Englishwritten Released 2018 PDF
Englishwritten Released 2018 PDF
Englishwritten Released 2018 PDF
best be retarded by
A. buccal mucosa.
B. tongue. A. decreasing the particle size.
C. floor of the mouth. B. increasing the concentration of water in
D. gingiva. the liquid.
C. increasing the rate of addition of the
powder to the liquid.
D. cooling the glass mixing slab.
In the absence of “Hanks balanced salt
solution”, what is the most appropriate media
to transport an avulsed tooth?
What is the most likely diagnosis of a white
A. Saliva. lesion on the retromolar pad opposing a non-
B. Milk. functional molar?
C. Saline.
D. Tap water. A. Alveolar ridge keratosis.
B. Candidiasis.
C. Lichen planus.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Which of the following is the most likely cause
of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension and
peptic ulcers in a 65 year old with Crohn’s
disease? Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
A. Uncontrolled diabetes. retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical
B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. dimension. The treatment of choice is to
C. Chronic renal failure.
D. Prolonged NSAID therapy. A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to
E. Malabsorption syndrome. provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an increased
A 7 year old patient is missing tooth 5.5 and occlusal vertical dimension to gain the
tooth 7.5. Space maintainers were not placed. necessary clearance.
A current mixed dentition analysis yields the D. proceed with construction of the denture
following data: and reduce the posterior extension of the
mandibular denture to eliminate
R L interferences.
-5mm -3mm (maxilla)
-3mm -4.5mm (mandible)
The actual space loss assuming there was no A hinge axis facebow records
asymmetry in tooth sizes is
A. Bennett angle.
A. 8mm in the maxilla. B. centric relation.
B. 2mm in the maxilla. C. lateral condylar inclination.
C. 7.5mm in the mandible. D. horizontal condylar inclination.
D. 4.5mm in the mandible. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
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Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Which of the following improves the prognosis An anxious 67 year old patient presents for
of pulp vitality after indirect pulp capping? consultation to extract tooth 4.6. The medical
history includes a heart murmur, hypertension
A. Use of calcium hydroxide. and a cerebrovascular accident 5 years ago.
B. Having a well sealed restoration. Medications include clopidrogel,
C. Reducing other traumas to the pulp. hydrochlorothiazide and rosuvastatin. What is
D. Removing all demineralized dentin. the most appropriate preoperative
management?
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Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as Abrasion is most commonly seen on the
a result of
A. lingual surface of posterior teeth.
A. inflammation. B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth.
B. benign neoplasia. C. incisal edges.
C. normal cell turnover. D. facial surfaces of teeth.
D. a developmental abnormality.
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A. nerve.
B. dental pulp.
C. lymphoid. Methemoglobinemia is a potential complication
D. muscle. of an excessive dose of
A. bupivacaine.
B. lidocaine.
C. mepivacaine.
D. prilocaine.
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A. infrabony pockets.
B. suprabony pockets. Following periodontal surgery, the curetted
C. thick osseous ledges. root surface is repopulated by cells derived
D. mucogingival problems. from all of the following tissues EXCEPT
A. periodontal ligament.
B. cementum.
Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical C. alveolar bone.
cemento-osseous dysplasia) D. epithelium.
E. gingival connective tissue.
A. is associated with a vital tooth.
B. is found mainly in children.
C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern.
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In radiography, minimum magnification and For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local
maximum definition are achieved by anesthesia
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and A. affects blood pressure more than general
minimum FFD (focal-film distance). anesthesia.
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and B. affects blood pressure less than general
maximum FFD (focal-film distance). anesthesia.
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance) C. is responsible for bacteremia.
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body
of the zygoma is
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What is the most probable syndrome affecting A patient with complete dentures complains of
a 9 year old patient with a history of 3 clicking. The most common causes are
keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic
keratocyst)? A. reduced vertical dimension and
improperly balanced occlusion.
A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome B. excessive vertical dimension and poor
(Gorlin Syndrome). retention.
B. Familial colorectal polyposis (Gardner’s C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too
Syndrome). little horizontal overlap.
C. Crouzon Syndrome. D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and
D. Apert Syndrome. excessive anterior vertical overlap.
The smear layer present on the root canal wall Which of the following drugs does NOT cause
after cleaning and shaping is best removed by gingival enlargement?
using
A. Nifedipine.
A. EDTA. B. Cyclosporine.
B. hydrogen peroxide. C. Phenytoin.
C. chlorhexidine. D. Prednisolone.
D. isopropyl alcohol.
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A. Carbamazepine.
B. Warfarin.
Ideally, within how many hours should one C. Morphine.
receive medical attention for percutaneous D. Clindamycin.
exposure to blood borne pathogens?
A. 2.
B. 4. The local anesthetic technique requiring the
C. 6. needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the
D. 8.
A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block.
B. Gow-Gates block.
C. Vazirani-Akinosi block.
The maximum recommended number of 1.8ml D. inferior alveolar nerve block.
cartridges of 2% lidocaine with
epinephrine 1:100,000 that may be safely
administered to a 17kg child is approximately
When will infiltrating new blood vessels be
A. 0.5. histologically detectable following a free
B. 1. gingival graft?
C. 1.5.
D. 2. A. 2 to 3 hours.
E. 2.5. B. 2 to 3 days.
C. 2 to 3 weeks.
D. 2 to 3 months.
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Biocompatibility tests conducted in vitro The condyle of the mandible is unique because
In order to prevent gingival recession, a full Widening of the periodontal ligament space is
gold crown should have NOT seen radiographically in
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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The most appropriate radiograph(s) to The small bubble normally seen in a local
determine the location of an impacted anesthetic cartridge is
maxillary cuspid is/are
A. nitrogen.
A. occlusal. B. air.
B. periapical. C. oxygen.
C. periapical and occlusal. D. a breakdown product.
D. panoramic.
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A. phenol.
B. 70% ethyl alcohol. A lateral force applied to the crown of a tooth
C. chlorhexidine. will result in the crown moving
D. absolute alcohol.
E. None of the above. A. in one direction and the root apex in the
opposite direction.
B. in the same direction as the root apex.
C. along the line of force while the root apex
Which periodontal pathogen can use the remains stationary.
hormone estrogen as a growth factor?
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus) Healthy attached gingiva
actinomycetemcomitans.
C. Prevotella intermedia. A. has no basal cell layer.
D. Tannerella forsythia. B. is closely bound to underlying
periosteum.
C. contains elastic fibers.
D. has no rete pegs.
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Which of the following is a clinical The most appropriate material of choice for
CONTRAINDICATION for an all-ceramic obturating the root canal system of a primary
maxillary anterior crown? tooth is
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A. Paresthesia.
Presence of bleeding on probing B. Constipation.
C. Anoxia.
A. is indicative of current inflammation. D. Lethargy.
B. is indicative of past inflammation.
C. has a high positive predictive value (PPV)
for further attachment loss.
On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the
age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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and translation.
A. a genetic disease.
The collimator of an X ray tube B. caused by exposure to radiation.
C. a viral infection.
A. produces a more homogeneous X ray D. a drug reaction.
beam. E. an auto-immune disease.
B. prevents secondary radiation.
C. focuses the X ray beam.
D. restricts the diameter of the X ray beam.
Blue sclera is characteristic of
A. osteopetrosis.
The most significant factor in the predictable B. osteogenesis imperfecta.
correction of an anterior crossbite is the C. osteitis deformans.
D. fibrous dysplasia.
A. age of the patient.
B. degree of incisor overbite.
C. shape of the incisors.
D. amount of mesio-distal spacing. The principal microorganism in localized
aggressive periodontitis is
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
The most appropriate restoration for a primary B. Fusobacterium nucleatum.
first molar with extensive carious destruction of C. Aggregatobacter (Actinobacillus)
the crown is a actinomycetemcomitans.
D. Prevotella intermedia.
A. posterior composite resin.
B. pin retained amalgam.
C. stainless steel crown.
D. resin-modified glass ionomer. What is the most likely diagnosis of an
ulcerated gingival lesion whose biopsy report
confirms epithelial basal layer separation from
the lamina propria?
A. An aphthous ulcer.
B. Erosive lichen planus.
C. Pemphigus vulgaris.
D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
(cicatricial pemphigoid).
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and translation.
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and translation.
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A. A-alpha.
B. A-beta.
C. A-gamma.
D. A-delta and C.
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A. rapid redistribution.
B. rapid renal excretion.
C. rapid metabolism.
D. build up of tolerance.
E. conjugation with serum proteins.
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A. sweat glands.
The best way to protect the abutments of a B. implanted epithelium.
Class I removable partial denture from the C. cystic formations.
negative effects of the additional load applied D. sebaceous glands.
to them is by E. hyperkeratosis.
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Which of the following root surfaces have Excessive flare of the distobuccal cavosurface
concavities that make root planing difficult? margin of a Class II amalgam cavity
preparation will result in
A. Mesial of maxillary first premolars.
B. Lingual of mandibular first premolars. A. unsupported enamel at the margin.
C. Mesial of maxillary incisors. B. weak amalgam at the margin.
D. Distal of the palatal roots of maxillary C. poor retention.
molars. D. poor esthetics.
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A. hypercementosis.
B. root resorption. The most likely complication associated with
C. alteration of the lamina dura. the extraction of an isolated maxillary second
D. widening of the periodontal ligament molar is
space.
E. ankylosis. A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
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A. thyroxin. A. Cellulitis.
B. hydrocortisone. B. Abscess.
C. parathyroid hormone. C. Pyogenic granuloma.
D. estrogen. D. Aphthous ulcer.
Increased tooth mobility and the absence of Pyogenic granuloma is most frequently found
lamina dura are signs of on the
A. hyperthyroidism. A. tongue.
B. hyperpituitarism. B. gingiva.
C. hyperparathyroidism. C. buccal mucosa.
D. scleroderma. D. tonsillar pillars.
E. lips.
Collagen
An 8 year old patient presents 4 hours post-
A. is most common in hard tissues. trauma with an oblique crown fracture of 2.1
B. forms insoluble high tensile strength exposing 2mm of vital pulp. The most
fibres. appropriate pulpal treatment is
C. has a triple helical structure.
D. All of the above. A. apexogenesis.
B. apexification.
C. extraction.
D. root canal treatment.
Which of the following presents with high
serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone
and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting
teeth?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hypoparathyroidism.
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What is the earliest age to confirm the The most common primary tooth to become
diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular ankylosed is a
second premolar?
A. maxillary molar.
A. 1 year. B. mandibular molar.
B. 3 years. C. maxillary canine.
C. 5 years. D. mandibular canine.
D. 7 years.
A. aphthous stomatitis.
In teeth with pulp necrosis, the periapical area B. candidiasis.
is involved if there is pain C. periodontal abscess.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
A. to thermal stimuli.
B. on percussion.
C. to electric pulp testing.
D. when the patient is lying down.
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The most frequent location of a dentigerous Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most
cyst is the commonly found in the
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen Which of the following modifications to the
(HBsAg) and hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) in standard procedure for mixing gypsum
blood indicates the individual products will increase the compressive strength
of the set material?
A. is infectious for hepatitis B.
B. has acquired immunity to hepatitis B. A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
C. is not infectious for hepatitis B and has not water before mixing.
acquired immunity to hepatitis B. B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
D. has never been infected with hepatitis B. small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
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The most common risk associated with vital Which of the following is the most frequent
bleaching using 10% carbamide peroxide in a major congenital malformation of the head and
custom tray is neck?
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Veillonella species in supragingival plaque What is the name of the area in which the resin
of the adhesive system micromechanically
A. act symbiotically with S. mutans to interlocks with dentinal collagen?
decrease pH and promote caries activity.
B. convert lactate to acetic and propionic A. Active zone.
acid. B. Smear layer.
C. enhance the progression of caries by C. Hybrid layer.
metabolizing sucrose. D. Adhesive zone.
D. act as pioneer microorganisms in the
development of plaque.
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Local anesthetics
A. do not readily pass the blood-brain barrier. Mean x-ray beam energy is a function of
B. interfere with the propagation of action
potentials in nerve fibres. A. exposure time.
C. selectively interfere with the propagation B. tube current.
of action potentials in nociceptive fibres. C. tube voltage.
D. do not have an effect on any other tissue D. collimation.
than the nervous tissue.
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A. 20% more sensitive than D speed film. A lower molar requiring a crown has an
B. 40% more sensitive than D speed film. extensive MOD amalgam restoration. The
C. 60% more sensitive than D speed film. crown margin is most appropriately placed
D. 80% more sensitive than D speed film.
A. on the existing amalgam.
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
The best method to control the setting time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid without affecting
its physical properties is to alter the
Following premature deciduous tooth loss,
A. water temperature. space loss occurs most frequently in the area of
B. water:powder ratio. the
C. mixing time.
D. composition. A. maxillary lateral incisor.
B. mandibular central incisor.
C. mandibular second premolar.
D. maxillary first premolar.
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What is the alloy of choice for the framework A. line voltage fluctuation.
of a resin-bonded fixed bridge? B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
A. Nickel-chromium. C. type of timer.
B. Gold-palladium. D. tissue density.
C. Gold-silver. E. filter thickness.
D. Gold-platinum-palladium.
A. glossitis. A. contracts.
B. lingual ulceration(s). B. is stronger.
C. parotid swelling. C. is more porous.
D. gastric hyperacidity. D. is less brittle.
High humidity in a room where zinc oxide and In the presence of an acute bacterial infection,
eugenol impression paste is being mixed will laboratory tests will show an increase in
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and translation.
A. zygomatic bones and the external ears. A. Inverted V-shape (base towards dentino-
B. mandible and the external nose. enamel junction).
C. maxilla and the muscles of facial B. V-shape (apex towards dentino-enamel
expression. junction).
D. palate and the hyoid bone. C. Inverted U-shape (base towards dentino-
enamel junction).
D. U-shape (apex towards dentino-enamel
junction).
A fixed partial denture with a single pontic is
deflected a certain amount, a span of two
similar pontics will deflect
A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9
A. the same amount. year old should
B. twice as much.
C. four times as much. A. self-correct.
D. eight times as much. B. be treated with a removable appliance.
C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment.
D. be treated in the complete permanent
dentition.
The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is E. be observed and treated when the cuspids
have erupted.
A. the same as the proportional limit.
B. decreased by work hardening.
C. the same as the stress at fracture.
D. higher than the proportional limit. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most
likely has
A. polymerization shrinkage.
B. dimensional stability.
C. by-product formation.
D. linear expansion.
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Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection A. Respect the patient’s request regarding
reduces the confidentiality.
B. Report her injuries to an adult protection
A. toxicity of local anesthetic. agency.
B. toxicity of vasoconstrictor. C. Forward all information, including the
C. possibility of intravascular administration. source of the injuries, to the specialist.
D. possibility of paresthesia. D. Report the situation to a relevant child
protection agency.
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A. 7/8. A. Elongation.
B. 9/10. B. Foreshortening.
C. 11/12. C. Increased opacity.
D. 13/14. D. Widened periodontal ligament space.
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The management of syncope following local What is the most likely cause of a maxillary
anesthetic administration does NOT include denture dislodging when the patient opens wide
or makes extreme lateral excursions?
