _____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. supervisor
d. company
e. human resource specialist
202. Providing timely performance feedback, development assignments, and support are all part of the
_____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. employee
d. company
e. human resource specialist
203. Providing training and development opportunities, and career information and programs are all
part of the _____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. supervisor
d. company
e. human resource specialist
204. Which of the following is part of the organizations role in an employees career development?
a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures
b. providing timely performance feedback
c. participating in career development discussions
d. establishing goals and career plans
e. seeking out career information
205. Which of the following is part of a managers role in an employees career development?
a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures
b. utilizing career development opportunities
c. participating in career development discussions
d. establishing goals and career plans
e. seeking out career information
206. Which of the following is part of an employees role in his or her own career development?
a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures
b. providing timely performance feedback
c. participating in career development discussions
d. establishing goals and career plans
e. offering a variety of career options
207. _____ occurs when a new employees high expectations and enthusiasm confront the reality of a
boring job.
a. Culture shock
b. Reality shock
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c. Sticker shock
d. Regret
e. Cognitive dissonance
208. How can companies provide career counseling, development advice, and therapy for employees
seeking to grow in their careers?
a. encourage role reversal
b. organize career success teams
c. establish a corporate campus
d. provide career coaches
e. offer online career centers
209. Career coaches help employees to create plans showing where their careers should lead. The
planning time period is usually _____.
a. less than one year
b. 1-5 years
c. 5-10 years
d. 10-15 years
e. equivalent to the number of years the person plans to work
210. A female employee accused a superior of sexual harassment. Later that employee was turned
down for a promotion because the superior she had accused persuaded her current supervisor not
to promote her. This is an example of _____.
a. demotion
b. retaliation
c. dissonance
d. defensive behavior
e. aggressiveness
211. _____ is aimed at helping employees ease the transition from working to retirement.
a. Preretirement counseling
b. Performance management
c. Retirement planning
d. Flextime
e. Downtime
215. When longer-term employees salaries are lower than those of workers entering the firm today,
_____ has occurred.
a. wage curve
b. salary compression (caused by inflation )
c. age discrimination
d. market expansion
e. reward strategy
216. When an employee transferred to an international location and his or her base salary reflects his
or her home countrys salary with allowances added for cost-of-living differences, the employer
has used a _____ salary plan.
a. transfer
b. home-based
c. host-based
d. cost-of-living
e. allowances included
217. When an employee transferred to another country is assigned a salary based on the base salary
for that position in the country where he or she will work, the employer has used a _____ salary
plan.
a. transfer
b. home-based
c. host-based
d. cost-of-living
e. allowances included
218. Who usually pays the extra tax burden resulting from taxes a manager on international
assignment is liable for over and above those he or she would have to pay in the home country?
a. the employee
b. the employer
c. the home country
d. the host country
e. there are no additional tax burdens
219. _____ is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs to determine the worth of one job relative
to another.
a. Job analysis
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b. Job evaluation
c. Benchmark analysis
d. Compensable evaluation
e. Job ranking
220. Another term for job classification is _____.
a. job ranking
b. job grading
c. job categorization
d. job evaluation
e. none of the above
221. When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of
similar jobs called _____.
a. classes
b. grades
c. sections
d. schedules
e. cohorts
222. When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups
of jobs that are similar in difficulty but not in context called _____.
a. classes
b. grades
c. sections
d. schedules
e. cohorts
226. Which job evaluation method entails deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable
factors?
a. ranking method
b. point method
c. factor comparison
d. job grading method
e. job classification method
227. The _____ shows the pay rates currently paid for jobs in each pay grade, relative to the points or
rankings assigned to each job or grade by the job evaluation.
a. pay group
b. benchmark
c. pay grade
d. class
e. wage curve
228. A company using competency-based pay pays for all of the following except an employees
_____.
a. range of skills
b. job title
c. depth of knowledge
d. type of skills
e. all of the above are part of competency-based pay plans
229. _____ means collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or bands, each of
which contains a relatively wide range of jobs and salary levels.
a. Comparable worth
b. Strategic compensation
c. Job evaluation
d. Broad banding
e. Job grading
230. _____ refers to the requirement to pay men and women equal wages for jobs of roughly
equivalent value to the employer.
a. Comparable worth
b. Strategic compensation
c. Job evaluation
d. Broad banding
e. Job grading
232. Herzbergs Hygiene-Motivator theory of motivation suggests that extrinsic factors like _____
cause dissatisfaction.
