Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Educational Research MCQS PDF
Educational Research MCQS PDF
Chapter 1
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
om
question.)
1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without
e.c
interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and is constantly
speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she appear to be using?
a. prediction
b. description
c. explanation
d. exploration
fre
2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers,
counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically
line
help them solve local problems?
a. action research
b. basic research
c. predictive research
d. orientational research
3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?
lon
of premises?
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. inductive reasoning
d. probabilistic
6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal
explanatory value, one should select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and
succinct is known as ____________.
a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory
c. guide of simplicity
d. rule of parsimony
7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same
variables but different people" is which of the following?
a. exploration
b. hypothesis
c. replication
d. empiricism
8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. logic
om
d. empiricism
9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science?
a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description
b. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence
e.c
d. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary
10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence
how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study
was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction fre
line
11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves snake
handling. The researcher wants to find out why the people attending these churches
do this and how they feel and think about it. In this case, the primary purpose of the
study is:
a. Exploration
b. Description
lon
c. Influence
d. Prediction
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories
om
d. None of the above
e.c
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and
theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
l
c. Hypothesis method
w.a
d. Pattern method
Answers:
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. a
5. b
6. d
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. a
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. b
om
21. d
e.c
Chapter 2
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
fre
1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?
line
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
l
w.a
called ___.
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable
6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics
except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the
world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
om
8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of
cause-and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research
b. experimental Research
9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
e.c
a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable
fre
10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher
cannot manipulate the independent variable.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
line
d. causal-comparative and correlational research
11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems
lon
13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase
and the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
ww
om
18.. What is the opposite of a variable?
a. a constant
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
e.c
19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the
primary independent variable of interest is categorical?
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. qualitative research
d. mixed research
fre
20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. age
b. annual income
line
c. grade point average
d. religion
21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable
b. method
c. constant
lon
d. control group
22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between
two variables, it is very important to avoid _______.
a. checking the strength of relationship
b. jumping to the conclusion of causality
l
increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent
involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student
achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable
24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research
methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography
25. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
om
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
Answers:
e.c
1. c
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. b
9. d
10. d
fre
line
11. b
12. b
13. d
14. e
15. b
lon
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. d
l
21. c
w.a
22. b
23. d
24. a
25. d
26. a
ww
Chapter 3
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
1. A good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find
om
3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study
e.c
4. Why is the statement What are the effects of extracurricular activities on
cognitive development of school age children not a good statement of a quantitative
research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive
development
activities
to conduct the study
fre
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular
line
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the
variables being investigated
6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the
w.a
10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research
questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
om
11. Which of the following is a function of theory?
a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory
e.c
12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the
researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
fre
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above
line
13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is
not recommended by grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False
15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during
w.a
19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement well stated or poorly
stated? The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing
om
encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are
engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of the surgical
units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated
e.c
20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?
a. What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on
academic performance?
fre
b. What effect does playing high school football have on students overall grade
point average during the football season?
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research
plan?
l
a. Introduction
w.a
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
om
27. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative
research, it includes
e.c
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above
28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
fre
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas
line
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
lon
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. d
l
9. d
w.a
10. b
11. d
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. d
ww
16. d
17. d
18. e
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. e
27. d
28. e
Chapter 5
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
om
1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement?
a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful
b. Error is rarely present in the measurement process
e.c
c. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior
d. Testing and assessment benefit society
3.
a.
fre
Which of the following is a type of criterionrelated validity evidence?
Concurrent evidence
line
b. Predictive evidence
c. Internal consistency
d. Both a and b are correct answers
9. Lets say that a test accurately indicates participants scores on a future criterion
(e.g., the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test would clearly
have which of the following?
om
a. Face validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Content validity
e.c
10. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?
a. Interval scale
b. Ratio scale
c. Nominal scale
fre
d. Ordinal scale
13. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:
a. Wechsler Scales
b. Stanford-Binet
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)
d. Slosson
ww
om
d. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or raters
18. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores
over time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
e.c
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Inter-scorer reliability
20. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens four levels of
measurement?
lon
21. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test
w.a
scores?
