Mechaniacl 2marks
Mechaniacl 2marks
Engineering
2. How many links and turning pairs are required (minimum) for a kinematic chain ? How
many will be instantaneous centres for such a chain ?Ans: 4 links and 4 turning pairs. Six
instantaneous centres.
3. When does a kinematic chain become a kinematic mechanism ?Ans: When any one link
is fixed.
4. When Coriolis component is encountered ?Ans: When a point moves along a path that has
rotational motion.
7. If the ratio of tight side to slack side tension on belt drive is increaseed by %, how much
power transmission will increase ?Ans: By %.
10. What is the difference between couple and angular momentum and how they are
related ?
Ans: Couple is product of moment of inertia and angular acceleration. Angular momentum is the
product of moment of inertia and angular speed. Time rate of change of angular momentum of
body is equal to external couple acting on the body.
13. Explain the difference between clastic collision and inelastic collision ?
Ans: In elastic collision, the total momentum and total kinetic energy remains constant before
and afater the collision. In inelastic collision the total momentum remains constant but the total
kinetic energy remains same before and afte the collision.
14. What type of gears will you recommend for non-parallel intersecting shafts and non-
parallel non-intersecting shafts ?
Ans: Bevel gears, and cross-helical gears respectively.
15. In a vibrating system with single degree of freedom how undamped frequency is
related to natural frequency ?Ans: Former is greater.
16. Differentiate between elastic collision, inelastic collision, and completely inelastic
collision.
Ans: In elastic collision both total momentum and kinetic energy is conserved in collision but in
inelastic collision the total momentum is conserved and K.E. is not. In completely inelastic
collision the two colliding bodies stick together.
18. What is the difference between higher pair and lower pair ?
Ans: Higher pair has point or line contact between two links and lower pair has surface contact
between two links while in motion.
19. Which mechanism gives approximate straight line motion and which one accurate
straight line motion ?
Ans: Watt, Scott-Russel respectively.
21. Which type of cam would you recommend for obtaining constant acceleration ?
Ans: Parabola cam.
22. A fixed gear having teeth meshes with another gear having 20 teeth forming epicyclic
gear train. Centre lines of both gears are joined by an arm. How many rotations small gear
will make for one rotation of arm ?Ans: /20 + 1 = 16.
23. Whether Whitworth quick return mechanism is an inversion of double slider crank
mechanism ?
Ans: No.
28. Out of involute and cycloidal profile, which has constant pressure angle throughout
gear tooth contact and which requires exact centre distance ?Ans: In involute profile,
pressure angle is same throughout enagement and cycloidal profile requires exact centre distance
between two gears.
30. What is the difference between swaying couple and hammer blow ?
Ans: Swaying couple is produced due to unbalanced parts of the primary disturbing forces
acting at a distance between the line of stroke of the cylinders. Hammer blow is the maximum
value of the unbalanced vertical force of the balance weights.
31. For a flat pivot what is the ratio of frictional moment for uniform pressure vs uniform
rate of wear ?
Ans: 4 : 3.
37. What is the difference between fast pulley and loose pulley ?
Ans: Fast pulley transmits power and loose pulley does not.
38. What is the value of damping factor for a critically damped system ?
Ans: Unity.
39. What are the values of amplitude of vibration at node and antinode ?
Ans: Zero and maximum.
42. What is the damping ratio for non-oscillating system and under-damped system ?
Ans: More than unity and less than unity respectively.
46. Which is best suited bearing for combined thrust and radial loads at high speeds ?
Ans: Deep groove ball bearings.
48. Which bearing is suitable for combined radial and axial loads ?
Ans: Taper roller bearing.
50. What is the ratio of frictional torque produced for uniform wear to frictional torque
produced for uniform pressure ?Ans: 3/4.
51. On what factor the maximum efficiency of screw jack depends ?
Ans: Angle of friction.
52. To be on safe side which assumption is advisable for working out (i) power lost in
friction ? and (ii) power transmitted by friction ?Ans: Uniform pressure, uniform wear
respectively.
58. What are Herringbone gears and what for these are used ?
Ans: Herringbone gears are double helical gears and used to eliminate axial thrust.
59. Whether normal pressure angle in helical gear is more or less than ordinary pressure
angle ?
Ans: Less.
60. Whether tooth error is more prominent for spur or helical gears ?
Ans: Spur gears.
61. Show the variation of the ratio of damped frequency to undamped frequency against
damping ratio in case of a damped oscillator ?Ans: As damping ratio increases, the ratio of
damped to undamped frequency decreases nearly exponentially.
62. A simple gear train has three gear wheels of 25, and 50 teeth respectively. The speed
ratio of third gear to first gear and direction are ... ?Ans: Half and same direction.
63. The axes of first and last gear in a reverted gear train are ... ?
Ans: Coaxial.
64. Which gear train is used to connect hour hand in clock mechanism to minute hand?
Ans: Reverted gear train.
65. If there are even number of idlers between driver and driven gears in a simple gear
train, then direction of driver and driven gears will be ... ?Ans: Opposite.
67. How helical gears are capable of transmitting heavy load at high speed compared to
spur gears ?
Ans: Helical gears have smooth engagement and two pairs of teeth are always in contact.
69. What is the name given to bevel gears used for connecting non-intersecting shafts ?
Ans: Hypoid gears.
70. Out of spur, bevel, helical, mitre, herringbone, hypoid, zerol gears, in which case the
interchangeability is possible ?Ans: Spur gears.
74. A gear train in which axes of gears have motion is called ... ?
Ans: Epicyclic gear train.
75. If a rigid body is to be replaced by two concentrated masses rigidly connected together
then what are the essential conditions for two systems to be kinetically equivalent
?Ans: (i) Mass of two masses should be same as the mass of rigid body.
(ii) Centre of gravity of two mass system should coincide with the centre of gravity of rigid
body.
(iii) Mass moment of inertia of the two mass system and the rigid body about centre of gravity
should be equal.
76. State D' Alembert's principle and write down its importance.
Ans: D' Alembert's principle enables us to replace a given system by a massless rigid body so
that forces acting on it are equivalent to those on real body and then enables to determine the
forces transmitted to other paired rigid body. This way the problem of kinetics gets reduced to
equivalent problem on statics.
77. What is the effect of inertia of reciprocating parts on the engine frame ?
Ans: Inertia of reciprocating parts subjects engine frame to the force required to accelerate the
reciprocating mass and thus subject them to primary disturbing force and secondary disturbing
force. Secondary disturbing force comes into play due to obliquity of connecting rod and has
twice the frequency of the primary force.
79. Why only partial primary balance is achieved and not full primary balance in case of
reciprocating masses ?Ans: Balancing mass of same amount as reciprocating mass may
balance primary force but introduce another unabalanced vertical force. Thus compromise is
effected by balancing only a portion of primary forces.
82. In a spring mass system, mass is doubled and spring stiffness halved. The natural
frequency of longitudinal vibration will be ... ?Ans: Halved.
84. In forced vibrations, how the spring force, damping force and inertia force behave in
relation to direction of displacement ?Ans: Spring force is always opposite to displacement,
damping force lags by 90, and inertia force is in phase with displacement.
85. On what factors depends the critical damping coefficient ?
Ans: Critical damping coefficient depends on mass and natural frequency.
90. State the condition for the stability of a governor. Whey is an isochronous governor not
stable ?
Ans: For a governor to be stable, the ratio of controlling force and radius of governor balls (r)
must increase with increase in radius. Further controlling force must be zero for a certain value
of r and be negative below it.
In isochronous governor, ratio of controlling force and radius of governor is constant for all
values of radius and as such it is not able to attain a definite position for particular speed.
92. State the conditions for a four-bar linkage to be called a Grashof s linkage and also
when this linkage would become a double crank mechanism ?Ans: For Grashof s linkage,
shortest link is fixed and sum of shortest and longest link is less than the sum of other two links.
For double crank mechanism, two alternate links are of same length and one of larger link is
fixed.
10. What is the difference between path line and stream line ?
A path line is a curve traced by a single fluid particle during its motion. A stream line is an imaginary line
drawn in a flow field such that a tangent drawn at any point on this line represents the direction of the
velocity vector. There is no flow across the stream line.
14. Under what condition the thickness of thermal boundary layer and hydrody-namic boundary layer
is same ? When Prandtl number is equal to unity.
15. What keeps the shaft in floating condition in hydrodynamic journal bearing ?
Hydrodynamic pressure developed in the lubricant.
21. Whether Bernoulli's equation is applicable for streamline straight and rotational flows ?
Ans: Yes.
22. When a plate slides over a parallel plate, what is the relationship between viscous force and the
lubricant thickness ? They are directly proportional.
27. What is the necessary and sufficient condition for bodies in floatation to be in stable equilibrium ?
Centre of gravity of body should be located below metacentre.
28. Under what condition the thermal boundary layer thickness will be equal to the hydrodynamic
boundary layer thickness ? When Prandtl number is unity.
30. Name the axial flow reaction turbine with adjustable vanes.
Kaplan turbine.
35. A 200 mm impeller of centrifugal pump develops discharge head of 2 kg/cm2. If discharge head is
required as 8 kg/cm2, what should be diameter of impeller. Ans: 400 mm.
36. Why thin-plate orifice is frequently recommended for flow measurement in most of the cases ?
It is recommended because of its high accuracy, low cost, and extreme flexibility.
37. How the water flow from a hydrant in a city water system measured ?
It can be measured by allowing the flow of water from a hydrant and noting down the horizontal
distance (x) where jet strikes the ground and the vertical distance (y) of outlet from ground.
Then flow = area of hydrant x
38. For the same size, length and condition of pipe, how the friction head loss changes if pipe size is
varied.
Under same flow conditions the friction head loss increases as the size change to the 4.8th power.
39. How does the capacity changes in pipe flow with increase in pipe diameter if head is constant ?
At constant head, capacity is proportional to d25. .