a. advancement
b. responsibility
c. respect
d. working conditions
e. recognition
233. Herzbergs Hygiene-Motivator theory of motivation suggests that intrinsic factors like _____
cause satisfaction.
a. working conditions
b. pay
c. achievement
d. incentive pay
e. friendships at work
234. Vrooms expectancy theory states that a persons motivation to exert some level of effort is a
function of all of the following except _____.
a. the probability that the effort will lead to performance
b. the perceived relationship between performance and obtaining the reward
c. the perceive value of the reward
d. the amount of intrinsic motivation associated with the behavior
e. all of the above affect a persons effort
242. A strategy designed to minimize health care costs for employers by including the cost of
absenteeism in the overall cost of health care is called _____.
a. cost containment
b. disease management
c. absence management
d. wellness management
e. on-site primary care
243. _____ provide services like personal legal and financial counseling, child care referrals, elder
care referrals adoption assistance, mental health counseling, and life event planning.
HR MCQS
a. Social Security programs
b. Pension plans
c. Employee assistance programs
d. Family-friendly benefits
245. Which flexible work arrangement helps to prevent company layoffs by allowing a group of
employees to take a temporary reduction in work hours?
a. flextime
b. compressed workweek
c. job sharing
d. work sharing
e. telecommuting
246. Which flexible work arrangement allows employees to work from home using technology like
computers and the Internet?
a. flextime
b. compressed workweek
c. job sharing
d. work sharing
e. telecommuting
Chapter 14: Ethics, Justice, and Fair Treatment in HR
Management
247. When someone concludes that something is good or bad, right or wrong, a ( n) _____ has been
made.
a. normative judgment
b. non-normative statement
c. moral assessment
d. distributive assessment
248. Which component of organizational justice refers to the fairness and justice of a decisions
result?
a. distributive justice
b. procedural justice
c. interactional justice
d. normative justice
e. interpersonal justice
250. Which component of organizational justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their
interpersonal dealings with employees?
a. distributive justice
b. procedural justice
c. interactional justice
d. normative justice
e. morality
251. Under which of the following scenarios, would a formal procedure such a selection interview be
considered unfair?
a. it focuses on job-related criteria
b. it provides an opportunity to demonstrate competence
c. it has a built-in appeal process
d. it is used consistently
e. it focuses on personality issues
252. When an employer involves individuals in decisions that affect them and allows them to refute
the merits of others ideas, the employer is enhancing the perceived fairness of the situation via
_____.
a. expectation clarity
b. engagement
c. friendliness
d. explanation
e. reason
253. The theory that women who commit offenses that violate stereotypes regarding the proper
behavior of women will be punished for both the offense and for their inappropriate sex role
behavior is called the _____.
a. glass ceiling
b. evil woman thesis
c. gender role error
d. fundamental attribution error
e. self-serving bias
254. All of the following are reasonable bases for dismissal except _____.
a. unsatisfactory performance
b. whistle blowing
c. misconduct
d. lack of qualifications for job
e. changed requirements of job
255. When an employees dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement
stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other
promises, _____ has occurred.
a. mutiny
b. insubordination
c. wrongful discharge
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d. gross misconduct
e. emotional hardship
256. _____ is a systematic process by which someone who is terminated is trained and counseled in
the techniques of conducting a self-appraisal and securing a job appropriate to his or her needs
and talents.
a. An exit interview
b. Outplacement counseling
c. A job counseling fair
d. Downsizing
257. Which alternative to layoffs involves an agreement by all employees to accept a pay cut in order
to keep everyone at work?
a. voluntary reduction in pay plan
b. take vacation plan
c. voluntary time off plan
d. rings of defense approach
e. downsizing approach
259. The _____ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
e. maintenance of agreement
260. The _____ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people but those
people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
e. maintenance of agreement
261. The _____ form of union security means that the employees who do not belong to the union still
must pay union dues because the unions efforts benefit them all.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
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d. open shop
e. maintenance of agreement
262. The _____ form of union security means that it is up to the workers whether or not they join the
union and only those who join must pay dues.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
e. maintenance of agreement
263. The term _____ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union
membership as a condition of employment.
a. termination at will
b. right to work
c. open shop
d. free labor
e. yellow dog
264. A contract that allows management to require nonunion membership as a condition for
employment is called a _____ contract.
a. yellow dog
b. scared cat
c. yellow chicken
d. black dog
e. mouse
265. The term _____ refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay
an employee for services not performed.
a. yellow dog
b. plumping
c. featherbedding
d. inflating
e. ballooning
266. _____ is an organizing tactic by which full time undercover union organizers are hired
unknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections.
a. Union salting
b. Featherbedding
c. Espionage
d. Infiltration
e. Picketing
267. _____ is the process of legally terminating a unions right to represent employees.
a. Union salting
b. Featherbedding
c. Certification
d. Decertification
e. Firing
f.
