Questionnaire (CM)
Questionnaire (CM)
Clinical Microscopy
3. What are the variables included in the Cockgroft and Gault formula for
creatinine clearance?
1. Age 3. Urine creatinine
2. Sex 4. Body weight
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Why is the first-voided morning urine specimen the most desirable
specimen for routine urinalysis?
a. Most dilute specimen of the day
b. Less contamination by microorganisms
c. It can detect orthostatic proteinuria
d. Most concentrated specimen of the day
13. A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate
when it arrives in the laboratory may require:
a. Collection of a fresh specimen
b. Centrifugation
c. Dilution for specific gravity
d. Testing under a hood
15. A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be
suspected of containing:
a. Carrots
b. Hemoglobin
c. Rhubarb
d. Bilirubin
19. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is:
a. Bilirubin
b. Leukocyte esterase
c. pH
d. Glucose
20. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose has a sensitivity of:
a. 10 mg/dL
b. 50 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL
d. 200 mg/dL
23. All of the statements below regarding urine bilirubin tests are true
EXCEPT:
a. A positive test indicates either liver or hepatobiliary disease
b. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
c. High levels of ascorbate usually do not interfere
d. Standing urine may become falsely negative due to bacterial
hydrolysis
24. A positive test for blood in urine can occur in the following EXCEPT:
a. Extravascular hemolytic anemia
b. Crush injury
c. Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system
d. Renal calculi
25. Which of the following is the major organic substance found in urine?
a. Sodium
b. Glucose
c. Chloride
d. Urea
28. False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:
a. Bananas
b. Tomatoes
c. Pineapples
d. All of these
35. When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the
following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?
a. RBCs
b. WBCs
c. Casts
d. Bacteria
42. Visicoureteral reflux or the reflux of urine from the bladder back
into the ureters may result to:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Cystitis
c. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Acute interstitial nephritis
45. Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Acute renal failure
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
56. Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not
match?
a. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
b. Black, tarry: blood
c. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
d. Yellow-green: barium sulfate
57. All of the following statements about CSF are true EXCEPT:
a. CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the choroid
plexus
b. CSF circulates in the subarachnoid space and ventricles of the
brain
c. The chemical composition of CSF is similar to plasma
d. Reabsorption of CSF occurs via vessels in the sagittal sinus
58. All of the following are indication of CSF traumatic tap EXCEPT:
a. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
b. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
c. Xanthochromia
d. Presence of a clot in the sample
59. The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is:
a. Empyema
b. Neutrophilia
c. Pleocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
61. A normal CSF glucose and lactate level is associated with which type
of meningitis?
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Tubercular meningitis
65. The sugar present in the seminal fluid in high concentration is:
a. Glucose
b. Lactose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose
67. Which test for FLM is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin
and meconium?
a. Amniostat-FLM
b. Foam stability
c. Lamellar body count
d. L/S ratio
68. How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the
laboratory?
a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated or frozen
b. Immediately centrifuged
c. Kept at room temperature
d. Protected from light
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69. The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
a. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
b. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
c. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol
d. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase
70. What type of tube for gastric fluid collection is inserted through the
mouth?
a. Rehfuss tube
b. Levine tube
c. Diagnex tube
d. None of these
72. All of the following may be associated with bronchial asthma EXCEPT:
a. Creola bodies
b. Curschmann’s spirals
c. Charcot-Leyden crystals
d. Pneumoliths
73. A sputum that is rusty-colored and filled with pus is associated with:
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Lobar pneumonia
c. Tuberculosis
d. Anthracosis
80. Which of the following is the preferred urine specimen for cytology
studies?
a. Catheterized
b. First morning
c. Suprapubic aspiration
d. Three-glass collection
84. The most representative sample for fecal fat analysis is:
a. First morning
b. 3-day collection
c. 2-day collection
d. None of the above
85. Three labeled tubes of CSF specimen were sent to the laboratory. Which
of these tubes will be used for cell counting?
a. Tube 1
b. Tube 2
c. Tube 3
d. Any of these
86. If seminal fluid fructose analysis will be delayed for more than 2
hours, the sample should be stored at what condition?
a. Refrigerator temperature
b. Frozen
c. Body temperature
d. Room temperature
92. What is the minimum urine volume required by the Clinitek Atlas
automated instrument?
a. 1 mL
b. 2 mL
c. 7 mL
d. 15 mL
93. All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent
strips EXCEPT:
a. Storing in an opaque bottle
b. Storing at room temperature
c. Removing the dessicant from the bottle
d. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip