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Resonance CT Mains 1
Resonance CT Mains 1
P03-17
0
CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)
(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
CLASS XI | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
Date (fnukad) : 12-08-2017 Time: 3 Hours (le; : 3 ?k.Vs) Max. Marks (egÙke vad) : 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Ñi;k bu funsZ'kksa dks /;ku ls i<+saA vkidks 5 feuV fo'ks"k :i ls bl dke ds fy, fn;s x;s gSaA
INSTRUCTIONS / funsZ'k :
A. General : A. lkekU; %
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test 1. ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds bl i`"B ij vko';d fooj.k uhys@dkys ckWy
Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is IokbaV isu ls rRdky HkjsaA isfUly dk iz;ksx fcYdqy oftZr gSA
strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When 2. mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks
tc rd ifjos"kd funsZ'k ugha nsa rc rd iz'u i=k dh lhy dks ugha [kksaysA
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
Physics & Mathematics consists are two sections, 4¼pkj½ vad fu/kkZfjr fd;s x;s gSA HkkSfrd foKku ,oa xf.kr esa
Section-1 & 2 and Section-1 for Chemistry only. [kaM 1 o 2 gSa rFkk jlk;u foKku esa dsoy [kaM 1 gSA
5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in 5. vH;kfFkZ;ksa dks izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, mijksDr funsZ'ku la[;k
Instructions No. 4 for correct response of each question. 4 ds funsZ'kkuqlkj vad fn;s tk,axsA izR;sd iz'u ds xyr mÙkj ds
1 mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of
each question. No deduction from the total score will be fy;s 1 vad dkV fy;k tk;sxkA ;fn mÙkj iqfLrdk esa fdlh iz'u
made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer dk mÙkj ugha fn;k x;k gks] rks dqy izkIrkad ls dksbZ dVkSrh ugha
sheet. fd tk;sxhA
6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling 6. çR;sd iz'u dk dsoy ,d gh lgh mÙkj gSA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj
up more than one response in any question will be treated nsus ij mls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk;sxk vkSj mijksDr funsZ'k 5 ds
as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instructions 5 above. vuqlkj vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA
B. Filling the Top-half of the ORS B. vksvkj,l (ORS) ds Åijh&vk/ks fgLls dk Hkjko :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. ORS dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy dkys ck¡y iSu dk mi;ksx dhft,A
7. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner 7. ORS ds lcls Åij cka;s dksus esa fn, x, ck¡Dl esa viuk jksy
of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the uEcj dkys ck¡y ikbUV ls fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksys Hkh dsoy dkys
corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also
fill your roll no. on the back side of your ORS in the space isu ls Hkfj;sA ORS ds ihNs dh rjQ Hkh viuk jksy uEcj
provided (if the ORS is both side printed). fyf[k, (;fn ORS nksuksa rjQ Nih gqbZ gSA)
8. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and 8. ORS ij viuk isij dksM fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksyksa dks dkys
darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen. ck¡y isu ls dkys dhft,A
9. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code 9. ;fn fo|kFkhZ viuk jksy uEcj rFkk isij dksM lgh vkSj mfpr
correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be rjhds ls ugha Hkjrk gS rc mldk ifj.kke jksd fy;k tkosxk rFkk
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted from the total. izkIrkad esa ls 5 vad dkV fy, tkosaxsaA
10. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled 10. pawfd isu ls Hkjs x, xksys feVkuk vkSj lq/kkjuk laHko ugha gS
bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while blfy, vki lko/kkuh iwoZd vius mÙkj ds xksyksa dks HkjsaA
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
11. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the 11. fodYi dks u feVk,a@u Ldzsp djsa vkSj u gh xyr (X) fpUg dks
Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, HkjsaA ORS dks u dkVs u gh QkMs u gh xUnk ugha djsa rFkk dksbZ
smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray
marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS. Hkh fu'kku ;k lQsnh ORS ij ugha yxk,aA
12. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the 12. ;fn ORS esa fdlh izdkj dh fy[ks x, vkadMksa rFkk xksys fd, vkadMksa
bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final. esa fojks/kkHkkl gS] rks xksys fd, vkadMksa dks gh lgh ekuk tkosxkA
Name of the Candidate (ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke) : Roll Number (jksy uEcj) :
2. If A a ˆi ajˆ bkˆ and b a ˆi 2ˆj kˆ are 2. ;fn A a ˆi ajˆ bkˆ rFkk b a ˆi 2ˆj kˆ ,d
perpendicular to each other, then what is the nqljs ds yEcor gks rks 'b' dk U;wure eku D;k gks
minimum value that 'b' can have. ldrk gSA
(1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) –1 (3) –1
(4) b can have any value. (4) b dk eku dqN Hkh gks ldrk gSA
3. If the resultant of A and B make angle 3. ;fn A rFkk B ds ifj.kkeh }kjk A ls cuk;k x;k
with A and with B dks.k rFkk B ls cuk;k x;k dks.k gks rks
(1) < (1) <
(2) < if A < B (2) < ;fn A < B
(3) < if A > B (3) < ;fn A > B
(4) < if A = B
(4) < ;fn A = B
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5. Select the correct statement : 5. lgh dFku dk p;u djksA
(1) The sum of two unit vectors is always a (1) nks bdkbZ lfn'kksa dk ;ksx ges'kk ,d bdkbZ
unit vector. lfn'k gksrk gSA
(2) The sum of two unit vectors can never be (2) nks bdkbZ lfn'kksa dk ;ksx dHkh Hkh ,d bdkbZ
a unit vector. lfn'k ugh gks ldrk gSA
(3) The sum of two unit vector can be a unit (3) nks bdkbZ lfn'kksa dk ;ksx ,d bdkbZ lfn'k gks
vector. ldrk gSA
(4) All of these (4) lHkh lgh gSA
6. If a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ , b 2iˆ 3ˆj kˆ the value of 6. ;fn a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ , b 2iˆ 3ˆj kˆ gks rks
2a 3b 2b 3a is : 2a 3b 2b 3a dk eku gksxkA
(1) –4 (2) 16 (1) –4 (2) 16
(3) 10 (4) None (3) 10 (4) dksbZ ugh
8. Select the correct statement about two vector 8. lfn'k A rFkk B ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u
A and B . djksA
(1) Max value of | A B | = max value of
(1) | A B | dk vf/kdre eku = | A – B | dk
| A –B|
vf/kdre eku
(2) Max value of | A B | > max value of
(2) | A B | dk vf/kdre eku > | A B | dk
| A B |
vf/kdre eku
(3) Max value of | A B | < max value of
(3) | A B | dk vf/kdre eku < | A B | dk
| A B |
vf/kdre eku
(4) Insufficient information provided.
(4) fn xbZ lwpuk vi;kZIr gSA.
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9. A copper sphere is being heated. Its volume 9. ,d rkacs ds xksys dks xeZ fd;k tkrk gSA xeZ djus
as a result of heating is increasing at the rate ij bldk vk;ru 1 mm3 izfr lSd.M dh nj ls
3
of 1 mm every second. Find the rate at
c<rk gSA tc bldh f=kT;k 10 cm gks rc blds
which its surface area is increasing when its
radius is 10 cm.
i`"Bh; {ks=kQy ds c<us dh nj Kkr djksA
(1) 0.2 mm2/s (2) 0.02 mm2/s (1) 0.2 mm2/s (2) 0.02 mm2/s
(3) 0.02 cm2/s (4) none (3) 0.02 cm2/s (4) dksbZ ugh
11. A driver applies the brakes on seeing traffic 11. ,d pkyd ;krk;kr ldsar ns[kdj 400m nwjh igys
signal 400m ahead. At the time of applying of
ls czsd yxkrk gSA czasd yxkrs le; okgu dh pky
brakes vehicle was moving with speed
15 m/s gSA czsd fu;r eUnu 0.3 m/s2 mRiUu djrk
15 m/s. The brakes provide uniform
deceleration of 0.3 m/s2. The displacement of gSA rks ladsr ns[kus ds i'pkr~ ,d feuV le;
the vehicle in 1 min duration after the driver
vUrjky esa okgu dk foLFkkiu D;k gksxkA
sees the signal is :
(1) 25m (2) 375m
(1) 25m (2) 375m
(3) 360m (4) 40m
(3) 360m (4) 40m
12. A particle is released from rest from a tower 12. ,d d.k dks 3h ÅpkbZ dh ehukj ls fojkekoLFkk ls
of height 3h. The ratio of time intervals for fall NksMk tkrk gSA leku ÅpkbZ h dks fxjus esa yxs
of equal height h i.e. t1 : t2 : t3 is :
Øekxr le; vUrjky dk vuqikr vFkkZr t1 : t2 : t3
(1) 3 : 2 :1
gksxkA
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(1) 3 : 2 :1
(3) 9 : 4 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 : 1
(4) 1 :
2 1 : 3 2
(4) 1 :
2 1 : 3 2
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13. On a straight road a thief, seeing a police car 13. ,d lh/kh lMd ij pksj viuh vkssj fu;r pky v
approaching at a constant speed v, runs ls vkrh gqbZ iqfyl dh dkj dks ns[krk gS vkSj eksVj
away on a bike with constant acceleration 'a'. lkbZfdy ls fu;r Roj.k 'a' }kjk nqj nkSMuk izkjEHk
Which of the following position time graphs djrk gS] rks pksj dks idMus dh lgh fLFkfr dks
best represent the case in which the thief is
iznf'kZr djus okyk mi;qDr fLFkfr≤ xzkQ
just nabbed ?