40. How does the head change in pipe flow with change in diameter, if capacity is constant.
At constant capacity, head is proportional to
41. How head varies in pipe flow with change in flow, if pipe diameter is same.
At constant diameter, head is proportional to (flow)2.
55. What is the difference between firm power and secondary power in hydro power plants ?
The approximate constant and continuous power which is assured at power station and would be
available throughout the year is called firm power.
In run-of-the river schemes which are generally designed for % availability of water, the firm power
would be available for at least % of the years during the life of the scheme. However in some years
discharge in the river may be more than % availability discharge and some extra power known as
secondary power can be generated.
56. What is the criterion for determining economic diameter of power tunnel ?
The economic diameter of a power tunnel is determined such that the total value of following two
factors is least
(i) annual loss of revenue on account of power head lost due to friction.
(ii) recurring annual expenditure.
57. What are the three functions served by a surge tank in a hydro plant ?
The three functions served by a surge tank are
(i) flow regulation - act as a reservoir for acceptance or delivery of water to meet requirements of load
changes.
(ii) water-hammer relief or pressure regulation.
(iii) improvement in speed regulation.
5. If jet ratio for a pelton wheel is 12 then number of buckets should be .... ?
0.5 x 12+ 15 = 21.
65. What is the difference between boundary lubrication and fluid film lubrication ?
In boundary lubrication condition the ratio of thickness of lubrication film to surface roughness (CLA
value) is less than 1 and for fluid film lubrication condition this ratio is greater than 5 and less than 100.
66. A bearing in which hydrodynamic pressure is generated due to rotation of journal is called... ?
Journal bearing.
67. For a journal running in a bearing clockwise at steady state, where will be the minimum clearance ?
To the left of the load line.
68. Out of impulse and reaction type hydraulic turbines, which has higher specific speed ?
Reaction turbine.
75. What is the name of nondimensional group for ratio of inertia force to gravity force.
Froude number.
76. The head loss in a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe due to friction is directly
proportional to ... ?
Square of mean velocity.
77. For what type of flow, the streamlines, pathlines and streaklines are virtually identical ?
Steady flow.
78. How the streamlines and equipotential lines are related in a flow field ?
They are orthogoial everywhere in the flow field.
79. Under what kind and condition of a fluid the velocity potential exists ?
Irrotational flow.
80. Where should centre of gravity of a body lie for it to float in stable equilibrium ?
e.g. should be located below the metacentre.
81. For fully developed flow through a pipe, what is the ratio of maximum to average velocity ?
Ans: 2.
82. Out of centrifugal, axial and positive displacement pumps, which has maximum specific speed and
which has minimum ?
Axial pump has maximum specific speed and reciprocating pump has minimum.
85. At which point the cavitation is most likely to occur in a hydel plant ?
At turbine rotor exit.
86. What is the difference between lower pair and higher pair ?
In a kinematic pair, if the elements have surface contact when in motion, the pair is called lower pair
and if elements have line or point contact the pair is called higher pair.
87. What do you understrand by inversions and how many inversions are possible in a kinematic chain
having 'n' links ?
Inversions are different mechanisms obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain but keeping
relative motions of links unchanged with respecat to one another. A kinematic chain with 'n' links can
have 'n' inversions.
88. What is the difference between basic kinematic chain and compound kinematic chain ? What is the
criteria for a chain to be constrained ?
A basic kinematic chain consists of four kinematic links and a compound kinematic chain is a
constrained chain of more than four links. A chain is constrained if no. of binary joints and half of
number of higher pairs is equal to 3/2 of no. of links minus 2.
93. What is the number of degrees of freedom constrained in each case by the kinematic pairs.
(i) Itevolute pair, (ii) cylindrical pair, (iii) Screw pair, (iv) Spherical pair.
Ans: (i) Revolute pairsingle degree of freedom.
(ii) cylindrical pairtwo degrees of freedom.
(iii) Screw pairone degree of freedom.
(iv) spherical pairthree degrees of freedom.
95. What is the purpose of Corliss valve in place of D'-slide valve in steam engine ?
Corliss valve reduces condensation, provides independent control on admission, cut off, release and
compression, and reduces driving power requirements.
97. If base circle diameter of cam increases, what happens to pressure angle ?
It decreases.
98. If angular speed of cam is increased two times, how much jerk will be increased ?
Eight times.
100. What is the relationship between (i) axes of spin, precession, and applied gyroscopic torque and (ii)
in between their planes ?
The axes of spin, precession, and applied gyroscopic torque are contained in two planes perpendicular
to each other, and planes of spin, precession, and applied gyroscopic torque in the three planes
perpendicular to one another.
Interview Questions and Answers for Mechanical Engineering
9. At what point below free surface in a uniform laminar flow in a channel the point velocity is
equal to mean velocity of flow ?
Ans: At 0.577 depth of channel.
10. What is the value of friction factor for smooth pile when Reynolds number is
approximately = 10G ?
Ans: 0.01.
11. How hydraulic grade line and free surface of open channel flow related ?
Ans: They coincide.
14. What is open channel flow ? Explain 4 types of open channel flows.
Ans: Open channel flow has a free water surface which is normally subject to the atmospheric
pressure.
Steady open channel flow : In this case the discharge and water depth at any section in the
reach do not change with time during the period of interest.
Unsteady open channel flow : In this case the discharge and the water depth at any section in
the reach change with time.
Uniform open channel flow : In this case the discharge and the water depth remain the same in
energy section in the channel reach. It is mostly steady.
Varied open channel {low : In this case the water depth and/or the discharge change along the
length of the channel. It may be steady (such as flow over a spillway crest) or unstgeady (as in
the case of flood waves or tidal surge).
21. Which welding set will you select for welding both ferrous and non ferrous materials.
Ans: D.C. generator set.
22. Which welding process is a combination of arc welding and gas welding processes?
Ans: Atomic hydrogen welding.
28. What is similarity between normal shock wave and hydraulic jump ?
Ans: Both are analogous and irreversible.
33. Under what condition the effect of compressibility of fluid can be neglected ?
Ans: When Mach number is less than 0.4.
34. For which type of flow the velocity distribution in a pipe is parabolic.
Ans: For uniform laminar flow.
35. What is the relationship between center line velocity and average velocity for a laminar
flow in a pipe ?
Ans: Average velocity = 1/2 centre line velocity.
36. On which factor the friction factor for a smooth pipe in turbulent flow depends ?
Ans: Reynolds number.
38. What is pipe networks and what are the condition for network ?
Ans: Pipe network comprises a number of pipes connected together to form loops and
branches. For a network,
(i) at any junction, Y.Q = 0 and
(ii) between any two junctions the total head loss is independent of the path taken.
43. Explain the difference between geometric similarity, kinematic similarity and dynamic
similarity.
Ans: Geometric similarity : It implies similarity of form. The model is a geometric reduction of
the prototype and is accomplished by maintaining a fixed ratio for all homologous lengths
between the model and the prototype.
Kinematic similarity : It implies similarity in motion. Kinematic similarity between a model and
the prototype is attained if the homologous moving particles have the same velocity ratio along
geometrically similar paths. It involves the scale of time as well as length.
Dynamic similarity : It implies similarity in forces involved in motion.
46. On what factor the friction factor for a rough pipe in turbulent flow depends ?
Ans: Relative roughness.
58. Which factors determine the selection of electrolyte for electrochemical machining
process ?
Ans: Electrolyte should be chemically stable and have high electrical conductivity.
59. What is the disadvantages of centrifugal pump having very low specific speed ?
Ans: For a.centrifugal pump having very low specific speed, the impeller diameter is large and
narrow having excessively high disc friction and excessive hydraulic losses.
69. Under what condition the flow and power of pump vary as square of the size ?
Ans: The flow and power vary as size2 when the geometric size changes as inverse of change of
speed.
75. What is the condition for a flow to be fully developed through a pipe ?
Ans: Ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity should be 2.
76. When a fluid is moving with uniform velocity, whether the pressure of fluid will depend on
its depth and orientation ?
Ans: No.
77. How much is the vertical component of force on a curved surface submerged in a static
liquid ?
Ans: It is equal to weight of the liquid above the curved surface.
78. On which factors depends the friction factor in a rough turbulent flow in a pipe?
Ans: It depends on pipe diameter and the condition of the pipe.
79. What does the realisation of velocity potential in fluid flow indicate ?
Ans: It indicates that flow is irrotational.
80. What is the difference between potential flow and creep flow ?
Ans: Potential flow assumes viscous forces to be zero but same is considered larger than inertia
forces in creep flow.
81. For which application Mach number and Froude numbers are significant ?
Ans: Mach no. is significant in the study of projectiles and jet propulsion. Froude number is
significant in the study of ship hulls.
82. What is the difference between geometric, kinematic, and dynamic similarities between
model and prototype ?
Ans: Geometric similarity is mainly for same shape for model and prototype, kinematic
similarity is concerned with stream line pattern, whereas dynamic similarity concerns the ratio
of forces.
83. A body is floating in water. If it is displaced slightly then about which point it will oscillate.
Ans: It will oscillate about centre of buoyancy.
84. Why uniform ramming is considered desirable in green sand moulding process ?
Ans: Uniform ramming results in greater dimensional stability of a casting.
89. What do you understand by entrance length and what is its value for turbulent flow in
smooth pipe ?
Ans: Entrance length of flow is the initial length in which the flow develops fully such that the
velocity profile remains unchanged downstream. For turbulent flow in smooth pipe, entrance
length is taken as 50 x diameter of pipe.
90. Explain the difference between friction drag and pressure drag.
Ans: Friction drag is the drag force exerted by a fluid on the surface due to friction action when
the flow occurs past a flat surface at zero incidence. Pressure drag is the additional drag force on
account of the differences of pressure over the body surface when flow occurs past a surface
which is
not everywhere parallel to the fluid stream. Pressure drag depends upon separation of bondary
layer
and the size of wake. Friction drag is due to shear stresses generated due to viscous action.
92. What is the difference between streamline body and bluff body ?
Ans: In streamline body the shape is such that separation in flow occurs past the nearmost part
of the body so that wake formed is small and thus friction drag is much greater than pressure
drag. In bluff body the flow gets separated much ahead of its rear resulting in large wake and
thus pressure drag is much greater than the friction drag.
93. What is the difference between dressing and trueing of a grinding wheel ?
Ans: Dressing is the process used to clear the cutting surface of the grinding wheel of any dull
grits and embedded swarf in order to improve the cutting action. Trueing is the process
employed to bring the wheel to the required geometric shop and also to restore the cutting
action of a worn wheel.
94. Whether hard grade or softer grade is required for internal grinding than external grinding?
Ans: Softer graders of wheel are required for internal grinding than for external grinding.
95. How is the velocity profile and stress distribution due to laminar flow of an incompressible
flow under steady conditions in a circular pipe.
Ans: Velocity profile is parabolic with zero velocity at boundary and maximum at the centre.
Shear stress distribution is linear, being maximum at boundary and zero at centre.
1. What is anisotropy ?
Ans: The phenomenon of different properties in different directions is called anisotropy.
9. Define fluid.
Ans: A fluid is a substance that can't remain at rest under the action of any shear force.
13. On account of which property, the falling drops of rain acquire superical shape.
Ans: Surface tension.
19. Differentiate between gear hobbing and gear shaping with reference to various relative motions and
applications.
Ans: Gear hobbing is a continuous indexing process in which both cutting tool (a hob) and work piece
rotate in a constant relationship while the hob is being fed into work. Hob is also imparted a radial feed.
Gear shaping uses a pinion type of cutter which is reciprocated with required cutting speed along the
face of workpiece and is gradually fed radially to plunge. Continuous generation motion is obtained by
feeding cutter to full depth and rotating the cutter and workpiece slowly.
22. The best shape of a runner in sand casting is an inverted frustum of a cone why ?
Ans: Tapered shape with bigger diameter at top and smaller at bottom ensures avoidance of
entrainment or absorption of air/gases into the metal while passing through the runner.
26. The centre of pressure for a plane surface immersed vertically in a static liquid compared to centroid
of area is always ... ?
Ans: Below.
27. What is buoyant force equal to ? Define centroid of the area.
Ans: Volume of liquid displaced.
Centroid of the area : The point at which the area might be concentrated and still leave unchanged the
first moment of the area around any axis. It is also the centre of gravity.
29. Explain the difference between steady flow, one dimensional flow, two dimensional flow and three
dimensional flow ?
Ans: If at every point in the continuum, the local velocity and other fluid property, remains unchanged
with time, it is referred to as steady flow.
One dimensional flow is one in which a line is necessary to describe the velocity profile.
Two dimensional flow is one in which an area is necessary to describe the velocity profile.
Three dimensional flow is one in which a volume is necessary to describe the velocity profile.
30. What is aquifer and explain difference between confined and unconfined aquifers.
Ans: Groundwater occurs in permeable, water-bearing geologic formations known as aquifers.
Confined aquifer : It is a relatively high-permeable, water-bearing formation.
Unconfined aquifer : It is a water-bearing formation with a free water table, below which the soil is
saturated.
32. By which instruments the shear stress in fluids can be measured directly ?
Ans: By Stanton tube or Preston tube.
33. On what factors does the pressure at a point as a static mass of liquid depends upon?
Ans: Specific weight of liquid and the depth below the free liquid surface.
34. What is the difference between hoop or longitudinal tension and circum-ferencial tension ?
I Ans: Hoop tension is created in the walls of a cylinder subjected to internal pressure. For thin walled
cylinder (t < 0.1 d), hoop stress = pressure x radius/thickness.
Longitudinal tension in thin-walled cylinders closed at the ends is equal to half the hoop tension.
36. State standard point angle and helix angle of a twist drill.
Ans: Standard point angle of twist drill is 118 and helix angle varies from 16 to 30 depending as
diameter of hole.
37. Explain the difference between horizontal and vertical components of hydrostatic force ?
Ans: The horizontal component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the normal force on
the vertical projection of the surface and acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection.
Vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of liquid
abaove the area and passes through the e.g. of the volume.
38. What should be diameter of capillary tube to avoid correction for effect of capillarity in manometer ?
Ans: Greater than 6 mm.
43. How one can establish stability of submerged body and floating body ?
Ans: A submerged body floats in stable equilibrium when the center of gravity of the body lies directly
below the center of buoyancy.
46. State two products each produced by forward extrusion and reverse impact extrusion.
Ans: Two examples of products made by direct extrusion are : gear profile, solder wire.
Two examples of reverse impact extrusion are : Short tubes of soft alloys, tooth paste containers.
47. What are the best geometrical shapes suggested for sheet metal drawing and spinning?
Ans: Cup shape is best suited by drawing operation. Conical shape is easiest to produce by spinning
operation.
50. How much is vertical component of pressure force on a submerged curved surface ?
Ans: The weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface.
51. Multiple coated, disposable carbide tips have more-or-less replaced brazed carbide tipped tools in
CNC applications. Why ?
Ans: Disposable tips are usually indexable type and have a number of cutting edges. Very convenient
gripping devices for holding such inserts on tool holders are available. A wide variety of ready made
inserts are available which require no grinding or adjustment.
54. Explain the difference between one and two dimensional flow ?
Ans: True one-dimensional flow occurs when the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points
are identical. Velocities and accelerations normal to the streamline are negligible. Two dimensional flow
occurs when the fluid particles, move in planes or parallel planes and the stream-line patterns are
identical in each plane.
58. Explain the difference between stream lines and stream tube.
Ans: Stream lines are imaginary curves drawn through a fluid to indicate the direction of motion in
various sections of the flow of the fluid system. There can be no flow across a streamline at any point.
Stream tube represents elementary portions of a flowing fluid bounded by a group of streamlines
which confine the flow.
64. What is the magnitude of buoyant force and where does the line of action of buoyant force act ?
Ans: It is equal to the volume of the liquid displaced. The line of action of buoyant force acts through
the centroid of the displaced volume of the fluid.
68. Why are hydrodynamic bearings used for grinding machines in preference to ball or roller bearings ?
Ans: Hydrodynamic bearings are more suitable at high speed, better tolerances, quiet operation, higher
capacity to withstand shock, lesser space requirement, better life under fatigue conditions etc.
70. State the similarities and differences between a fixture and a jig.
Ans: Both jig and fixture positively locate, hold and clamp the workpiece. Jigs guide the tool for drilling
etc but fixture has no facility to guide the cutting tools. Jigs are used for drilling etc and fixture for mass
milling, turning, grinding, etc.
71.Explain the difference between relative density, viscosity and kinematic viscosity ?
Ans: Relative density is that pure number which denotes the ratio of the mass of a body to the mass of
an equal volume of a substance taken as a standard. This standard is usually water (at 4C) for solids and
liquids, and air free or C02 or hydrogen (at 0C and 1 atmosphere = 1.013 x 105 Pa pressure) for gases.
Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force. It
is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules.
Kinematic viscosity is the ratio of absolute viscosity and mass density. (Its unit is m2/s).
72. A right hand helical gear is being cut on a milling machine. What changes in machine settings have to
be made to cut a left hand helical gear of same pitch and number of teeth ?
Ans: For cutting right hand helical gear right side of milling table is tilted up from normal position by the
helix angle. For cutting left hand helical gear, right side of table needs to be tilted down at helix angle, all
other settings remaining unchanged.
75. What is the necessary condition for a body to float in stable equilibrium ?
Ans: Meta center should be above the center of gravity.
76. If liquid rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, then how its
pressure varies at various radial distances ?
Ans: As square of the radial distance.
77. How does the velocity vary along radius in a few vortex ? .
Ans: It decreases with radius.
78. What type of flow will occur when liquid discharges at constant rate through a long, straight tapering
pipe ?
Ans: Steady non-uniform flow.
81. Why a drill can not drill deeper than its flute length ?
Ans: If flute submerges in a drilled hole, the chips disposal passage is blocked and the drill will get
jammed in the hole.
84. In which type of flow the stream lines, streak lines and path lines are identical ?
Ans: In steady flow.
86. Some drills have straight shanks and some have tapered shank. Why ?
Ans: Small drills (less than 12 mm diameter) are provided with straight shanks which can be held in
Dniren chucks. Bigger drills have tapered shank using self holding Morse tapers which prevent
gravitational fall of drill.
87. What are the main factors that are responsible for the formation of built up edge ?
Ans: The main factors that are responsible for the formation of built up edge are :
1. Extreme pressure in the cutting zone
2. High friction in the tool chip interface
3. High local temperature.
89. Explain the difference between energy line and hydraulic grade line ?
Ans: The energy line is a graphical representation of the energy at each section.
Hydraulic grade line lies below the energy line by an amount equal to the velocity head at the section.
91. How specific cutting pressure behaves with feed rate and what conclusion can be drawn from this ?
Ans: As feed rate increases, the specific cutting pressure decreases. It leads to conclude that feed rates
be maximised in metal cutting process.
94. What are the factors to be considered while evaluating the machinability ?
Ans: 1. Tool life
2. Rate of metal removal
3. Power required
4. Surface texture and size of component
5. Temperature of tool (or) chip.
3. Materials which absorb neutrons and produce fissionable material are called ?
Ans: Fertile materials, such as U28 and Th22.
4. What is the process which produces fissionable material from a fertile material ?
Ans: Breeding.
6. What kind of nuclear fuel is used in Narora, Kalapakkam and Rana Pratap Sagar nuclear plants ?
Ans: Natural uranium.
7. Which type of plant will you recommend for remote location if power is required in six to twelve
months time ?
Ans: Diesel engine power plant.
10. Natural uranium contains only 0.7% U25 which is capable of switching chain nuclear reaction. How
this percentage is increased ?