a. Validation
b. Validity
c. Reliability
d. Prediction
22. When evaluating tests and assessments, reliability refers to asking ourselves
ww
24. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores
on two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic?
a. Split-half
b. Test-retest
c. Split-forms
d. Equivalent forms
om
25. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken
place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience.
a. True
b. False
e.c
26. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a
characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that
characteristic.
a. Construct validity evidence
b. Criterion-related validity evidence
c. Content validity evidence
d. Face validity evidence fre
line
Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. a
lon
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. c
10. b
l
11. b
w.a
12. a
13. c
14. a
15. b
16. c
17. a
ww
18. c
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. c
23. d
24. d
25. a
26. c
Chapter 6
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
a. Five
b. Four
om
c. Ten
d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points
2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question What
is your current age?
e.c
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking
place when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
l
9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at
an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
om
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes
10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data.
e.c
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researchers
predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participants own words
fre
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants own
words
13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called
___________ observation.
a. Structured
b. Naturalistic
c. Complete
d. Probed
ww
17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the
om
sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
a. The interview guide approach
b. The informal conversational interview
c. A closed quantitative interview
d. The standardized open-ended interview
e.c
18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Focus groups
fre
e. All of the above are methods of data collection
19. A question during an interview such as Why do you feel that way? is known as
line
a:
a. Probe
b. Filter question
c. Response
d. Pilot
lon
20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
a. Standardized tests
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Observations
l
w.a
21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that
is being studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-participant
c. A participant-as-observer
ww
25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should
adhere. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
om
c. Avoid double negatives
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct
Answers:
1. d
e.c
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. d
fre
6. c
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. c
line
11. b
12. c
13. b
14. a
15. c
16. d
lon
17. a
18. e
19. a
20. b
21. a
l
w.a
22. c
23. b
24. b
25. d
Chapter 7
ww
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected,
this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method
om
3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large
e.c
enough
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
fre
4. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the
larger
the sample needed
line
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the
larger
the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
lon
5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include
in the original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
l
8. Which of the following will give a more accurate representation of the population
from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
om
d. Purposive sampling
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
e.c
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year
b. Every five years
c. Every ten years
d. Twice a year
fre
line
12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the
sampling method called ______.
a. Simple random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
lon
d. Convenience sampling
13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the
appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking
convenience samples from those groups?
l
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that
ww
15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research
study with a population of 120,000?
a. 242
b. 331
c. 377
d. 384
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher
ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed
in your chapter?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Proportional stratified sampling
om
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by
gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the
females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.
e.c
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a
a. A datum
b. A statistic
c. A parameter
fre
characteristic of the population is called which of the following?
line
d. A population
20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the
sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called
_________.
a. Sampling without replacement
lon
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of
ww
its efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling
23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the
population size is of what size?
a. 500 or less
b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less
om
d. you should always use a sample
e.c
c. Convenience
d. Cluster
27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
fre
people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger
population?
line
d. Random sampling
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element
29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number
l
between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for
w.a
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from
a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called
_____.
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Snowball sampling
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. e
7. e
8. c
9. d
10. a
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. d
om
15. d
16. a
17. b
18. c
19. c
e.c
20. b
21. a
22. b
23. d
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. d
28. a
fre
line
29. c
30. c
lon
Chapter 8
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
l
w.a
question.)
1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable
and influences the dependent variable, it is called:
ww
3. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers
improve their reading performance. The children in the program are at the
4thpercentile at pretest. At posttest they are around the 20th percentile. While it is
possible that the program made the difference, another reason for the change in
scores could be:
a. History
b. Regression artifact
c. Multiple-treatment interference
d. Differential selection
om
experimental group. He found no treatment effect. The failure to find an effect may
be due to:
a. A treatment effect
b. A testing effect
c. A differential selection effect
e.c
d. A maturation effect
5. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor
readers' reading achievement. He looks at two different schools. One serves as the
control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement
that was around the 50th percentile. During the time that the mentoring program is
fre
in place in the experimental group, a statewide reading initiative is started in
randomly selected schools. The experimental, but not the control school is involved
in the initiative. At the end of the year, the experimental group does better than the
control. From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity
line
of the study is:
a. Selection by mortality interaction
b. Mortality
c. Selection-history effect
d. Selection-maturation effect
lon
6. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the
relationship between two variables is causal?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
l
w.a
7. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and
dependent variables are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is
accurate?