gksxkA
x thief
x thief
police
(1) police
(1)
t
t
x
thief x
thief
police
police
(2) (2)
t
t
x x
police police
thief thief
(3) (3)
t t
x thief x thief
police police
(4) (4)
t t
14. A man moves with a velocity v1 during time 14. ,d O;fDr le; vUrjky t1 ds fy, osx v1 ls xfr
interval t1. Then he moves with velocity djrk gSA rr~i'pkr~ le; vUrjky t2 ds fy, osx
v 2 (which is perpendicular to the v1 ) during v 2 (tksfd v1 ds yEcor~ gSA ) ls xfr djrk gS rks
time interval t2. The incorrect statement is : vlR; fodYi dk p;u djksA
(1) | v | v12 v 22
(1) | v | v12 v 22
(2) s | v1t1 v 2 t 2 | = foLFkkiu
(2) s | v1t1 v 2 t 2 | = displacement
(3) D = | v1 | t1 | v 2 | t 2 = nwjh
(3) D = | v1 | t1 | v 2 | t 2 = distance
v1 v 2
(4) v av
v1 v 2 2
(4) v av
2
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15. Referring to the v-t curve, which of the 15. iznf'kZr v-t oØ ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi
following are correct ? lgh gSA
(i) Acceleration is uniform in region 1
(i) {ks=k 1 esa Roj.k le:i gSA
(ii) The particle moves along +x-direction
(ii) {ks=k 2 esa d.k +x- fn'kk ds vuqfn'k fu;r osx
with uniform velocity in region 2.
ls xfr'khy gSA
(iii) Acceleration increases with time in
(iii) {ks=k 3 esa Roj.k le; ds lkFk c<rk gS rFkk
region 3 and while the particle speed up, tcfd {ks=k 4 esa pky c<rh gS] vkSj Roj.k
acceleration decreases in region 4 ?kVrk gSA
(iv) The particle deaccelerates in region 5. (iv) {ks=k 5 esa d.k efUnr gSA
v
v
5
4 4
5
3 3
2 2
1 1
t t
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)are right and (iv) is wrong (1) (i), (ii), (iii) lgh gS rFkk (iv) xyr gSA
(2) (i), (ii), (iv) are right and (iii) is wrong (2) (i), (ii), (iv) lgh gS rFkk (iii) xyr gSA
(3) (i), (iii) ,(iv) are right and (ii) is wrong (3) (i), (iii) ,(iv) lgh gS rFkk (ii) xyr gSA
(4) (i), (iv) are right and (ii), (iii) are wrong (4) (i), (iv) lgh gS rFkk (ii), (iii) xyr gSA
16. For the shown graph slope of graph from 16. fn;s x;s xzkQ ds fy, fcUnq A ls fcUnq B rd <ky :
point A to point B :
17. Position of a particle at any instant is given by 17. fdlh {k.k d.k dh fLFkfr x = 3t2 + 1, }kjk nh
x = 3t2 + 1, where x is in m and t in sec. Its tkrh gSA ;gk¡ x ehVj esa rFkk t lSd.M esa gSA
average velocity in the time interval t = 2 sec t = 2 lSd.M ls t = 3 lSd.M vUrjky esa bldk
to t = 3 sec will be : vkSlr osx gksxk :
(1) 15 m/s (2) 12 m/s (1) 15 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 18 m/s (4) 6 m/s (3) 18 m/s (4) 6 m/s
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18. A particle starts its motion from rest and 18. ,d d.k] ,d fu;r Roj.k ls fojkekoLFkk ls xfr
moves with the constant acceleration . If the izkjEHk djrk gSA ;fn igys 10 lsd.M esa r; dh
distance covered in first 10s is s1 and that
xbZ nwjh s1 gS rFkk igys 20 lsd.M esa r; dh xbZ
covered in the first 20 s is s2, then
nwjh s2 gS] rc
(1) s2 = 2s1 (2) s2 = 3s1
(1) s2 = 2s1 (2) s2 = 3s1
(3) s2 = 4s1 (4) s2 = s1
(3) s2 = 4s1 (4) s2 = s1
19. The graph of straight line y = 3 x + 2 3 is : 19. ljy js[kk y = 3 x + 2 3 dk xzkQ gksxk :
y y
60° x 60° x
(1) (1)
y y
60° x 60° x
(2) (2)
y y
30° x 30° x
(3) (3)
y y
30° x 30° x
(4) (4)
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1 1
20. If f(x) = x2 and g(x) = . Then the value of 20. ;fn f(x) = x2 rFkk g(x) = gks rks
x3 x3
f ( x ) g( x ) f ( x ) g( x )
at x = 2 is dk eku x = 2 ij Kkr dhft, %
f ( x) g( x ) f ( x) g( x )
33 31 33 31
(1) (2) (1) (2)
31 33 31 33
(3) 1 (4) None of these (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
21. If two forces, each of magnitude 20N, are 21. ;fn nks cy ftuesa izR;sd dk ifjek.k 20N gS, ,d
acting on a particle such that the first force d.k ij bl izdkj vkjksfir gS fd izFke cy
(F1 ) is acting along east direction and the (F1 ) iwoZ fn'kk ds vuqfn'k rFkk f}rh; cy (F2 )
if'pe~ fn'kk ls mÙkj fn'kk dh rjQ 60° dks.k ij
second force (F2 ) is acting along the direction
vksjkfir gks rks d.k ij vkjksfir cyksa ds ifj.kkeh
60° north of west, then the magnitude of
cy dk ifjek.k gksxk %
resultant force on particle is
(1) 20 N (2) 20 3 N
(1) 20 N (2) 20 3 N
20
(3) N (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
20 3
(3) N (4) None of these
3 a
22. A particle is moving with constant speed 22. fp=kkuqlkj ,d d.k R f=kT;k dh o`Ùk dh ifj/kh ij
V m/s along the circumference of a circle of fu;r pky V m/s ls xfr dj jgk gSA A, B vkSj C
radius R meters as shown. A, B and C are
o`Ùk dh ifj/kh ij rhu fcUnq gS vkSj ABC leckgq
three points on periphery of the circle and
f=kHkqt gS vr% A ls C rd nf{k.kkorZ fn'kk esa xfr
ABC is equilateral. The magnitude of
average velocity of particle, as it moves from djrs gq;s d.k ds vkSlr osx dk ifjek.k gksxkA
A to C in clockwise sense, will be : A v
A v
R
R
C B
C B
3V 3V
(1) (2)
3V 3V 2 4
(1) (2)
2 4 3 3V 3 3V
(3) (4)
3 3V 3 3V 2 4
(3) (4)
2 4
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23. Drops of water fall at regular intervals from 23. H = 5 m Å¡pkbZ dh ,d ehukj dh Nr ls yxkrkj
the roof of a building of height H = 5 m, the vUrjky esa ikuh dh cwUns fxj jgh gS] izFke cwUn tc
first drop strikes the ground at the same
lrg ls Vdjkrh gS Bhd mlh le; ikapoh cwUn Nr
moment when the fifth drop detaches itself
ls NwVrh gSA rc ok;q esa Øekxr cwUnks ds e/; nwjh
from the roof. Then ratio of distances
between the consecutive drops in air as the dk vuqikr tc izFke cwUn lrg ij igq¡pus okyh gS]
first drop reaches the ground are : gksxkA
(1) 1 : 5 : 7 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 (1) 1 : 5 : 7 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(3) 1 : 3 : 7 : 5 (4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 : 7 : 5 (4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
24. The position vector of a particle is given by
24.
d.k dk fLFkfr lfn'k r 2t ˆi 5 t 2 ˆj m (t le;
r 2t ˆi 5 t 2 ˆj m (t is time in sec). Then the
sec esa gS) }kjk fn;k tkrk gS] rks izkjfEHkd osx rFkk
angle between initial velocity and initial
acceleration is izkjfEHkd Roj.k ds e/; dks.k gksxk &
(1) Zero (2) 45º (1) 'kwU; (2) 45º
25. The velocity displacement graph of a particle 25. ,d d.k ds fy, osx foLFkkiu xzkQ fp=k eas iznf'kZr
is shown in figure. The acceleration of the gS] tc d.k x = 0 ij gS rc d.k dk Roj.k gksxk
particle when x = 0 is.
V(m/s) V(m/s)
2 2
30º 30º
x(m) x(m)
0 0
1 1
(1) m / s2 (1) m / s2
3 3
2 2
(2) m / s2 (2) m / s2
3 3
2 2
(3) m / s2 (3) m / s2
3 3
(4) None of the above (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
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26. The position of a particle is defined 26. fdlh d.k dk fLFkfr lfn'k
by r 2 sin t ˆi 2cos t ˆj 3t kˆ , where r 2 sin t ˆi 2cos t ˆj 3t kˆ
4 4 4
4
‘t’ is in seconds, Then distance travelled by }kjk iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk gSA ;gkW ‘t’ lSd.M esa gSA
particle in 2 second of motion is. [use 2 = 10] rks fdlh le; t ij d.k dh pky dh ifjorZu dh
nj gksxhA
(1) 32 m
(1) 32 m
(2) 46 m
(2) 46 m
(3) 56 m
(3) 56 m
27. The slope of the curve y = x 3 – 2x+ 1 at point 27. oØ y = x 3 – 2x+ 1 dk x = 1 ij <ky gksxk :
x = 1 is equal to :
(1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 3 (4) 3
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SECTION - II [k.M - II
Comprehension Type cks/ku çdkj
This section contains 1 paragraph. Based on bl [k.M esa 1 vuqPNsn (paragraph) gSA vuqPNsn ij
paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has vk/kkfjr 3 ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3)
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh gSA
ONE is correct.