268. All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items except _____.
HR MCQS
a. wages
b. hours
c. severance pay
d. pension benefits of retired employees
e. insurance benefits
269. All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except _____.
a. indemnity bonds
b. use of union label
c. overtime pay
d. cafeteria prices
e. pension benefits for retired employees
270. Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
a. fact finding
b. mediation
c. binding arbitration
d. interest arbitration
e. non-binding arbitration
272. Which type of strike is unauthorized and occurs during the term of a contract?
a. unfair labor practice
b. wildcat
c. sympathy
d. yellow dog
e. economic
273. Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the
pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called _____.
a. espionage
b. inside games
c. lockouts
d. injunctions
e. strikes
HR MCQS
275. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with people who are likely to
exhibit violent behavior on the job?
a. neurotic
b. emotionally stable
c. optimistic
d. extraverted
e. type a
276. Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except
a. job rotation
b. screening
c. training
d. incentive programs
e. responding to employee suggestions
277. When managers identify a trait associated with work-place accidents and then use this trait as
part of the selection process for new hires, they are using _____ to reduce unsafe acts.
a. job rotation
b. screening
c. training
d. incentive programs
e. responding to employee suggestions
278. Safety programs that focus on identifying worker behaviors that contribute to accidents and then
training workers to avoid these behaviors are called ____.
a. behavior-based safety
b. positive reinforcement safety
c. strategic safety
d. employee participation-based
e. safety training
279. Which of the following is an external factor that can lead to job stress?
a. Type A personality
b. pessimism
c. locus of control
HR MCQS
d. job security
e. tolerance for ambiguity
282. Which of the following groups can employers legally discriminate against?
a. women
b. men over 50
c. smokers
d. people with AIDS
e. people with a substance abuse addiction
285. In Germany, employees have the legal right to a voice in setting company policies. This is called
_____.
a. co-determination
b. employment at will
c. employee participation
d. work council leadership
e. internal coordination
286. How do performance appraisals in China differ from those in the United States?
a. performance appraisals in China focus on the process
b. employees in China are less likely to receive incentives
c. appraisals in China focus on developing the employee
d. appraisals in China focus on quantifiable, objective results
e. appraisals in China are softer than those in the US
287. _____ are citizens of the countries where they are working.
a. Expatriates
b. Third-country nationals
c. Home-country nationals
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
288. _____ are noncitizens of the countries in which they are working.
a. Expatriates
b. Third-country nationals
c. Home-country nationals
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
289. _____ are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country.
a. Expatriates
b. Third-country nationals
c. Home-country nationals
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
290. _____ are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters.
a. Expatriates
b. Third-country nationals
c. Home-country nationals
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
HR MCQS
291. Having local employees abroad to jobs that the firms domestic employees previously did in-
house is called _____.
a. outsourcing
b. off shoring
c. deportment
d. downsizing
e. international staffing
292. What value classification refers to a prevailing attitude that the home country attitudes,
management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the
host country has to offer?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
293. What value classification refers to a conscious belief that only host country managers can ever
really understand the culture and behavior of the host country market?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
294. What value classification refers to a belief that the best manager for a specific position could be
in any of the countries in which the firm operates?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
295. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with ending international work
assignments early?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. emotionally stable
d. neuroticism
e. all of the above
296. _____ is the early return of an expatriate manager to the home country because of an inability to
perform in the overseas assignment.
a. culture shock
b. expatriate return
c. expatriate failure
d. managerial incompetence
e. repatriation
HR MCQS
297. The basis of the _____ approach to formulating expatriate pay is to estimate the employees
expenses in the home country and what that standard of living will cost in the host country.
a. income sheet
b. balance sheet
c. equitable wage rate
d. performance
298. _____ are financial payments over and above regular base pay designed to encourage expatriates
to accept and stay on international assignment.