Ans: Percentage of U25 in natural uranium is increased by a process called uranium enrichment.
11. Why the vane passages are gradually increased in size in successive wheels in steam turbine ?
Ans: The velocity of steam decreases in successive stages and to accommodate same flow per unit time,
the area of flow must increase.
12. At what pressure and temperature the density of water and steam is same ?
Ans: At 225 kg/cm2 and 74.6 C.
14. How much space steam will occupy at atmospheric pressure corresponding to 1 kg of water ?
Ans: 100 times the space occupied by 1 kg of water.
18. If superheat and condenser temperatures are unchanged and if pressure of steam is increased, then
what happens to dryness fraction of steam after isentropic expansion ?
Ans: It will decrease.
22. In radiative heat transfer, a gray surface is one whose emissivity is _____ ?
Ans: Independent of wavelength.
23. What is the effect of water injection and steam injection in gas turbine of heat rate and power
output ?
Ans: Water injection results in higher mass flow rate through turbine section and as rich electrical
output is increased. However it increases gas turbine heat rate because of the additional heat
consumption required to vaporise the water.
Steam injection increases power output and decreases heat rate because of its higher energy entering
the combustion zone.
24. Water/steam injection in gas turbines increases power output. What is the limit and reasons for
same ?
Ans: Water/steam injection is not allowed beyond 5% of compressor flow to avoid flame out in
combustion and to minimise operating cost and impact on inspection intervals.
25. What are the advantages and drawbacks of centrifugal compressor and axial flow compressors in gas
turbines?
Ans: Centrifugal compressors have following advantages :
short length due to high pressure ratio attained in a single stage.
simple in design, easy to manufacture, rugged in construction, less costly.
more reliable in operation under all operating condition.
less susceptible to the effects of deposits left on flow path.
less sensitive to the fouling of the flow path.
Good efficiency over a wide range of operation.
Drawback is larger cross-section area for same capacity and its unsuitability for high pressure ratios.
Axial flow compressor is more popular due to high delivery capacity, high compression ratio due to
many stages, high efficiency (85-90%), low cross sectional area. Its drawback is sophisticated design and
appreciable length due to large number of stages, narrow operating range for good efficiency, higher
weight and cost, high starting power.
26. What is the difference between pinch point and approach point in connection with heat recovery
steam generator (IIRSG) ? How they affect performance of IIRSG ?
Ans: Pinch point is the temperature difference between the gas turbine exhaust leaving the evaporator
section and the saturation temperature of steam at corresponding pressure (drum operating pressure).
Approach point is the temperature difference between the temperature of steam corresponding to
drum operating pressure and water temperature leaving the economiser. Both these variables affect
the steam production and the cost and effectiveness of HRSG.
If pinch point is lower, total heat recovered in HRSG in higher and steam generation is also high.
However lowering pinch point requires more heat exchange surface and increase in cost and draft side
loss. Its optimum value is 8-10C.
Lower is approach temperature, higher is steam production in economiser due to flashing which needs
to be avoided for long life of tubes. Higher approach temperature increases the surface in evaporator
section and assures higher stability.
28. NO.,, reduction in gas turbines is challenge to meet environmental regulations. What measures are
taken in this regard ?
Ans: NO* in gas turbines is controlled by (a) injecting water/steam into combustor, (6) using selective
catalytic redaction (SCR) and non-catalytic reduction system (NRS), and (c) better combustor design.
29. What is the difference between fuel NOx and thermal NOx ?
Ans: Fuel NO* is formed by the gas phase oxidation of char nitrogen (CN~ compounds) in the fuel and
thermal NO* is formed by high temperature reaction between the nitrogen and oxygen in the
combustion air.
31. What are disadvantages of injecting steam/water in combustion zone in gas turbine ?
Ans: Increased CO at lower loads
Increased fuel consumption
Loss of extensively treated water
Increased complexity of engine control
Short life of major turbine components.
35. What catalyst is used in SCR process for control of NOx in gas turbines ?
Ans: V2O5 supported by titanium or a mixture of titanium and silica is generally used as catalyst. Oxides
of Ti and Mo are often incorporated as moderators.
36. Measure to minimise formation of NOx inhibit complete combustion and this results in formation of
CO and voltatile organic compound (VOCs). How these are controlled ?
Ans: Catalytic oxidation, a post combustion treatment at 470-600 temperature is used to reduce
emission of CO and VOCs.
37. It is usual practice to report performance characteristics of gas turbine at ISO conditions. What are
these ?
Ans: ISO conditions for GT performance are : Ambient dry bulb temperature : 15C, Relative humidity -
60%. Ambient berometric pressure 1.0 kg/cm2.
38. Which parameters influence the heat rate of gas turbines and how ?
Ans: Various parameters affecting heat rate of GT are :
(i) Lower the gas turbine inlet temperature, lower the heat rate.
(ii) Higher the compression ratio, lower the heat rate.
(iii) Higher the turbine firing temperature, lower the heat rate.
(iv) Lower the exhaust temperature, lower the heat rate.
(v) Exhaust gas flow, inlet pressure loss, exhaust pressure loss also affect heat rate.
40. Why the efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of simple Rankine cycle ?
Ans: Because the mean temperature of heat addition is higher for superheat cycle.
42. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient, when throttled, will become .... ?
Ans: hotter.
43. What is boundary layer thickness in turbulent boundary layer ?
Ans: In ease of turbulent boundary layer, boundary layer thickness is defined as the distance from solid
surface at which the fluid velocity is 99% of the undisturbed free stream velocity. Near the surface of
solid, there is laminar flow which changes to buffer zone and finally turbulent region.
44. Stirling cycle with regenerative arrangement and Carnot cycle operate within same temperature
limits. What can be said about thermal efficiencies of these two ?
Ans: Thermal n of both will be same.
45. How does the stagnation temperature behave along a streamline in adiabatic flow with friction ?
Ans: It remains constant.
47. What would be the order of boundary layer in pipe flow (i) laminar (ii) transition, and (iii) fully
turbulent ?
Ans: In laminar flow, boundary layer extends right from surface upto centre. In fully turbulent it may
extend 5-10% of radius only whereas in transition flow, boundary layer may be from 50-60% of radius of
pipe.
48. In general how the boundary layer and local film coefficient of heat transfer are related ?
Ans: In general, the thinner the boundary layer, higher the value of local heat transfer film coefficient.
49. Out of constant volume and constant pressure line, which line on T-S diagram has higher slope ?
Ans: Constant volume.
50. A heat engine and a refrigeration cycle operate between two temperature limits T1 and T2(T1 > T2).
The product of efficiency of heat engine and COP of refrigeration cycle will be ?
Ans: T2/TX.
51. A refrigerator and a heat pump are working on the reversed Carnot cycle between the same
temperature limits. How COP of refrigerator and heat pump related ?
Ans: COP of refrigerator = COP of heat pump -1.
52. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, for which cycle the efficiency will be
highest ?
Ans: For regenerative cycle which approaches Carnot cycle. 1
53. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two different insulating materials of same thickness. What
arrangement is preferred ?
Ans: Material with lower thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and material with higher
thermal conductivity for the outer layer.
54. Why steam is in open space and water inside tube in condensers used in power plants ?
Ans: Overall heat transfer coefficient can be increased by increasing velocity of water in tube. Further
steam needs more space due to higher specific volume.
55. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 60 kW, while its compressor consumes
a power of 15 kW. What will be the coefficient of performance of this system ?
Ans: .
56. Why a refrigeration compressor designed to operate with R22 refrigerant can't be operated with R12
?
Ans: Condensing pressure of R22 at any given temperature is higher than that of R12.
57. Leakage of Freon-12 refrigerant can not be easly detected, still it is preferred for air-conditioning.
Why ?
Ans: Leakage of Freon-12 can't attain total concentration but it has all desirable characteristics as good
refrigerant.
58. In which season the process of humidification and in which season dehumidifi-cation is used in air-
conditioning ?
Ans: Humidification in summer and dehumidification in winter.
59. What is the name given to combined process of cooling and humidifying ?
Ans: Evaporative Cooling.
60. Which refrigerant is used for ice plant and transport refrigeration ?
Ans: Ammonia and CO2 respectively.
61. Which cycle is used in vapour compression and gas cycle refrigerantion system ?
Ans: Brayton cycle, and Bell-Coleman cycle.
63. How the characteristics of fuel like front end volatility, mid-range volatility and tail end volatility
affect S.I. engines ?
Ans: These characteristics affect SI engines in cold starting, icing of carburettor and dilution in crankcase
respectively.
64. What would be the approximate air fuel ratio at time of cold start, part load operation, full load, and
idling ?
Ans: 10, 12.5 and 16 respectively.
66. What is the nature of curve in case of transfer of heat by conduction through a cylindrical wall and
through a spherical wall ?
Ans: Logarithmic and hyperbolic.
68. When the compressibility effects become significant in heat transfer problems in high speed flow ?
Ans: Compressibility effects usually become significant at gas flow velocities greater than 0.5 times the
velocity of sound.
69. What is the name given to process of removing non condensables in steam and other vapour cycles ?
Ans: Deaeration process.
70. We often come across use of jet pumps in process industry ? What is the reason for this ?
Ans: Jet pumps are easy to maintain and can be used to transport gases, liquids and mixtures of both.
73. Out of 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke SI engine, and 4 stroke CI engine, how the brake thermal
efficiency behaves if these are to be used for road vehicles ?
Ans: 4 stroke CI engine has highest brake thermal efficiency followed by 4 stroke SI engine and the 2
stroke SI has lowest brake thermal efficiency.
74. A jet engine is used to drive a vehicle. When its mechanical efficiency will be maximum ?
Ans: It will be maximum when vehicle speed approaches the relative velocity of gases at nozzle exit.