A particle is moving on a straight line with ljy js[kk esa xfr'khy d.k dk osx(v), le;(t) ds
velocity (v) as a function of time (t) according
Qyu :i esa v = (5t2 – 3t + 2) m/s }kjk fn;k
to relation v = (5t – 3t + 2)m/s. Now give the
2
29. Acceleration of particle at the end of 3rd 29. xfr ds rhljs lSd.M ds vUr esa d.k dk Roj.k
second of motion is : gksxk &
(1) 27 m/sec2 (2) 16 m/sec2
(1) 27 m/sec2 (2) 16 m/sec2
(3) 39 m/sec2 (4) zero (3) 39 m/sec2 (4) 'kwU;
30. Velocity of particle when acceleration is zero 30. tc d.k dk Roj.k 'kwU; gks rks d.k dk osx gksxk :
is :
35
(1) 1 m/s (2) m/s
35 20
(1) 1 m/s (2) m/s
20
31
(3) m/s (4) 38 m/s
31 20
(3) m/s (4) 38 m/s
20
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PART – B Hkkx– B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12,
N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27,
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40,
Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137,
SECTION - I [k.M - I
Straight Objective Type lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. bl [k.M esa 30 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d
31. A mixture of HCl(g), PCl3(g) and PCl5(s), each 31. HCl(g), PCl3(g) rFkk PCl5(s) ds ,d feJ.k esa
have equal number of Cl-atom then their izR;sd Cl-ijek.kq dh leku la[;k j[krk gS rks
molar ratio in the mixture is :
feJ.k esa budk eksyj vuqikr gS&
(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 15 : 2 : 3
(3) 15 : 2 : 3
(4) 15 : 5 : 3
(4) 15 : 5 : 3
32. “x” L of methane gas at STP contains 1.5 × 32. STP ij esFksu xSl ds “x” L esa 1.5 × 1021 v.kq
1021 molecules. The number of molecules in mifLFkr gSA STP ij “x” L lYQj MkbZvkWDlkbM
“x” L of sulphur dioxide at STP will be : esa v.kqvksa dh la[;k fuEu gksxh
(1) 3 × 1021
(1) 3 × 1021
(2) 1.5 × 1021
(2) 1.5 × 1021
(3) 6 × 1021
(3) 6 × 1021
(4) 0.15 × 1021
(4) 0.15 × 1021
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33. In a gaseous mixture, if an alkane (CxH2x + 2) 33. ,d xSlh; feJ.k esa] ;fn ,d ,Ydsu (CxH2x + 2)
and an alkene (CyH2y) are taken in 2 : 1 mole rFkk ,d ,Ydhu (CyH2y) dks 2 : 1 eksy vuqikr esa
ratio, the average molecular weight of
fy;k tkrk gks] rks feJ.k dk vkSlr v.kqHkkj
mixture is observed to be 20. If the same
20 izsf{kr gksrk gSA ;fn leku ,Ydsu o ,Ydhu dks
alkane and alkene are taken in 1 : 2 mole
ratio, the average molecular weight of 1 : 2 eksy&vuqikr esa fy;k tkrk gks] rks feJ.k dk
(2) 1, 2 (1) 2, 1
(3) 2, 3 (2) 1, 2
(4) 3, 2 (3) 2, 3
(4) 3, 2
34. A gaseous mixture of H2 and CO2 gas 34. H2 rFkk CO2 xSl ds ,d xSlh; feJ.k esa CO2 dk
contains 88% by mass of CO2. The vapour nzO;eku ds vuqlkj izfr'kr 88% gSA feJ.k dk
density of the mixture is :
ok"i ?kuRo gksxk&
(1) 19.48
(1) 19.48
(2) 11.5
(2) 11.5
(3) 6.25
(3) 6.25
(4) Cannot be determined
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35. A graph is plotted for a gas 'C', by putting its 35. xSl 'C' dk Hkkj (gm esa) X-v{k ij rFkk NTP ij
weight (in gm) on X-axis and the volume (L) xSl dk vk;ru (L esa) Y-v{k ij j[kdj xSl ds
of gas at NTP on Y-axis. Select the correct fy, ,d xzkQ vkysf[kr fd;k tkrk gSA lgh dFku
statement :
Volume (L) of gas at NTP dk p;u dhft, &
l dk vk; r u (L)
NTP i j xS
–1
–1
= tan (11.2) = tan (11.2)
36. Given the visible green light has a 36. fn;k x;k gS n`'; gjs izdk'k dh rjax}s/;Z 510 nm
wavelength of 510 nm then corresponding rks laxr vko`fÙk o rjax la[;k Øe'k% gksaxs
frequency and wave number are respectively (C = 3 × 108 ms–1)&
(C = 3 × 10 ms ) :
8 –1 (1) 5.8 × 1014 Hz, 0.001 nm
(2) 6 × 1016 Hz, 0.004 nm–1
(1) 5.8 × 1014 Hz, 0.001 nm
(3) 5.8 × 1014 Hz, 0.001 nm–1
(2) 6 × 1016 Hz, 0.004 nm–1 (4) 5 × 1012 Hz, 0.008 nm
(3) 5.8 × 1014 Hz, 0.001 nm–1
12
(4) 5 × 10 Hz, 0.008 nm
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37. A bulb emits light of = 4500 Å. The bulb is 37. = 4500 Å ds izdk'k dks ,d cYc mRlftZr djrk
rated as 150 watt and 8% of the energy is gSA cYc ij 150 okWV vafdr gS o izdk'k ds :i esa
emitted as light. Number of photons emitted 8% ÅtkZ mRlftZr gksrh gSA izfr lSd.M cYc }kjk
by bulb per second is :
mRlftZr QksVksuksa dh la[;k fuEu gSa %
[Take hc = 12400 eVÅ]
[yhft, hc = 12400 eVÅ]
(1) 4.5 × 1019
(1) 4.5 × 1019
(2) 5.4 × 1019
(2) 5.4 × 1019
(3) 1.5 × 1019
(3) 1.5 × 1019
(4) 2.7 × 1019
(4) 2.7 × 1019
38. In which of the following cases, the potential 38. fuEu esa ls fdl fLFkfr esa] fn;s x;s d.kksa dh
energy of the given particles decreases fLFkfrt ÅtkZ esa deh gksxh (nh x;h ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds
(under the given condition)
vUrxZr)
(1) two proton are moving towards each other
(1) nks izksVkWu] ,d nwljs dh vksj xfr djrs gSA
(2) one proton and one electron are moving
(2) ,d izksVkWu rFkk ,d bysDVªkWu ,d nwljs ls nwj
away from each other
(3) one proton and one electron move xfr djrs gSaA
towards each other (3) ,d izksVkWu rFkk ,d bysDVªkWu ,d nwljs dh
(4) two electrons are moving towards each vksj xfr djrs gSaA
other
(4) nks bysDVªku ,d nwljs dh vksj xfr djrs gSaA
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40. Identify the correct option for the order of 40. fn;s x;s d.kksa ds fof'k"V vkos'k ds Øe ds fy,
specific charge of the given particles. lgh fodYi dks igpkfu,A
(1) n < < p < e (considering sign of charged (1) n < < p < e (vkosf'kr d.k dk fpUg ekurs
particle) gq,)
(2) n < < p < e (not considering sign of (2) n < < p < e (vkosf'kr d.k dk fpUg ugha
charged particle) ekurs gq,)
(3) e < n < p < (considering sign of (3) e < n < p < ( vkosf'kr d.k dk fpUg ekurs
charged particle)
gq,)
(4) n < e< < p (considering sign of
(4) n < e< < p (vkosf'kr d.k dk fpUg ekurs
charged particle)
gq,)
41. From a container having 64 g Oxygen, 11.2 L 41. ,d ik=k esa mifLFkr 64 xzke vkWDlhtu esa ls] STP
Oxygen gas at STP and 6.022 × 1023 Oxygen ij 11.2 yhVj vkWDlhtu xSl vkSj 6.022 × 1023
atoms are removed. Find the mass of the vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dks fudky ysrs gSa] rc cph
oxygen gas left : gqbZ vkWDlhtu xSl dk nzO;eku crkb,&
(1) zero (1) zero
(2) 32 g (2) 32 g
(3) 16 g (3) 16 g
42. Which of the following does not contain 32 g 42. fuEu esa ls fdlesa 32 g vkWDlhtu mifLFkr ugha gSa\
of oxygen ? (1) H2O ds 2 eksy
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43. A bulb of 1 watt power on working for 1 43. 1 okWV 'kfDr dk cYc 1 lSd.M dk;Z djus ij
second emitted 2.0 × 1016 photons. The 2.0 × 1016 QksVkWu mRlftZr djrk gSA QksVkWuksa dh
wavelength of photons is nearly :
rjax)S/;Z ¼yxHkx½ gS&
–34 8 –1
(h = 6.62 × 10 J s, c = 3×10 ms )
(h = 6.62 × 10–34 J s, c = 3×108 ms–1 )
(1) 2 pm
(1) 2 pm
(2) 4 nm (2) 4 nm
(3) 9 pm (3) 9 pm
(4) 12 nm (4) 12 nm
(1) X-rays < UV rays < Radio waves (1) X-fdj.ksa < UV fdj.ksa < jsfM;ks rjaxs
(energy) (ÅtkZ)
(2) Radio waves < Micro waves < Infra (2) jsfM;ks rjaxs < ekbØks rjaxs < vojDr yky
red rays (wave number )
fdj.ksa (rjax la[;k)
(3) Cosmic rays < -rays < X-rays
(3) dkWfLed fdj.ksa < -fdj.ksa < X-fdj.ksa
(frequency)
(vko`fr)
(4) All are correct
(4) lHkh lgh gSa
45. The maximum volume at STP is occupied by 45. STP ij fuEu essa ls fdlds }kjk vf/kdre vk;ru
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46. In which of the following pair of compounds 46. fuEu esa ls ;kSfxd ds dkSuls ;qXe esa leku lkekU;
having same general formula ? lw=k gS \
47. Which of the following has correct 47. fuEu esa ls fdl ;kSfxd esa lgh vadu fd;k x;k
numbering? gS\
H3C CH3
H3C CH3
4
3 4
(1) 3
2 (1)
1 2
1
Br
Br
I 4 Cl
5 I 4 Cl
3 5
(2) 3
6 2 (2)
1 6 2
1
Br
Br
Cl Cl Cl Cl
3 3
2 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
3 3
2 4 2
(4) 4
1 (4)
5 1 5
6 6
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48. Which is correct IUPAC name of the 48. fuEu esa ls ;kSfxd dk dkSulk IUPAC uke lgh gS\
following? SO3H
SO3H CH3
CH3 (1)
(1) NH–CH3
NH–CH3 3-(N-esfFky ,ehuks)-2-esfFky lkbDyksgSDlsu
3-(N-Methylamino)-2-
lYQksfud vEy
methylcyclohexanesulphonic acid
OH
OH
(2)
(2)
OH
OH
3-(2-gkbMªkWDlh,fFky) lkbDyksgsDlsukWy
3-(2-Hydroxyethyl)cyclohexanol
O O
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50. Which of the following common name is 50. fuEu es ls dkSulk lkekU; uke xyr gS\
incorrect ?