a. Foreign service premiums
b. Hardship allowances
c. Balance sheet payments
d. Cultural adjustments
e. Mobility premium
299. What is the term for a supplement used to induce individuals to accept an international
assignment?
a. hardship premium
b. foreign-service premium
c. cost-of-living allowance
d. cultural adjustment premium
e. mobility premium
2. One of the most popular methods of increasing employee responsibility and control is_______.
a. Outsourcing
b. "Military model" of management
c. HRIS
HR MCQS
d. Work teams
3. David conducts new employee orientation for a large organization. His work is within which basic HRM
function?
a. Management
b. Motivation
c. Career planning
d. Training and development
5. __________ is the process of assessing progress toward strategic goals and taking corrective action as
needed.
a) Strategic management
b) Strategic planning
c) Strategic control
d) Diversification
a) Transfers-in
b) Retirements
c) Voluntary quits
d) Prolonged illnesses
8. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with people who are likely to exhibit
violent behavior on the job?
a) Neurotic
b) Optimistic
c) Extraverted
d) Type A
10. In most large facilities, who is responsible for reducing unsafe working conditions and reducing unsafe
acts by employees?
a) Frederick Taylor
b) Frederick Herzberg
c) David McClelland
d) Edward Deci
12. Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation?
a) Wages
b) Salaries
c) Employer-paid insurance
d) Commissions
13. Stress can affect not only your health, but also other aspects of your life. What else can be affected by
stress?
a) Family relationships
b) Work performance
c) Your attention to safety
d) All of the given options
14. Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except:
a) Job rotation
b) Screening
c) Training
d) Incentive programs
a. Defined benefit
b. ERISA
c. Defined contribution
d. Money purchase plan
a. The circle
b. The chain
c. The Y
d. The wheel
17. Chronic stress is the stress that wears at people day after day. Which of these is an example of chronic
stress?
a. An unhappy marriage
b. Ongoing money problems
c. Dissatisfaction with a job
d. All of the given options
18. The relative position of an organization's pay incentives compared to other companies in the same
industry is known as:
HR MCQS
a. Pay structure
b. Pay appraisal
c. Pay level
d. Pay feedback
19. Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following?
a) Lack of direction
b) Lack of coordination
c) Lack of delegation
d) Lack of control
a) Emotions
b) Knowledge
c) Attitude
d) Feelings
22. Reactive approach to overcome the influence of discriminatory practices occurred in the past is referred
as:
23. Which of the following component consists of a persons beliefs, opinions, knowledge, and information?
a) Affective component
b) Cognitive component
c) Behavioral component
d) Objective component
24. A strategy intended to achieve fair employment by urging employers to hire certain groups of people who
were discriminated against in the past is known as?
a) Fair employment
b) Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)
c) Affirmative action
d) Employment discrimination
25. Following are the reasons for conducting job analysis except:
a) Staffing workers
b) Observing workers
c) Training and Development
d) Legal Considerations
HR MCQS
26. The method that uses the organizations current level of employment as the starting point for determining
future staffing needs is?
27. Job analysis can be performed in all of the following ways except?
28. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?
29. ___________ can provide an opportunity for the employee to share in decision making, to learn by
watching others, and to investigate specific organizational problems?
30. ______ is a career-path method recognizing that technical specialists can and should be allowed to
continue to contribute their expertise to a company without having become managers.
a. Demotion
b. Lateral skill path
c. Dual-career path
d. None of the given options
31. Training instruction for a small group, which employs such techniques as role-playing or simulation etc.
and encounters give and take sessions and problem-solving techniques is called:?
a. Career counseling
b. Workshop
c. Development Plan
d. On the job training
a. Lack of time
b. Rigid job specifications
c. Short-term focus
d. All of the given options
a. External resource
b. Internal systems
c. Technical
d. Systems
34. A career stage in which one begins to search for work and finds a first job is:
a. Exploration period
b. Establishment period
c. Middle stage
d. None of the given options
35. ______ is the process whereby union members vote out their union as their representative?
a. Authorization card
b. Representation certification
c. Representation decertification
d. Trade union election
36. Protection from discrimination, safe working conditions and union formulation are _____ rights, provided
to employees?
a. Contractual
b. Individual
c. Statutory
d. Organizational
37. A situation in labors management negotiation whereby management prevents union members from
returning to work is called _____?
a. Grievance
b. Strike
c. Arbitration
d. Lockout
38. Following the ____, discipline should be immediate, provide ample warning, be consistent, and be
impersonal?
a. Disciplinary rules
b. Corrective action
c. Punitive action
d. Hot-stove rule
a. Recruiting using the web generates smaller, more focused applicant pools.
b. Employee training is offered through scheduled classes rather than on demand.
c. Electronic resumes take less time to evaluate than paper resumes.
d. None of the given options.