A. elevating the legs.
B. placing in a supine position. A. Insufficient posterior palatal seal.
C. administering oxygen. B. Poor denture base adaptation.
D. ensuring the airway is open. C. Labial frenum impingement.
E. administering epinephrine. D. Coronoid process interference.
E. Pronounced midpalatal raphe.
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For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute In primary teeth, a pulpotomy using calcium
localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment hydroxide
must include
A. will cause an acute inflammatory reaction.
A. scaling and root planing. B. is successful treatment in 90 percent of
B. occlusal adjustment. cases.
C. prescription of an antibiotic. C. will cause internal resorption.
D. prescription of an analgesic. D. is the treatment of choice for small
mechanical exposures.
E. will stimulate apical closure.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. low solubility.
B. wear resistance.
C. adhesion to hard tooth tissues. Repair of periodontal tissues is the replacement
D. low incidence of sensitivity. of lost tissue with one that is similar in
A. function.
B. structure.
A person who has sickle cell anemia may show C. structure and function.
certain radiographic changes in the bones of the
skull. These changes may be
A. proportional limit.
B. modulus of elasticity.
C. ultimate tensile strength.
D. flow.
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and translation.
A. Apexification.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulp capping.
D. Pulpectomy.
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and translation.
A. Steam autoclave.
B. Dry heat oven.
The microorganism most commonly associated C. Ethylene oxide method.
with root surface caries is D. Glass bead sterilizer.
E. Alcohol autoclave.
A. Actinomyces viscosus.
B. Streptococcus mutans.
C. Streptococcus salivarius.
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus. A 22 year old patient has been experiencing
general malaise, fever, sore throat and
coughing for one week. There are multiple
ulcerations of the oral mucosa, crusting of the
Prior to cementing an onlay in a vital tooth lips and red circular lesions on the palms of the
using a resin cement, the application of cavity hands. The most likely diagnosis is
varnish will
A. gonorrhea.
A. protect the pulp. B. infectious mononucleosis.
B. improve seal. C. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
C. reduce prevent postoperative sensitivity. D. AIDS.
D. reduce bond strength. E. erythema multiforme.
E. reduce microleakage.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. penicillin V.
B. cephalexin. With age, dentinal tubules become occluded
C. tetracycline. because odontoblast cellular projections
D. vancomycin.
A. produce organic molecules.
B. swell and expand.
C. absorb dentinal fluid.
In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment D. deposit more mineral.
for a chronically infected, non-restorable
primary first molar is to
A. extract it and place a space maintainer. If a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy
B. observe it until it exfoliates. requires the replacement of a large MOD
C. extract it only. amalgam restoration with extensive recurrent
D. observe it until it becomes symptomatic. caries and thermal sensitivity, the most
appropriate treatment is to
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The permanent anterior tooth that exhibits the A. Distal surfaces of mandibular canines.
greatest variation in size and shape is the B. Distal surfaces of maxillary canines.
C. Mesial surfaces of maxillary central
A. maxillary central incisor. incisors.
B. maxillary lateral incisor. D. Mesial surfaces of maxillary first
C. mandibular central incisor. premolars.
D. mandibular lateral incisor.
Duraflor®
An anterior open bite is commonly associated
with A. is only effective on dry, plaque-free teeth.
B. can remineralize early root carious lesions.
A. a horizontal growth pattern. C. causes unsightly stain on exposed roots.
B. a functional shift. D. should only be used on individuals in
C. an associated habit. unfluoridated areas.
D. a normal swallowing reflex.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A rubber dam should be used in A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel
on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This
A. pulp capping procedures. was most probably caused by a/an
B. amalgam placement.
C. composite placement. A. vitamin D deficiency.
D. removing carious dentin from deep B. generalized calcium deficiency.
lesions. C. high fever encountered by the patient
E. all of the above. when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
Pulp polyp is
A. Fracture.
Gingivectomy is recommended B. Discolouration.
C. Internal resorption.
A. when the bottom of the pocket is apical to D. External root resorption.
the mucogingival junction.
B. to eliminate the suprabony pockets when
the pocket wall is fibrous and firm.
C. to treat moderately deep pockets with
mild intrabony defects.
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and translation.
A. centric relation.
B. balancing occlusion.
C. either centric relation or balancing
occlusion.
D. horizontal protrusive relation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The most appropriate recall interval for an 8 Unconsciousness in syncope results from
year old patient with high caries risk is
A. electrolyte imbalance.
A. 3 months. B. neurogenic shock.
B. 6 months. C. cerebral hyperemia.
C. 9 months. D. cerebral hypoxia.
D. 12 months.
A. organic pellicle.
B. mechanical locking to tooth/root
irregularities.
C. close adaption to cementum.
D. hemidesmosomes.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. palate.
B. floor of the mouth.
C. gingiva. Administration of which of the following is
D. buccal mucosa. most likely to predispose a patient to seizures?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Codeine.
Patients with resistance to activated protein C C. Ibuprofen.
(factor V Leiden) are at risk for D. Ketorolac.
E. Meperidine.
A. fibrinolysis.
B. bleeding diatheses.
C. thrombocytopenia.
D. hypercoagulation. Immediately following an inferior alveolar
E. erythrocytosis. nerve block, the patient exhibits facial
paralysis. The needle has penetrated through
which ligament?
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and translation.
A. 0. A. amide.
B. 1. B. ester.
C. 2. C. aldehyde.
D. 4. D. ethamine.
E. aminide.
A. galvanic shock.
B. reversible pulpitis.
Which of the following epithelial changes is C. gingival irritation.
most likely to be precancerous? D. cracked tooth syndrome.
A. Acanthosis.
B. Hyperkeratosis.
C. Parakeratosis. Which of the following processes is NOT
D. Dysplasia. active in causing tooth eruption?
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
When prescribing nonsteroidal anti- A patient telephones and tells you he has just
inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), it is important knocked out his front tooth but that it is still
to consider that prostaglandins intact. Your instructions should be to
A. impair blood coagulation. A. put the tooth in water and come to your
B. induce vasoconstriction. office at the end of the day.
C. prevent edema. B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
D. protect the gastric mucosa. office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
Trauma from occlusion your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
A. initiates gingivitis. office immediately.
B. affects the blood supply to gingivae.
C. initiates periodontitis.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. root smoothness.
B. absence of plaque.
Enlargement of the gingiva, described as C. absence of bleeding upon probing.
idiopathic fibromatosis, is best described as D. increased sulcular fluid flow.
A. degeneration.
B. inflammation.
C. hyperplasia. Premature loss of a primary maxillary second
D. neoplasia. molar usually produces a malocclusion in the
permanent dentition that is characterized by
A. anterior crowding.
Which of the following is most often associated B. labially displaced maxillary canines.
with a nonvital tooth? C. delayed eruption of the permanent first
molar.
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. D. an Angle Class II molar relationship on
B. Internal resorption. the affected side.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. E. an Angle Class III molar relationship on
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. the affected side.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
In dental radiology, patient protection from A. increase the strength of the denture.
radiation is most important for B. maintain the alveolar ridge morphology.
C. improve periodontal health of abutment
A. patients receiving antibiotics. teeth.
B. patients receiving corticosteroids. D. decrease costs.
C. individuals over fifty-years of age.
D. pregnant women.
E. young adults.
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and translation.
Which of the following does NOT describe the The facial growth spurt
energy of x-ray photons exiting the x-ray unit?
A. occurs in males before females.
A. Normally distributed. B. starts on average at 7 years for females.
B. Mono-energetic. C. starts on average at 13 years for males.
C. Proportional to frequency. D. parallels body growth.
D. Inversely proportional to wavelength.
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and translation.
A. Gingival curettage.
B. Modified Widman flap.
C. Osseous resective surgery.
D. Guided tissue regeneration.
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and translation.
A. gram-positive microorganisms.
B. aerobic microorganisms.
C. gram-negative microorganisms. Which disorder is associated with
D. viruses. hypercementosis of teeth?
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Fibrous dysplasia.
In an Angle’s Class I occlusion, the cusp of C. Cherubism.
which permanent tooth is in contact with the D. Hyperparathyroidism.
central fossa of the mandibular first molar?
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and translation.
A. Serum phosphorus.
B. Serum calcium.
C. Thyroid activity. The greatest dimensional change in denture
D. Serum alkaline phosphatase. bases will occur
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A protrusive relation record should be made by Gingival connective tissue fibres are primarily
instructing the patient to protrude the mandible composed of
A. 3-6mm. A. collagen.
B. 7-10mm. B. reticulin.
C. 11-13mm. C. elastin.
D. oxytalin.
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and translation.
A. after the teeth have been set on the trial A. stimulates dentin repair.
denture. B. occludes dentinal tubules.
B. immediately after making the final casts. C. desensitizes the pulp.
C. upon delivery of the denture. D. chelates to tooth structure.
D. after the diagnosis and treatment plan has
been established.
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and translation.
A. microleakage.
B. accumulation of plaque. The most common method of entry of infection
C. overhanging margins. by the tubercle bacillus is
D. electro-chemical action.
A. inhalation.
B. ingestion.
C. needle-stick.
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and translation.
A. incipient.
Proper collimation of the useful beam for film B. Class I.
size and focal spot-film distance reduces C. Class II.
D. Class III.
A. image definition.
B. secondary radiation.
C. radiographic contrast.
D. intensity of the central beam. A single hypoplastic defect located on the
labial surface of a maxillary central incisor is
most likely due to a/an
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Charcot's arthritis.
B. osteoarthritis. "Cuspid guided occlusion" occurs when the
C. ankylosis.
D. arthrosis. A. teeth on the nonworking side make
contact in lateral excursions.
B. teeth on the working side make contact in
lateral excursions.
The primary reason for placing a surgical C. canine and lateral incisors make contact in
dressing after a gingivectomy is to lateral excurison.
D. posterior teeth make no contact in lateral
A. prevent hemorrhage. excursions on the working side.
B. protect the wound.
C. stabilize the teeth.
D. protect the sutures.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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and translation.
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. geographic tongue.
C. lichen planus.
D. atrophic glossitis.
E. mucosal pigmentation.
A. leukocytosis.
B. leukopenia.
C. thrombocythemia.
D. thrombocytopenia.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. sleeping habits.
B. growth discrepancy.
C. tooth size - jaw size discrepancy.
D. trauma.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Before performing surgery on a patient who is Which of the following is the most active cell
taking warfarin, which of the following should in synthesizing and secreting antibodies?
be evaluated?
A. Mast cell.
A. Bleeding time. B. Macrophage.
B. Clotting time. C. Eosinophilic granulocyte.
C. Prothrombin time. D. Plasma cell.
D. Coagulation time. E. T-cell lymphocyte.
A patient has significant pain and a fluctuant If mucous glands are seen in the epithelial
swelling of the left cheek. Clinical and lining of a dentigerous cyst, this is most
radiographic examinations confirm a severe appropriately called
odontogenic infection associated with a carious
nonrestorable tooth 2.3. The most appropriate A. anaplasia.
initial management is to B. metaplasia.
C. dysplasia.
A. establish drainage. D. neoplasia.
B. recommend a hot compress. E. hyperplasia.
C. prescribe an antibiotic.
D. prescribe analgesics.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The most significant factor in determining the The success of replantation of an avulsed tooth
prognosis of complete anterior crossbite is dependent upon
correction is the
A. length of time between avulsion and
A. age of patient. replantation.
B. depth of the overbite. B. completion of endodontic therapy before
C. amount of crowding of the mandibular replantation.
arch. C. immersing the tooth in fluoride solution
D. amount of crowding of the maxillary arch. before replantation.
D. using calcium hydroxide as a treatment
root canal filling.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. When you eat doughnuts and soft drinks, A. Keratocystic odontogenic tumour
because of all the sugar in them you’ll get (odontogenic keratocyst).
cavities. B. Traumatic bone cyst.
B. Bacteria in your mouth are the main cause C. Radicular cyst.
of caries. D. Lateral periodontal cyst.
C. Not brushing your teeth means the sugar
from your snack attacks your teeth for
about twenty minutes.
D. The ‘bugs’ in your mouth eat the sugar in A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
the food you eat, and change it into acid with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
which can make holes in your teeth. taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth, C. normal rest position.
which of the following is most likely to be D. maximum opening.
misdiagnosed as proximal caries? E. protrusive position.
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
B. Marginal ridge.
C. Carabelli cusp. Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip occur
D. Calculus. most frequently on the
E. Cemental tear.
A. commissures.
B. lower lip near the midline.
C. inner surface of upper lip.
The placement of a reverse curve in a Class II D. inner surface of lower lip.
amalgam preparation aids in E. upper lip near the midline.
A. retention form.
B. resistance form.
C. convenience form.
D. outline form.
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and translation.
A. Have him drink 175ml of diet cola. A. periodontally involved abutment teeth.
B. Give him 15g of glucose as tablets or in a B. long clinical crowns.
solution. C. deep vertical anterior overlap.
C. Have him eat a chocolate bar. D. cantilever pontic.
D. Dismiss the patient and advise him to eat. E. evidence of bruxism.
Which of the following is an indication for the Ankylosed primary second molars may
use of occlusal sealants? clinically exhibit
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Epinephrine.
B. Nitroglycerin. Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually
C. Oxygen. due to
D. Morphine.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid. A. a candida infection.
B. an ill fitting denture.
C. failure to remove the denture at night.
D. an allergy to the denture material.
Management of a “dry socket” should include
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. hypercementosis.
Which of the following analyses is most B. reversible pulpitis.
appropriate for use in an adult patient? C. pulpal microabscess.
D. acute periradicular periodontitis.
A. Moyers.
B. Bolton.
C. Tanaka-Johnston.
In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive
condylar path inclination has its primary
influence on the morphology of
In a dental office, what is the most common
cause of respiratory distress? A. cusp height.
B. anterior teeth only.
A. Anaphylaxis. C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and
B. Bronchospasm. distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
C. Hyperventilation. D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and
D. Myocardial infarction. distal inclines of maxillary cusps.
A benign neoplasm of bone is called a/an The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to
A. fibrous dysplasia. that of lesions which occur in
B. osteoma.
C. torus. A. hyperparathyroidism.
D. sarcoma. B. Paget's disease.
E. osteosarcoma. C. cleidocranial dysplasia.
D. hyperpituitarism.
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and translation.
A. diplopia.
B. dyspnea.
An extreme overjet, a recessive chin and a deep C. malocclusion.
labial mento-labial sulcus are common findings D. facial paralysis.
in which facial type? E. orbital swelling.
A. Prognathic.
B. Orthognathic.
C. Retrognathic. What is the threshold count of S. mutans in
mixed saliva at which a patient is deemed “high
risk” for caries?
A. 100/ml.
B. 10,000/ml.
C. 1,000,000/ml.
D. 100,000,000/ml.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Which of the following is NOT a true cyst? Accessory root canals develop because root
odontoblasts fail to
A. Dentigerous cyst.
B. Simple bone cyst/traumatic bone cyst. A. produce matrix.
C. Radicular cyst. B. survive.
D. Nasopalatine cyst. C. divide.
D. differentiate.
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee. A patient on anticoagulant drugs who requires
D. support respiration with oxygen. an extraction has a prothrombin time of 20
seconds. The normal value is 15 seconds. The
most appropriate management is to
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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and translation.
