Questionnaire (ISBB)
Questionnaire (ISBB)
6. In which of the following blood group systems may the RBC typing change
during pregnancy?
a. Kidd
b. Lewis
c. MNS
d. Kell
8. Which of the following does not belong to the high titer low avidity
antibodies?
a. Anti-Ch
b. Anti-Yka
c. Anti-Co
d. Anti-JMH
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10. Adults who have the Le, Se, and H genes will exhibit which Lewis
antigen on their red cells?
a. Lea
b. Leb
c. Lea and Leb
d. None
13. Which of the following donors could be accepted for blood donation?
a. 18-year old woman with a hematocrit value of 38%
b. 45-year old man with a blood pressure of 180/100
c. 60-year old man with history of Babesiosis
d. 30-year old man who had been vaccinated for rabies 6 months ago
14. All of the following donors can be accepted for donating blood EXCEPT:
a. 30-year old female who had a rubella vaccination 6 weeks ago
b. 20-year old male with a body temperature of 99.4OF
c. 50-year old man with night sweats and skin lesions
d. 45-year old woman who was a recipient of recombinant growth
hormone
15. A man turns pale and complains of dizziness while donating blood. What
is the best course of action?
a. Continue the donation
b. Withdraw the needle, raise his feet and administer ammonia spirits
c. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
d. Tell him to sit upright and not have a reaction until the donation
is finished
16. What would be the cause of jet-like pulsating bleeding with bright red
blood during blood donation?
a. Increased vacuum from the blood bag
b. The donor is hypertensive
c. Brachial artery was punctured
d. The donor is a chronic smoker
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17. Red blood cells stored in CPDA-2 blood bag would have a shelf-life of:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 2 days
d. 42 days
22. What is the purpose of adding citric acid to blood bag preservatives?
a. To prevent coagulation
b. To restore ATP levels
c. To improve survival of red cells
d. To prevent caramelization
23. Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65OC would have a shelf-life of:
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
24. Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared from whole blood should contain
approximately how many units of factor VIII?
a. 40
b. 80
c. 150
d. 200
25. Quality control for RBCs requires a maximum hematocrit level of:
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 85%
d. 90%
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26. Cryoprecipitate that has been thawed must be transfused within ___
hours
a. 6
b. 8
c. 4
d. 24
27. Platelets prepared from a whole blood donation require which of the
following?
a. A light spin followed by a heavy spin
b. Two light spins
c. A hard spin followed by a light spin
d. Two heavy spins
35. What procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-C and anti-Fyb
in an antibody mixture?
a. Use a thiol reagent
b. Run an enzyme panel
c. Lower the pH of test serum
d. Run a regular panel
40. Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored
for a minimum of how many days following transfusion?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
42. RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition
of AHG reagent to:
a. Wash away any hemolyzed cells
b. Neutralize any excess AHG reagent
c. Increase the antibody binding to antigen
d. Remove traces of free serum globulins
46. Cephalosporin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC
hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is involved in the hemolytic
process?
a. Membrane modification
b. Drug adsorption
c. Immune complex formation
d. Autoantibody formation
60. Which of the following IgG subclasses does not cross the placenta?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4
61. What is the major amino acid component of the hinge region of an
immunoglobulin molecule?
a. Lysine
b. Glutamine
c. Proline
d. Tryptophan
76. If the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and
testing exceeds 4 hours, the serum should be reheated at:
a. 37OC for 30 minutes
b. 37OC for 10 minutes
c. 56OC for 30 minutes
d. 56OC for 10 minutes
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79. The reactions on DNA-methyl green substrates when testing for the
presence of anti-DNase are:
a. (+) Blue, (-) Yellow
b. (+) Red, (-) Orange
c. (+) Green, (-) Colorless
d. (+) Purple, (-) Yellow
84. Among the following congenital infections, which one is the most
common?
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Rubella infection
c. Cytomegalovirus infection
d. Herpes virus infection
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85. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are
present in a positive result?
a. A
b. H and/or M
c. 1, 2, 3
d. HS, HL, F
86. If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out?
a. HBV vaccination
b. Distant past infection with HBV
c. HBIG injection
d. Chronic HBV infection
87. This test will detect parasitic lactate dehydrogenase enzyme present
in malarial organisms:
a. Optimal
b. Malaquick
c. Monospot
d. Streptozyme
88. Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with
HIV?
a. Band at p24
b. Bands at gp160
c. Bands at p24 and p31
d. Band at p24 and gp120
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Chronic active hepatitis
d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
90. Which immunofluorescent pattern indicates the need for further testing
by Ouchterlony double diffusion?
a. Solid
b. Mottled
c. Rim
d. Nucleolar
98. The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is 20OC. How
will this affect RPR test result?
a. No effect – the acceptable test range is 20-24OC
b. Weaken reactions so that false negatives occur
c. Strengthen reactions so that positive titers appear elevated
d. Increase the number of false positives from spontaneous clumping