41. Which of these items would be in the highest security category of a typical HRIS?
a. Employee name
b. Former employers
c. Salary
d. Work location
42. A psychological condition in which a person is put into a deep sleep-like state, while still remaining
awake. It can be used to relieve pain & stress is called:
a) Hypnosis
b) Biofeedback
c) Transcendental mediation
d) Burnout
a) Outplacement, restructuring
b) Discharging, layoff
c) Transfer, demotion
d) Resigning, retirement
44. According to which of the following it is better to convince the employees to abide by the companys
Rules, rather than promptly responding with written or oral warnings to employees?
45. Ahmed has provided the personal contact numbers of his subordinates to one of his friend who is working
as an insurance agent in a private insurance firm, to help him in achieving his monthly sales target. This
practice is:
46. Organizations are bound to pay its employees at least the defined minimum wage as per government
decision. This obligation resulted because:
47. The BEST indicator of an effective safety and health program of an organization is:
a) Exhaustion
b) Burnout
c) Collapse
d) Fatigue
49. For which of the following reason, union membership in organizations losses its importance during recent
years?
51. The basis for promotion will typically be competence rather than seniority when:
52. Which of the following is the utmost preference of an organization while selecting a training and
development program?
53. The re-arrangement of organizational structure & change in organizational culture is accomplished
during:
a) Task analysis
b) Organizational analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Management analysis
54. Which of the following is a test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits
that are important in performing a job or not?
a) Concept validity
b) Criterion validity
c) Construct validity
d) Content validity
55. Previous company records & customer satisfaction surveys may serve as a source for:
a) Cultivating learning culture within the organization
HR MCQS
b) Determining deficiencies that require training
c) Developing career development plans for employees
d) Identifying training outcomes through evaluation
56. Which of the given employment testing approach requires individuals to perform activities similar to
Those they might encounter in an actual job?
a) In-basket technique
b) Role playing
c) Interview simulations
d) Case study
a) The potential candidate must possess inter personal and analytical skills
b) The potential candidate should be very confident and sharp
c) The potential candidate must be attractive enough to fit in the position
d) The potential candidate should match the requirements of the job
59. The best way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to:
a) Rank employees
b) Train supervisors to avoid it
c) Impose a distribution for performance
d) Consider the purpose of the appraisal
60. Rating a person high or low on all items because of one characteristic during performance appraisal, is
Known as:
a) Halo effect
b) Central tendency
c) Stereotyping
d) Biasness
61. Which of the following performance appraisal method is usually adopted for evaluating performance at
managerial positions?
a) Management by objective
b) Critical incident
c) Paired comparison
d) Essay method
62. Grouping of different jobs having similar job responsibilities & duties is called:
a) Classes
b) Grades
c) Scales
d) Roles
HR MCQS
63. Which of the following step is MOST important increasing job-fit?
a) Demotion
b) Retirement
c) Resignation
d) Lay-off
65. If the time between violation & the respective penalty implementation lengthens, the impact of the
Disciplinary action will:
a) Be exceeded
b) Remain the same
c) Become invisible
d) Be reduced
66. Which of the following facilitates the employer to hire, fire, demote or promote anyone, in the
Absence of any legal obligation?
a) Discrimination law
b) Employment at will
c) Affirmative action
d) Equal employment opportunity
67. Under a strong union influence, the union members demanded the salary increment as per the rate of
increase in inflation. As an HR manager what will be your initial step?
a) Behavioral view
b) Traditional View
c) Human Relations View
d) Interactionist View
70. A power base that depends on fear comes under which of the following category of power?
a) Reward power
b) Coercive power
c) Referent power
HR MCQS
d) Legitimate power
a) On-the-job breaks
b) Annual holidays
c) Flex time
d) Paid leaves
72. Ali was working as MTO in ABL & getting the package of Rs.20.000; few weeks ago he resigned from
ABL & joined HBL which is offering him Rs.30, 000 at the same post of MTO. In this situation HBL is
adopting the ________ pay strategy.
74. Which of the following is part of a managers role in the career development of an employee?
75. The lifelong series of activities that contribute to a persons career exploration, establishment, success,
and fulfillment is called:
a) Organizational development
b) Career management
c) Career development
d) Career planning
76. How do compensation and benefits with a career development focus differ from compensation and
benefits with a traditional focus?
77. Which of the given objective is mainly focused during pre-retirement educational programs?
a) Pre-arrival stage
b) Encounter stage
c) Metamorphosis stage
d) Post-retirement stage
79. Which of the following is a process of attracting individuals on timely basis, in sufficient numbers and
with appropriate qualifications, to apply for jobs with an organization?
a) Selection
b) Recruitment
c) Staffing
d) Enrollment
80. Which of the following practice involves the selling off portions of the company and making severe staff
reductions?
a) Redesigning
b) Restructuring
c) Organizational designing
d) Reengineering
81. Which of the following is a force by which personality traits (expertise) affects others behavior?
a) Power
b) Influence
c) Authority
d) Command
82. The Most common reason that an expatriate fails at an international assignment is _____.
a) Incompetency
b) Technical demands of the job
c) Expense
d) Family pressures
83. The best hiring occurs when the goals of which of the following should consistent to each other?
84. Due to which of the following reason, subordinates may feel dissatisfied with their appraisal interviews?
85. Which of the given solution served as the best one for reducing the problem of central tendency in
performance appraisals?
a) Rank employees
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b) Train supervisors to avoid it
c) Impose a distribution for performance
d) Consider the purpose of the appraisal
86. Employees' routine working is now being monitored through computers electronically; this trend has
affected the Performance Appraisal (PA) system in which of the following manner?
87. By what means, organizations show concerns for their employees and earn their commitment?
a) Environmental challenges
b) Training sessions
c) Job analysis
d) Organizational policies
89. Evaluation method generally adopted by most of the educational institutes to evaluate the students
academic performance is:
90. Which of the following approach emphasizes the effect of psychological & social factors on employees
performance?
a) Scientific approach
b) Rational approach
c) Human relations approach
d) Systematic approach
91. In Hawthorne studies which decisive factor was used in the variation of the workers performance?
a) Safety measures
b) Health condition
c) Light variation
d) Salary bonuses
92. Which of the following employee benefits are legally imposed on organizations?
a) Social security
b) Stock options
c) Care centers
d) Flexible hours
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93. Leadership will mostly be considered failed if:
94. Usually it is observed that after becoming the teams captain the players own performance declines.
What could be the reason behind it?
95. Unilevercomes under which of the following categories while conducting its business globally?
a) Domestic
b) International
c) Multinational
d) Transnational
96. According to which of the following view, "conflict should be encouraged and managed"?
a) Traditional View
b) Human Relations View
c) Interactionist View
d) Behavioral view
97. Asif has punished his subordinate for the reason that he had refused to drop Asif's children at school.
What type of power Asif practiced over his subordinate?
a) Referent power
b) Social power
c) Personal power
d) Charismatic power
98. Which of the following depicts today's major barrier to career advancement of the working ladies?
99. Which of the following is a part of organizations role in the career development of an employee?
100. Which of the following is the greatest contributor towards the success of an organization?
101. Which of the following term is used as the indicator of missing information by the applicant
while making selection decision?
a) Red flag
b) Red alert
c) High alert
d) Alarming situation
102. Which of the following method is used to inform employees about the company's job openings?
a) Job publishing
b) Job declaration
c) Job posting
d) Job listing
103. Which of the following aspect should be considered during task analysis, before conducting the
training in an organization?
104. If a performance appraisal focuses on an employees quality and quantity of wok, then the
performance appraisal is focused on measuring
105. As a result of which of the following activity, HRIS is gaining popularity day by day?
106. Organizational guarantee about the job security is a functional form of:
a) Statutory law
b) Contractual law
c) Public policy
d) Management rights
107. Occupational health & safety refers to which of the following dimensions of a workforce that
result from the work environment provided by the organization?