O
O (1) CH3—C—CH3 (,lhVksu)
(1) CH3—C—CH3 (Acetone)
O
O
(3) Ph—C—Ph (csUtksdhVksu)
(3) Ph—C—Ph (Benzoketone)
O
O
(4) Ph—C—CH3 (,lhVksfQuksu)
(4) Ph—C—CH3 (Acetophenone)
51. Which of the following IUPAC name is 51. fuEu es ls dkSulk IUPAC uke lgh lqesfyr gS\
correctly matched ? O
O C—NH2
(1) - csUtsusekbM
C—NH2
(1) - Benzenamide
O
CH3
O (2) CH3—C—N - N-MkbZesfFky ,FksusekbM
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3—C—N - N-Dimethyl ethanamide
CH3
O
O
C—Cl
C—Cl (3) - csUthukWby DyksjkbM
(3) - Benzenoyl chloride
O
O
(4) C—H - lkbDyksisUVsu dkcsZfYMgkbM
(4) C—H - Cyclopentane carbaldehyde
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52. Which of the following IUPAC name is 52. fuEu es ls dkSulk IUPAC uke xyr lqesfyr gS\
incorrectly matched ?
O O
O O
(1) CH3–C–CH2–C–OH
(1) CH3–C–CH2–C–OH
3-vkWDlksC;wVsukWbd vEy
3-Oxobutanoic acid
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CHO
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CHO
CH3
CH3
4-esfFkyisUVsusy
4-Methylpentanal
O O
O O
(3) HO–C–CH2–CH2–C–H
(3) HO–C–CH2–CH2–C–H
3-QkWfeZyizksisukWbd vEy
3-Formylpropanoic acid
(4) CH3–CH–CH–CH2–CN
(4) CH3–CH–CH–CH2–CN
Br Ph
Br Ph
3-Qsfuy-4-czkseksisUVsukbVªkby
3-Phenyl-4-bromopentanitrile
O O
C–Cl C–Cl
53. What is the IUPAC name of 53. dk IUPAC uke D;k gS\
Cl OH Cl OH
chloride
(4) 1-Chlorocarbonyl-3-chlorobenzene-1-ol.
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54. Which of the following is vinylic bromide ? 54. fuEu es ls dkSulk okbfufyd czksekbM gS\
(1) CH2=CH–CH2–Br (1) CH2=CH–CH2–Br
(2) CH2=CH–Br (2) CH2=CH–Br
(3) CH2=CH–CH–CH3 (3) CH2=CH–CH–CH3
Br Br
CH2–Br CH2–Br
(4) (4)
H–C–CH2–CH–CN H–C–CH2–CH–CN
CH2 CH2
CH3 CH3
56. Which functional group is absent in the given 56. dkSulk fØ;kRed lewg fn;s x;s ;kSfxd es
compound ? vuqifLFkr gS\
O O O
O
H H
O O O
O
O Cl O Cl
(1) Ester (1) ,LVj
(2) Acid halide
(2) vEy gSykbM
(3) Ketone
(3) dhVksu
(4) Carboxylic acid
(4) dkcksZfDlfyd vEy
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57. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is: 57. ;kSfxd dk lgh IUPAC uke gS&
O O O O
Br Br
Br Br
Br Br
(1) 1,2,3-Tribromobutane-1,3-dione (1) 1,2,3-VªkbZczkseksC;wVsu-1,3-MkbZvkWu
(2) 2,4-Dibromo-3-oxobutanamide
(2) 2,4-MkbZczkseks-3-vkWDlksC;wVsusekbM
(3) 1,3-Dioxobutane-1,2,4-tribromo
(3) 1,3-MkbZvkWDlksC;wVsu-1,2,4-VªkbZczkseks
(4) 1,3,4-Triaminobutane-2,4-dione
(4) 1,3,4-VªkbZ,ehuksC;wVsu-2,4-MkbZvkWu
58. Which of the following is incorrect priority 58. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fØ;kRed lewg dh ojh;rk dk
O O O O O O O O
(4) –C–O–C– > –C–OR > –C–NH2 > –SH (4) –C–O–C– > –C–OR > –C–NH2 > –SH
59. Which of the following is incorrect common 59. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lkekU; uke xyr gS \
names ? OH
(1) f}rh;d-C;wfVy ,YdksgkWy
(1) OH Sec-butyl alcohol.
(2) NH2 fu;ksisfUVy ,ehu
(2) NH2 Neopentyl amine
OH
(3) vkblksisfUVy ,YdksgkWy
OH
(3) Isopentyl alcohol
(4) ,fFkyesfFky dhVksu
O
(4) Ethyl methyl ketone
O
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60. Name of some compounds are given. Which 60. uhps dqN ;kSfxdksa ds uke fn;s x;s gSaA dkSulk uke
one is not correct IUPAC name.
IUPAC i)fr ds vuqlkj lgh ugha gS \
CH3
| CH3
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH – CH2 – CH3 |
| (1) CH – CH – CH – CH – CH – CH2 – CH3
3 2 2
CH2CH3 |
CH2CH3
3–Methyl–4–ethylheptane
3–esfFky–4–,fFkygsIVsu
Cl
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 Cl
CH3 (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
2-Chloro-3-methylbutane CH3
2–Dyksjks–3–esfFkyC;wVsu
(3)
(3)
2–Ethyl–3–methylbut–1–ene
2–,fFky–3–esfFkyC;wV–1–bZu
(4)
4-Methylenehept-1-en-6-yne
(4)
4-esFkkbyhugsIV-1-bZu-6-vkbZu
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PART – C Hkkx – C
SECTION - I [k.M - I
Straight Objective Type
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj
This section contains 27 multiple choice questions.