A. Arthrography.
Premature loss of a primary maxillary second B. Computed tomography.
molar usually produces a malocclusion in the C. Magnetic resonance imaging.
permanent dentition that is characterized by D. Corrected conventional tomography.
A. anterior crowding.
B. labially displaced maxillary canines.
C. delayed eruption of the permanent first The principal ingredient of a zinc phosphate
molar. cement powder is
D. a Class II molar relationship on the
affected side. A. zinc phosphate.
E. a Class III molar relationship on the B. silica.
affected side. C. magnesium oxide.
D. zinc-oxide.
E. calcium hydroxide.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. primary retention.
B. indirect retention.
C. occlusal force transmission. A patient had a coronary arterial stent placed 1
D. lateral force transmission. year ago following a myocardial infarction and
has been asymptomatic since. The most
appropriate management is to
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Smoking tobacco.
B. Poorly controlled diabetes.
C. Coronary heart disease. Ocular lesions may be associated with
D. Poor oral hygiene.
A. lichen planus.
B. herpangina.
C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
D. leukoplakia.
E. mucous membrane pemphigoid
(cicatricial pemphigoid).
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and translation.
A. Tooth erupted more than one year. Compared with zinc-phosphate cement,
B. Deep, narrow fissures. polycarboxylate cement has
C. Inadequate moisture control.
D. Community water supply fluoridated at A. longer working time.
1.0ppm. B. lower film thickness.
C. increased compressive strength.
D. superior biologic compatibility.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. 120/80.
Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic injection B. 140/90.
reduces the C. 160/110.
D. 180/110.
A. toxicity of local anesthetic.
B. toxicity of vasoconstrictor.
C. possibility of intravascular administration.
D. possibility of paresthesia. Recurrent herpes labialis is
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. hyperemia. A. hydroxyzine.
B. supraocclusion. B. epinephrine.
C. dentin hypersensitivity. C. hydrocortisone.
D. acute pulpitis. D. diphenhydramine.
A patient presents with pain from tooth 4.7 The current recommended regimen of
which is an abutment for a 4 unit bridge from antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a
4.4 to 4.7. Clinical and radiographic prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to
examinations reveal tooth 4.7 has extensive penicillin is
distal caries and apical radiolucency. The most
appropriate initial management is to A. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before
procedure; then 1.5g six hours after initial
A. prescribe an antibiotic and an analgesic dose.
and reappoint the patient. B. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before
B. perform endodontic therapy through the procedure only.
4.7 crown. C. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour
C. section the bridge at 4.4, remove 4.7 before procedure; then 150mg six hours
crown and assess 4.7. after initial dose.
D. remove entire bridge and assess D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
restorability of abutments. before procedure only.
E. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two hours
before procedure only.
A. Codeine.
B. Penicillin V.
C. Acetaminophen.
D. Magnesium trisilicate.
E. None of the above.
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and translation.
A. greater.
An overjet of 8mm is most often associated B. smaller.
with which molar realationship? C. the same.
A. Class I.
B. Class II.
C. Class III. For a patient with dementia, aphasia is
characterized by a diminished ability to
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and translation.
A. Erythema multiforme.
B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
C. Hand-foot-mouth disease. Clinical examination of a 15 year old girl
D. Herpetiform aphtaus ulcers. shows permanent central incisors, permanent
canines and primary canines all in contact and
anterior to the premolars. The most likely
cause is
Which of the following conditions may result
from horizontally brushing the teeth? A. ankylosed permanent canines.
B. ankylosed primary canines.
A. Erosion. C. impacted permanent lateral incisors.
B. Abrasion. D. congenitally missing permanent lateral
C. Attrition. incisors.
D. Hypoplasia.
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and translation.
Anginal pain is
A. provoked by exercise or cold weather. After initial setting, a chemically cured glass
B. not relieved by rest. ionomer cement restoration should have a
C. relieved by digoxin. coating agent applied to
D. aggravated by deep inspiration.
A. hasten the final set.
B. protect the cement from moisture.
C. retard the final set.
After setting, alginate impressions D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light.
E. create a smooth finish.
A. absorb water.
B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours.
C. have higher tear strength than
polyvinylsiloxane impressions. During normal growth, the gnathion, as viewed
D. can be poured twice with little effect on on successive cephalograms, will move
accuracy of the resulting cast.
A. downward and backward.
B. downward and forward.
C. backward and upward.
The most common complication of a D. forward only.
venipuncture is
A. syncope.
B. hematoma. The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray
C. thrombophlebitis. beam is to
D. embolus.
A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage during
exposure.
B. filter out useless short wavelength rays.
Which porcelain stain colour is added to give C. permit use of the long cone technique.
the appearance of translucency? D. reduce the diameter of the primary beam.
E. reduce exposure time.
A. Grey.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. White.
E. Orange.
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and translation.
The hydrophilicity of an impression material is Assuming the daily maximum is not exceeded,
defined by its which of the following is/are appropriate for
pain management for an adult with a history of
A. high water absorption. severe asthma and nasal polyps following an
B. small contact angle. emergency pulpectomy?
C. osmotic property.
D. water content. A. Naproxen 250 mg, every 6 to 8 hours.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid 650 mg every
4 hours.
C. Ketorolac 10 mg every 4 hours.
The purpose of phenidone in radiographic D. Acetaminophen 1000 mg every 6 hours.
developing solution is to chemically
The histopathologic changes in chronic Which of the following is NOT used to inhibit
gingivitis are characterized by calcification of plaque?
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and translation.
A. enhance regeneration.
B. encourage wound healing.
C. facilitate plaque control.
D. create new attachment.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Periapical. A. underdevelopment.
B. Occlusal. B. overexposure.
C. Bitewing. C. backward placement of the film.
D. Lateral jaw. D. too little milliamperage.
E. Panoramic.
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and translation.
A. ductility.
B. hardness. When preparing a posterior tooth for an
C. resistance to corrosion. extensive amalgam restoration, a retentive pin
D. strength. hole preparation should be placed
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and translation.
Fractured incisal angles in the permanent teeth Epinephrine should NOT be used as a
of adolescent patients are best restored using vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled
A. glass-ionomer. A. hyperthyroidism.
B. gold castings. B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. full coverage restorations. C. myxedema.
D. acid etch composite resin techniques. D. asthma.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Which of the following conditions requires Which of the following is the most acceptable
further information prior to making a decision extraction pattern in the management of an
regarding antibiotic prophylaxis before a Angle Class II malocclusion in a non-growing
surgical procedure? patient? Extraction of
Which of the following is characteristic of an The most common sensory change in the
antral pseudocyst? healthy elderly is a decrease in
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and translation.
One week following extraction of teeth 1.8 and A. a full complement of teeth.
4.8, an 18 year old male returns to the dental B. antero-posterior skeletal relationship of
office complaining of persistent bleeding from maxilla to mandible.
the extraction sites. The medical history is C. antero-posterior relationship of maxillary
unremarkable, except for episodes of bruising and mandibular first permanent molars.
and joint swelling as a child. Subsequent blood D. vertical relationships in the lower face.
tests show normal bleeding time and a factor
VIII level of 14%. The most likely cause of the
bleeding is
Which type of headgear is most appropriate for
A. a dry socket. the management of a 10 year old patient with
B. ibuprofen intake. an increased lower third of the face,
C. hemophilia A. incompetent lips, an Angle Class II
D. cirrhosis of the liver. malocclusion and vertical maxillary excess?
E. vitamin K deficiency.
A. High-pull.
B. Cervical.
C. Combination.
For sterilization to occur in an autoclave, the D. Protraction.
packaged instruments are subjected to
pressurized
A. steam.
B. chemical vapour.
C. boiling water.
D. heated air.
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A. asymptomatic vital teeth with completely The proposed mechanism by which a calcium
formed apices. hydroxide preparation initiates secondary
B. asymptomatic vital teeth with dentin formation in direct pulp cappings is by
incompletely formed apices.
C. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with A. releasing calcium ions.
completely formed apices. B. stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to
D. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with lay down dentin.
incompletely formed apices. C. stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei
of the first order.
D. stimulating undifferentiated cells of the
tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts.
Which of the following is the greatest risk
factor for rampant caries in children?
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and translation.
A. Rongeur.
A 45 year old, overweight man reports that his B. Root tip elevator.
wife complains that he snores. The initial C. Cow horn forceps.
management of the patient’s snoring problem is D. Maxillary universal forceps.
to
A. Hematoma.
B. Ulceration.
Polymerization reactions which create water or C. Erythema.
alcohol by-products are called D. Fibromatosis.
A. addition reactions.
B. ring-opening.
C. cross-linking.
D. condensation reactions.
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and translation.
A. Cheese.
B. Dark chocolate. The disease-control phase of treatment includes
C. Jam.
D. Toffee. A. pit and fissure sealants.
B. fixed prosthodontics.
C. occlusal therapy.
D. orthodontic treament.
When compared to permanent molars, primary E. scaling and root planning.
molars have
A. longer roots.
B. proportionally narrower occlusal tables
buccolingually.
C. thicker enamel.
D. smaller pulp chambers relative to the
crown.
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and translation.
A. holes punched too far apart. A. Chronic pain has somatosensory and
B. holes punched too close together. psychosocial impacts.
C. too broad a rubber dam arch form. B. Pain persists only as long as the injury
D. too much tension on the rubber dam exists.
holder. C. Perception of acute and chronic pain
involves the same regions of the CNS.
D. Pain is a protective mechanism.
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and translation.
The most likely cause of tooth loss following a During an endodontic access preparation on
tunneling procedure to provide complete access tooth 3.6, a small perforation was produced in
for a mandibular Class III furcation the furcation area. What is the most appropriate
involvement is management?
A hardened gold alloy will exhibit The most appropriate antibiotic for a periapical
dental abscess is
A. less plastic deformation per unit of stress
than the same alloy in a softened A. penicillin V.
condition. B. cephalosporin.
B. greater plastic deformation per unit of C. erythromycin.
stress than the same alloy in a softened D. metronidazole.
condition. E. ampicillin.
C. no difference in the plastic deformation
per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or
soft condition.
The residual mercury content of the amalgam
restoration is significantly affected by
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and translation.
Which is the LEAST common type of adverse When gold or a gold alloy changes from a
reaction associated with the use of latex liquid to a solid state it
gloves?
A. expands.
A. Immediate type I allergic reaction. B. contracts.
B. Delayed hypersensitivity. C. corrodes.
C. Type IV immunologic reaction. D. becomes brittle.
D. Irritant contact dermatitis. E. work hardens.
The most appropriate procedure when a glove A hardened gold alloy will exhibit
has been punctured during a restorative
appointment is to A. less plastic deformation per unit of stress
than the same alloy in a softened
A. wash the gloved hands using antimicrobial condition.
soap and complete the procedure. B. greater plastic deformation per unit of
B. change the glove as soon as possible. stress than the same alloy in a softened
C. put on an overglove and complete the condition.
procedure. C. no difference in the plastic deformation
D. complete the procedure as expeditiously as per unit of stress of the alloy in hard or
possible. soft condition.
The most likely reason for extracting four first Which of the following antibiotics is the most
premolars in orthodontics is because of appropriate for a patient with an open fracture
of the mandible?
A. retrusive maxillary incisors.
B. an excessive overbite. A. Clarithromycin.
C. a tooth size/arch size discrepancy. B. Tetracycline.
D. posterior crossbite. C. Amoxicillin.
D. Erythromycin.
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and translation.
A 32 year old female patient complains of A tooth with a nonvital pulp may occasionally
fever, weight loss and general malaise. She has present radiographically with shortening or
a rash on the malar area and nose, as well as blunting of the apical tip of a root. The loss of
some irregularly shaped ulcerations on the apical cementum and dentin would be
buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis is classified as what type of resorption?
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A. Pulpectomy.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulp capping.
D. Apicoectomy.
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and translation.
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and translation.
Chlorhexidine is a
A 78 year old patient presents with several
A. quaternary ammonium compound. carious lesions on the root surfaces of the
B. bisbiguanide compound. maxillary posterior teeth. The restorative
C. phenol. material of choice is a
D. plant extract.
A. microfilled composite resin.
B. hybrid composite resin.
C. silver amalgam.
Dental amalgams that are made from alloys D. glass ionomer cement.
containing 6% copper, compared to those made E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol
from alloys containing 13% copper cement.
A. bacteria.
B. a virus.
C. mycoplasma. The rate limiting step of tooth movement is
D. yeast.
A. bone deposition.
B. bone resorption.
C. force application.
The gingival margin of the preparation for a D. occlusal interference.
full crown on a molar, that satisfies the
requirements for retention and resistance,
ideally should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. 1.0mm subgingivally.
C. at the gingival margin.
D. supragingivally.
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and translation.
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and translation.
Which of the following best describes the A. have a lower "tear strength" than
radiation produced by high voltage? condensation silicone.
B. have a better dimensional stability than
A. Short wavelength, low energy. addition cured silicones.
B. Short wavelength, high energy. C. have a better detail reproduction than both
C. Long wavelength, high energy. condensation and addition polymerization
D. Long wavelength, low energy. silicones.
D. demonstrate, after polymerization, cross-
linking chains.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
In a fully erupted tooth with a healthy An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
periodontium, the apical end of the junctional oral malignancies is
epithelium is located
A. deformity of the jaws.
A. in the cervical third of the crown. B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
B. at the cemento-enamel junction. C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
C. 1.5 mm below the cemento-enamel D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
junction.
D. in the cervical third of the root.
A. bruxism.
B. caries.
C. periodontal disease.
D. use of a removable partial denture.
E. extraoral trauma.
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and translation.
Before performing surgery on a patient who is A. angular and box shaped with parallel
taking warfarin, which of the following should vertical walls.
be evaluated? B. rounded and spoon shaped.
C. flat and with an obtuse angle to the
A. Bleeding time. proximal surface of the tooth.
B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Coagulation time.
A vertical cross-section of a smooth surface
carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle
with the
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect A. base at the dentino-enamel junction.
prior to suturing the flap? B. base facing toward the pulp.
C. apex pointing to the enamel surface.
A. Corticosteroids. D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
B. Antibiotic powder. junction.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.
An endomorph is characterized as a person
who
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and translation.
A. mylohyoid muscle.
B. geniohyoid muscle. The facial profile most often associated with an
C. genioglossus muscle. Angle’s Class III malocclusion is
D. digastric muscle.
A. concave.
B. convex.
C. straight.
For an acid-etched Class III composite resin,
the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be
bevelled to
With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus
A. eliminate the need for internal retention. becomes predominantly populated by
B. improve convenience form.
C. aid in finishing. A. gram-positive organisms.
D. increase the surface area for etching. B. gram-negative organisms.
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.
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and translation.
A 28 year old male patient works long days that An ankylosed tooth is usually
typically include numerous soft drinks and
candy bars, but no opportunity to brush his A. nonvital.
teeth. He has continued to experience one to B. associated with a root fracture.
two carious lesions per year and now wants C. infraerupted.
orthodontic treatment to straighten his teeth. D. found in the permanent dentition.
Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial step in addressing behavior modification
for this patient?