79. What are the harmful effects of sulphur in coal used for power generation ?
Ans: Sulphur in coal gives rise to number of ecological problems ranging from acid mine drainage to ash
waste problems and air pollution due to SO2 emission. Emission of S02 is the cause of acid rain and is
responsible for severe environmental damage.
88. What is the name given to useful part of available energy which is available for conversion to useful
work ?
Ans: Exergy.
89. Does the area on PV diagram for a process represent work for both reversible and non-reversible
process ?
Ans: No. Same is true for only reversible process.
90. Why work is considered as high grade of energy and heat as low grade energy ?
Ans: While work can be completely converted to heat, heat can't be converted fully to work.
91. When coluomb friction comes into existence between two surfaces ?
Ans: When there is relative motion between them.
92. Under what condition a number of forces acting at a point are in equilibrium ?
Ans: When sum of the resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions is zero.
94. To slide a heavy block over a rough floor by a rope with minimum force by a man, at what angle the
rope should be inclined with the level of floor ?
Ans: He should incline the rope with horizontal at angle of friction between floor and block.
95. A body is dropped from a certain height. If same body were to move down a smooth inclined plane
from same height, which parameters will be same on reaching the ground ?
Ans: Velocity, kinetic energy and momentum.
96. A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond the yield point and then unloaded. What happens to its
yield strength ?
Ans: It will increase.
97. Out of circular, square, channel, I sections, which is most economical for a component subjected to
bending ?
Ans: I section.
98. What does the area under the stress-strain curve represent ?
Ans: Energy required to cause failure.
99. A tension member of certain diameter is to be replaced by a square bar of the same material. Side of
square compared to diameter will be ?
Ans: Smaller.
100. A circular bar subjected to tension is designed for a particular safety factor. If both load and
diameter are doubled, then factor of safety will be _____?
Ans: doubled.
2. What are the names given to constant temperature, constant pressure, constant volume, constant
internal energy, constant enthalpy, and constant entropy processes.Ans: Isothermal, isochroic,
isobaric, free expression, throttling and adiabatic processes respectively.
3. In a Rankine cycle if maximum steam pressure is increased keeping steam temperature and
condenser pressure same, what will happen to dryness fraction of steam after expansion ?Ans: It will
decrease.
6. Enthalpy and entropy are functions of one single parameter. Which is that ?
Ans: Temperature.
1. Under what condition the work done in reciprocating compressor will be least ?
Ans: It is least when compression process approaches isothermal. For this purpose, attempts are made
to cool the air during compression.
13. What is the difference between stalling and surging in rotary compressions ?
Ans: Stalling is a local phenomenon and it occurs when How breaks away from the blades. Surging
causes complete breakdown of flow and as such it affects the whole machine.
14. Why the electric motor of a fan with backward curved blades is never got overloaded under any
condition ?
Ans: The maximum power is consumed at about 70% of maximum flow in case'of fan with backward
blades. For higher flow, power consumption gets lower.
15. Why the work per kg of air flow in axial flow compressor is less compared to centrifugal compressor
for same pressure ratio ?
Ans: Isentropic efficiency of axial flow compressor is higher.
16. What is the name given to portion of thermal energy to be necessarily rejected to environment ?
Ans: Anergy.
19. Which impurities form hard scale and which impurities soft scale ?
Ans: Sulphates and chlorides of lime and magnesium form hard scale, and carbonates of lime and
magnesium form soft scale.
20. What is the difference between hard water and soft water ?
Ans: Hard water contains excess of scale forming impurities and soft water contains very little or no
scale forming substances.
21. Which two elements in feed water can cause corrosion of tubes and plates in boiler ? '
Ans: Acid and oxygen in feed water lead to corrosion.
22. What should be done to prevent a safety valve to stick to its seat ?
Ans: Safety valve should be blown off periodically so that no corrosion can take place on valve and valve
seat.
26. Low water in boiler drum is unsafe because it may result in overheating of water tubes in furnace.
Why it is unsafe to have high water condition in boiler drum ?
Ans: High drum level does not allow steam separation to be effective and some water can be carried
over with steam which is not desirable for steam turbine.
31. Maximum combustion temperature in gas turbines is of the order of 1100 to 10C whereas same is
around 00C in I.C. engine ? Why ?
Ans: High temperature in I.C. engine can be tolerated because it lasts for a fraction of second but gas
turbines have to face it continuously which metals can't withstand.
35. In some engines glycerine is used in place of water for cooling of engine. Why ?
Ans: Glycerine has boiling point of 90C which increases its heat carrying capacity. Thus weight of
coolant gets reduced and smaller riadiator can be used.
36. Why consumption of lubricating oil is more in two-stroke cycle petrol engine than four-stroke cycle
petrol engine ?
Ans: In two-stroke engine lub oil is mixed with petrol and thus some lub oil is blown out through the
exhaust valves by scavenging and charging air. There is no such wastage in four stroke petrol engine.
37. As compression ratio increases, thermal n increases. How is thermal n affected by weak and rich
mixture strength ?
Ans: Thermal n is high for weak mixture and it decreases as mixture strength becomes rich.
39. Horse power of I.C. engines can be expressed as RAC rating, SAE rating, or DIN rating. To which
countries these standards belong ?
Ans: U.K., USA and Germany respectively.
40. What is the use of flash chamber in a vapour compression refrigeration cycle to improve the COP of
refrigeration cycle ?
Ans: When liquid refrigerant as obtained from condenser is throttled, there are some vapours. These
vapours if carried through the evaporator will not contribute to refrigerating effect. Using a flash
chamber at some intermediate pressure, the flash vapour at this pressure can be bled off and fed back
to the compression process. The throttling process is then carried out in stages. Similarly compression
process is also done in two separate compressor stages.
45. Why supercritical boilers use less amount of steel compared to non-supercritical boilers ?
Ans: Supercritical boilers do not head heavy drum for separation of steam from mixture of water and
steam.
46. Out of electric heater and heat pump, which is economical in operation ?
Ans: Heat pump.
47. Which furnace burns low-ash fusion coal and retains most of the coal ash in the slag?
Ans: Cyclone furnace.
48. How the thickness of thermal boundary layer and thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer related
?
Ans: Ratio of their thickness = (Prandtl number)-1/3.
51. Why rockets using liquid hydrogen have higher specific impulse compared to liquid hydrocarbon ?
Ans: Liquid hydrogen has higher burning velocity.
52. Why axial flow compressor is preferred for gas turbines for aeroplanes ?
Ans: Because it has low frontal area.
54. Why iso-octane is chosen as reference fuel for S.I. engines and allotted 100 value for its octane
number ?
Ans: Iso-octane permits highest compression without causing knocking.
55. Why thermal efficiency of I.C. engines is more than that of gas turbine plant ?
Ans: In I.C. engine maximum temperature attained is higher than in gas turbine.
56. Which are the reference fuels for knock rating of S.I. engines ?
Ans: n-heptane and ISO-octane.
57. When effect of variations in specific heats is considered then how do maximum temperature and
pressure vary compared to air standard cycle ?
Ans: Temperature increases and pressure decreases.
58. Quantities like pressure, temperature, density, viscosity, etc. are independent of mass. What are
these called ?
Ans: Intensive properties.
59. The amount of radiation emitted per scm per sec is called .... ?
Ans: Emissive power.
60. In convection heat transfer, if heat flux intensity is doubled then temperature
difference between solid surface and fluid will ?
Ans: Get doubled.
62. Which pollutant is major greenhouse gas and what is its effect ?
Ans: CO is major greenhouse gas and it traps the radiation of heat from the sun within earth's
atmosphere.
63. In order to increase efficiency and reduce CO emissions and other emissions, clear coal technologies
are receiving major attention. What are these ?
Ans: (i) Advanced pulverised and pressurised pulverised fuel combustion.
(ii) Atmospheric fluidised bed combustion and pressurised fluidised bed combustion.
(iii) Supercritical boilers.
(iv) Integrated gasification combined cycle systems.
(v) Advanced integrated gasification, including fuel cell systems.
(vi) Magneto hydrodynamic electricity generation.
64. What are the important operational performance parameters in design of fuel firing equipment ?
Ans: Fuel flexibility, electrical load following capability, reliability, availability, and maintenance ease.
65. What is the differenc between total moisture and inherent moisture in coal ?
Ans: The moisture content of the bulk as sampled is referred to as total moisture, and that of the air
dried sample is called inherent moisture.
66. Proximity analysis of coal provides data for a first, general assessment of a coal's quality and type.
What elements it reports ?
Ans: Moisture, volatile matter, ash and fixed carbon.
68. Explain the difference between AFBC, BFBC, PFBC and PCFB in regard to fluidised bed technologies.
Ans: AFBC (Atmospheric fluidised bed combustion) process consists of forming a bed of inert materials
like finely sized ash or ash mixed with sand, limestone (for sulphur removal), and solid fuel particles in a
combustor and fluidising it by forcing combustion air up through the bed mixture. The gas flows thorugh
bed without disturbing particles significantly but gas velocity is high enough to support the total weight
of bed (fluidisation). At slightly higher velocity excess gas passes through the bed as bubbles (fluidised
bed) and gives the bed the appearance of a boiling liquid.
Bubbling fluidised bed combustion (BFBC) has a defined height of bed material and operates at or near
atmospheric pressure in the furnace.
Pressurised fluidised bed combustion (PFBC) system operates the bed at elevated pressure. Exhaust
gases have sufficient energy to power a gas turbine, of course, gases need to be cleaned.
In fluidised combustion, as ash is removed some unburned carbon is also removed resulting in lower
efficiency. In circulating fluidised bed combustion (CFBC) system, bed is operated at higher pressure
leading to high heat transfer, higher combustion efficiency, and better fuel feed. Circulating fluidised
beds operate with relatively high gas velocities and fine particle sizes. The maintenance of steady state
conditions in a fast fluidised bed requires the continuous recycle of particles removed by the gas stream
(circulating bed). The term circulating bed is often used to include fluidised bed systems containing
multiple conventional bubbling beds between which bed material is exchanged.