bl [k.M esa 27 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh gSA
61. If the sets A and B are defined as 61. ;fn leqPp; A rFkk B bl izdkj gS fd
A x,y : y e ,x R and
x
A x,y : y e ,x R
x
(4) A B A (4) A B A
62. If A and B are two given sets, then 62. ;fn A vkSj B nks fn;s x;s leqPp; gS rc
c
A A B is equal to: A A B =
c
(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) (3)
(4) A Bc (4) A Bc
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64. The value of x satisfying the equation 64. lehdj.k log2(x2 – 2x + 5) = 2 dks larq"V djus
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 0 (2) 0
(3) –1 (3) –1
(4) 2 (4) 2
4 4
65. 1 1
is equivalent to: 65. 1 1
cjkcj gS -
3 3
3
9 3 1 3 9 3 1
1 1
(1) 3 3 1 (1) 3 3 1
1 1
(2) 3 3 1 (2) 3 3 1
1 1
(3) 9 3 1 (3) 9 3 1
1 1
(4) 9 3 1 (4) 9 3 1
66. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9) (6,12), (3, 9), 66. ekuk R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9) (6,12), (3, 9),
(3, 12), (3, 6)} is a relation on set A = {3, 6, 9, (3, 12), (3, 6)} leqPp; A = {3, 6, 9, 12} ij
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67. The number of solutions of the equation 67. lehdj.k log(– 2x) = 2 log(x + 1) ds gyksa dh
log(– 2x) = 2 log(x + 1) are la[;k gS&
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 0 (4) 0
2
log x x 2 log x
68. The solution set of the equation 8x e x 68. lehdj.k 8x e dk gy leqPp; gS -
is
(1)
(1)
(2) x R
(2) x R
(3) x I
(3) x I
(4) x (– , 0) (4) x (– , 0)
69. In a survey of xavirs’s school of Bhubaneswar 69. Hkqous'oj ds fdlh Ldwy ds 200 fo|kfFkZ;ksa ij fd;s
of 200 students, It was found that 120 study x;s losZ{k.k esa ;g ik;k x;k fd 120 fo|kFkhZ xf.kr,
math, 90 study physics, 70 study chemistry, 40 90 fo+|kFkhZ HkkSfrdh, 70 fo|kFkhZ jlk;u 'kkL=k, 40
study math and physics, 30 study physics and fo|kFkhZ xf.kr ,oa HkkSfrdh, 30 fo|kFkhZ HkkSfrdh ,oa
chemistry, 50 study chemistry and math and 20 jlk;u 'kkL=k] 50 fo|kFkhZ jlk;u 'kkL=k ,oa xf.kr
study none of these subjects then the number i<rs gS rFkk 20 fo|kFkhZ buesa ls dksbZ Hkh fo"k; ugh
of students study all the three subjects is: i<+rs gSA rc ,sls fo|kfFkZ;ks dh la[;k tks rhuks
(2) 30 (1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 10
(3) 10
(4) 18 (4) 18
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70. If solution set of Inequality 70. ;fn vlfedk x 2 x 2 x2 x 16 40 dk
x 2
x 2 x2 x 16 40 is
gy leqPp; x , 4 a,b c, gks] rks
x , 4 a,b c, then a + b – c is
a+b–c=
(1) – 2
(1) – 2
(2) –3
(2) –3
(3) –4
(3) –4
(4) –6
(4) –6
71. If A = {9, 10, 11, 12, 13} and let f : A N is 71. ;fn A = {9, 10, 11, 12, 13} rFkk ekuk Qyu
defined by f(x) = highest prime factor of x. f : A N bl izdkj ifjHkkf"kr gS fd f(x) = x dk
then the number of distinct elements in the lcls cM+k vHkkT; xq.ku[k.M gSA rks f ds izfrfcEcksa
image of f is: ds leqPp; esa fLFkr fofHkUu vo;oksa dh la[;k gksxh
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 4
(4) 4
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73. In a society of 100 people each person read 73. 100 O;fDr;ksa ds ,d lewg esa izR;sd O;fDr
3 magazine and each magazine is read by 20 3 esxthu i<+rk gS rFkk izR;sd eSxthu 20 O;fDr;ksa
persons. Then the number of magazine is
}kjk i<+h tkrh gS rc eSxthu dh la[;k gksxh -
(1) 25
(1) 25
(2) 35
(2) 35
(3) 15
(3) 15
(4) cannot be determined
(4) Kkr ugha dh tk ldrh
74. In a town of 10,000 families 40% families buy 74. fdlh 'kgj ds 10,000 ifjokjkas es ls 40% ifjokj
newspaper A, 20% buy newspaper B and v[kckj A, 20% ifjokj v[kckj B, 10% ifjokj
10% buy C, 5% buy A and B, 3% buy B and v[kckj C, 5% ifjokj v[kckj A ,oa B, 3% ifjokj
C, and 4% buy A and C. If 2% buy all three v[kckj B ,oa C rFkk 4% ifjokj v[kckj A ,oa C
A, B, C then number of families which buy [kjhnrs gSA ;fn 2% ifjokj lHkh rhuksa v[kckj A,
75. The number of digits in (875)16 is 75. (875)16 esa vadks dh la[;k gksxh -
(1) 46 (1) 46
(2) 47
(2) 47
(3) 48
(3) 48
(4) 49
(4) 49
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76. Let A 1 2 5 10 and 76. ekuk A 1 2 5 10 rFkk
12
B then the value of logA B is: 12
3 5 8 B rc logA B dk eku gksxk-:
3 5 8
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) –1 (4) –1
1 1 1 1
77. + + 77. + +
2 log b a log b
c 2 log c
a log c b 2 log b
a log b
c 2 log c
a log c b
1 1
= =
2 log a b log c 2 log a
b log a
c
a
(where a, b, c are distinct positive numbers , (tgk¡ a, b, c fHkUu fHkUu /kukRed la[;k,a gS rFkk
a,b,c 1) a,b,c 1)
(1) abc (1) abc
1 1
(2) (2)
abc abc
(3) 0 (3) 0
1 1
(4) (4)
2 2
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
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79. The inequality x x y y x,y with 79. vlfedk x x y y x,y tcfd x y 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1
(3) 1
(4) ds fdlh eku ds fy;s ugh
(4) for no value of
is
(1) (0, 1) (1, 2)
(1) (0, 1) (1, 2)
(2) (1, 2)
(2) (1, 2)
(3) (0, 1)
(3) (0, 1)
(4) (0, 2)
(4) (0, 2)
81. Given the relation R = {(2, 3), (3, 4)} on the 81. leqPp; A = {2, 3, 4} ij ifjHkkf"kr ,d lEcU/k
set A = {2, 3, 4}. The numbers of minimum R = {(2, 3), (3, 4)} gSa rks ,sls Øfer ;qXeksa dh
ordered pairs to be added to R so that R is U;qure la[;k ftUgs R ds leqPp; esa 'kkfey djus
reflexive and symmetric ij R LorqY; ,oa lefer cu tk,s] gksxh -
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 5
(4) 5
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1 3 2 1
82. If x = , then the value of x –2x – 7x + 5 82. ;fn x = gks] rks x3 – 2x2 – 7x + 5 dk eku
2– 3 2– 3
is gS -
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 4
(4) 4
2x–3 2x–3
83. If (0.2) x –2 > 5 then complete solution set of 83. ;fn (0.2) x –2 > 5 rc x ds ekuksa dk lEiw.kZ gy
values of x is leqPp; gS -
5 5
(3) – ,– (2,) (3) – ,– (2,)
3 3
5 5
(4) , (4) ,
3 3
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2 2
85. Solution set of x(log10 x) –3 log10 x 1
> 1000 for 85. x R ds fy,] x(log10 x) –3 log10 x 1
> 1000 dk gy
x R is leqPp; gS -
86. Solution set of (5x – 1) < (x + 1)2 < (7x – 3) is 86. (5x – 1) < (x + 1)2 < (7x – 3) dk gy leqPp; gS-
(1) (1, 4)
(1) (1, 4)
(2) [2, 4]
(2) [2, 4]
(3) (2, 4)
(3) (2, 4)
R 1 x, 1 x 2 : x 5, x N which of the
R 1 x, 1 x 2 : x 5, x N rks fuEufyf[kr
(3) R 2,2 , 3,5 , 4,10 , 5,17 , 6,25 (3) R 2,2 , 3,5 , 4,10 , 5,17 , 6,25
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SECTION - II [k.M - II
Comprehension Type
cks/ku çdkj
This section contains 1 paragraph. Based on
bl [k.M esa 1 vuqPNsn (paragraph) gSA vuqPNsn ij
paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
vk/kkfjr 3 ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3)
ONE is correct. rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh gSA
88. The greatest value of b for which N is 88. b dk vf/kdre eku ftlds fy, N, 8 ls foHkkftr
divisible by 8 is gS] gS -
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 6
89. The least value of a for which N is divisible by 89. a dk U;wure eku ftlds fy, N, 12 ls foHkkftr
12 is gS] gS -
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 6
90. Number of values of a + b for which N is 90. a + b ds ekuksa dh la[;k ftlds fy, N , 11 ls
divisible by 11 is foHkkftr gks] gS -
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 3 (4) 3
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CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)
(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
DATE : 12-08-2017 C S XI | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
CLLA
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
AS
SS
PART-A : PHYSICS 8. Select the................
1. If A = 4................ Sol. | a b |max | a | | b | when a || b
& | a b |max | a | | b | when a b
Sol. Since A 4
2 9. A copper................
A 16 A. A 16
4 3 2
Diff. w.r t. 't' Sol. V R A = 4R
3
dA dA
A. .A 0 dV 4 2 dR dR
dt dt 3R 4 R 2 ..................(1)
dt 3 dt dt
dA A = 4R
2
A. 0
dt dA dR
8R ..............(2)
................ dt dt
2. If A a ˆi ajˆ bkˆ Using (1) and (2)
dV R dA
Sol. If A and B are perpendicular
2 dt 2 dt
A B = 0 a – 2a – b = 0
for a to have real rods dA 2 dV 2
2 1 mm3 / s = 0.02 mm2/s
D = (–2) – 4(1) (–b) 0 dt R dt 100mm
4+4b0
b –1
10. The value................
bmin = –1
2
Sol. sec690° = sec(720° – 30°) = sec(–30°) = sec30° =
3. If the resultant................ 3
Sol. If is clear from the diagram that angle made by resultant
is smaller with vector of greater magnitude. 11. A driver................
Sol. The vehicle suffers displacement only till it stops and
B not of afterwards as brakes provide acceleration till v 0.
for displacement
2 2
x vx = ux + 2axx
2
15
A
vx = 0 x = 375m
2 0.3
4. The value ................
12. A particle................
Sol. In the given product there will be a term cos 1 2 1 2
2 Sol. h gt1 2h = g t1 t 2 3h
(2) with makes the complete product to be zero.