a. Internal validity
ww
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity
10. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the
participants own words.
a. Participant feedback
b. A verbatim
c. Data triangulation
d. Investigator triangulation
om
11. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals
over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.
a. Instrumentation
b. History
e.c
c. Maturation
d. Testing
12. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be
generalized across time?
a. Ecological validity
b. External validity
c. Internal validity
d. Temporal validity
fre
line
13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?
a. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher
b. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being
studied
lon
14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages
in critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions.
l
a. Experimenter effect
w.a
b. Reactivity
c. Investigator triangulation
d. Reflexivity
15. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?
ww
16. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one
strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following
terms describes this strategy?
a. Data matching
b. Pattern matching
c. Data triangulation
d. Data feedback
17. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different
history event?
a. History effect
b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection effect
d. Group effect
om
18. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?
a. Last variable
b. First variable
c. Third variable
d. Fourth variable
e.c
19. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in
the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Testing
d. Selection fre
line
20. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample
of individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of
individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger target population?
a. External validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
lon
d. Temporal validity
21. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research
validity?
a. Peer review
l
b. Theory triangulation
w.a
c. Extended fieldwork
d. Random assignment
23. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects
their performance on the dependent variable is called ________.
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Regression
d. None of above
25. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are
different from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group.
a. True
b. False
om
a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables
b. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of
persons,
settings, and times
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study
e.c
27. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple
research methods to study a phenomenon?
a. Data triangulation
b. Methods triangulation
fre
c. Theory triangulation
d. Member checking
28. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by
the researcher?
line
a. Ecological validity
b. Temporal validity
c. Descriptive validity
d. None of the above
lon
29. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
a. Maturation
b. Instrumentation
c. Temporal change
d. History
l
w.a
30. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across
settings.
a. Temporal validity
b. Internal validity
c. Ecological validity
d. External validity
ww
31. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
a. History
b. Testing
c. Sampling error
d. Differential selection
32. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study
is known as ______.
a. Operationalism
b. Reactivity
c. Temporal validity
d. Mortality
33. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of
people, the more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond
the original participants is known as ___________.
a. Naturalistic generalization
b. Methods generalization
c. Data triangulation
d. Replication logic
om
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. c
e.c
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. d
fre
10. b
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. d
line
15. d
16. c
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
lon
21. d
22. a
23. b
24. c
25. a
l
w.a
26. a
27. b
28. c
29. c
30. c
31. c
ww
32. b
33. d
Chapter 9
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
1. Analysis of covariance is:
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific
variables
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
om
____________ and the dependent variable is _____________.
a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems
b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems
e.c
3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of
the following threats to internal validity:
a. History
fre
b. Differential selection
c. Additive and interactive effects
d. Differential attrition
4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible to:
line
a. Order effects
b. Carryover effects
c. Analysis of covariance
d. a and b
lon
b. Random assignment
w.a
variable
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions
are
administered
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable
7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to
statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
a. Experimental control
b. Differential influence
c. Matching
d. Analysis of covariance
8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?
a. Presence technique
b. Amount technique
c. Type technique
d. Random technique
9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to
determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment
variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
om
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c
e.c
a. Usually based on random selection of participants
b. Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled
c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
d. All of the above
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Participant group
fre
11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
line
d. Independent group
12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for
both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
lon
b. Matching
c. Random assignment
d. Analysis of covariance
13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the
l
________.
w.a
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group
ww
14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be
controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to
groups in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?
a. Carryover effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
d. Matching
om
d. Independent variables
18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival
hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
e.c
b. Posttest-only control-group design
c. Pretest-posttest control-group design
d. Both b and c are excellent designs
a. Amount technique
b. Absence technique
c. Type technique
fre
19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent
variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.
line
d. Presence technique
20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in
which the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect
b. Order effect
lon
c. Sequencing effects
d. None of the above
21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment,
which of the following describes this method?