The eruption of a maxillary permanent first
A. Providing a new toothbrush and sample molar is prevented by a slight interference with
tube of dentifrice. the crown of the primary second molar. Which
B. Illustrating, with the aid of drawings the of the following is the most appropriate
basic caries process. management?
C. Explaining how his present habits
increase his caries risk. A. Extract the primary molar.
D. Explain that treatment cannot be initiated B. Reduce the distal surface of the primary
until he can keep his teeth clean. molar.
C. Unlock the permanent first molar with
elastic and (or) separation wire.
D. Remove the soft tissue overlying the
In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be occlusal surface of the permanent molar.
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess E. Wait until more tuberosity growth occurs.
by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
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A. Crown tipping.
B. Root uprighting.
C. Crown rotation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The antibiotic of choice for infections of pulpal Which one of the following is the most
origin is common tumour of the salivary glands?
Elective endodontic treatment may be safely A 10 year old patient has poorly formed,
and successfully undertaken for all of the distorted permanent right maxillary canine,
following EXCEPT lateral and central incisors. The remaining teeth
and supporting structures are unremarkable.
A. hemophiliacs. The patient most likely has
B. patients with a history of rheumatic fever.
C. pregnant patients during first trimester. A. ectodermal dysplasia.
D. pregnant patients during second trimester. B. radicular dentin dysplasia.
C. regional odontodysplasia.
D. coronal dentin dysplasia.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Ameloblastoma.
Which of the following is true about incision B. Pleomorphic adenoma.
and drainage of an acute apical abscess C. Central giant cell granuloma.
(acute periradicular abscess)? D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
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and translation.
Local anesthetics are less effective in inflamed What is the most likely cause of food impaction
tissue because they are at the site of a recently placed Class II
composite resin restoration?
A. diluted by the edematous fluid.
B. rapidly redistributed by the increased A. Inadequate proximal contact.
blood flow. B. Gingival overhang.
C. ionized by the acidic pH. C. Inadequate marginal ridge morphology.
D. rapidly degraded by released enzymes. D. Poor oral hygiene.
In primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism, Which of the following has the highest rate of
which of the following will NOT be found? recurrence?
The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer Abnormalities in blood clotting may be
must have a/an associated with a deficiency of vitamin
A. Mikulicz's disease.
B. mumps or acute infectious parotitis.
C. mixed salivary tumours.
D. sialolithiasis.
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and translation.
Which of the following does NOT relieve pain? A decrease of which of the following is
indicative of hypoparathyroidism?
A. Codeine.
B. Methadone. A. Serum phosphorus.
C. Meperidine. B. Serum calcium.
D. Hydromorphone. C. Thyroid activity.
E. Chloral hydrate. D. Serum alkaline phosphatase.
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and translation.
A 4 year old child has a chronically infected Which of the following is the most common
non-restorable primary first molar. The most tumour of the parotid gland?
appropriate management is to
A. Pleomorphic adenoma.
A. extract it and place a space maintainer. B. Oncocytoma.
B. observe it until it exfoliates. C. Warthin’s tumor.
C. extract it. D. Canalicular adenoma.
D. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.
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A. adenovirus.
B. retrovirus.
C. picovirus.
D. coronavirus.
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and translation.
A. recurrent herpes.
Which of the following statements about B. traumatic ulcers.
alternate sweeteners is INCORRECT? C. pemphigus vulgaris.
D. aphthous ulcers.
A. Saccharin alone is not carcinogenic.
B. Xylitol is a polyol with the same sweetness
as sucrose.
C. Aspartame is a dipepitide of aspartic acid Amphetamines
and glutamic acid.
D. Cyclamate is not approved as a food A. increase mental alertness.
additive. B. increase salivation.
C. are antidopaminergics.
D. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.
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A. inject the joint with hydrocortisone. An infected pulp may cause a/an
B. inject the joint with a sclerosing solution.
C. have the patient exercise the mandible to A. keratocystic odontogenic tumour
avoid trismus. (odontogenic keratocyst).
D. immobilize for ten days. B. dentigerous cyst.
C. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical
cemento-osseous dysplasia).
D. simple bone cyst/traumatic bone cyst.
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the E. periradicular cyst.
A. gonial angle.
B. condylar cartilage.
C. posterior border of the ramus. The Silness-Löe Index measures
D. inferior and lateral aspects of the body of
the mandible. A. periodontal disease.
B. oral hygiene.
C. attachment level.
D. probing depth.
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Centric relation is a
Epidemiology of disease is best described as A. relation of the maxilla to the rest of the
the skull.
B. vertical relationship of the mandible to
A. data obtained from sickness surveys. the maxilla.
B. usual low level of disease normally found C. horizontal relationship of the mandible to
within a population. the maxilla.
C. control of disease. D. rest position of the mandible.
D. study of disease patterns in a population.
A. Cyclosporine.
B. Nifedipine.
C. Phenytoin.
D. Carbamazepine.
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A. penicillin V.
B. cephalexin.
C. tetracycline.
D. vancomycin.
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and translation.
A. syncope.
Lacrimation and flushing of the face are B. adrenal insufficiency.
autonomic phenomena that are occasionally C. hyperglycemia.
associated with trigeminal neuralgia involving D. hypoglycemia.
the maxillary nerve. This can be explained by E. carotid sinus reflex.
the nerve’s association with which ganglion?
A. Pterygopalatine.
B. Submandibular.
C. Trigeminal.
D. Otic.
E. Nasociliary.
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The function of the compensating curve is A preparation for a metal-ceramic crown with a
porcelain butt joint margin must have a
A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in
complete dentures when the mandible is A. 90o cavosurface margin.
protruded. B. subgingival margin.
B. to aid in establishing an incisal guide C. 1.2mm shoulder.
plane. D. 90o axiogingival angle.
C. the same as the function of the curve of
Spee.
A. lymph node.
B. sialolith.
C. phlebolith.
D. stylohyoid ligament.
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Titanium implants in the oral cavity are A common filler added to resin to produce
CONTRAINDICATED for patients who dental composites is
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A. Enamel.
Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for B. Oral mucosa.
dental films is influenced by C. Salivary gland.
D. Bone.
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer. Which of the following is consistent with
D. tissue density. reversible pulpitis?
E. filter thickness.
A. Discontinuous lamina dura and a
periapical radiolucency.
B. Draining sinus tract that traces to the apex
The eruption of a permanent central incisor of the tooth.
may be delayed by C. Pain to cold that ceases after removal of
the stimulus.
A. a supernumerary tooth. D. Painful response to percussion and
B. dense fibrous tissue. palpation.
C. a retained deciduous incisor.
D. All of the above.
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Osteomalacia is seen in
A. Pain.
B. Muscle tenderness.
C. Limitation of jaw motion.
D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the
joints.
E. Radiographic changes of the joint.
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A. Temporalis.
B. Lateral pterygoid. For a patient who exhibits bruxism, a cast gold
C. Masseter. inlay is superior to an amalgam because the
D. Medial pterygoid. inlay has
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and translation.
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and translation.
The instrument best suited for root planing is "Dental age" is defined as the
a/an
A. stage of dental maturation.
A. hoe. B. eruption time of a given tooth.
B. file. C. number of years elapsed since a given
C. curette. tooth has erupted.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
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A. Nystatin.
B. Acyclovir. Ultrasonic scalers are most effective in
C. Clindamycin.
D. Ampicillin. A. removal of supragingival calculus.
E. Metronidazole. B. removal of subgingival calculus.
C. removal of toxins from cementum.
D. planing root surfaces.
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A. Incisal.
B. Gingival.
C. Labial.
D. Lingual.
A. Medial pterygoids.
B. Geniohyoids.
C. Lateral pterygoids. The above diagram demonstrates a lateral view
D. Temporalis. of a tracing illustrating the border movements
of a mandibular incisor point in an Angle’s
Class I occlusion. The opening pathway from
maximum intercuspation follows
A periodontal screening and recording (PSR)
score of 3 for a sextant indicates that probing A. pathway A.
depth does NOT exceed B. pathway A and B.
C. pathway C.
A. 3.0mm. D. pathway H.
B. 3.5mm. E. none of these pathways.
C. 4.0mm.
D. 5.5mm.
E. 6.0mm.
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and translation.
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and translation.
Which of the following dental procedures All of the following are ways of characterizing
could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 the resistance of a material to permanent
year old patient with a severe bleeding deformation EXCEPT
disorder?
A. yield stress.
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block anesthesia. B. proportional limit.
B. Supragingival calculus removal. C. elastic limit.
C. Incisional biopsy. D. ultimate stress.
D. Subgingival restoration.
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and translation.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A patient presents with a chronic, purulent In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes
draining fistula in the right submandibular area. should be parallel to the
Culture results are inconclusive but
actinomycosis is suspected. Which of the A. long axis of the tooth.
following intravenous antibiotics is most B. nearest external surface.
appropriate for the management of the C. pulp chamber.
condition? D. axial wall.
A. Sulfonamide.
B. Aminoglycoside.
C. Cephalosporin. In general anaesthesia, the last part of the CNS
D. Erythromycin. (Central Nervous System) to be depressed is
E. Penicillin. the
A. medulla.
B. oblongata.
Intraosseous nutrient canals are most frequently C. midbrain.
seen on which of the following radiographs? D. cerebellum.
E. spinal cord.
A. Mandibular posterior periapical.
B. Mandibular anterior periapical.
C. Maxillary posterior periapical.
D. Maxillary anterior periapical. Polyether impression materials should be used
with caution for full arch impressions of
dentate patients because they
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A. gingival recession.
B. acquired xerostomia.
C. poor oral hygiene. Radiographically, the lamina dura is a
D. cigarette smoking.
A. thick layer of bone forming the inner
surface of the alveolus.
B. thin radiolucent line around the roots of
In the early stage, a periradicular abscess can the teeth.
be differentiated from a lateral periodontal C. thick layer of cortical bone.
abscess by D. thin radiopaque line around the roots of
the teeth.
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually
E. radiographic examination. due to (an)
A. moniliasis.
B. ill fitting denture.
Which radiographic examination provides the C. allergy to denture cleanser.
most diagnostic information for the D. avitaminosis.
replacement of a permanent mandibular first
molar with an osseo-integrated implant?
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A. seconds.
B. minutes.
C. hours. Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with
D. days. (a)
A. osteoblasts.
B. osteocytes.
C. osteoclasts.
D. osteophytes.
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Type I hypersensitivity results from cross- For a complete denture patient, which letter or
linking of which immunoglobulin on mast sound is a guide for the position of the incisal
cells? edge of the maxillary incisors?
A. IgA. A. M.
B. IgD. B. S.
C. IgE. C. F.
D. IgG. D. P.
E. IgM. E. J.
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A. Recurrent pericoronitis.
B. Prevention of crowding of mandibular Which of the following sweeteners used in
incisors. sugarless gum is most effective in preventing
C. Generalized aggressive periodontitis. caries?
D. Impaction.
A. Xylitol.
B. Sorbitol.
C. Mannitol.
There is an acute apical abscess (acute D. Glycerol.
periradicular abscess) on tooth 1.3. The tooth
must be extracted. In addition to a palatal
injection, the most appropriate local anesthetic
technique would be Which of the following impression materials
has the best dimensional stability?
A. vestibular infiltration.
B. infraorbital. A. Polysulfide rubber.
C. middle superior alveolar. B. Condensation silicone.
D. intraligamentary. C. Polyvinylsiloxane.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
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A. Isoflurane. A. pellicle.
B. Sevoflurane. B. plaque.
C. Nitrous oxide. C. materia alba.
D. Desflurane. D. biofilm.
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Antibiotics are indicated for management of Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated with
which of the following conditions?
A. fragile bones.
A. Chronic apical abscess. B. multiple supernumerary teeth.
B. Previously treated tooth with acute C. keratocystic odontogenic tumours.
periapical periodontitis. D. high incidence of facial clefts.
C. Acute apical abscess with cellulitis.
D. Irreversible pulpitis.
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A pontic should
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and translation.
There is a differential between girls and boys After placement of the rubber dam you notice
with respect to the age at which the growth that the interdental papilla is protruding from
velocity reaches its peak. That difference is beneath the rubber dam. The reason for this is
that
A. boys six months ahead of girls.
B. girls six months ahead of boys. A. a rubber dam frame was used.
C. girls one year ahead of boys. B. the holes were placed too far apart.
D. girls two years ahead of boys. C. a light weight dam was used.
D. the holes were placed too close together.
E. the teeth were not individually ligated.
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A. expansion.
Which of the following should NOT be B. contraction.
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin? C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
A. Acetylsalicylic acid.
B. Oxycodone.
C. Acetaminophen.
D. Codeine. Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized
mainly in the
A. liver.
Which of the following statements is correct B. kidneys.
about Quantitative Light or Laser Induced C. small intestine.
Fluorescence used to aid in the early detection D. pancreas.
of caries? E. spleen.
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Mouth breathing is most commonly associated Which of the following is the most appropriate
with Angle's malocclusion Class management for a child with acute primary
herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A. I.
B. II, Division 1. A. Analgesic and hydration therapy.
C. II, Division 2. B. Antibiotic therapy.
D. III. C. Topical corticosteroid therapy.
E. None of the above. D. Topical antifungal therapy.
The primary stress bearing area of the Between the ages of 5 and 18 years,
maxillary complete denture is the mandibular arch length
In a safe general anesthetic mixture, the Appropriate forces for orthodontic tooth
MINIMALLY acceptable percentage of oxygen movement are
is
A. intermittent and light.
A. 5%. B. continuous and heavy.
B. 10%. C. intermittent and heavy.
C. 20%. D. continuous and light.
D. 50%.
E. 80%.
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A. soft.
Which of the following is correct with respect B. not palpable.
to the hand-wrist radiograph? C. firm.
D. fixed.
A. Skeletal age may be estimated by
comparing the image to a standard.
B. It provides a precise measure of skeletal
development. What is the maximum number of cartridges
C. It is of minimal value in orthodontic (1.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic solution that
diagnosis. can be administered without exceeding a total
D. It is only determinate of skeletal age. dose of 300mg?
A. 2.
B. 4.
A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated C. 6.
from a periradicular cyst by the D. 8.
E. 10.
A. radiographic appearance.
B. patient’s symptoms.
C. response to percussion testing.
D. results of the biopsy. Spirochete activity is seen by
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A. midline deviation.
B. arch asymmetry.
Leeway space is the difference in size between C. pain on closure.
the D. severe crowding.
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A. chronic periodontitis.
Which of the following drugs has the strongest B. heavy force application.
antisialagogue properties? C. lack of anchorage.
D. occlusal interference.
A. Codeine.
B. Atropine.
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Ibuprofen. Which of the following tissues is the LEAST
E. Penicillin. sensitive to the effects of x-radiation?
A. Hematopoietic.
B. Gonadal.
In radiology, if target-skin distance is doubled, C. Bone.
the exposure time must be D. Glandular.
A. doubled.
B. tripled.
C. quadrupled. A healthy 78 year old patient presents with
D. increased 10 times. three new carious lesions on root surfaces.
This is most likely the result of
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In minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain, A normal postoperative sequela of third molar
the principal factor is the surgery is
Juvenile periodontitis
The most appropriate radiographic examination
for a new patient with an extensively restored A. is associated with gram-negative
dentition and generalized periodontal disease is anaerobic flora.