2 2
1 2
= g t1 t 2 t 3
5. Select the................ 2
Sol. Two unit vector can be a unit vector when angle between
them is 120° t1 : (t1 + t2) : (t1 + t2 + t3) = 1: 2 : 3
,................
t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 2 1 : 3 2
6. If a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
Sol.
2a 3b is in the same plane p as that of a & b 13. On a straight................
Sol. If their position time graphs tangent to each other then the
thief is just nabbed
2b 3a is r to the plane of a & b .
14. A man................
Therefore 2a 3b 2b 3a 0
v1t1 v 2 t 2
Sol. v av
t1 t 2
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17. Position of................ A v
Sol. t = 3 sec. x = 3 × 32 + 1 = 28 m
t = 2 sec. x = 3 × 22 + 1 = 13 m R
Displacement = 28 – 13 = 15 m
x 15m 120°
V avg = = = 15 m/sec. O
t 1 sec R R
C B
18. A particle starts................
Sol. If the particle is moving in a straight line under the action
of a constant force then distance covered 3R 3 3V
Vav = =
1 2 4R 4
s = ut + at
2 3V
Since the body starts from rest u = 0
1 2 23. Drops of water................
s= at
2 Sol. By the time 5th drop starts falling, the first drop reaches to
the ground
1
Now, s1= a(10)2 .................(i) 25
2 t= = 1 sec.
10
1
and, s2= a(20)2 .................(ii) Hence the interval of falling of each drop
2
1
Dividing Eq (i) and Eq (ii) we get = sec. = 0.25 sec.
2 4
s1 10
s2 20 2 S1 : S2 : S3 : S4 = 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
s2 = 4s1
2
20. If f(x) = x ................
2
Sol. f(x) = x
1
g(x) =
x3
f(2) = 4
f(–2) = 4
g(2) = 1/8 24. The position ................
g(–2) = –1/8
dr
1 Sol : V 2iˆ 10t ˆj
4 dt
f(2) g(2) 8 1
=
f( 2) g( 2) 1 a 10 ĵ
4
8
V t 0 2 î
21. If two forces................
at 0 10 ĵ
Sol.
V a 90 0
25. The velocity................
dv
Sol. From figure –tan 30º =
dx
dv
acceleration a = v
dx
a = – v tan30º
| F1 F2 | = F12 F22 2F1F2 cos(120º ) = 20 N at x = 0, v = 2 m/s (from figure)
so a = – 2 tan 30º
22. A particle................ 2 2
Sol. The displacement of particle from A to C will be a= m/s
3
R × 2 cos 30 3R
Time taken in moving from A to C will be 26. The position................
A to C distance 4 R
Sol. r 2 sin t ˆi 2cos t ˆj 3t kˆ
V 3V 4 4
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33. In a gaseous mixture, if an alkane .................
velocity v cos t ˆi sin t ˆj 3kˆ 2.(14 x 2) 1.(14 y)
2 4 2 4 Sol . M mi x. = = 20
2 2
3
speed v cos t sin t 9 28 x + 1 4 y = 56 ...( 1)
1.(14x 2) 2.(14y)
2 4 2 4 M mi x. = = 24
3
2
14 x + 2 8 y = 70 ...( 2)
speed v 9
4 34. A gaseous mixture of H 2 and CO 2 gas .................
46 Sol. Let total mass of mixture be 100 g
v=
2 88
Number of moles of CO 2 = =2
44
27. The slope................ 12
3
Sol. y = x – 2x + 1 Number of moles of H 2 = =6
2
dy 2
= 3x – 2 Total mass 100
dx Mavg = = = 12.5
Total moles 8
dy 2
slope at x = 1 is = 3(1 ) – 2 = 1 VD = 12.5/2 = 6.25
dx x 1
35. A graph is plotted for a gas 'C', by putting .................
m(g) VL (NTP)
Sol. Mole = =
28. Velocity of................ M 22.4
Sol. V = (5t2 – 3t + 2)m/s
22.4 22.4
V(t = 3) = 5(3) 2 – 3(3) + 2 = 45 – 9 + 2 = 38 m/s. V= M × m M = 11.2 or M = 2
29. Acceleration of................
37. A bulb emits light of = 4500 Å .................
dv
Sol. a =
dt
= 10t – 3 Sol. 50 1 8=
12400 –19
× 1.6 × 10 × x
100 4500
a at t = 3 second is a = 10 × 3 – 3 = 27 m/s2 .
12 4500 × 1019 = x x = 2.72 × 1019
12400 1.6
30. Velocity of................
Sol. a = 10t – 3 = 0 39. 32 amu of Helium contains .................
3 32
t= Sol. 32 amu of Helium contains = 8 He atoms.
10 4
3 2
V = 40. Identify the correct option for the order .................
10 3
Sol. e/m ratio e/m ratio
2
(With sign) (Without considering sign)
3 3 31 e < n < < p n<<p<e
V(t = 3/10) = 5 –3 10 +2= m/s
10 20
41. From a container having 64 g Oxygen .................
11.2 6.02 1023
Sol. Removed mass = ×32 + 16 = 32 g
22.4 6.02 1023
PART-B : CHEMISTRY mass left = 64 – 32 = 32 g.
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45. The maximum volume at STP is ................. O
Sol. moles of SO2 = 12.8/64 = 0.2 V = 0.2 × 22.4 L
moles of NO2 = 0.5 V= 0.5 ×22.4 L
C—Cl
6.02 1022 (3) (Benzene carbonyl chloride)
moles of CH4 = = 0.1 V = 0.1 × 22.4 L
6.023 1023
moles of CO2 =1 mole V= 1×22.4 L O
46. In which of the following pair of compounds ................. C—H
Sol. Compound having same type of atoms and same IHD (4) (Cyclopentane carbaldehyde)
possess same general formula.
47. Which of the following has ................. 52. Which of the following IUPAC .................
Sol. Correct numbering are :
Cl Cl 5 4 3 2 1
H3C CH3 Sol. CH3–CH–CH–CH2–CN
1 1
2 2
Br Ph
(1) (3)
3 3 4-Bromo-4-phenyl pentanitrile
4
53. What is the IUPAC name of .................
Br
O
1 3
4 C–Cl
(4) 2
1
Sol. 2 6
5
48. Which is correct IUPAC name .................
Cl 3 OH
O 4
4 2 3-Chloro-5-hydroxybenzenecarbonyl chloride
Sol. (3) CH3–CH–C–CH–NH2
54. Which of the following is vinylic .................
5 CH CH3 Sol. In vinylic compound the monovalent functional group is
2
1 attached to one of the carbon atoms of the carbon-carbon
6
CH3 double bond .
2-Amino-4-methyl hexan-3-one CH2=CH–Br
Cl Br Vinylic Bromide
2 4
1 3 55. IUPAC name of the given compound .................
(4) 5
Cl O
NH2
4-Bromo-2,2-dichloropentan-3-amine Sol. H–C–CH2–CH–CN
4 3 2 1
49. Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid is .................
CH2
O
CH3
Sol. CH3–CC–CH=CH–C–OH
6 5 4 3 2 1 2-Ethyl-4-oxobutanenitrile
Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid 56. Which functional group is absent .................
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59. Which of the following is incorrect ................. 67. The number of solutions................
–4 16 – 4 –4 12
Sol. x x
2 2
Correct IUPAC name is 4–Ethyl–3–methylheptane 3 3
x = (– 2 + ),(–2,– ).
x + 1 > 0 and –2x > 0
A B c
A B c
n A B C 20
(x – 1) = 0
2
x 3 x 2 0 x , 4 3,
x=1
x ,– 4 3,2 3,
a + b –c = –3 + 2 –3 = –4
4
65. 1 1
is equivalent ................
71. If A = {9, 10, 11, 12, 13} ................
93 33 1
Sol. as per given function
1 F (9) = 3
4 3 3 1
4 F (10) = 5
Sol.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
F (11) = 11
3
9 3 1 3
27 3 3 3
9 3 9 3 1 3 3
F (12) = 3
1 F (13) = 13
4 3 3 1
1 Range = {3, 5, 11, 13}
33 1
4 72. If (a – 2b – 3c + 4d) ................
a 2b 3c 4d a – 2b 3c – 4d
Sol. =
66. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9) ................ a 2b – 3c – 4d a – 2b – 3c 4d
Sol. Obviously
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a 2b a – 2b 1
Using C & D = +
3c 4d 3c – 4d 1 loga b loga c
a 3c
Using C & D again = 1 1 1 1
2b 4d =
2 logb abc logc abc loga abc
2ad = 3bc
1 1
= (logabc abc) =
2 2
73. In a society of 100 people ................
Sol. Let the number of magazine is . So each magazine is
78. Number of non-negative................
read by 20 persons and each person reads 3 magazine
Sol. By wavy curve method x (–3, –1] (2, 4] {–8}
20x 100 3 non negative integral solutions are x = 3, 4
300
x 15
20 79. The inequality x x ................
2 2
Sol. x – x < y – y
74. In a town of 10,000 families................ 2 2
x – y – x + y > 0
Sol. n(only A) = n(A) – n (A B) – n(A C) + n (A B C) (x – y)(x + y) – (x – y) > 0
= 40 – 5 – 4 + 2 (x – y)(x + y – ) > 0
n (only A) = 33% x+y–<0
13 x+y<
number of families = 1000 3300
100
80. The solution set of................
B
12 3 5 8 23 5 8 Extra .. pairs = 5
14 6 5 8 5 1
2(3 5 – 8 )( 5 – 1) 1
= 82. If x = , then the ................