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence technique
l
administered
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
d. All of the above are possible
23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the
effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable
24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental
treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design
b. Repeated measures design
c. Replicated design
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design
om
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent
e.c
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
fre
treatment and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of
research participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.
a. One-group posttest-only design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
line
d. time series design
c. Main effect
d. Proactive effect
28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is
influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____.
l
a. Counterbalancing effect
w.a
b. Carryover effect
c. Treatment effect
d. Order effect
29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent
variables?
a. There is only one main effect present
ww
30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are
randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all
levels on another independent variable?
a. One-group pretest-posttest
b. Pretest-posttest control-group design
c. Factorial design
d. Factorial design based on a mixed model
Answers:
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. c
om
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. a
15. c
e.c
16. d
17. d
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. d
22. e
23. c
24. b
fre
line
25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. d
30. d
lon
Chapter 10
Multiple Choice Questions
l
w.a
nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his
experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds
that in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group
tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew
his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the
internal validity of his study?
a. Selection-maturation effect
b. History effect
c. Selection-instrumentation effect
d. Testing effect
om
c. Regardless of the previous criteria
d. After a fixed number of trials
e.c
groups are equivalent to each other when the experiment begins. The major
interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is:
a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the posttest
b. Deciding how much each group has gained
fre
c. Determining when enough data points are collected
d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment are
due to the independent variables influence and not due to preexisting group
differences
line
5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by:
a. A discontinuity in the regression line
b. A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scores
c. Analysis of covariance
d. The demonstration of an interaction
lon
c. Selection-maturation
w.a
7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not
randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following?
a. Interrupted time-series design
ww
om
11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case
design?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
e.c
D. 1
fre
a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible
b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible
c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected
d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment
line
13. In single-case research, baseline refers to ________.
a. The beginning point of the treatment condition
b. The end point of the treatment condition
c. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention
d. The time during which a treatment condition is administered
lon
14. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-step
increase (or decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some behavior over
a period of time?
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
l
b. A-B-A-B
w.a
c. Changing-criterion design
d. A-B design
15. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two
groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group?
ww
a. Main effect
b. Sequencing effect
c. Order effect
d. Selection-maturation effect
17. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group
b. Interrupted time-series
c. Changing-criterion
d. Regression discontinuity
om
19. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is
compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?
a. A-B-A design
b. Single-case design
e.c
c. Multiple-baseline
d. Changing-criterion
20. In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Not highly variable
Highly variable
Moving at a steep rate of change
None of the above
fre
administration of a treatment condition is ________.
line
21. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the
dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is
withdrawn.
a. Changing-criterion design
lon
b. A-B
c. A-B-A design
d. Interrupted time-series design
22. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
l
a. A-B design
b. A-B-A design
c. A-B-A-B design
d. Control-group design
24. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs?
a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
b. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent variables
c. Both a and b are true
d. None of the above
25. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
a. Both designs end on the treatment condition
b. Neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase
26. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?
a. Baseline measurement
b. Introduction of treatment
c. Introduction of a second treatment
d. Removal of treatment
27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-
maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching
experimental and control participants on important variables.
om
a. True
b. False
e.c
b. False
Answers:
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. a
6. a
fre
line
7. b
8. b
9. d
10. b
11. d
lon
12. b
13. c
14. c
15. d
16. b
l
17. a
w.a
18. d
19. a
20. a
21. c
22. a
23. a
ww
24. c
25. d
26. c
27. a
28. b
Chapter 11
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
1. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. This
relationship is:
a. A causal relationship
b. A direct relationship
c. A probabilistic causal relation
d. A spurious relationship
2. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school
om
achievement. She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is
IQ. In developing her groups for her study, she pairs each child who was an early
reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not an early reader. The control
technique she used was:
a. Holding the extraneous variable constant
b. Statistical control
e.c
c. Matching
d. Random assignment
asking about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the
roles they play in their current positions. This project is best described as having
what kind of objective:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
l
c. Explanatory
w.a
5. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why
phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research is:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory
ww
9. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model?