69. What for Schmidt plot for is used in heat transfer problems ?
Ans: Schmidt plot is a graphical method for determining the temperature at any point in a body at a
specified time during the transient heating or cooling period.
70. In which reactor the coolant and moderator are the same ?
Ans: Pressurised water reactor.
71. Which reactor has no moderator ?
Ans: Fast breeder reactor.
75. Which two elements have same percentage in proximate and ultimate analysis of coal?
Ans: Moisture and ash.
76. On which analysis is based the Dulong's formula for the heating value of fuel ?
Ans: On ultimate analysis.
77. Which element causes difference in higher and lower heating values of fuel ?
Ans: Hydrogen.
79. State the difference between ultimate and proximate analysis of coal ?
Ans: In ultimate analysis, chemical determination of following elements is made by weight: Fixed and
combined carbon, H, O, N, S, water and ash. Heating value is due to C, H and S.
In proximate analysis following constituents are mechanically determined by weight. Moisture, volatile
matter, fixed carbon and ash. Heating value is due to fixed carbon and volatile matter.
81. How the analyses and calorific values of fuels can be reported ?
Ans: It may be reported as
(a) as received or fired (wet) basis
(b) dry or moisture free basis
(c) combustible or ash and moisture free basis
82. What is the difference between nuclear fission and fission chain reaction.
Ans: The process of splitting of nucleus into two almost equal fragments accompanied by release of
heat is nuclear fission. Self sustained, continuing, sequence of fission reactions in a controlled manner
is fission chain reaction.
85. What is heavy water and what is its use in nuclear plants ?
Ans: Water containing heavy isotopes of hydrogen (Deuterium) is known as heavy water. Heavy water is
used as a moderator. Heavy water has low cross section for absorption of neutrons than ordinary water.
Heavy water slows down the fast neutrons and thus moderates the chain reaction.
89. Disposal of radioactive waste materials and spent fuel is a major and important technology. How the
waste radioactive material is disposed off ?
Ans: Nonusable fission products are radioactive and take short/medium/long time for radioactive decay
to reach safe level of radioactivity. Accordingly three methods of disposal are :
(a) Zero or low radioactivity material is dispersed or stored without elaborate shielding.
(b) Medium radioactivity material is stored for short duration of about 5 years to allow decay of
radioactivity.
(c) High radioactive material. They are stored in water for several months to permit radioactive decay
to an accepetable low level.
90. Which nuclear reactor uses water as a coolant, moderator and reflector ?
Ans: Pressurised water reactor.
95. Which reactor uses primary coolant as fluoride salts of lithium, beryllium, thorium and uranium ?
Ans: Molten salt breeder reactor.
96. Why an increase in area is required to produce an increase of velocity in case of supersonic flow ?
Ans: Increase in area for increase in velocity for supersonic flow is required because the density
decreases faster than velocity increases at supersonic speeds and to maintain continuity of mass, area
must increase.
97. Under what circumstances would there be an increase in pressure in a divergent nozzle ?
Ans: For subsonic flow at inlet section of a diffuser a lower velocity and higher pressure will exist at the
exit section. For supersonic isentropic flow at the inlet section a higher velocity and lower pressure will
exist at the exit but if a shock wave occurs in the diffuser then a higher pressure will exist at the exit.
98. Why water can't be used as refrigerant for small refrigerating equipment ?
Ans: The refrigerant should be such that vapour volume is low so that pumping work will be low. Water
vapour volume is around 4000 times compared to R- for a given mass.
4. What properties need to be considered for applications calling for following requirements :
(i) rigidity
(ii) strength for no plastic deformation under static load
(iii) strength to withstand overload without fracture.
(iv) wear resistance
(v) reliability and safety.
Ans: (i) RigidityElastic modulus and yield strength
(ii) Strength (for no plastic deformation under static loading)yield point
(iii) Strength (overload)Toughness and impact resistance
(iv) Wear resistanceHardness
(v) Reliability and safetyEndurance limit and yield point.
9. Specific strength of materials is very high when they are in fibre size but lower when they are in bar
form Why ?
Ans: Crystal structure has ordered, repeating arrangement of atoms. Fibres are liable to maintain this
and thus have high specific strength. As size increases, the condition of ordered and repeating
arrangements can't be guaranteed because of several types of defects and dislocations and thus the
specific strength gets lower.
12. Whether individual components in composite materials retain their characteristics or not?
Ans: yes.
15. Why is it that the maximum value which the residual stress can reach is the elastic limit of the
material ?
Ans: A stress in excess of elastic limit, with no external force to oppose it, will relieve itself by plastic
deformation until it reaches the value of the yield stress.
16. Why fatigue strength decreases as size of a part increases beyond around 10 mm?
Ans: Perfection of material conditions is possible at lower sizes and as size increases, it is not possible to
attain uniform structure of the material.
18. While normal carburising and nitriding surface treatments increase fatigue strength, excessive
treatment may decrease the fatigue strength. Why ?
.Ans: Normal carburising/nitriding treatments increase volume due to phase transformation at Surface
and introduce residual compressive surface stress and thus increase the fatigue strength. By excessive
treatment the high compressive stresses are introduced but these are balanced by high internal tensile
stresses of equal value and the subsurface fatigue cracks may develop in the regions of high tensile
stress and lead to early fatigue failure.
19. List at least two factors that promote transition from ductile to brittle fracture.
Ans: Manner of loading, and the rate of loading promote transition from ductile to brittle fracture. A
machine member may have ductile failure under static loading but may fail in brittle fashion when the
load is fluctuating. Similarly a material may evidence ductile failure under tensile loading at ordinary
testing speed but if load is applied at a high velocity then failure may be brittle.
20. Which theories of failure are used for (a) ductile materials, and (b) brittle materials ?
Ans: For ductile materials, theories of failure used are maximum shear stress theory, and maximum
energy of distortion theory; while for brittle materials, theory of maximum principal stress, and
maximum strain are used.
22. For conduction of heat, the instantaneous rate of heat flow is product of three factors. What are
these ?
Ans: (i) Area of the section of the heat flow path, perpendicular to the direction of heat flow.
(ii) temperature gradient, i.e. change of temperature w.r.t. length of path.
(ii) Thermal conductivity of material.
23. How convective heat transfer is effected and on what factors it depends ?
Ans: Convective heat transfer is effected between a solid and fluid by a combination of molecular
conduction within the fluid in combination with energy transport resulting from the motion of fluid
particles. It depends on boundary layer configuration, fluid properties and temperature difference.
27. Give one example of metal classified as per structure as BCC, FCC, HCP and CCP.
Ans: BCC (body centred cubic) structureMolybdenum
FCC (face centred cubic) structureAluminium
HCP (hexagonal closed packed) structureZinc
CCP (cubic dosed packed) structure-Copper.
28. What is the name of solid solution of carbon in alpha iron and delta iron ?
Ans: Ferrite and austenite respectively.
30. Give one example each of the following proportion of materials dimensional, physical, technological
and mechanical.
Ans: Roughness, enthalpy, toughness, and hardness respectively.
31. For which parts the Wahl factor and Lewis form factor used ?
Ans: For springs and gears respectively.
32. How oxygen can be removed from steel during melting? What are fully killed steels ?
Ans: Oxygen can be removed by adding elements such as manganese, silicon or aluminium which,
because of their high affinity for oxygen, react with it to form non-metallic oxides which rise into the
slag. Steels which have had most of their dissolved oxygen removed are called "fully killed steels".
33. Hydrogen cannot be removed easily from molten steel. What harm hydrogen has on property of
steel ?
Ans: Execessive hydrogen results in the formation of small fissures often described as hairline cracks or
flakes in the steel. Large forgings in alloy steel are particularly sensitive to this phenomenon.
35. What is the difference between alpha iron, delta iron and gamma iron ?
Ans: The bcc form of iron exists between room temperature and 910C, and between 1400C and the
melting point at 1539C. The lower temperature form is known as "alpha"-iron and the higher
temperature form as "delta"-iron. The face-centered cubic form existing between 910C and 1400C is
referred to as "gamma-iron".
36. Metals, in general are of low strength and do not possess required physio-chemical and
technological properties for a definite purpose. Alloys are therefore more than metals alone. Discuss the
arrangement of atoms and structures of alloys.
Ans: Alloys are produced by melting or sintering two ore more metals, or metals and a non-metal,
together. Alloys possess typical properties inherent in the metallic state. The chemical elements that
make up an alloy are called its components. An alloy can consist of two or more components. The phase
and structures of alloys describe the constitution, transformations and properties of metals and alloys. A
combination of phases in a state of equilibrium is called a system. A phase is a homogeneous portion of
a system having the same composition and the same state of aggregation throughout its volume, and
separated from the other portions of the system by interfaces. For instance, a homogeneous pure metal
or alloy is a single-phase system. A state in which a liquid alloy (or metal) coexists with its crystals is a
two-phase system. Structure refers to the shape, size or the mutual arrangement of the corresponding
phases in metals or alloys. The structural components of an alloy are its individual portions, each having
a single structure with its characteristic features.
37. What is the difference between isotropic material and homogeneous material ?
Ans: In homogeneous material the composition is same throughout and in isotropic material the elastic
constants are same in all directions.
38. Explain the difference between the points of inflexion and contraflexure.
Ans: At points of inflexion in a loaded beam the bending moment is zero and at points of contraflexure
in loaded beam the bending moment changes sign from increasing to decreasing.
39. What is the difference between proof resilience and modulus of resilience ?
Ans: Proof resilience is the maximum strain energy that can be stored in a material without permanent
deformation. Modulus of resilience is the maximum strain energy stored in a material per unit volume.
42. Explain the terms solid solution, eutectic, eutectoid and peritectic.
Ans: Solid Solution. When a homogeneous mixture of two (or more) atomic forms exists in solid state, it
is known as solid solution.