5 –1 2– 3
Sol. We have
= 1 + 2 + 5 – 10 =A
1 1 2 3 2 3
So, logA B 1 x= = × =
2– 3 2– 3 2 3 2 – ( 3 )2
2
2 3 2 3
1 = =
77. +................ 4–3
2 log b a log b
c
x–2= 3
1 1 1
Sol. +
2 1 log a log c 1 log a logc b (x – 2) =
2
( 3 )2
b b c
2
x – 4x + 4 = 3
2
x – 4x + 1 = 0 ..........(i)
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3 2
x – 2x – 7x + 5 87. If R is a relation................
2 2
= x(x – 4x + 1) + 2(x – 4x + 1) + 3 x5
Sol. Given
=x×0+2×0+3
So R 2,2 , 3,5 , 4,10 , 5,17 , 6,26
=3 [using (i)]
Domain = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
2x–3 Range = {2, 5, 10, 17, 16}
83. If (0.2) x –2 > 5 then................
88. The greatest value................
2x–3
Sol. (0.2) x –2 > 5 Sol. N is divisible by 8, if b = 2
2x–3
– 89. The least value of................
5 x –2 1
>5
Sol. N is divisible by 12, if N is divisible by 3 as well as by 4
2x – 3 for divisibility by 4, we have
– >1
x–2 b = 2, 6
For divisibility by 3, we have
3x – 5
<0 8+7+a+2+7+9+3+1+b = a + b + 37 is divisible by 3
x–2
i.e. a + b + 1 is divisible by 3
x (5/3,2) (i) If b = 2, a is divisible by 3 i.e. a = 0, 3, 6, 9
least value of a is 0
84. Let R1 x,y R R :x y ................
90. Number of values................
x
Sol. x = x = 1 Q reflexive is rational Sol. N is divisible by 11 , if
y (b+3+7+a+8) – (1+9+2+7) = a + b – 1 is divisible by 11
y 1 i.e. a + b = 1 or 12
may or may not be rational for example = 0
x number of values of a + b is 2
Q
1 1
But Q so not symmetric
0
2
85. Solution set of x(log10 x) –3 log10 x 1
................
Sol. Taking log on both sides base 10
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SOLJBCT1090717-7
Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029
CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)
(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
DATE : 12-08-2017 CLASS XI | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
ANSWER KEY
CODE-0
PHYSICS
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
CHEMISTRY
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4)
38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (2)
45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (4)
52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (1)
MATHEMATICS
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (3)
68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (3)
75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (4)
82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (2)
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SOLJBCT1090717-8
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CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)
(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
| | COURSE
SE : ALL
LL INDIA IA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
C XI ladsr ,oa gy
CLLA
PART-A : PHYSICSASSS 8. lfn'k A rFkk................
Sol. | a b |max | a | | b | tc a || b
1. ;fn A = 4................
&
Sol. pwafd A 4 | a b |max | a | | b | tc a b
2 9. ,d rkacs................
A 16 A. A 16
4 3
't'
ds lkis{k vodyu djus ij Sol. V R A = 4R2
3
dA dA dA
A. .A 0 A. 0 dV 4 2 dR dR
dt dt dt 3R 4 R 2 ..................(1)
dt 3 dt dt
2
................ A = 4R
2. ;fn A a ˆi ajˆ bkˆ dA dR
Sol. ;fn 8R ..............(2)
A rFkk B yEcor~ gks rks dt dt
(1) rFkk (2) ds mi;kssx ls
A B = 0 a2 – 2a – b = 0
a ds okLrfod eku ds fy, dV R dA
2
D = (–2) – 4(1) (–b) 0 dt 2 dt
4+4b0
dA 2 dV 2
b –1 1 mm3 / s = 0.02 mm2/s
bmin = –1 dt R dt 100mm
3. ;fn A rFkk................ 10. sec690° dk................
Sol. fp=k ls Li"V gS fd ifj.kkeh lfn'k }kjk cuk;k x;k dks.k 2
Sol. sec690° = sec(720° – 30°) = sec(–30°) = sec30° =
cMs ifjek.k ds lfn'k ds lkFk de gksrk gSA 3
B 11. ,d pkyd................
Sol. okgu :dus rd gh foLFkkfir gksrk gSA vkS blds i'pkr~ ugh
gksrk gSA vFkkZr v 0 rd czsd Roj.k mRiUu djrk gSA
foLFkkiu ds fy,
2 2
A x vx = ux + 2axx
2
4. cos0 cos1................ 15
vx = 0 x = 375m
2 0.3
Sol. fn, x;s xq.ku esa cos in vkrk gSA
2
12. ,d d.k................
(2) tksfd lEiw.kZ ?kw.kZu dks 'kwU; dj nsrk gSA
1 1 2
Sol. h gt12 2h = g t1 t 2
5. lgh dFku................ 2 2
Sol. nks bdkbZ lfn'kksa dk ;ksx ,d bdkbZ lfn'k gksrk gSA ;fn muds 1 2
e/; dks.k 120° gks 3h = g t1 t 2 t 3
2
t1 : (t1 + t2) : (t1 + t2 + t3) = 1: 2 : 3
................
6. ;fn a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
Sol. t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 2 1 : 3 2
2a 3b lfn'k a rFkk b ds leku ry esa gS ,oa
13. ,d lh/kh................
2b 3a , a rFkk b ds ry ds yEcor~ gSA Sol. mudk fLFkfr le; xzkQ ,d nqljs ij Li'kZ js[kk gksxkA rks pksj
vr% 2a 3b 2b 3a 0 dks fBd idMk tk ldrk gSA
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SOLJBCT1090717-1
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14. ,d O;fDr................ 22. fp=kkuqlkj ,d ................
v1t1 v 2 t 2 Sol. iFk A ls C rd d.k dk foLFkkiu gksxkA
Sol. v av
t1 t 2 R × 2 cos 30 3R
iFk A ls C rd xfr esa fy;k x;k le; gksxkA
17. fdlh {k.k................ A l sC r d r ; dh xbZnw
jh
Sol. t = 3 sec. x = 3 × 32 + 1 = 28 m
osx V
t = 2 sec. x = 3 × 22 + 1 = 13 m
foLFkkiu = 28 – 13 = 15 m 4 R
3V
x 15m A v
V avg = = = 15 m/sec.
t 1 sec
R
18. ,d d.k................ 120°
Sol. ;fn oLrq ljy js[kk esa vpj cy ds çHkko esa xfreku gS rks O
R R
blds }kjk r; nwjh fuEu gksxh & C B
1 2
s = ut + at
2 3R 3 3V
Vav = =
pw¡fd oLrq dk çkjfEHkd osx u=0 4R 4
1 2 3V
s= at
2
23. H = 5 m Å¡pkbZ................
1
Now, s1= a(10)2 .................(i) Sol. tc 5th cwUn fxjuk izkjEHk djrh gS] izFke cwUn lrg ij igq¡pus
2
okyh gS
1
and, s 2= a(20) 2 .................(ii) 25
2 t= = 1 sec.
Dividing Eq (i) and Eq (ii) we get 10
lehdj.k (i) esa (ii) dk Hkkx nsus ij 1
2 vr% izR;sd cwUn ds fxjus dk le;kUrjky= sec. = 0.25 sec.
s1 10 4
s 2 = 4s1 S1 : S2 : S3 : S4 = 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
s2 20 2
3 2 32
V = gy- 32 amu ghfy;e j[krk gS = 8 He ijek.kqA
10 3 4
2
3 3 31 40. fn;s x;s d.kksa ds fof'k"V vkos'k ............
V(t = 3/10) = 5 –3 10 +2= m/s
10 20 gy. e/m ratio vuqikr e/m vuqikr
(fpUg lfgr) (fpUg ugha ekurs gq,)
e < n < < p n<<p<e
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SOLJBCT1090717-3
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41. ,d ik=k esa mifLFkr 64 xzke vkWDlhtu ............ 49. gsDl-2-bu-4-vkbukWbd ............
23
11.2 6.02 10 O
gy. gVk;s x;s nzO;eku = × 32 +
23
16
22.4 6.02 10
gy. CH3–CC–CH=CH–C–OH
= 32 g 6 5 4 3 2 1
'ks"k cpk nzO;eku = 64 – 32 = 32 g.
gs
Dl -2-bu-4-vkbukW
bd vEy
42. fuEu esa ls fdlesa 32 g vkWDlhtu ............
gy. (1) n0 = 2 mol 50. fuEu es ls dkSulk lkekU; uke ............
60 1 O
(2) nC6H12O6 mol
180 3
1 gy. lgh lkekU; uke gS% Ph—C—Ph -csUtksdhVksu
n0 6 2 mol
3
(3) n0 = 1 × 2 = 2 mol 51. fuEu es ls dkSulk IUPAC ............
gy. lgh IUPAC uke%
43. 1 okWV 'kfDr dk cYc 1 lSd.M dk;Z ............
nhc O
gy. ET =
C—NH2
nhc 2 1016 6.62 1034 3 108 (1) (csUtsekbM)
=40×1
ET 1
0
–10
m = 4nm O
CH3
45. STP ij fuEu essa ls fdlds }kjk ............ (2) CH3—C—N (N,N-MkbZesfFky ,FksusekbM)
gy. SO2 ds eksy = 12.8/64 = 0.2 V = 0.2 × 22.4 L CH3
NO2 ds eksy = 0.5 V= 0.5 ×22.4 L O
6.02 1022
CH4 ds eksy = = 0.1 V= 0.1 × 22.4 L C—Cl
6.023 1023
CO2 ds eksy =1 V= 1×22.4 L (3) (csUthu dkcksZfuy DyksjkbM)
gy. H–C–CH2–CH–CN
4 3 2 1
CH2
CH3
62. ;fn A vkSj B nks fn;s................