108. While conducting job analysis the 'Observation Method' is useful when:
a) Outplacement, restructuring
b) Discharging, layoff
c) Transfer, demotion
d) Resigning, retirement
110. By retrieving required information timely, organizations are in the position to:
111. Mr. Ahmed was working as a computer operator, but he was unable to work in Ms Excel with the
required speed. Due to this reason management has forcefully retired him & appointed a new person to
replace him, the company is said to be indulged in:
a) Rightsizing
b) Affirmative action
c) Downsizing
d) Discrimination
a) Job Pricing
b) Pay Grades
c) Pay Ranges
d) Single-Rate System
a) Job evaluation
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) Job rotation
114. Employee evaluations are directly affected by a supervisors perceptions of who is believed to
be in control of the employees performance the employer or the manager.This theory is known as
a) Attribution Theory
b) Stereotype
c) Halo Effect
d) None of above options
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115. Which of the following statement best reflects the Job analysis?
a) Conceptual process
b) Written statement
c) Recruitment method
d) Legal clause
116. Employee commitment had suffered a lot in recent years due to which of the following reasons?
a) Structural downsizing
b) Skill inadequacy
c) Rational appraisals
d) Organizational expansion
117. People within a group who initiate the work, give new ideas and also collect information about
the task, are actually performing::
118. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to monetary rewards in accordance
with Herzbergs Two-Factor theory?
119. Managers can motivate people to avoid performing dysfunctional behaviors by using:
I. Extinction II. Punishment III. Negative reinforcement
i. I, II, III
ii. I and III
iii. II and III
iv. I and II
120. Expectancy theory focuses on the relationships between which three factors?
121. Communication between two members of a project team from different function, but the same
level of authority is________ communication.
i. UP ward
ii. Downward
iii. Lateral
iv. Diagonal
a) Performance outcomes
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b) Determinants of performance
c) Performance appraisals
d) Types of performance standards
126. One of the main flaws of Classification method to evaluate the jobs is;
a) It is an expensive method
b) Only beneficial for small organizations
c) Maximum probability of biasness
d) Not useful when jobs are different
128. The concept of how a person behaves in a group can be attributed to:
a) Thermodynamics
b) Group Dynamics
c) MBO (Management by objectives)
d) Group Behavior
129. Under which of the following no screening of applicant pool is conducted before making final
selection?
a) . Walk-in applicants
b) . Employee referrals
c) . Employment agency
d) . School placement
a) Lower cohesiveness
b) Support group
c) Top-level commitment
d) Resistance to change
133. People with which type of personality trait commonly make poor decisions because they make
them too fast?
a) Type As
b) Type Bs
c) Self-monitors
d) Extroverts
134. Factors other than satisfaction that impact ones decision to leave a current job include all of the
following EXCEPT:
135. ______________ refers to manager's mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations
a) Human Skill
b) Managerial Skill
c) Conceptual Skill
d) Technical Skill
a) Good reputation
b) Low profile jobs
c) Promotion
d) Publicity
137. Which of the following statement is true regarding employee involvement concept in todays
organizations?
138. Which of the following is considered as a negative attribute of globalization for employees in the
developed country?
139. All of the following are disadvantages of hiring host country nationals. EXCEPT
140. As an HR manager you are going to conduct job analysis, which one of the following factor you
should consider for its effectiveness?
141. Which of the following test can best evaluate the routine production activities of job that require
coordination & physical strength?
142. Which of the following test indicates the persons inclination towards a particular occupation that
provides satisfaction to that individual?
a) Heritage
b) Perception
c) Emotions
d) All of the given options
145. Which of the following recruitment method provides a platform to multiple employers to attract
large number of applicants?
a) Job offer
b) Job fair
146. The number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of individuals in the
applicant pool is often expressed as:
a) Application ratio
b) Recruitment ratio
c) Selection ratio
d) Employment ratio
a) Ranking method
b) Classification method
c) Factor comparison method
d) Point factor method
148. Which of the following is a forecasting method in which requirement is estimated at department
level and the information is gradually transmitted to upper level to make future hiring of employees?
a) Top-down approach
b) Bottom-up approach
c) Zero-based approach
d) Employee-based approach
149. Which of the following test is used by McClelland to prove his theory?
150. Which of the following involves channeling the behavior of all personnel to accomplish the
organizations mission and objectives while simultaneously helping them accomplish their own
career objectives?
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
151. According to which of the following an individual can be asked for the written explanation for the
first offense of severe nature?