om
a. A variable
b. Partial correlation
c. Analysis of covariance
d. Both b and c
e.c
10. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is
called ________.
a. Predictive research
b. Retrospective research
c. Exploratory research
d. Descriptive research
fre
11. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying
rival explanations.
line
a. True
b. False
b. Analyze data
c. Interpret results
d. All are steps
om
18. __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a
theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model
fits the data.
a. Causal modeling
b. Predictive research
e.c
c. Descriptive research
d. Exploratory research
a. Causal-comparative research
b. Correlational research fre
is categorical is sometimes called_____________.
line
20. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. Experimental
d. Historical
lon
21. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either depending
on how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for cause
l
and effect)
w.a
22. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous
variables in nonexperimental research.
a. Matching
ww
23. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.
a. You are finished with your research
b. You are planning your research study
c. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results
d. None of the above
25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the
relationship is ____.
a. Weak
b. Strong
c. Statistically significant
d. b is true and c is probably true
om
26. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls
for a confounding third-variable?
a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger
b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged
c. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0
d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the original
e.c
relationship
is fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original relationship will become zero as
measured by a correlation coefficient)
fre
27. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always
problematic in nonexperimental research?
a. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship
condition).
b. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence
line
condition).
c. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be due
to some
confounding extraneous variable"
d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions
lon
29. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for
concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship.
a. True
b. False
ww
30. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended
period of time.
a. Trend study
b. Panel study
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
31. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and
why a phenomenon operates as it does.
a. Descriptive research
b. Predictive research
c. Explanatory research
d. None of the above
32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________
relationship present between two variables.
a. Curvilinear
b. Nonlinear
c. Linear and quadratic
d. Linear
Answers:
1. d
2. c
om
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. a
7. d
e.c
8. d
9. d
10. b
11. a
12. d
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. d
fre
line
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. c
21. c
22. c
lon
23. b
24. a
25. d
26. d
27. c
l
28. c
w.a
29. a
30. b
31. c
32. d
ww
Chapter 12
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last
question.)
1. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Generalization to the population
b. Random sampling
c. Unique case orientation
d. Standardized tests and measures
om
3. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:
a. Open, axial, and selective coding
b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
c. Cross-case analysis
d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon
e.c
4. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a
phenomenon is called:
a. Axial coding
b. Design flexibility
c. Bracketing
d. Ethnography
fre
5. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high
line
school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like
they had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an
invariant part of the students experiences suggests that lack of control is _______ of
the flunking out experience.
a. A narrative
b. A grounded theory
lon
c. An essence
d. A probabilistic cause
6. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture
hold to be true or false are called ______.
l
a. Shared attitudes
w.a
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
7. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior are called
ww
_____.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
9. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or
undesirable.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
om
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study research
e.c
b. Inductive analysis
c. Context sensitivity
d. All of the above
12. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data
fre
systematically gathered and analyzed.
a. Theory confirmation
b. Grounded theory
c. Theory deduction
d. All of the above
line
13. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.
a. Axial coding
b. Theoretical saturation
c. Constant comparative method
lon
d. Selective coding
14. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world
situations as they unfold naturally?
a. Holistic perspective
l
b. Naturalistic inquiry
w.a
c. Dynamic systems
d. Inductive analysis
15. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to
individuals inner worlds of experience?
a. Phenomenology
ww
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study
16. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is
called ____.
a. Phenomenology
b. Grounded theory
c. Ethnography
d. Case study
17. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical saturation
occurs.
a. True
b. False
18. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her
primary interest on understanding something more general than the particular case?
a. Intrinsic case study
b. Instrumental case study
c. Collective case study
d. It could be b or c
om
19. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?
a. Special words or terms used by the people in a group
b. An external, social scientific view of reality
c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people
d. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own
e.c
culture
23. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative
research is that ethnographers specifically use the concept of culture to help
understand the results.
a. True
ww
b. False
25. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses on the
main idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called ________.
a. Open coding
b. Axial coding
c. Selective coding
d. Theoretical saturation
26. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative
research.
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Case study
d. Grounded theory
e. Nonexperimental
om
27. In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the
participants experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as
though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. This experience is called
_____.
a. A phenomenal experience
b. A vicarious experience
e.c
c. A significant experience
d. A dream
28. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period
fre
to learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe.