(a) B. is associated with gram-positive anaerobic
flora.
A. full mouth periapicals. C. is associated with root caries.
B. full mouth periapicals and bitewings. D. has a definite predilection toward males.
C. panoramic radiograph.
D. panoramic radiograph and bitewings.
E. cone beam computed tomography.
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A. Infection.
B. Trismus.
C. Diplopia.
D. Facial paralysis.
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A smooth surface coronal white spot carious To improve denture stability, mandibular molar
lesion that is visible when the tooth is both wet teeth should normally be placed
and dry indicates that the
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge.
A. lesion is less than halfway through the B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular
enamel. ridge.
B. enamel is stained and not demineralized. C. over the buccal shelf area.
C. lesion is more than halfway through the D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular
enamel. ridge.
D. caries involves the inner half of the dentin.
A. cleidocranial dysplasia.
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule)
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with
epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of
vasoconstrictor is
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A. 100 cells/mm3.
B. 200 cells/mm3. An immediate toxic reaction to a local
C. 300 cells/mm3. anesthetic administration is caused by a/an
D. 400 cells/mm3.
E. 1000 cells/mm3. A. deterioration of the anesthetic agent.
B. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor.
C. hypersensitivity to the anesthetic agent.
D. excessive blood level of the anesthetic
In gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium has the agent.
following characteristics EXCEPT it
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and translation.
The daily maximum dose of ibuprofen for an Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
adult is
A. zinc oxide and distilled water.
A. 1,200 mg. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.
B. 1,600 mg. C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
C. 2,000 mg. orthophosphoric acid.
D. 2,400 mg. D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Permanent first molars begin to calcify at For a 4 year old patient, the most appropriate
management for a chronically infected, non-
A. 1 to 4 months in utero. restorable primary first molar is to
B. birth.
C. 3 to 6 months. A. extract it and place a space maintainer.
D. 7 to 11 months. B. observe it until it exfoliates.
E. 12 to 15 months. C. extract it only.
D. observe it until it becomes symptomatic.
E. prescribe antibiotics
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and translation.
A. regularly assess the arch development. A patient presents with 5mm of gingival
B. perform space analysis. recession on the labial of tooth 1.3. The most
C. insert a space maintainer. predictable surgical procedure to achieve root
D. extract the contra-lateral molar. coverage on this tooth is a
E. extract the opposing molar.
A. free autogenous gingival graft.
B. subepithelial connective tissue graft.
C. laterally positioned flap.
In a fixed bridge, the most favorable ratio for D. double papilla pedicle graft.
an abutment tooth is when the root
A. lymphocytosis.
The teeth of a Miller bone file are designed to B. leukocytosis.
smooth bone with a C. monocytosis.
D. leukopenia.
A. pull stroke. E. eosinophilia.
B. push stroke.
C. sawing motion.
D. circular motion.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Metronidazole. The collagen fibres of the periodontal ligament
C. Penicillin. that insert into bone are called
D. Codeine.
A. Müller’s fibres.
B. reticular fibres.
C. Sharpey’s fibres.
D. oxytalan fibres.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Metronidazole.
B. Amoxicillin. After initial setting, glass ionomer cements
C. Clindamycin. should have a coating agent applied in order to
D. Tetracycline.
A. hasten the final set.
B. protect the cement from moisture.
C. retard the final set.
An anemia in which the red blood cells are D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light.
smaller and less intense in color than normal is E. create a smooth finish.
called a
A. enamel.
B. cementum.
C. tongue.
D. buccal mucosa.
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and translation.
A. Prednisone. A. Diabetes.
B. Ibuprofen. B. Genetics.
C. Lidocaine. C. Heart disease.
D. Nitrous oxide. D. Tobacco use.
E. Oxycodone.
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and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Gingival tissue with edematous red The gypsum material used for fabrication of
interdental papillae. dies exhibits a higher crushing strength than
B. Gingival tissue with 1mm pocket labial to does regular stone because of
a mandibular incisor.
C. Firm gingival tissue with generalized 5 A. difference in particle shape and density.
and 6mm pockets. B. difference in the chemical composition of
D. Class II furcation involvement in the powder particles.
maxillary molars. C. exothermic heat of setting.
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and translation.
A. fibroblast.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cell. The risk of contracting hepatitis B following a
C. odontoblast. percutaneous injury from an occupational
D. histiocyte. exposure to the contaminated blood of a patient
has been shown to be in the range of
A. 6-30%.
Under normal conditions, the most definitive B. 35-66%.
test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is C. 72-90%.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The defining feature of a skeletal crossbite is A 9 year old patient has a right posterior
crossbite and a mandibular midline shift to the
A. coincident midlines. right. Which of the following is the most
B. an interference free closure to maximal appropriate appliance for this patient?
intercuspidation.
C. a deviated closure to maximal A. Headgear.
intercuspidation. B. Hyrax appliance.
D. a large mandible. C. Fixed brackets.
D. Functional appliance.
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and translation.
The most likely cause of tooth loss following a The gingival margin of the preparation for a
tunneling procedure to provide complete access full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical
for a mandibular Class III furcation crown that satisfies the requirements for
involvement is retention and resistance, should be placed
A. limit the area of surface exposure. A. rapid growth with death of patient.
B. absorb scatter radiation. B. early metastasis.
C. absorb long wavelength radiation of the C. slow growth but tendency to local
primary beam. recurrence.
D. make it possible to use higher kilovoltage D. early ulceration and bleeding.
for improving image quality.
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and translation.
A. Gorlin syndrome.
The most practical method to significantly B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome.
reduce the setting time of stone and plaster is to C. Gardner syndrome.
use D. Cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Ectodermal dysplasia.
A. warm mixing water.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating
agent.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent. Plaque accumulation is an etiologic factor in
D. a longer mixing time. caries as it
A. dental.
B. skeletal.
C. neuromuscular. The "smear layer" is an important
D. dental and neuromuscular. consideration in
E. skeletal and neuromuscular.
A. plaque accumulation.
B. caries removal.
C. pulp regeneration.
D. dentin bonding.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte Which of the following muscles of mastication
adherence deficiency and is also affected with is associated with the condylar head and
generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his articular disc?
primary teeth. What is the diagnosis?
A. Masseter.
A. Generalized aggressive periodontitis. B. Temporalis.
B. Generalized chronic periodontitis. C. Medial pterygoid.
C. Gingival diseases modified by systemic D. Lateral pterygoid.
factors.
D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of
systemic disease.
Proportionally, how far inferior to the superior
border of the lower 1/3 of the face should the
commissures of the mouth be located?
“Tripoding” of casts is a method used for
1
A. /4.
1
A. determining the position for precision B. /3.
2
attachments. C. /3.
3
B. locating undercuts. D. /4.
C. locating the height of contour.
D. returning the cast to the surveyor.
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and translation.
Dentist supervised at-home bleaching Which of the following medications can cause
technique is NOT indicated for a patient who gingival enlargement?
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
The first sensation lost after administration of a Two millimeters of maxillary incisor spacing in
local anesthetic is a 3 year old is indicative of a
In which of the following will the effects of The percentage of documented child abuse
polymerization shrinkage be greatest? cases estimated to involve orofacial injuries is
A. asthma.
B. emphysema.
C. rhinophyma.
D. cardiac insufficiency.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
A. Bony septa in the maxillary sinus. Acetylsalicylic acid is indicated for the
B. Nasopalatine foramen. management of which of the following?
C. Nasolacrimal canal.
D. Mental foramen. A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Asthma.
C. Gastric ulcer.
D. Hemophilia.
In orthodontic treatment, extraction of
premolars will help to
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and translation.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Causation.
B. Discipline.
Which of the following is the strongest C. Intention.
stimulus to respiration? D. Tort.
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and translation.
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and translation.
What is the earliest age that the diagnosis of a Proper lip support for a maxillary complete
congenitally missing mandibular second denture is provided primarily by which of the
bicuspid can be confirmed? following?
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and translation.
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and translation.
Lidocaine has
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and translation.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Williams probe.
For a 1 year old child with primary herpetic B. Nabers probe.
gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate C. Michigan “O” probe.
management is to D. Periodontal Screening and Recording
(PSR) probe.
A. prescribe antibiotics.
B. immunize against chicken pox.
C. maintain adequate fluid intake.
D. debride the lesions.
E. swab the lesions with chlorhexidine.
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and translation.
Maxillary incisor protrusion in a 12 year old A 10 year old child with no previous caries
patient is most appropriately treated by experience has proximal carious lesions in the
enamel only of several primary molars. What is
A. orthodontic retraction of the incisors the most appropriate management for the
following the creation of space. lesions?
B. bilateral sagittal split osteotomy of the
mandible. A. No treatment.
C. surgical repositioning of anterior maxilla B. Be treated with topical fluoride, proper
following extraction of first maxillary home care and observation.
premolars. C. Be smoothed with abrasive strips.
D. prosthetic replacement of the incisors D. Be treated with fissure sealants.
following their extraction. E. Be restored with composite resin.
Overcontouring in the gingival third of a Which line angle is NOT present in a Class V
provisional restoration contributes to the amalgam cavity preparation?
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A. allogenic.
Orthognathic surgery for the treatment of sleep B. alloplastic.
apnea C. autogenous.
D. xenogenic.
A. will usually lead to an unesthetic facial
appearance.
B. affects multiple levels of airway.
C. requires preoperative orthodontics. Which of the following is NOT characteristic
D. is the most effective of all treatment of periodontitis?
modalities.
A. Hypertrophy of the gingiva.
B. Pocket formation without suppuration.
C. Destruction of the periodontal ligament.
Over time, the effectiveness of a Light Emitting D. Alveolar bone resorption.
Diode curing light will be
A. improved.
B. the same. The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is
C. reduced.
A. the same as the proportional limit.
B. decreased by work hardening.
C. the same as the stress at fracture.
The chief mechanism by which the body D. higher than the proportional limit.
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.
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and translation.
It is ethical for a dentist in Canada to decline to An anterior endodontically treated tooth has
treat a patient due to been restored with a carbon fibre, a direct
restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal
A. a difference in religious beliefs. crown. What is the most important factor
B. the patient’s infectious status. influencing the prognosis of this tooth?
C. a patient being physically challenged.
D. a patient being mentally challenged. A. Type of core material.
E. the dentist’s lack of skill or knowledge. B. Type of luting cement.
C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth
structure.
D. Alloy composition of the post.
Which of the following is the most frequent
major congenital malformation of the head and
neck?
Intermittent painful swelling in the
A. Cystic hygroma. submandibular region that increases at
B. Cleft palate. mealtime is indicative of
C. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis.
D. Double lip. A. a ranula.
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.
C. Ludwig's angina.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
The body of the mandible increases in length to E. an epidemic parotitis.
accommodate the permanent second molar by
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and translation.
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils. A positive Nikolsky's sign is a diagnostic
C. lymphocytes. feature of
D. plasma cells.
A. lichen planus.
B. erythema multiforme.
C. pemphigus vulgaris.
A patient presents with wear facets, increased D. chronic marginal gingivitis.
tooth mobility and percussion sensitivity of E. lupus erythematosus.
tooth 3.4. Radiographic evaluation of this tooth
would likely indicate
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and translation.
A. prevent extrusion of opposing teeth. After initial setting, a chemically cured glass
B. prevent the eruption of the permanent ionomer cement restoration should have a
teeth. coating agent applied to
C. retard eruption of the permanent teeth.
D. maintain arch length. A. hasten the final set.
B. protect the cement from moisture.
C. retard the final set.
D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light.
In a dental office, all of the following should be E. create a smooth finish.
used to reduce the risk of Hepatitis B infection
for staff and patients EXCEPT
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and translation.
A. Gingival curettage.
B. Gingivoplasty. A 3 year old requires the extraction of a
C. Osseous resective surgery. deciduous maxillary second molar. The local
D. Guided tissue regeneration. anesthetic technique of choice is
A. Cyclosporine.
Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate B. Doxepin.
the infection is caused by beta hemolytic C. Phenytoin.
streptococcus. Which of the following is the D. Verapamil.
drug of choice?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin. Tooth 1.1 has a small fractured mesioincisal
C. Tetracycline. corner into dentin. Which of the following is
D. Cloxacillin. true with respect to the preparation for the
restoration?
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and translation.
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and translation.
The most logical explanation for causing In complete denture fabrication, the angulation
swelling beneath the eye caused by an of the horizontal condylar guidance plane of
abscessed maxillary canine is that the the articulator is determined by the
A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this region. A. cuspal inclination of the teeth selected.
B. bone is less porous superior to the root B. orientation of the occlusal plane.
apex. C. incisal guidance.
C. infection has passed into the angular vein D. centric relation interocclusal record.
which has no valves. E. protrusive interocclusal record.
D. the root apex lies superior to the
attachment of the caninus and levator labii
superioris muscles.
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely
from an infection are initially seen to cause gingival hyperplasia?
When using alginate impression material, A removable partial denture rest should be
which one of the following statements is placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather
correct? than on the incisal surface because
A. Store the impression in water at 37°C A. less leverage is exerted against the tooth
prior to pouring the cast. by the rest.
B. Remove the impression slowly from the B. the enamel is thicker on the lingual
undercuts. surface.
C. Control the setting time by changing the C. visibility and access are better.
water/powder ratio. D. the cingulum of the canine provides a
D. Pour the cast immediately following natural recess.
disinfection.
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A. Kennedy Class I.
B. Kennedy Class II.
C. Kennedy Class III.
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and translation.
A. show a decrease in the number of A. adult men and women require the same
collagenous fibres. amount.
B. have decreased reparative capacity B. more calcium is required during pregnancy
compared to younger adults. and lactation.
C. form dentinal bridges after appropriate C. women over 70 years require more than
pulp capping procedures. men over 70 years.
D. show an increase in myelinated nerves D. under the age of 18, boys require more
when compared to pulps of younger adults. calcium than girls.
Which of the following traumatic injuries does Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in
NOT require immediate management? children under the age of 12 years is most
likely to be successful for
A. Avulsion.
B. Alveolar fracture. A. teeth that are symptomatic.
C. Uncomplicated crown-root fracture. B. teeth that are hyperemic.
D. Extrusion. C. teeth with open apices.
D. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size.
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A. anterior crowding.
B. root caries of the adjacent tooth.
C. jaw fracture from contact sports.
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and translation.
A. a sebaceous cyst.
B. a basal cell carcinoma.
Regarding dental caries, which of the following C. lupus erythematosus.
is correct? D. verruca vulgaris.
E. an epulis.
A. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic.
B. More frequent consumption of
carbohydrates increases the risk.
C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from The earliest radiographic sign of occlusal
the oral cavity is not significant. trauma is
D. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.
A. hypercementosis.
B. root resorption.
C. alteration of the lamina dura.
Which of the following best describes the D. widening of the periodontal ligament
squamous cell carcinoma? space.
E. ankylosis.
A. Sore shallow ulcer, present for a few
days.