Eutectic. A mixture of two (or more) phases which solidify simultaneously from the liquid alloy is called
an eutectic. Alloys in which the components solidify simultaneously at a constant temperature the
lowest for the given system, are called eutectic alloys.
Eutectoid. Eutectoid alloys are the alloys for which two solid phases which are completely soluble
become completely insoluble on cooling before a certain temperature called eutectoid temperature.
Peritectic. A peritectic transformation involves a reaction between a solid and liquid that form a
different and new solid phase. This three phase transformation occurs at a point called peritectic point.
49. What are killed steels and what for these are used ?
Ans: Killed steels are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium. On solidification no gas
evolution occurs in these steels because they are free from oxygen.
52. What is the structure of pure iron and whether it is soft or hard ?
Ans: Ferrite and it is soft.
54. What causes hardness in steel ? How heat treatment alters properties of steel ?
Ans: The shape and distribution of the carbides in the iron determines the hardness of the steel.
Carbides can be dissolved in austenite is the basis of the heat treatment of steel. If steel is heated above
the A critical temperature to dissolve all the carbides, and then cooled, suitable cooling through the
cooling range will produce the desired size and distribution of carbides in the ferrite, imparting different
properties.
55. Explain the formation of microstructures of pearlite, bainite and martensite in steel.
Ans: If austenite containing about 0.80 percent carbon is slowly cooled through the critical temperature,
ferrite and cementite are rejected simultaneously, forming alternate plates or lamellae. This
microstructure is called pearlite. At temperatures just belot the A1, the transformation from
austenite.to pearlite may take an appreciable time to initiate and complete, but the product will be
lameller pearlite. As the transformation temperature is lowered, the time to initiate transformation
shortens but the product is pearlite of increasing fineness, and at temperatures approaching 550C it
cannot be resolved into its lamellar constituents. Further deerease in transformation temperature
causes a lengthening of the ncubation period and a change in structure of the product to a form known
as "bainite".
If the temperature is lowered sufficiently, the diffusion controlled nucleation and growth modes of
transformation are suppressed completely and the austenite transforms by a diffusionless process in
which the crystal lattice effectively shears to a new crystallographic configuration known as
"martensite". This phase has a tetragonal crystal structure and contains carbon in supersaturated solid
solution.
56. How with alloying of steel it is possible to a achieve properties which can not be achieved with heat
treatment ?
Ans: A prerequisite to the hardening of steels is that martensite should be formed on cooling, but this
can only be achieved if the rate of cooling is great enough to suppress the formation of pearlite or
bainite and in plain carbon steels this can be achieved by quenching relatively small specimens
58. What is the difference between austenite stabilisers and ferrite stabilisers ?
Ans: Austenite stabilisers have the effect of extending the temperature range overwhich austenite is
formed. Such elements are carbon, manganese, nickel, copper and cobalt.
Ferrite stabilisers have the effect of extending the temperature range over which alpha and delta ferrite
are formed, which consequently reduces temperature range over which austenite is formed. Such
elements are silicon, chromium, molybdenum, tungsten, titanium and niobium.
68. What is the difference between basic hole and basic shaft ?
Ans: A basic hole is one whose lower deviation is zero and in case of basic shaft the upper deviation is
zero.
72. Explain the difference between grey iron and white iron. What is mottled iron ?
Ans: The carbon in cast iron could exist at room temperature as either iron carbide, or as graphite which
is the more stable form. Irons containing carbon as graphite are soft, easily machinable and are called
"grey irons". Irons with carbon present as iron carbide are extremely hard, difficult to machine and are
called "white" irons. Irons with fairly equal proportions of graphite and iron carbide have intermediate
hardness and are called "mottled" irons.
73. The graphite in grey irons exists in the form of flakes which act as stress-raisers under tensile loading
and consequently grey irons have relatively low tensile strength and ductility. Still grey iron is
extensively used in engineering. Why ?
Ans: Grey iron is extensively used in engineering because of following characteristics.
(a) Cheapness.
(b) Low melting point and high fluidity making it suitable for castings of intricate shape.
(c) Relatively good erosion and corrosion resistance.
(d) High damping capacity, with respect to vibration.
(e) Relatively good mechanical properties under compressive loading.
76. How the net work to drive a compressor and its volumetric efficiency behave with increase in
clearance volume ?
Ans: Work remains unaltered and volumetric efficiency decreases.
79. What is the effect of addition of zinc in copper? What is the use of 70/30 brass ?
Ans: By addition of zinc in copper, both tensile strength and elongation increases. The 70/30 brass has
excellent deep drawing property and is used for making radiator fins.
84. What is the name given to ratio of actual cycle efficiency and ideal cycle efficiency.
Ans: Efficiency ratio.
88. What is temper embrittlement in alloy steels and what are its effects ?
Ans: Embrittlement attack is usually intergranular in metals, i.e. cracks progress between the grains of
the polycrystalline material. It imparts a tendency to fail under a static load after a given period of time
in those alloy steels which are susceptible to embrittlement.
91. What is the difference between heat capacity and specific heat of a material ?
Ans: The heat capacity of a material is the amount of heat transformed to raise unit mass of a material 1
degree in temperature.
The specific heat of a material is the ratio of the amount of heat transferred to raise unit mass of a
material 1 degree in temperature to that required to raise unit mass of water 1 degree of temperature
at some specified temperature.
For most engineering purposes, heat capacities may be assumed numerically equal to;specific heats.
93. What do you understand by latent heat ? Give four examples of latent heats.
Ans: For pure substances, the heat effects accompanying changes in state at constant pressure (no
temperature change being evident) are known as latent heats. Examples of latent heats are : heat of
fusion, vaporisation, sublimation, and change in crystal form.
94. Define the terms free energy and free enthalpy. What is their significance and importance ?
Ans: Free energy (or Helmholtz function) is defined as/= u -Ts.
It is equal to the work during a constant-volume isothermal reversible nonflow process.
Free enthalpy (or Gibbs function) is defined as g = h - Ts
(where u = internal energy, h = enthalpy, T = temperature, s = entropy)
Gibbs function is of particular importance in processes where chemical changes occur. For reversible
isothermal steady-flow processes or for reversible constant-pressure isothermal nonflow processes,
change in free energy is equal to net work.
96. What is polytropic process ? Under what conditions it approaches isobaric, isothermal, and isometric
process ? In which reversible process no work is done ?
Ans: A polytropic process is one that follows the equation pun = constant (index n may have values from
- oc to + oo. This process approaches isobaric when n = 0, isothermal when n = 1, and isometric when n
= <x>. No work is done in isometric process.
98. Out of constant pressure and constant volume lines on TS diagram which line has higher slope ? And
whether slope is constant or variable ?
Ans: Constant volume line. Slope is variable.
4. What properties need to be considered for applications calling for following requirements :
(i) rigidity
(ii) strength for no plastic deformation under static load
(iii) strength to withstand overload without fracture.
(iv) wear resistance
(v) reliability and safety.
Ans: (i) RigidityElastic modulus and yield strength
(ii) Strength (for no plastic deformation under static loading)yield point
(iii) Strength (overload)Toughness and impact resistance
(iv) Wear resistanceHardness
(v) Reliability and safetyEndurance limit and yield point.
9. Specific strength of materials is very high when they are in fibre size but lower when they are in bar
form Why ?
Ans: Crystal structure has ordered, repeating arrangement of atoms. Fibres are liable to maintain this
and thus have high specific strength. As size increases, the condition of ordered and repeating
arrangements can't be guaranteed because of several types of defects and dislocations and thus the
specific strength gets lower.
12. Whether individual components in composite materials retain their characteristics or not?
Ans: yes.
15. Why is it that the maximum value which the residual stress can reach is the elastic limit of the
material ?
Ans: A stress in excess of elastic limit, with no external force to oppose it, will relieve itself by plastic
deformation until it reaches the value of the yield stress.
16. Why fatigue strength decreases as size of a part increases beyond around 10 mm?
Ans: Perfection of material conditions is possible at lower sizes and as size increases, it is not possible to
attain uniform structure of the material.
18. While normal carburising and nitriding surface treatments increase fatigue strength, excessive
treatment may decrease the fatigue strength. Why ?
.Ans: Normal carburising/nitriding treatments increase volume due to phase transformation at Surface
and introduce residual compressive surface stress and thus increase the fatigue strength. By excessive
treatment the high compressive stresses are introduced but these are balanced by high internal tensile
stresses of equal value and the subsurface fatigue cracks may develop in the regions of high tensile
stress and lead to early fatigue failure.
19. List at least two factors that promote transition from ductile to brittle fracture.
Ans: Manner of loading, and the rate of loading promote transition from ductile to brittle fracture. A
machine member may have ductile failure under static loading but may fail in brittle fashion when the
load is fluctuating. Similarly a material may evidence ductile failure under tensile loading at ordinary
testing speed but if load is applied at a high velocity then failure may be brittle.
20. Which theories of failure are used for (a) ductile materials, and (b) brittle materials ?
Ans: For ductile materials, theories of failure used are maximum shear stress theory, and maximum
energy of distortion theory; while for brittle materials, theory of maximum principal stress, and
maximum strain are used.
22. For conduction of heat, the instantaneous rate of heat flow is product of three factors. What are
these ?
Ans: (i) Area of the section of the heat flow path, perpendicular to the direction of heat flow.
(ii) temperature gradient, i.e. change of temperature w.r.t. length of path.
(ii) Thermal conductivity of material.
23. How convective heat transfer is effected and on what factors it depends ?
Ans: Convective heat transfer is effected between a solid and fluid by a combination of molecular
conduction within the fluid in combination with energy transport resulting from the motion of fluid
particles. It depends on boundary layer configuration, fluid properties and temperature difference.
28. What is the name of solid solution of carbon in alpha iron and delta iron ?
Ans: Ferrite and austenite respectively.
30. Give one example each of the following proportion of materials dimensional, physical, technological
and mechanical.