2-,fFky-4-vkWDlksC;wVsuukbVªkby c
Sol.
A A B A A c Bc A A c A Bc
A B c
A B c
4
65. 1 1
cjkcj gS ................
57. ;kSfxd dk lgh IUPAC ............ 3
9 3 1 3
O O 1
gy. 4 3 3 1
Br 4
1 3 Sol.
Br 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
4
Br
3
9 3 1 3
27 3 9 3 3 3 9 3 3 3 1
2,4-MkbZczkseks-3-vkWDlksC;wVsuekbM 1
4 3 3 1
1
33 1
4
58. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fØ;kRed lewg ............
66. ekuk R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9) ................
Sol. ;g rF; gSA
Sol. Li"Vr;k
2
x log x
lgh IUPAC uke 4– ,fFky–3– esfFkygsIVsu gS 68. lehdj.k 8x e ................
x 2 log x
Sol. 8x e
RHS ls x 0 x 0
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SOLJBCT1090717-5
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x 2 log x
ysfdu e lnSo /kukRed gS rFkk LHS8x lnSo 76. ekuk A 1 2 5 10 ................
_.kkRed gS tks lEHko ugh gSA
Sol. B
12 3 5 8
69.
Sol.
Hkqous'oj ds fdlh Ldwy ds 200................
n A B C n A n B n C n A B
3
5 8 3 5 8
n B C n A C n(A B C)
B
12 3 5 8 23 5 8
180 120 90 70 40 30 50 n A B C 14 6 5 8 5 1
n A B C 20 2(3 5 – 8 )( 5 – 1)
=
5 –1
70. ;fn vlfedk ................
2 = 1 + 2 + 5 – 10 =A
Sol. ekuk x x 2 rc 14 40 0
blfy,, logA B 1
4 10 0
4 10 1
77. +................
x2 x 2 4 2 log b a log b
c
2
x + x – 12 0
1 1 1
x 3 x 2 0 x , 4 3, Sol. +
2 1 logb a logb c 1 logc a logc b
x ,– 4 3,2 3,
a + b –c = –3 + 2 –3 = –4 1
+
1 loga b loga c
71. ;fn A = {9, 10, 11, 12, 13} rFkk................
Sol. fn;s x;s Qyu ls 1 1 1 1
=
F (9) = 3 2 log abc log abc log abc
F (10) = 5
b c a
F (11) = 11 1 1
F (12) = 3 = (logabc abc) =
F (13) = 13 2 2
ifjlj = {3, 5, 11, 13}
78. vlfedk
72. ;fn (a – 2b – 3c + 4d) ................ x 4 3 x 8 1500 x 1501 x 2 53 2x 2 5 .............
303 505 60 10,000
0
a 2b 3c 4d a – 2b 3c – 4d x4 x 2 x 3 x 6 x 9
Sol. =
a 2b – 3c – 4d a – 2b – 3c 4d ...
Sol. gy djus ij x (–3, –1] (2, 4] {–8}
a 2b a – 2b
C vkSj D ;ksxkUrjkuqikr ls = v_.kkkRed iw.kkZad gy x = 3, 4
3c 4d 3c – 4d
a 3c 79. vlfedk x x ................
C vkSj D iqu% ;ksxkUrjkuqikr ls =
2b 4d 2
Sol. x – x < y – y
2
2 2
2ad = 3bc x – y – x + y > 0
(x – y)(x + y) – (x – y) > 0
73. 100 O;fDr;ksa ds ,d lewg esa................ (x – y)(x + y – ) > 0
Sol. ekuk eSaxthu dh la[;k gSA vc izR;sd eSxthu 20 O;fDr x+y–<0
i<+rs gS rFkk izR;sd O;fDr 3 eSxthu i<+rk gSA x+y<
20x 100 3
80.
x 2
x 1 x2 log x
0 dk gy ................
300 x 1 x 9
x 15
20 Sol. 0, 1, 1, 9
74. fdlh 'kgj ds 10,000 ifjokjks................
Sol. n(dsoy A) = n(A) – n (A B) – n(A C) + n (A B C)
= 40 – 5 – 4 + 2
n (dsoy A) = 33%
13 x , 9 1,0 0,1
ifjokjks dh la[;k = 1000 3300
100 ysfdu x > 0
16
75. (875) esa vadks dh la[;k................ blfy,, x 0,1
6
Sol. vk/kkj 10 ysrs gq, (875) dk iw.kkZa'k 81. leqPp; A = {2, 3, 4}................
16 Sol. R = {(2, 2), (3, 3), (2, 3), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 3), (4, 4)}
log10 875 16log10 875 47 vr% vfrfjDr Øfer ;qXeks dh la[;k = 5
vadks dh la[;k = 47 + 1 = 48
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SOLJBCT1090717-6
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2
1 86. (5x – 1) < (x + 1) < (7x – 3) dk gy leqPp; gS ................
82. ;fn x= gks] rks................ 2
Sol. (5x – 1) < (x + 1) < (7x – 3)
2– 3 2 2
5x – 1 < (x + 1) and vkSj (x + 1) < 7x – 3
Sol. ;gk¡ 2 2
(x + 1) – 5x + 1 > 0 and vkSj (x + 1) – 7x + 3 < 0
1 1 2 3 2 3 2 2
x – 3x + 2 > 0 and vkSj x – 5x + 4 < 0
x= = × =
2– 3 2– 3 2 3 2 – ( 3 )2
2 (x – 1)(x – 2) > 0 and vkSj (x – 1)(x – 4) < 0
x (–, 1) (2, ) and vkSj1 < x < 4
2 3 2 3 2<x<4
= =
4–3
x–2= 3 87. ;fn N ij ifjHkkf"kr ................
2
fn;k gS x 5
2
(x – 2) = ( 3) Sol.
2
x – 4x + 4 = 3 vr% R 2,2 , 3,5 , 4,10 , 5,17 , 6,26
2
x – 4x + 1 = 0 ..........(i)
3 2
x – 2x – 7x + 5 izkUr = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
2 2
= x(x – 4x + 1) + 2(x – 4x + 1) + 3 ifjlj = {2, 5, 10, 17, 16}
=x×0+2×0+3
=3 [(i) ls] 88. b dk vf/kdre eku................
2x–3 Sol. N, 8 ls foHkkftr gS] ;fn b = 2
83. ;fn (0.2) x –2 > 5 rc................
89. a dk U;wure eku................
2x–3
Sol. 12 ls foHkkftr gksxk] ;fn N, 3 ls rFkk 4 ls foHkkftr gksA
Sol. (0.2) x –2 > 5
4 ls foHkkftr gksus ds fy,
2x–3 b = 2, 6
–
5 x –2 1 3 ls foHkkftr gksus ds fy,
>5
2x – 3 8 + 7 + a + 2 + 7 + 9 + 3 + 1 + b = a + b + 37, 3 ls
– >1 foHkkftr gksxkA
x–2
vFkkZr~ a + b + 1, 3 ls foHkkftr gSA
3x – 5 (i) ;fn b = 2 gS] rks a , 3 ls foHkkftr gSA
<0
x–2 vFkkZr~ a = 0, 3, 6, 9
x (5/3,2) a dk U;wure eku 0 gSA
2
85. x R ds fy,] x(log10 x) –3 log10 x 1 ................
Sol. nksuksa rjQ log (vk/kkj 10) ysus ij
– [ (log10 x)2 – 3log10 x 1 ] log10 x > log10 103
(log10 x)3 – 3 (log10 x)2 + log10 x –3>0
3 2
ekuk log10 x = t rks t – 3t + t – 3 > 0
2
(t + 1) (t – 3) > 0 t – 3 > 0
3 3
log10 x > 3 x > 10 x(10 ,)
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]
SOLJBCT1090717-7
Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029
CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1)
(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
CLASS XI | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
ANSWER KEY
CODE-0
PHYSICS
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
CHEMISTRY
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4)
38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (2)
45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (4)
52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (1)
MATHEMATICS
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (3)
68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (3)
75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (4)
82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (2)
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
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SOLJBCT1090717-8
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Objective Response Sheet (ORS)
P03-17 TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED)
31 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
32 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4
33 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4
34 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4
35 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4
36 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4 MPT MCT MT AIOT JPT
37 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4
38 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4
39 1 2 3 4 77 1 2 3 4
78 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
40 1 2 3 4
41 1 2 3 4 79 1 2 3 4
42 1 2 3 4 80 1 2 3 4
81 1 2 3 4 Signature of Candidate:
43 1 2 3 4
44 1 2 3 4 82 1 2 3 4
45 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4
46 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4
85 1 2 3 4
Signature of Invigilator
47 1 2 3 4
48 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4
49 1 2 3 4 87 1 2 3 4 Invigilator Signature:____________________
50 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4
Invigilator Name: _______________________
89 1 2 3 4
90 1 2 3 4 ______________________________________