You want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring.
What type of research will you likely be conducting when you get to New Mexico?
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
line
c. Grounded theory
d. Collective case study
29. The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of reality.
a. True
lon
b. False
b. Ethnography
w.a
c. Grounded theory
d. Instrumental case study
31. Terms such as geeks, book worms, preps, are known as _____ terms.
a. Emic
ww
b. Etic
32. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he
or she can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________.
a. Culture shock
b. Going native
c. Regression
d. Cultural relativism
Answers:
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. c
6. b
7. d
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. b
om
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. d
19. d
e.c
20. d
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. e
27. b
28. a
fre
line
29. b
30. b
31. a
32. b
e
Perspective Division of
l
Thorndike1874-1949
Guthrie 1886-1959
Skinner1904-1990
Estes 1919 - Behaviorism
Connectionism
Contiguity Theory
Operant Conditioning
Stimulus Sampling Theory
Behaviorist Neobehaviorism Stimulus-Response
Intervening internal variables-
Purposive behavior Tolman 1886-1959
Hull 1884-1952
Spence 1907-1967 Sign-Theory&Latent-Learning
Drive Reduction Theory
Discrimination Learning
Cognitive Gestalt Learning Theory Perception
Decision making
Attention
Memory
Problem solving Wertheimer1880-1943
Lewin1890-1947
Kohler1887 - 1967
Koffka1887 - 1941
om
Festinger 1919-1989 Gestalt Learning Theory
Field Theoretical Approach
Insight Learning
Gestalt Theory
Cognitive Dissonance
e.c
Cognitive Information Processing Information Processing
Computer models Hebb 1904 - 1985
Miller
Newell1927 - 1992
Craik & Lockhart
Paivio
Rumelhart Neurophysiologic Theory
Information-Processing-Theory
General Problem Solver
fre
line
Levels of Processing
Dual Coding Theory
Interactive Activation Compet.
Cognitive Constructivism Knowledge construction
Learner as active creator Ausubel1918 -
Bruner1915-
lon
Piaget (1896-1990)
Lave
Argyris
Spiro
Flavell
l
Constructivism
Genetic Epistemology
Situated Cognition
Double Loop Learning
Cognitive Flexibility Theory
Metacognition
ww
Script Theory
Cognitive Psychoanalytic
Learning Theory Unconscious processes Freud1856-1939
Psychoanalytic Learning
Humanist Humanistic Learning Emotional factors
and Affect Maslow 1908-1970
Rogers 1902-1987
Mezirow Humanistic Theory of Learning
Experiential Learning
Transformational Learning
Social Social Learning Interactions with
other Participants Vygotsky
Bandura
Brown Social Constructivism
Observational Learning Theory
Cognitive Apprenticeship..
General Theories
of Memory and
Intelligence Anderson 1947 -
Guilford
Gardner
Sternberg ACT*
Structure of Intellect
om
Multiple Intelligences
Triarchic Theory
Instructional Theories-
Applications of learning
theory for classroom
e.c
and instructional use Pedagogy and theories
of Adult Learning Bransford
Cronbach
Cros
Gagne 1916-2002
Knowles
Landa
Mager
Merrill
fre
line
Reigeluth Anchored Instruction
Aptitude Treatment Interaction
CAL-Char. of Adult Learners
Conditions of Learning
Andragogy
Algo-Heuristic
lon
Criterion-Referenced-Instruction
Component Display Theory
Elaboration Theory
l
w.a
Cognitive
Affective
Psychomotor
knowledge
ww
attitude
skills
1. Recall data
1. Receive (awareness)
1. Imitation (copy)
2. Understand
2. Respond (react)
2. Manipulation (follow instructions)
3. Apply (use)
3. Value (understand and act)
3. Develop Precision
4. Analyse (structure/elements)
4. Organise personal value system
4. Articulation (combine, integrate related skills)
5. Synthesize (create/build)
5. Internalize value system (adopt behaviour)
5. Naturalization (automate, become expert)
6. Evaluate (assess, judge in relational terms)
om
e.c
fre
line
l lon
w.a
ww