B. Burning red plaque, present for several
weeks. A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours
C. Asymptomatic gray macule, present for after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth
several months. with no pre-existing periapical pathology. The
D. Occasionally tender normal coloured tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The
nodule, present for several years. radiograph will show
A. an apical radiolucency.
B. osteosclerosis.
C. condensing osteitis/sclerosing osteitis.
D. a normal apex.
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A. upper lip.
B. lower lip.
C. tongue.
D. buccal mucosa.
E. soft palate.
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Varying the mercury content of an amalgam In which of the following situations can topical
results in which of the following? corticosteroids be used?
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and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
For a patient taking warfarin, which laboratory Which of the following is the most severe
test provides the most accurate information on adverse effect of antibiotic therapy?
coagulation time?
A. Urticaria.
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time. B. Angioneurotic edema.
B. Ivy bleeding time. C. Diarrhea.
C. Platelet count. D. Anaphylactic reaction.
D. INR. E. Flatulence.
E. Thrombin time.
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Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
Following the insertion of complete dentures, a Which of the following is NOT suggestive of a
generalized soreness over the entire mandibular diagnosis of necrotizing ulcerative
alveolar ridge can be caused by gingivitis (NUG)?
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and translation.
A. has no basal cell layer. During matrix band removal, the risk of
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle. marginal ridge fracture of an amalgam
C. contains elastic fibres. restoration is reduced by
D. is keratinized.
A. completing most of the shaping of the
marginal ridge before removal.
B. leaving an excess of amalgam in the
An advantage of an implant supported occlusal area before removal.
overdenture compared to a conventional C. contouring and wedging the band.
complete denture is D. using universal circumferential retainers
and bands.
A. maintenance of proprioception from the
periodontal ligament.
B. reduction of residual ridge resorption.
C. improvement of appearance. If a complete occlusal adjustment is necessary,
D. decreased frequency of maintenance and interferences should be corrected
recall appointments.
A. after all restorative procedures are
completed.
B. after each restorative procedure.
A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the C. before starting any restorative treatment.
ground substance of the periodontal ligament is D. during treatment.
A. amylase.
B. hyaluronidase.
C. dextranase.
D. streptokinase.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Amalgam.
B. Enamel.
C. Composite resin.
D. Type IV alloy.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. ameloblastoma. A. superinfection.
B. traumatic bone cyst. B. photosensitivity.
C. eruption cyst. C. vestibular disturbances.
D. dentigerous cyst. D. discoloration of newly forming teeth.
E. calcifying odontogenic cyst. E. gastrointestinal symptoms (when
administered orally).
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and translation.
Enameloplasty can be used when A. the space between the tray and the teeth is
1-2mm.
A. caries has reached the DEJ. B. the space between the tray and the teeth
B. caries is detected radiographically. allows 4-5mm of alginate.
C. the pit or groove is less than full enamel C. the impression is removed slowly from the
thickness. undercuts around the teeth.
D. the pit or groove is the full enamel D. the impression is immersed in disinfectant
thickness. for one hour before pouring.
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and translation.
A. Mesiobuccal cusp of the first molar. A. V3 and provides motor innervation to the
B. Distobuccal cusp of the first molar. buccinator muscle.
C. Mesiobuccal cusp of the second molar. B. V2 and provides sensory innervation to the
D. Distobuccal cusp of the second molar. posterior mandibular buccal gingiva.
C. V3 and provides sensory innervation to the
posterior mandibular buccal gingiva.
D. V2 and provides motor innervation to the
buccinator muscle.
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A. regional odontodysplasia.
In the surgical removal of an impacted B. fusion or gemination.
mandibular third molar, which of the following C. dilaceration.
would be considered to be the most difficult? D. hypercementosis.
E. radicular dentin dysplasia.
A. Mesio-angular.
B. Horizontal.
C. Vertical.
D. Disto-angular. Chlorhexidine is an effective antiplaque agent
due to its ability to
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and translation.
The Root Caries Index may underestimate the Which of the following is NOT a component of
amount of disease because a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with
1:100,000 epinephrine?
A. the number of surfaces at risk cannot be
determined. A. Methylparaben.
B. it excludes subgingival lesions. B. Water.
C. root caries is difficult to diagnose. C. Metabisulphite.
D. it treats filled and decayed surfaces as the D. Sodium chloride.
same.
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A. maxillary molars.
B. mandibular molars.
Which of the following is NOT a recognized C. maxillary canines.
ethics-based principle? D. mandibular incisors.
A. Beneficence.
B. Justice.
C. Non maleficence. Which of the following medications increases a
D. Autonomy. patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis?
E. Scholarship.
A. Warfarine (Coumadin®).
B. Cyclosporine.
C. Pentobarbital.
Which of the following contains D. Ibuprofen.
microorganisms? E. Pilocarpine.
A. Acquired pellicle.
B. Calculus.
C. Dental plaque.
D. B. and C.
E. All of the above.
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A. acute osteomyelitis.
B. fibrous dysplasia.
C. early periapical osseous dysplasia
(periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia).
D. Paget’s disease.
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Whait is the primary function of the dental The purpose of hand hygiene in infection
pulp? control is primarily to reduce the
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and translation.
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and When the gingival margin is at the level of the
acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be cemento-enamel junction (CEJ), the loss of
differentiated clinically by (the) attachment is
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A. Osteomalacia.
B. Albright's syndrome.
C. Paget's disease. Which of the following drugs inhibits salivary
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta. flow?
A. Penicillin V.
B. Loratadine.
Probing depth reduction following scaling and C. Probantheline.
root planing alone will occur if the patient's D. Nystatin.
periodontal condition includes
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and translation.
A. Nystagmus.
The preconditioning of a high glass content all- B. Slurred speech.
ceramic restoration prior to bonding is C. Decreased heart rate.
achieved by D. Increased respiratory rate.
A. sandblasting.
B. acid etching with phosphoric acid.
C. roughening the surface with a diamond Over time, the effectiveness of a quartz
bur. tungsten halogen curing light will be
D. acid etching with hydrofluoric acid.
E. degreasing with acetone. A. improved.
B. the same.
C. reduced.
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A. immediately prior to the dental procedure. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures
B. one hour prior to the dental procedure.
C. four hours prior to the dental procedure. A. quantity of plaque at the gingival margin.
D. one day prior to the dental procedure. B. colony forming units of Gram-negative
E. two days prior to the dental procedure. bacteria.
C. weight of plaque obtained from facial
surfaces.
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A. lingual movement of the crown and A. normal left excursion and limited right
lingual movement of the root apex. excursion.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual B. limited left excursion and normal right
movement of the crown. excursion.
C. lingual movement of the crown and labial C. normal bilateral excursions.
movement of the root apex. D. limited bilateral excursions.
D. intrusion of the central incisor.
A. Reserpine.
B. Scopolamine.
C. Silica gel.
D. Diazepam.
E. Calcium carbonate.
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A. under water.
B. under vacuum.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a C. in a cold environment.
possible sequela of a tooth completely D. in a dry environment.
impacted in bone?
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A. patient-specific.
When using the periodontal probe to measure B. for a procedure on a patient with AIDS.
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from C. procedure-specific.
the D. for a procedure that requires a high degree
of tactile sensitivity.
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction. A removable partial denture rest should
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva. A. be extended for retention.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival B. increase retention of the partial denture.
junction. C. direct forces parallel to the long axis of
the abutment.
D. be located on a centric contact.
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A. laying down the enamel prisms. A. use of personal protective barriers: masks,
B. forming the odontoblastic tubules. eyewear, outerwear and gloves.
C. reorganizing the collagen fibres. B. sterilization of instruments and
D. generating the incremental lines. disinfection of the operatory.
E. secreting the calcospherites. C. handwashing.
D. introduction of single use instruments and
disposables.
When gypsum is mixed with water and sets to In its classic form, serial extraction is best
form a dental cast, the powder particles are applied to patients with Class I occlusions with
replaced by crystals of crowding of
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Oral hygiene for infants’ teeth should begin Which of the periodontal ligament fibres are
when most commonly associated with orthodontic
relapse?
A. the first primary molars erupt.
B. all primary teeth erupt. A. Oblique.
C. the first tooth erupts. B. Diagonal.
D. the infant is weaned from the nursing C. Horizontal.
bottle or breast. D. Supracrestal.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to During the pharyngeal phase of swallowing,
share histological features with lichen planus? motor neurons in the swallowing center are
activated to
A. White sponge nevus.
B. Oral mucosal cinnamon reaction. A. open the lower esophageal sphincter.
C. Oral graft-versus-host disease. B. inhibit respiration.
D. Lupus erythematosus. C. initiate the secondary peristaltic wave.
D. open the palatopharyngeal folds.
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The speed of propagation of action potentials In periodontal flap surgery, the initial incision
along axons is is made to
A. faster for myelinated fibres than for A. expose the sulcular lining of the pocket.
unmyelinated fibres. B. aid in healing.
B. slower for myelinated fibres than for C. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres
unmyelinated fibres. of the periodontal ligament.
C. independent of myelination. D. excise the keratinized gingiva.
D. independent of the axon diameter.
Antihistamines act by
The most appropriate management for a
concussed tooth is A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
A. observation. C. blocking the actions of histamine by
B. pulpotomy. competitive inhibition.
C. pulpectomy. D. interfering with the degradation of
D. splinting. histamine.
When a patient experiences continuous pain in Following root canal therapy, the most
the maxillary premolar and molar areas and desirable form of tissue response at the apical
there is no evidence of dental infection, the foramen is
most likely diagnosis is
A. cementum deposition.
A. trigeminal neuralgia. B. connective tissue capsule formation.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis. C. epithelium proliferation from the
C. impacted maxillary canine. periodontal ligament.
D. impacted maxillary third molar. D. dentin deposition.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
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and translation.
In cephalometry, the most stable point in a A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion
growing skull is the is present in the apical region of the mandibular
second premolar. The tooth responds normally
A. sella turcica. to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most
B. nasion. likely
C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point. A. a periradicular periodontitis.
B. a dentigerous cyst.
C. a rarefying osteitis.
D. the mental foramen.
A daily dose of 81 mg of acetylsalicylic acid is
used for its
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and translation.
A. Double the patient’s insulin dose. A. remove the mesiodens and observe
B. Reduce the patient’s insulin dose. progress carefully.
C. Prescribe a topical steroid. B. allow the mesiodens to erupt before
D. Prescribe clindamycin. attempting extraction.
E. Prescribe nystatin. C. remove the mesiodens, immediately band
the unerupted central incisor and initiate
orthodontic therapy.
D. allow the mesiodens and the right central
Xerostomia in the elderly is most likely due to incisor to erupt into the oral cavity to
determine their relative positions.
A. degeneration of salivary glands.
B. increased use of prescription drugs.
C. loss of carbonic anhydrase.
D. vitamin D deficiencies. All of the following appear as midline
structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT
A. nasopalatine/incisive canal.
All of the following appear as midline B. anterior nasal spine.
structures on periapical radiographs EXCEPT C. nasal septum.
D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.
A. nasopalatine/incisive canal.
B. anterior nasal spine.
C. nasal septum.
D. zygomatic process of the maxilla. Undercontoured restorations on the vestibular
and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth can
immediately lead to
A. epithelial cells
B. endothelial cells.
C. osteoblasts.
D. cementoblasts.
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A. toxicity.
B. potency.
C. concentration.
D. substantivity.
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A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands. A healthy 40 year old female patient complains
D. Hair. of periodic acute, excruciating pain in the right
E. Fingernails. infraorbital region. The pain is of short
duration and can be elicited by lightly touching
the skin of the area. Which of the following
drugs is the most appropriate management?
Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can
best be seen radiographically in a A. Carbamazepine.
B. Acetazolamide.
A. panoramic radiograph. C. Succinylcholine.
B. bite-wing radiograph. D. Penicillin.
C. periapical radiograph using the bisecting
angle technique.
D. periapical radiograph using the paralleling
technique.
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A. protective clothing.
B. gloves.
C. masks.
D. protective eyewear.
E. glove liners.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. concussion injury.
B. luxation injury.
A 58 year old patient is being managed with C. Class II fracture.
topical corticosteroids for ulcerative oral D. Class IV fracture.
mucosal lesions. A recall examination reveals
widespread, loosely adherent, soft white
plaques. The most appropriate management
would be The aluminum filter in an x-ray machine
prevents which of the following from reaching
A. a more potent topical corticosteroid. the patient?
B. a systemic corticosteroid.
C. antibiotic therapy. A. Long wavelength x-rays.
D. antifungal medication. B. High frequency x-rays.
E. incisional biopsy. C. X-rays at the edge of the x-ray beam.
D. Gamma radiation.
A. maxillary canine.
B. mandibular canine.
C. maxillary first molar.
D. mandibular second molar.
E. maxillary second molar.
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A. inhibits nociceptors.
B. activates nociceptors. Condensing osteitis differs from idiopathic
C. causes vasoconstriction. osteosclerosis because it is
D. prevents vasoconstriction.
A. expansile.
B. painful.
C. associated with fever.
High plasma levels of local anesthetics may D. associated with pulpal inflammation.
cause
A. inhibition of peristalsis.
B. stimulation of the central nervous system. Which of the following structures affects the
C. inhibition of the vagus nerve to the heart. thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete
D. depression of the central nervous system. denture?
A. Malar process.
B. Coronoid process.
In partial denture design, the major connector C. Mylohyoid ridge.
should D. Zygomatic process.
E. Genial tubercle.
A. rigidly connect the bilateral components.
B. act as a stress-breaker.
C. not interfere with lateral forces.
D. dissipate vertical forces.
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A. higher kVp.
In a mixed dentition analysis, using the Moyers B. proper filtration.
statistical method, choosing a 75% probability C. high speed film.
factor means that the mass of permanent teeth D. collimation of the X-ray beam.
is
A. underestimated.
B. overestimated.
C. accurately predicted.
D. unpredictable.
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Vitamin D is a factor in
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and translation.
A. Osteomalacia.
B. Multiple myeloma. Pathologic migration of teeth is associated with
C. Osteopetrosis.
D. Langerhans cell histiocytosis. A. lip incompetence.
E. Central giant cell granuloma. B. tongue thrust.
C. bruxism.
D. periodontitis.
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and translation.
A. Class I.
Which of the following is the most appropriate B. Class II, division 1.
solution for controlling pulpal bleeding after a C. Class II, division 2.
pulp exposure prior to pulp capping? D. Class III.
A. Saline.
B. Chlorhexidine.
C. Sodium hypochlorite. One week after an amalgam restoration is
D. Ferric sulfate. placed in the mandibular first premolar, the
patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of
short duration when eating or drinking
something cold. Teeth respond normally to
Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in electric pulp testing and heat and the
radiographs are normal. The most likely
A. abnormal formation of osteoid. diagnosis is
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease. A. hypercementosis.
D. myositis ossificans. B. reversible pulpitis.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. pulpal microabscess.
D. acute periradicular periodontitis.
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A. first month.
B. third month.
C. fifth month.
D. seventh month.
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A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. hyperthyroidism.
A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of C. hyperpituitarism.
filiform papillae, located in the midline of the D. hypoparathyroidism.
dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to
the circumvallate papillae is indicative of
A. aggressive periodontitis.
B. gingival hyperplasia.
C. chronic periodontitis.
D. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
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A. Periapical cyst.
B. Internal resorption.
Which tooth has the best prognosis in a patient C. Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical
with generalized periodontal disease? cemento-osseous dysplasia).
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
A. 1.1.
B. 1.3.
C. 1.4.
D. 1.6. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate
craters in the interseptal bone are best
eliminated by
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A. < 1mm.
B. 1 - 2mm.
C. > 2mm. Which of the following statements about
fats/lipids is correct?
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Which of the following drugs has Which two muscles are involved in sucking?
antisialagogue effects?
A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
A. Acetaminophen. B. Risorius and buccinator.
B. Atropine. C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
C. Acetylsalicylic acid. D. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus
D. Fluconazole. major.
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A. cardiomyocytes.
B. pneumocytes.
C. splenocytes.
D. hepatocytes.
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and translation.
Normal Values:
The working time of zinc-phosphate cement
Hb: 14-18g/100ml
A. is shortened if moisture condenses on the Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
mixing slab during the mixing process. Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
B. is lengthened if the powder is mixed with White blood cell count: 5,000-10,000/mm3
the liquid as quickly as possible.
C. is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled. The most likely diagnosis is
D. is shortened by adding a small quantity of
powder to the liquid a minute prior to A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
start mixing. B. acute myelogenous leukemia.
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
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A. Codeine. A. Penicillin.
B. Acetaminophen. B. Erythomycin.
C. Ibuprofen. C. Tetracycline.
D. Meperidine HCl. D. Clindamycin.
E. Nystatin.
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and translation.
A. orbicularis oris.
Radiographically, the lamina dura is a B. masseter.
C. zygomaticus major.
A. thick layer of bone forming the inner D. buccinator.
surface of the alveolus.
B. thin radiolucent line around the roots of
the teeth.
C. thick layer of cortical bone.
D. thin radiopaque line around the roots of
the teeth.
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A. cleidocranial dysplasia.
B. amelogenesis imperfecta. Decreasing the amount of network modifiers in
C. neonatal hypoplasia. a dental porcelain will
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
A. decrease its fusion temperature.
B. increase its thermal expansion .
C. decrease its chemical reactivity.
In patients with advanced periodontitis, mobile D. increase its potential for devitrification
teeth should be splinted in order to upon heating.
A. marginal gingivitis.
B. painful, burning gingivae.
C. hyperplastic gingivitis. Which of the following drugs is most
D. drifting of the teeth. appropriate first line management for a patient
experiencing an acute asthmatic attack?
A. Isoproterenol.
In a peripheral nerve such as the trigeminal, B. Salbutamol.
unmyelinated C type fibres convey C. Epinephrine.
D. Hydrocortisone.
A. muscle spindle information.
B. reflexes such as the jaw jerk reflex.
C. nociceptive pain information.
D. reflexes such as the jaw opening reflex.
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A. collagenous fibres.
B. keratinized squamous epithelium.
C. elastic fibres. The recommended cavity access for a Class III
D. A. and B. carious lesion is from the lingual because it
E. A., B. and C.
A. permits less removal of intact enamel.
B. preserves the labial enamel for esthetic
purposes.
C. is easier than from the vestibular.
D. permits the use of a larger bur.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. continuous firm pressure on the inlay until The most appropriate management for a tooth
the cement is set. with a history of previous trauma and internal
B. thick mix of cement. resorption is
C. rapid and heavy application of pressure
until the inlay is seated. A. observation over 6 months for further
D. very thin mix of cement. resorption.
B. nonsurgical endodontic therapy.
C. nonsurgical endodontic therapy followed
by apical curettage.
Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate D. extraction and replacement with a fixed or
craters in the interseptal bone are best removable prosthesis.
eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty. Which of the following statements is true
C. deep scaling. regarding the radiographic appearance of
D. bone grafting. furcation involvements?
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Idiopathic osteosclerosis is
A. Masseter.
B. Buccinator.
C. Mentalis. A patient wearing complete dentures has
D. Mylohyoid. angular cheilitis. The most likely cause is
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Salivary secretion
Which of the following is NOT a recognized
ethics-based principle? A. increases with age.
B. decreases with age.
A. Citizenship. C. shows no difference with age.
B. Justice. D. shows a decrease in mineral content in the
C. Non maleficence. elderly.
D. Autonomy.
E. Veracity.
Nitrous oxide
The use of a retraction cord impregnated with
A. may supplement behavioural management 8% racemic epinephrine may be hazardous for
of an anxious patient. some patients because of its
B. is a substitute for behavioural
management of an anxious patient. A. local caustic action on the gingival tissue.
C. is a substitute for local anesthesia for a B. potential for systemic reaction.
dental extraction. C. local astringent action.
D. would have no analgesic effect at a dose
of 60%.
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and translation.
A. cancellous bone.
A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partial B. cortical bone.
denture will provide C. bundle bone.
D. interseptal bone.
A. support.
B. indirect retention.
C. stabilization.
D. direct retention. Which of the following foods is LEAST
cariogenic?
A. Canned fruit.
The term "dental age" refers to the B. Potatoes.
C. Fruit jello.
A. state of dental maturation. D. Cheese.
B. eruption time of a given tooth. E. White bread.
C. number of years elapsed since a given
tooth erupted.
D. None of the above.
A 52 year old female patient presents with a
limitation of mouth opening. The patient has
loss of attached gingiva and multiple areas of
Dental amalgam restorations gingival recession. A panoramic radiograph
shows diffuse widening of the periodontal
A. have decreased flow when the tin mercury ligament. The most likely diagnosis is
phase is increased.
B. contain nickel to increase the yield A. Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis).
strength. B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. have decreased corrosion and marginal C. mucous membrane pemphigoid
breakdown when the copper tin phase is (cicatricial pemphigoid).
increased. D. erythema multiforme.
D. contain zinc to reduce galvanic corrosion. E. advanced adult periodontitis.
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A. frequent decementation of the temporary Which of the following is NOT a common side
crown. effect from a tricyclic antidepressant?
B. gingival recession.
C. difficulty in seating the permanent crown. A. Orthostatic hypotension.
D. an esthetically compromised restoration. B. Increased urination.
C. Xerostomia.
D. Confusion.
Barbiturates
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A. prescribe systemic antibiotics. A. The holes were placed too far apart.
B. perform an incisional biopsy. B. A light weight dam was used.
C. re-evaluate in 6 months. C. The holes were placed too close together.
D. obtain a complete blood count. D. The teeth were not individually ligated.
E. obtain a cytologic smear.
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and translation.
A. periodontal disease causes inadequate A. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxide
bony support. and eugenol cements.
B. there is a granuloma at the apex of the B. do not require a protective liner, such as
tooth. calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation.
C. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick. C. have a lower modulus of elasticity than
D. the patient is diabetic. zinc phosphate cements.
D. bond mechanically to calcium in enamel
and dentin.
E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for
A 50 year old patient, who is a heavy smoker, luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns.
has developed a barrel chest, has difficulty
breathing and has a bluish tinge to his
complexion. The most likely diagnosis is
After the crown completion stage, trauma to a
A. emphysema. developing tooth may be responsible for
B. acute upper respiratory infection.
C. primary cancer of the lung. A. enamel hypoplasia.
D. cardiac insufficiency. B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.
A. osteomalacia.
B. osteopetrosis.
C. osteoradionecrosis.
D. osteoporosis.
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A. papilloma.
The tooth with the largest root surface area is B. herpangina.
the C. verruca vulgaris.
D. condyloma accunimatum.
A. maxillary canine.
B. maxillary first molar.
C. mandibular canine.
D. mandibular first molar. The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary
hypertension is
A. sodium.
Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Angle B. fluoride.
Class III malocclusion should be started C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
A. just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
B. immediately following the pre-pubertal
growth spurt.
C. shortly after eruption of the upper first Which of the following is NOT a sign or
permanent molars. symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction
D. shortly after eruption of the upper second syndrome?
permanent molars.
A. Pain.
B. Muscle tenderness.
C. Limitation of jaw motion.
D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the
joints.
E. Radiographic changes of the joint.
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A. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical The CNS depressant effects of midazolam are
cemento-osseous dysplasia) and a reversed by the administration of
periapical granuloma.
B. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical A. diphenhydramine.
cemento-osseous dysplasia) and an B. flumazenil.
incisive canal cyst. C. naloxone.
C. periapical granuloma and a periapical D. ranitidine.
cyst.
D. periapical granuloma and a chronic apical
abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
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A. Sublingual.
B. Submandibular.
C. Submental.
D. Submasseteric.
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and translation.
The effects of constant mouth breathing include A. Acute apical abscess (acute periradicular
abscess).
A. expansion of the maxilla. B. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
B. mandibular incisor protrusion. C. Periodontal abscess.
C. anterior open bite. D. Reversible pulpitis.
D. maxillary incisor retrusion.
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A. surgical emphysema.
B. an immediate allergic reaction.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to C. a herniation of the buccal fat pad.
induce photosensitivity? D. a hematoma.
A. Tetracycline.
B. Metronidazole.
C. Acetaminophen. What is the dose of epinephrine in an Epi
D. Oxycodone. Pen®?
A. 0.20 mg.
B. 0.25 mg.
A strong association exists between the C. 0.30 mg.
presence of fissured tongue and the presence of D. 0.35 mg.
E. 0.40 mg.
A. geographic tongue.
B. hairy tongue.
C. lingual varicosities.
D. median rhomboid glossitis. The epithelial attachment
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and translation.
A crown with an acceptable marginal fit on the A. the zygomatic process of the maxilla.
original die has a uniform margin opening of B. the incisive canal.
1mm when placed intraorally. Which of the C. the uvula.
following should be modified to address this D. the hamular process.
problem?
A. focusing cup.
B. filament. Correction of a lingual crossbite of tooth 1.2
C. target. has the best long term prognosis if 1.2 is
D. anode.
A. lingually inclined, with 50% overbite.
B. ideally inclined, with 50% overbite.
C. lingually inclined, with 5% overbite.
D. ideally inclined, with 5% overbite.
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and translation.
Oral foci of infection are of greatest clinical A. periodontal surgical therapy only.
significance in the presence of B. nonsurgical root canal therapy only.
C. periodontal surgical therapy before non-
A. polycythemia vera. surgical endodontic treatment.
B. iritis and uveitis. D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before
C. eczema and urticaria. periodontal therapy.
D. rheumatoid arthritis.
E. subacute bacterial endocarditis.
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While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are A. remove the sulcular lining of the pocket.
tried in to B. aid in healing.
C. sever the attachment of the oblique fibres
A. verify the maxillomandibular records. of the periodontal ligament.
B. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. D. excise the keratinized gingiva.
C. evaluate esthetics.
D. All of the above.
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All of the following are parts of the temporal A 4 year old child presents for an emergency
bone EXCEPT the examination. The mother is concerned about
white patches on the child’s tongue. The child
A. mastoid. has no pain, eats and drinks normally and has a
B. hamulus. history of repeated use of amoxicillin for otitis
C. tympanic. media. What is the most likely diagnosis?
D. zygomatic.
A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B. Geographic tongue.
C. Candidiasis.
Which of the following conditions D. Hairy tongue.
CONTRAINDICATES routine dental
treatment in the dental office?
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After root planing and plaque control In general, a pigmented macule measuring
instruction, a 22 year old patient still shows 4mm in diameter should be treated by
swollen and edematous gingiva with 3mm
pockets and a 4 to 6mm band of attached A. incisional biopsy.
gingiva. The most appropriate management is B. excisional biopsy.
C. exfoliative cytology.
A. an apically repositioned split thickness D. carbon dioxide laser.
flap. E. electrocautery.
B. an apically repositioned full thickness
flap.
C. gingivectomy.
D. further plaque control instruction. Excessively dark analog radiographs are the
E. occlusal adjustment. result of
A. underdevelopment.
B. insufficient exposure.
Which of the following is the most likely cause C. backward placement of the film.
of periodontal pocket formation following D. excessive milliamperage.
crown preparation?
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and translation.
A. Platelet count.
B. Bleeding time. The absence of lamina dura on a dental
C. Complete blood count. radiograph is suggestive of
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. Paget's disease.
C. hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following is the most potent D. vitamin D deficiency.
corticosteroid? E. acromegaly.
A. Cortisone.
B. Dexamethasone.
C. Hydrocortisone. When developer solution is old and oxydized,
D. Prednisone. radiographs will appear
E. Triamcinolone.
A. blue.
B. brown.
C. gray.
Following radiation therapy to the mandible, D. black.
extraction of mandibular teeth is most likely to
result in
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
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and translation.
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Use of ISO approved amalgam separators. Post-immunization serological test results for a
B. Storage of amalgam capsules in sealed health care worker who has completed the
containers. series of vaccinations against hepatitis B
C. Use of mercury vapour scavengers. reveals that their anti-HBsAg is less than the
D. Disposal of scrap amalgam in a landfill value required for immunity. The health care
site. worker should
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Dysplastic lesions of squamous epithelium The joining together of two teeth in the root
occur most often on the portion through cemental union is known as
A. palate. A. gemination.
B. gingiva. B. fusion.
C. buccal mucosa. C. twinning.
D. dorsum of the tongue. D. concrescense.
E. floor of the mouth.
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A. deflection of the mandible to the left at A. Non-ionized and high lipid solubility.
maximal mouth opening. B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility.
B. deflection of the mandible to the right C. Ionized and low lipid solubility.
during protrusion. D. Ionized and water solubility.
C. maximal opening of 55mm.
D. reciprocal click in the right TMJ.
E. limitation in right laterotrusion.
Which of the following has both ectodermal
and mesodermal tissues?
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A fracture through the angle of the mandible Which of the following does NOT influence
may result in an upward displacement of the the rate of induction during inhalation
proximal fragment. Which of the following anesthesia?
groups of muscles produce this movement?
A. Pulmonary ventilation.
A. Digastric and geniohyoid. B. Blood supply to the lungs.
B. Masseter, digastric and lateral pterygoid. C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.
C. Masseter, temporal and lateral pterygoid. D. Concentration of the anesthetic in the
D. Masseter, temporal and medial pterygoid. inspired mixture.
E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.
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and translation.
What is the most likely cause of sensitivity An 8 year old patient has a 3mm diastema
related to a noncarious cervical lesion? between the erupting permanent maxillary
central incisors. What is the most likely cause?
A. Loss of dentin bulk.
B. Increased number of open dentinal A. Failure of fusion of the premaxillae.
tubules. B. Abnormal labial frenum.
C. Bacterial contamination. C. Supernumerary tooth in the midline.
D. Hyperocclusion. D. Normal eruption pattern.
After a thermal stimulus has been removed Which of the following conditions should NOT
from a tooth persistent pain suggests commonly be treated during the mixed
dentition stage?
A. a normal pulp.
B. pulp necrosis. A. Anterior cross-bite.
C. reversible pulpitis. B. Posterior cross-bite.
D. irreversible pulpitis. C. Maxillary incisor rotation.
E. exposed cervical dentin. D. Class II molar relationship.
Which of the following indicates a failure of a Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
dental implant? of an acute apical abscess (acute periradicular
abscess)?
A. Gingival inflammation.
B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of the A. Pain on percussion.
implant length. B. Tooth feels elongated.
C. Mobility. C. Pain to a cold stimulus.
D. Increased probing depths. D. Pain on palpation.
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A. rigid.
B. flexible enough to permit easy insertion.
C. carefully polished on the interior.
D. held in place by the patient.
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A. Methylparaben.
In the development of gingivitis, the fibre B. Water.
groups first lost are C. Sodium metabisulphite.
D. Sodium chloride.
A. oblique.
B. horizontal.
C. transeptal.
D. free gingival.
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A. systemic disease.
B. traumatic occlusion.
C. failure to splint.
D. poor oral hygiene.
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and translation.
Which of the following is an indication for a A 25 year old female in her first trimester of
pulpotomy on a primary tooth? pregnancy presents with an acute dental
infection. Which of the following is
A. Radiographic evidence of internal root CONTRAINDICATED for this patient?
resorption.
B. Involvement of interradicular bone with no A. Take a radiograph.
fistula. B. Prescription of penicillin V.
C. Involvement of interradicular bone with a C. Administration of 2% xylocaine with
fistula. 1:100,000 epinephrine.
D. Signs and symptoms of reversible pulpitis. D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain control.
The use of benzodiazepine in the elderly to The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
manage anxiety directed to a tooth
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and translation.
The most radiosensitive salivary gland is the The predominant microorganisms in deep
dentinal caries are
A. sublingual.
B. submandibular. A. Streptococcus mutans.
C. parotid. B. Lactobacillus species.
C. Streptococcus salivarius.
D. Actinomyces species.
A. loss of attachment.
B. loss of alveolar bone.
C. deepened probing depth.
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A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing. The main purpose of X-ray collimation is to
C. heredity.
D. ectopic eruption. A. lower the kilovoltage.
B. filter out low energy X-rays.
C. reduce the diameter of the primary beam.
D. reduce the exposure time.
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and translation.
A. a vitamin C deficiency.
B. destruction of vessels of the periodontal Using a high speed handpiece WITHOUT
ligament. water coolant will
C. excessive pocket depth.
D. microulceration of sulcus epithelium. A. produce a smoother surface.
B. decrease pulpal damage if used with light
pressure.
C. reduce clogging of dental bur.
An endomorph is typically D. reduce debris accumulation.
E. increase frictional heat.
A. short and fat.
B. tall and thin.
C. an early maturer.
D. a late maturer.
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The benign neoplasm that originates from Appropriate management for the relief of
squamous epithelium is called a/an symptoms of primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis in an immunocompromised
A. adenoma. patient may include
B. choriocarcinoma.
C. chondroma. A. penicillin V.
D. lipoma. B. triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase®.
E. papilloma. C. acyclovir capsules.
D. dexamethasone elixir.
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and translation.
Which of the following antibiotics may be Which of the following may result in acetone
cross-allergenic with penicillin? breath?
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and translation.
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. candidiasis.
A patient has been receiving dental treatment C. acute apical abscess (acute periradicular
over a period of 1 year. A root canal treatment abscess).
has recently been started but not completed D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
when she declares that her husband has lost his
job and she is not able to pay the balance of the
fee assessed for her root canal treatment. She is
presently free of pain. The dentist can terminate A patient with leukoplakia had an incisional
treatment biopsy. Which of the following diagnosis does
NOT require complete excision?
A. only after completion of the root canal
treatment. A. Carcinoma in situ.
B. for failure to honor financial commitments. B. Severe epithelial dysplasia.
C. until the patient is able to pay for it. C. Hyperkeratosis.
D. only after completion of the root canal D. Invasive carcinoma.
treatment and a full crown restoration.
E. by referring the patient to an endodontist.
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When restoring an endodontically treated tooth, Which of the following is NOT a contributor to
the post the pathogenesis of stomatitis?
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and translation.
When a patient experiences continuous pain in Which of the following drugs is most likely to
the maxillary premolar and molar areas and cause gingival overgrowth?
there is no evidence of dental infection, the
most likely diagnosis is A. Tetracycline.
B. Nifedipine.
A. trigeminal neuralgia. C. Insulin.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis. D. Hydrochlorothiazide.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
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and translation.
Dental amalgam
Localized gingival recession of a permanent
A. is subject to solubility and disintegration mandibular incisor in an 8 year old patient can
in the oral fluids. be caused by
B. has a satisfactory resistance to
compressive stress. A. ankyloglossia.
C. adheres chemically to the walls of the B. localized aggressive periodontitis.
cavity. C. traumatic occlusion.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).
E. all of the above.
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and translation.
A. Polyvinyl siloxane.
B. Condensing silicone.
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary C. Polyether.
mandibular second molar which has a draining D. Polysulfide.
sinus tract from the bifurcation area. The most
appropriate management is
A. Narrow based.
B. Limited bone exposure.
C. Able to be repositioned over bone. The most appropriate management for a
D. Mesial release incision. permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp
and a wide open apex is
A. pulpotomy.
Which of the following is NOT a clinical B. pulpectomy.
finding of hypothyroidism? C. regenerative endodontics.
D. root canal therapy using gutta-percha.
A. Anxiety. E. root canal therapy followed by a
B. Mild tremor. retrograde filling.
C. Puffy eyelids.
D. Exophthalmos.
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and translation.
A. sections and then soldered using an index A. acute apical abscess (acute periradicular
made on the master cast. abscess).
B. sections and then soldered using an index B. asymptomatic apical periodontitis
made intraorally. (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
C. one piece and then sectioned and soldered C. periodontal abscess.
using an index made on the master cast. D. chronic apical abcess (chronic
D. one piece and then sectioned and soldered periradicular abscess).
using an index made intraorally.
E. one piece and not sectioned or soldered.
A. acid etching.
B. polymerization shrinkage.
C. unpolymerized resin.
D. prolonged application of the curing light.
E. inadequate base thickness.
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and translation.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae. The residual mercury content of an amalgam
C. Streptococcus pyogenes. restoration is significantly affected by
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
A. size of the preparation.
B. amount of amalgam used.
C. type of amalgam used.
Which of the following is characteristic of D. burnishing technique.
irreversible pulpitis?
A. Coronal discolouration.
B. Canal calcifications.
C. Transient response to cold.
D. Lingering response to heat.
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and translation.
A. within 10 minutes.
B. within 1 hour. Radiographic examination reveals early
C. within 8 hours. evidence of internal resorption. Which is the
D. after 24 hours. most appropriate initial management?
A. Perform an apicoectomy.
B. Perform a pulp extirpation.
Which of the following statements is FALSE C. Perform a pulpotomy.
with respect to rounded internal line angles in D. Observe and re-evaluate in 3-6 months.
preparations for Class II composite resins?
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and translation.
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and translation.
A. Albumin. A. Osteoporosis.
B. Fibrinogen. B. Human papillomavirus infection.
C. Hemoglobin. C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Gamma globulin. D. Cigarette smoking.
E. B-lipoprotein.
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A. reactor.
B. catalyst.
C. retarder.
D. disinfectant.
E. cross linking agent.
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A. adenocarcinoma.
B. fibrosarcoma. A patient has a proven allergy to para-amino
C. squamous cell carcinoma. benzoic acid derivatives. Which local
D. granular cell myoblastoma. anesthetic solution can be used safely?
A. Procaine.
B. Benzocaine.
C. Tetracaine.
D. Lidocaine.
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and translation.
When an oxygen tank is half full, what is the When a partial denture framework fits the
pressure gauge reading? master cast but does not fit properly in the
mouth, the error is likely to be in the
A. 500 psig.
B. 1000 psig. A. impression making.
C. 1500 psig. B. casting of the framework.
D. 2000 psig. C. design of the framework.
D. preparation of the teeth.
A. 4½ years.
B. 6½ years.
C. 8½ years.
D. 11½ years.
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and translation.
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is caused by (a)
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation. A. virus.
B. bacteria.
C. fungus.
D. prion.
In the processing of methyl methacrylate,
denture porosity is most likely to appear in the
A. decreased inflammation.
B. reattachment of gingival fibers. Caries in older persons is most frequently
C. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth. found on which of the following locations?
D. connective tissue regeneration.
A. Pits and fissures.
B. Proximal enamel.
C. Root surfaces.
Which of the following drugs is D. Incisal dentin.
CONTRAINDICATED in patients with Long
QT syndrome?
A. Azithromycin.
B. Clotrimazole.
C. Diazepam.
D. Acyclovir.
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and translation.
In patients wearing complete dentures, the most The absence of adequate drainage in a
frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) periodontal pocket may result in
during speaking is
A. cyst formation.
A. nervous tension. B. abscess formation.
B. incorrect centric relation position. C. epithelial hyperplasia.
C. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. D. increased calculus formation.
D. lack of vertical overlap.
E. unbalanced occlusion.
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and translation.
A. Apical.
B. Rotational.
The epithelium covering the lesions of C. Mesial.
hyperplastic pulps is believed to be derived D. Lingual (palatal).
from the
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and translation.
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and translation.
A lingual approach for a conservative Class III A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
preparation for a composite resin requires B. Risorius and buccinator.
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
A. a retentive internal form. D. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus
B. parallelism of the incisal and gingival major.
walls.
C. maintenance of the incisal contact area.
D. All of the above.
A 65 year old patient has a tendency for urinary
tract stones. Radiographic examination shows
generalized loss of the lamina dura and a
In Canada, it is ethical for a dentist to refuse to “ground glass” appearance of the bone. What
treat a patient on the basis of the is the most likely diagnosis?
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and translation.
A patient has suffered a blow resulting in the Which of the following is a possible cause for a
loosening of 3 maxillary incisors. Vitality tests low density radiograph (light film)?
give negative readings. The most appropriate
management is to A. Cold developer.
B. Over exposure.
A. perform pulpectomies on the teeth. C. Improper safety light.
B. remove the teeth, fill the root canals and D. Excessive developing time.
replant.
C. splint the teeth, check vitality regularly
for the next 3 months.
D. splint the teeth and treat endodontically Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp
immediately. injury is assured by the application of
A. phenol.
B. 70% ethyl alcohol.
A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty C. chlorhexidine.
after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with D. absolute alcohol.
epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow E. None of the above.
and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood
pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine. diameter on the lateral border of the tongue
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. was diagnosed as a fibroma. This patient
C. An allergic reaction to the local should have
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope. A. hemisection of the tongue.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency. B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy.
C. no additional therapy.
D. re-excision with wider margins.
E. radium implantation around biopsy site.
Metronidazole has been prescribed for a patient
taking warfarin daily for the last 2 years. Which
of the following must be closely monitored?
A. Platelet count.
B. Hematocrit.
C. Bleeding time.
D. INR.
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and translation.
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and translation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the treatment
analgesic for a patient taking of
hydrochlorothiazide?
A. leukemia.
A. Acetaminophen. B. hyperthyroidism.
B. Celecoxib. C. sodium retention.
C. Ibuprofen. D. intestinal parasites.
D. Naproxen.
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A. Straight.
B. Distal step. In which of the following patients can you
C. Mesial step. safely extract a tooth in a dental office setting?
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and translation.
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and translation.
In the design of a removable partial denture, What is the most likely diagnosis of a white,
guiding planes are made diffuse, wrinkled appearing lesion of the buccal
mucosa which diminishes in prominence or
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. disappears upon stretching?
B. parallel to the path of insertion.
C. at a right angle to the occlusal plane. A. Leukoedema.
D. at a right angle to the major connector. B. Lichen planus.
C. Candidiasis.
D. Linea alba.
E. White sponge nevus.
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and translation.
When probing the sulcus of healthy gingiva, Which analgesic interferes with platelet
the tip of the periodontal probe extends aggregation?
The most appropriate opportunity for Which of the following, if left untreated, is
orthodontic treatment involving growth most likely to result in a periapical lesion?
manipulation is
A. Internal resorption.
A. during the late primary dentition. B. Reversible pulpitis.
B. after the eruption of third molars. C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
C. after skeletal growth is complete. D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis.
D. during the period of greatest growth E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.
velocity.
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and translation.
A patient who uses nitroglycerine has A. medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid and
masseter muscles.
A. rheumatic heart disease. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter and
B. asthma. geniohyoid muscles.
C. coronary artery disease. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis and masseter
D. high blood pressure. muscles.
E. cardiac arrhythmia. D. lateral pterygoid, masseter, temporalis and
geniohyoid muscles.
A. Opioids impair gastric motility to a greater A. the effect of the combination of two drugs
extent. is greater than the sum of their individual
B. NSAIDS cause more constipation. effects.
C. Opioids predispose to more bleeding. B. a drug accumulates in the body at a faster
D. NSAIDS cause more drowsiness. rate than it is destroyed or removed.
C. a drug is concentrated in the kidneys.
D. a drug produces active metabolites.
E. the concentration of the drug increases
Which of the following does NOT have a with time.
multilocular radiolucent appearance?
A. Ameloblastoma.
B. Odontogenic myxoma. Systemic antibiotics may be indicated for
C. Stafne bone defect/static bone cavity. patients presenting with generalized
D. Central giant cell granuloma.
E. Cherubism. A. chronic periodontitis.
B. aggressive periodontitis.
C. gingivitis.
D. gingival hyperplasia.
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A. acyclovir. A. erythromycin.
B. codeine. B. metronidazole.
C. ibuprofen. C. amoxicillin.
D. acetaminophen. D. tetracycline.
E. lithium E. clindamycin.
A well-controlled, type 1 diabetic patient A 6 year old has an open bite caused by active
requires extraction of 3 teeth. Which of the thumbsucking. The most appropriate
following considerations is most appropriate management is to
preoperatively?
A. insert a habit-breaking appliance.
A. Schedule surgery in the morning. B. refer to a psychologist for evaluation.
B. Prophylactic antibiotics are advised for C. encourage habit cessation and observe.
invasive treatments. D. bond limited fixed bracket.
C. If sedation is utilized, there should be no
alteration in patient’s insulin regime.
D. Treatment should take place in a hospital
setting. In the mixed dentition, an end-to-end first
permanent molar relationship is indicative of
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and translation.
A. anaphylactoid reaction.
B. hematoma.
C. cervicofacial emphysema. The incidence of a second mesiobuccal canal in
D. type 1 allergic reaction. the maxillary first molar is
A. 40%
B. 60%.
Radiographically, an osteoma appears C. 80%.
D. 100%.
A. radiopaque.
B. radiolucent.
C. either radiopaque or radiolucent.
D. radiolucent, surrounded by a radiopaque Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2%
line. lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well controlled
insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels
dizzy and weak. Beads of sweat have
Which of the following is the best predictor for accumulated on his forehead and upper lip. He
successful periodontal flap surgery? is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
A. Position of the flap after suturing.
B. Extent of flap reflection. A. administer glucagon 1.0mg.
C. Level of plaque control. B. administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
D. Type of initial incision. C. administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
D. elevate the patient's legs and administer
100% oxygen.
E. call 911 and begin CPR.
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and translation.
Roots of the permanent maxillary central Unmyelinated nerves found in the pulp that
incisors are completed by what age? respond to thermal, mechanical, chemical and
inflammatory stimuli are called
A. 8 years.
B. 10 years. A. C fibres.
C. 12 years. B. A delta fibres.
D. Later than 12 years. C. sympathetic fibres.
D. dentinal tubules.
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addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.