Ans: Roughness, enthalpy, toughness, and hardness respectively.
31. For which parts the Wahl factor and Lewis form factor used ?
Ans: For springs and gears respectively.
32. How oxygen can be removed from steel during melting? What are fully killed steels ?
Ans: Oxygen can be removed by adding elements such as manganese, silicon or aluminium which,
because of their high affinity for oxygen, react with it to form non-metallic oxides which rise into the
slag. Steels which have had most of their dissolved oxygen removed are called "fully killed steels".
33. Hydrogen cannot be removed easily from molten steel. What harm hydrogen has on property of
steel ?
Ans: Execessive hydrogen results in the formation of small fissures often described as hairline cracks or
flakes in the steel. Large forgings in alloy steel are particularly sensitive to this phenomenon.
35. What is the difference between alpha iron, delta iron and gamma iron ?
Ans: The bcc form of iron exists between room temperature and 910C, and between 1400C and the
melting point at 1539C. The lower temperature form is known as "alpha"-iron and the higher
temperature form as "delta"-iron. The face-centered cubic form existing between 910C and 1400C is
referred to as "gamma-iron".
36. Metals, in general are of low strength and do not possess required physio-chemical and
technological properties for a definite purpose. Alloys are therefore more than metals alone. Discuss the
arrangement of atoms and structures of alloys.
Ans: Alloys are produced by melting or sintering two ore more metals, or metals and a non-metal,
together. Alloys possess typical properties inherent in the metallic state. The chemical elements that
make up an alloy are called its components. An alloy can consist of two or more components. The phase
and structures of alloys describe the constitution, transformations and properties of metals and alloys. A
combination of phases in a state of equilibrium is called a system. A phase is a homogeneous portion of
a system having the same composition and the same state of aggregation throughout its volume, and
separated from the other portions of the system by interfaces. For instance, a homogeneous pure metal
or alloy is a single-phase system. A state in which a liquid alloy (or metal) coexists with its crystals is a
two-phase system. Structure refers to the shape, size or the mutual arrangement of the corresponding
phases in metals or alloys. The structural components of an alloy are its individual portions, each having
a single structure with its characteristic features.
37. What is the difference between isotropic material and homogeneous material ?
Ans: In homogeneous material the composition is same throughout and in isotropic material the elastic
constants are same in all directions.
38. Explain the difference between the points of inflexion and contraflexure.
Ans: At points of inflexion in a loaded beam the bending moment is zero and at points of contraflexure
in loaded beam the bending moment changes sign from increasing to decreasing.
39. What is the difference between proof resilience and modulus of resilience ?
Ans: Proof resilience is the maximum strain energy that can be stored in a material without permanent
deformation. Modulus of resilience is the maximum strain energy stored in a material per unit volume.
42. Explain the terms solid solution, eutectic, eutectoid and peritectic.
Ans: Solid Solution. When a homogeneous mixture of two (or more) atomic forms exists in solid state, it
is known as solid solution.
Eutectic. A mixture of two (or more) phases which solidify simultaneously from the liquid alloy is called
an eutectic. Alloys in which the components solidify simultaneously at a constant temperature the
lowest for the given system, are called eutectic alloys.
Eutectoid. Eutectoid alloys are the alloys for which two solid phases which are completely soluble
become completely insoluble on cooling before a certain temperature called eutectoid temperature.
Peritectic. A peritectic transformation involves a reaction between a solid and liquid that form a
different and new solid phase. This three phase transformation occurs at a point called peritectic point.
49. What are killed steels and what for these are used ?
Ans: Killed steels are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium. On solidification no gas
evolution occurs in these steels because they are free from oxygen.
52. What is the structure of pure iron and whether it is soft or hard ?
Ans: Ferrite and it is soft.
54. What causes hardness in steel ? How heat treatment alters properties of steel ?
Ans: The shape and distribution of the carbides in the iron determines the hardness of the steel.
Carbides can be dissolved in austenite is the basis of the heat treatment of steel. If steel is heated above
the A critical temperature to dissolve all the carbides, and then cooled, suitable cooling through the
cooling range will produce the desired size and distribution of carbides in the ferrite, imparting different
properties.
55. Explain the formation of microstructures of pearlite, bainite and martensite in steel.
Ans: If austenite containing about 0.80 percent carbon is slowly cooled through the critical temperature,
ferrite and cementite are rejected simultaneously, forming alternate plates or lamellae. This
microstructure is called pearlite. At temperatures just belot the A1, the transformation from
austenite.to pearlite may take an appreciable time to initiate and complete, but the product will be
lameller pearlite. As the transformation temperature is lowered, the time to initiate transformation
shortens but the product is pearlite of increasing fineness, and at temperatures approaching 550C it
cannot be resolved into its lamellar constituents. Further deerease in transformation temperature
causes a lengthening of the ncubation period and a change in structure of the product to a form known
as "bainite".
If the temperature is lowered sufficiently, the diffusion controlled nucleation and growth modes of
transformation are suppressed completely and the austenite transforms by a diffusionless process in
which the crystal lattice effectively shears to a new crystallographic configuration known as
"martensite". This phase has a tetragonal crystal structure and contains carbon in supersaturated solid
solution.
56. How with alloying of steel it is possible to a achieve properties which can not be achieved with heat
treatment ?
Ans: A prerequisite to the hardening of steels is that martensite should be formed on cooling, but this
can only be achieved if the rate of cooling is great enough to suppress the formation of pearlite or
bainite and in plain carbon steels this can be achieved by quenching relatively small specimens
58. What is the difference between austenite stabilisers and ferrite stabilisers ?
Ans: Austenite stabilisers have the effect of extending the temperature range overwhich austenite is
formed. Such elements are carbon, manganese, nickel, copper and cobalt.
Ferrite stabilisers have the effect of extending the temperature range over which alpha and delta ferrite
are formed, which consequently reduces temperature range over which austenite is formed. Such
elements are silicon, chromium, molybdenum, tungsten, titanium and niobium.
68. What is the difference between basic hole and basic shaft ?
Ans: A basic hole is one whose lower deviation is zero and in case of basic shaft the upper deviation is
zero.
72. Explain the difference between grey iron and white iron. What is mottled iron ?
Ans: The carbon in cast iron could exist at room temperature as either iron carbide, or as graphite which
is the more stable form. Irons containing carbon as graphite are soft, easily machinable and are called
"grey irons". Irons with carbon present as iron carbide are extremely hard, difficult to machine and are
called "white" irons. Irons with fairly equal proportions of graphite and iron carbide have intermediate
hardness and are called "mottled" irons.
73. The graphite in grey irons exists in the form of flakes which act as stress-raisers under tensile loading
and consequently grey irons have relatively low tensile strength and ductility. Still grey iron is
extensively used in engineering. Why ?
Ans: Grey iron is extensively used in engineering because of following characteristics.
(a) Cheapness.
(b) Low melting point and high fluidity making it suitable for castings of intricate shape.
(c) Relatively good erosion and corrosion resistance.
(d) High damping capacity, with respect to vibration.
(e) Relatively good mechanical properties under compressive loading.
75. What is endurance limit and what is its value for steel ?
Ans: Endurance limit is the maximum level of fluctuating stress which can be tolerated indefinitely. In
most steels this stress is approximately 50% of the ultimate tensile strength and it is defined as the
stress which can be endured for ten million reversals of stress.
76. How the net work to drive a compressor and its volumetric efficiency behave with increase in
clearance volume ?
Ans: Work remains unaltered and volumetric efficiency decreases.
79. What is the effect of addition of zinc in copper? What is the use of 70/30 brass ?
Ans: By addition of zinc in copper, both tensile strength and elongation increases. The 70/30 brass has
excellent deep drawing property and is used for making radiator fins.
84. What is the name given to ratio of actual cycle efficiency and ideal cycle efficiency.
Ans: Efficiency ratio.
88. What is temper embrittlement in alloy steels and what are its effects ?
Ans: Embrittlement attack is usually intergranular in metals, i.e. cracks progress between the grains of
the polycrystalline material. It imparts a tendency to fail under a static load after a given period of time
in those alloy steels which are susceptible to embrittlement.
91. What is the difference between heat capacity and specific heat of a material ?
Ans: The heat capacity of a material is the amount of heat transformed to raise unit mass of a material 1
degree in temperature.
The specific heat of a material is the ratio of the amount of heat transferred to raise unit mass of a
material 1 degree in temperature to that required to raise unit mass of water 1 degree of temperature
at some specified temperature.
For most engineering purposes, heat capacities may be assumed numerically equal to;specific heats.
93. What do you understand by latent heat ? Give four examples of latent heats.
Ans: For pure substances, the heat effects accompanying changes in state at constant pressure (no
temperature change being evident) are known as latent heats. Examples of latent heats are : heat of
fusion, vaporisation, sublimation, and change in crystal form.
94. Define the terms free energy and free enthalpy. What is their significance and importance ?
Ans: Free energy (or Helmholtz function) is defined as/= u -Ts.
It is equal to the work during a constant-volume isothermal reversible nonflow process.
Free enthalpy (or Gibbs function) is defined as g = h - Ts
(where u = internal energy, h = enthalpy, T = temperature, s = entropy)
Gibbs function is of particular importance in processes where chemical changes occur. For reversible
isothermal steady-flow processes or for reversible constant-pressure isothermal nonflow processes,
change in free energy is equal to net work.
96. What is polytropic process ? Under what conditions it approaches isobaric, isothermal, and isometric
process ? In which reversible process no work is done ?
Ans: A polytropic process is one that follows the equation pun = constant (index n may have values from
- oc to + oo. This process approaches isobaric when n = 0, isothermal when n = 1, and isometric when n
= <x>. No work is done in isometric process.
98. Out of constant pressure and constant volume lines on TS diagram which line has higher slope ? And
whether slope is constant or variable ?
Ans: Constant volume line. Slope is variable.
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