153. Which of the following selection technique would require the applicant for the position of
cashier at South Leasing Corporation to make computation on calculator?
a) Work sampling
b) In basket simulation
c) Business game
d) Aptitude test
154. ______ is the process whereby union members vote out their union if they are dissatisfied or want
another union representation.
a) Authorization card
b) Representation certification
c) Representation decertification
d) Trade union election
a) Two
b) Four
c) Six
d) Three a. Line Authority b. Staff Authority c. Functional Authority page # 50
156._______ is a card signed by prospective union members indicating that they are interested in having a
union election held at their work site.
a. authorization card
b. Representation certification
c. Representation decertification
d. Trade union election
157. The recruitment process is influenced by Labor market conditions. When the economy is growing
rapidly and unemployment levels are very low then;
158. A person is known by the company he/she keeps; is well described by which of the following term?
a) Prejudice
b) Stereotype
c) Introversion
d) Extroversion
HR MCQS
159. Which of the following selection technique would require the applicant for the position of cashier at
South Leasing Corporation to make computation on calculator?
a) Work sampling
b) In basket simulation
c) Business game
d) Aptitude test
160. Which of the following is said to be the main focus of Organization Behavior?
161.______ refers to the collection of information including what, when, how, and from whom
that will be used to determine the effectiveness of the training program.
a) Training effectiveness
b) Training outcomes
c) Evaluation design
d) Training evaluation
162. This typically involves videoconferencing and/or computers for the delivery of instructions from
a trainer to trainees who are different locations.
a) Web-based training
b) Distance learning
c) E-learning support
d) Blended learning simulations
163. Line managers respect the knowledge human resource managers have in areas such as testing
and affirmative action. Consequently, human resource managers can influence line managers
through _____.
a) line authority
b) functional control
c) implied authority
d) explicit authority
164. Which of the following represents a situation in which employment decisions are NOT affected by
illegal discrimination?
a) Fair Employment
b) Legal Compliance
c) Litigation process
d) Affirmative action
a) Society
b) Stockholders
c) People at work
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d) Union
166. Which of the following tasks related to recruiting and hiring is not typically handled by HR
staff?
167. The expertise of human resource departments became indispensable with the _____.
a) Anger
b) Clarity
c) Commitment
d) Sabotage
e) Enthusiasm
169. The Contingent workforce consists of all of the following types of employees except______
a) Temporary employees
b) Contract employees
c) Just-in-time workers
d) Core employees
e) consultants
171. The HRM maintenance function includes which of the following activities?
a) the discovery of the informal relationship and social groups among employees
HR MCQS
b) the significance of lighting and ventilation for performance
c) the difference in the performance of male and female employees
d) the relationship between the behavior and performance
173. Which of the following was the earliest name for the people management specialist?
a) HR manager
b) Industrial welfare officer
c) Employment law specialist
d) Personnel manager
174. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of the HRM approach to the management of
people?
175. According to Herzberg's Two Factor Theory, what is the role of hygiene factors?
176. The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high
levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?
a) Theory Y
b) Theory Z
c) Theory X
d) Contingency Theory
177. According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate product of job analysis is____
a) Workflow
b) Autonomy
c) Feedback
d) Diversity
180. The Job Characteristics Model is one of the most influential attempts to_____
181. High job satisfaction is the outcome of which of the following core dimensions described by the
Job Characteristics Model?
a) Task identity
b) Task significance
c) Feedback
d) Autonomy
182. Systematic and orderly process of determining the worth of a job in relation to other jobs is __
a) job specification
b) job design
c) job description
d) job evaluation
184. Which of the following would likely be the least effective method of recruiting internal?
Job candidates?
a) Interpersonal role
b) Informational role
c) Supportive role
d) Decisional role
a) head hunters
b) staffers
c) alternative staffing companies
d) contract technical recruiters
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187. HRM typically provides which of these types of training to temporary employees?
a) Retirement planning'
b) Benefits options
c) Orientation
d) Career planning and management
a) Conflicts
b) Misunderstanding
c) Income
d) Morale
189. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines
Are' methods of recruitment
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Third-party
d) E-recruitment
192. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
a. Increases the amount of money employees are paid for completing an unit of work
b. Is a programme through which management seeks greater productivity from workers
c. Means that staff i$ moved periodically from task to task in order to increase variety and interest
d. Involves giving employees work with a greater degree of responsibility and autonomy
195. The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known as________
a. Job classification
b. Job design
c. Job evaluation
d. Job description
196. The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics,
Duties, and responsibilities is known as
a. Job evaluation
b. Job design
c. Job specification
d. Job description
197. The psychological contract refers to the obligations that an employer and an employee perceive
to exist between each other as part of the employment relationship. As such it will include: