Pharmacology NEW
Pharmacology NEW
Pharmacology NEW
29. For which of the following conditions would a client most 36. Which of the following clients would the nurse question if
likely be receiving timolol maleate (Timoptic)? a narcotic analgesic medication was ordered?
a. gastric ulcer a. A 68 year old client with rheumatoid arthritis
b. glaucoma b. A 42 year old three-day postoperative gall bladder
c. lung cancer client
d. urinary tract infection c. An 8 year old burn client
d. A 22-year old car accident client with head injury
30. Medications that cause the pupil of the eye to constrict are
called: 37. The nurse should be most concerned if a client develops
a. mydriatics which of the following side effects while on levodopa
b. vasoconstrictors (Dopar)?
c. miotics a. nausea and vomiting
d. diuretics b. blurred vision
c. tachycardia
d. edema
38. A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder would 45. What do atropine, benztropine (Cogentin),
most likely be receiving which medication? trihexyphenidyl (Artane), and dicyclomine (Bentyl) all
a. phenytoin (Dilantin) have in common?
b. methylphenidate (Ritalin) a. all are used in GI disorders
c. dexamethasone (Decadrom) b. all are classified as anticholinergics
d. Cimetidine (Tagamet). c. all are given only PO
d. all are classified as analgesics
39. Following surgery, a client has an order for nalbuphine
HCl (Nubain) for moderate to severe pain. The 46. A client is receiving propylthiouracil (Propacil) for which
assessment for possible adverse reactions should include condition?
observing for a. Grave’s disease
a. blurred vision, palpitations, and urinary retention b. Cushing’s syndrome
b. decreased pulse rate, drowsiness, and nausea c. Cretinism
c. increased confusion, tachycardia, and anorexia d. Myxedema
d. irregular pulse, hypotension, and oliguria
47. A client mistakenly receives a dose of insulin twice as
40. The nurse teaches the client that a synergistic interaction large as was ordered. Symptoms he most likely will
is likely if which of the following medications are taken experience are:
together? a. deep slow respirations, dry skin
a. alcohol and diazepam (Valium) b. low blood pressure, increased urine output
b. tetracycline and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) c. diaphoresis, disorientation
c. Cimetidine (Tagamet) and prochlorperazine d. edema, tachycardia
(Compazine)
d. Vincristine (Oncovin) and penicillin 48. In teaching a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic client about
insulin, the nurse should include the fact that the peak
41. A 32 year old male client is admitted to the unit. During action of NPH insulin will occur:
the initial assessment, the nurse notes that he has gingival a. 1 to 2 hours after administration
hyperplasia. Although he does not remember the names b. 3 to 4 hours after administration
of the medications he is taking at home, it is very likely c. 6 to 8 hours after administraton
that one of the medications is: d. 10 to 12 hours after administration
a. oxazepam (Serax)
b. phenytoin (Dilantin) 49. To which of the following clients would the nurse be
c. diazepam (Valium) administering glyburide (Micronase)?
d. chlordiazepoxide (Librium) a. Type 1 diabetic client
b. Type 2 diabetic client
42. Which of the following nursing implications would be the c. Gestational diabetes
most important for a client receiving amphetamine d. DKA patients
(Dexedrine)?
a. give the last dose at bedtime 50. Teaching for clients who are receiving tetracycline
b. monitor the patient’s blood pressure (Sumycin) should include instructions on how to:
c. monitor the patient for depression a. avoid taking with milk or antacids
d. give medication on an empty stomach. b. stay in the direct sunlight as much as possible to
increase the production of natural vitamin D
43. Which of the following side effects should the nurse c. eat fresh fruits to prevent constipation
monitor for the client who just received atropine IV? d. reduce fluid intake to prevent renal failure
a. moon face, hirsutism
b. tachycardia, dry mouth 51. A female client with a history of multiple sclerosis has
c. edema of the extremities, bradycardia orders for dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). The nurse will
d. constricted pupils, diarrhea know the client understands the action of the drug when
she says
44. Which of the following medications would the nurse a. “I need to use a sunscreen when I go outside”.
expect to be used for the client who has a gastric ulcer? b. “I can’t take any other medications when I’m on this
a. Ipratropium (Atrovent) drug.”
b. benztropine (Cogentin) c. “I take this drug only when my spasms are bad.”
c. trihexyphenidyl (Artane) d. “I should see a marked change in my muscle strength
d. dicyclomine (Bentyl) within two to three days”
52. Bethanecol chloride (Urecholine) is ordered PRN for a 58. A client with urinary tract infection is given an
client following a transurethral resection of the prostate aminoglycoside (Gentamicin) antimicrobial therapy. The
(TURP). Which of the following conditions would need nurse understands that this drug is more effective when
to be present for the nurse to administer this drug? the urine is
a. Complaints of bladder spasms a. concentrated
b. Complaints of severe pain. b. dilute
c. Inability to void c. alkaline
d. Frequent episodes of painful urination d. acid
53. Which of the statements is most accurate about the drug 59. A client with the diagnosis of systemic lupus
cimetidine (Tagamet) and should be discussed with clients erythematosus is placed on hydroxychloroquine
who take the medications? (Plaquenil), an antimalarial drug, to reduce skin
a. Tagamet should be taken together with an antacid to inflammation. A toxic reaction to this drug that the nurse
decrease GI distress will teach the client to report is
b. Tagamet should be used cautiously with clients on a. muscle cramps
Coumadin b. decreased visual acuity
c. Tagamet should be taken on an empty stomach for c. cardiac arrhythmias
better absorption. d. joint pain
d. Tagamet is usually prescribed only for long-term
prevention of gastric ulcers. 60. A male client is currently taking Digitalis 0.25 mg daily,
Lasix 100 mg daily, Acyclovir 10 mg QID and Tagamet
54. A 60-year old male client with chronic osteroarthritis is 300 mg QID. Which one of the following drugs has
severely debilitated. Betamethasone (celestone) therapy potential side effects that are the most life-threatening?
has been ordered for him. The nurse will advise the client a. Digitalis
to take a single, daily dose of the drug. b. Lasix
a. At bedtime with a glass of milk c. Acyclovir
b. With orange juice at bedtime. d. Tagamet
c. With milk in the morning
d. On an empty stomach in the morning 61. The nurse suggests which of the following foods to
minimize the risk of digitalis toxicity to a patient who is
55. A client is receiving lithium carbonate for manic behavior. on digoxin?
Administration of this medication should be guided by A. Turkey, green beans, and Italian bread
a. Maintaining a therapeutic dose of 900 mg TID B. Cottage cheese, cooked broccoli, and roast beef
b. Encouraging regular blood studies (serum lithium C. Fish, green beans, and cherry pie
levels) until the maintenance dose is stabilized. D. Whole grain cereal, orange juice, and apricots
c. Telling the client that a lag of 7 to 10 days can be
expected between the initiation of lithium therapy 62. A patient with chronic renal failure is receiving
and the control of manic symptoms. hemodialysis treatments 4 times per week. Patient
d. Telling the client that muscle weakness indicates complains of headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue.
severe toxicity and the physician should be notified. Which medication is contraindicated and will not alleviate
these problems?
56. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. A. Acetylsalicylic acid
An unexpected outcome when this drug is given is B. Quinine sulfate
a. Increased urine sodium C. Trimeprazine tartrate (Temaril)
b. Increased urinary output D. Epogen
c. Increased potassium excretion
d. Gynecomastia in males 63. A patient is instructed to report which of the following
side effect of neomycin administration?
57. A client with a fractured right hip has Buck’s traction A. Deafness
applied and orders for prophylactic anticoagulant therapy. B. Nausea
The nurse anticipates that the physician will order C. Diarrhea
a. aspirin D. Anaphylaxis
b. dextran
c. heparin 64. What drug may the nurse administer to prevent
d. coumadin pseudoparkinsonism?
A. Chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine)
B. Trifluoperazine HCl ( Stelazine)
C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
D. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
65. Most adverse drug effects in the elderly occur because 72. The nurse prepares to teach the parents of a newborn
A. The amount of body water is decreased infant with an unrepaired cardiac defect about the side
B. Hormone activity is generally diminished effects of digoxin. Which side effect should the nurse
C. The amount of body fat tends to increase with age exclude from the teaching plan?
D. CNS effects decrease in the elderly A. Dysrhythmias
B. Yellow-green visual halos
66. The nurse administers preop medication, atropine 0.15 mg C. Bradycardia
IM. Fifteen minutes later, the patient is breathing rapidly D. Vomiting
and has a flushed, red face. The nurse should
A. Administer the atropine antidote stat. 73. In evaluating a patient’s response to beta-mimetic therapy
B. Give the patient a cool sponge bath used to inhibit premature labor, to which sign of side
C. Tell the patient these are normal side effects of effects must the nurse be alert?
atropine A. Maternal hypertension
D. Page and advise the surgeon of the patient’s condition B. Fetal bradycardia
before transporting the patient to the OR. C. Maternal and fetal tachycardia
D. Uterine hypertonia
67. Under usual circumstances, nitroglycerin taken
sublingually should relieve pain in 74. Meperidine (Demerol), a synthetic opiate, is a commonly
A. Less than 1 minute used narcotic for women in labor. The nurse must time the
B. 2-3 minutes administration of this drug so that birth ideally occurs
C. Over 5 minutes A. 1 hour after administration
D. 7-8 minutes B. 2 hours after administration
C. 3 hours after administration
68. The plan of care for a patient on clozapine (Clozaril) D. 4 hours after administration
includes monitoring what side effects?
A. Seizures due to reduction in seizure threshold 75. Theophylline and 5% dextrose are being infused IV for a
B. WBC above 3000/mm³ patient in acute distress from asthma. The patient is
C. Granulocyte count above 1500/mm³ experiencing hypotension and an irregular pulse. The first
D. Decreased salivation nursing action would be to
A. Stop the medication and call the ED physician
69. Health teaching regarding uncomfortable signs and B. Check the BP and pulse frequently while the drug
symptoms of side effects of oral antibiotic therapy infuses
includes C. Increase IV rate to reverse possible hypovolemia
A. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) D. Slow infusion rate and notify the ED physician
B. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
C. Nausea and glossitis 76. Dietary instructions for a patient on long-term
D. Nausea, diarrhea, and vaginal yeast infections corticosteroid therapy include
A. Increase calcium and vitamin D supplements to
70. In teaching parents about giving oral tetracycline to a 10- reduce osteoporosis.
year-old, the nurse would be most correct in advising B. Increase sodium intake to prevent dehydration
them to C. Reduce potassium to avoid cardiac complications
A. Keep the child out of direct sunlight. D. Increase carbohydrate intake to maintain ideal
B. Give it with dairy products to avoid GI upset weight.
C. Not report common side effects such as diarrhea and
rash 77. Which drug should the RN withhold before hemodialysis?
D. Have the child brush teeth often, because this A. Digoxin
medication interferes with tooth enamel formation B. Verapamil
C. Norpace
71. In administering 0.4 mL to a 4-month-old infant, the nurse D. Ibuprofen
should select which size syringe and needle?
A. Insulin syringe, 21-gauge needle 78. A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is given
B. 1 ml syringe, 21-gauge needle Nimotop 60 mg PO every 4 hours. What expected
C. Tuberculin syringe, 25-gauge needle outcome will the nurse anticipate as a result of this
D. 3 mL syringe, 23-gauge needle medication?
A. Increased BP
B. Tachycardia
C. Decrease in cerebral vasospasm
D. Focal seizure activity
79. What nursing intervention is essential when administering 86. A patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic atrial
nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)? fibrillation is on a daily dose of Coumadin 2.5 mg. The
A. Assess liver function tests. serum INR level is 4.7. What intervention should the
B. Dilute and administer with normal saline. nurse be prepared to initiate?
C. Assess for elevated systolic BP. A. Observe the patient for the possibility of an embolic
D. Cover the IV solution with aluminum foil. event.
B. Have a PTT drawn to completely evaluate the level
80. The nurse is to give meperidine 75 mg and scopolamine of anticoagulation
0.3 mg preoperatively to a patient with a history of C. Prepare to give the patient protamine sulfate.
glaucoma. What would be the nurse’s response to the D. Monitor the patient for signs of bleeding.
order?
A. Give the drugs as ordered. 87. The doctor orders an IV fluid to infuse at 320 mL every 8
B. Teach the patient the side effects. hours. If the nurse hangs a 500 mL bag at 10:45 AM,
C. Dim the lights and raise side rails after injection. when will this bag need to be changed?
D. Do not give and call the MD. A. 3 PM
B. 6:45 PM
81. The physiological effect of using dobutamine (Dobutex) C. 8:30 PM
and nitroglycerine (Tridil) together for the patient in D. 10:45 PM
cardiogenic shock is to
A. Increase both renal perfusion and BP 88. Specific nursing intervention for a client who is receiving
B. Increase cardiac output and decrease myocardial doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for acute myelogenous
workload leukemia should include
C. Increase myocardial oxygen consumption and A. Giving frequent oral hygiene and increasing oral
decrease BP fluids
D. Increase both peripheral vascular resistance and B. Administering medications IM and encouraging
cerebral blood flow activity
C. Serving hot liquids, such as broths or tea, with each
82. What should be the nurse’s priority in monitoring the meal
patient who is taking risperidone (Risperdal)? D. Emphasizing that the disease will be cured with this
A. Hypertensive reaction treatment
B. Hormonal effect
C. Gastrointestinal reaction 89. A client who is immunosuppressed is receiving filgrastim
D. Anticholinergic effects (Neupogen). When assessing the client’s response to this
medication the finding that would be considered
83. The nurse anticipates that the backbone of treatment for significant is an increase in
patients with myasthenia gravis will be A. Platelets
A. Adrenergic drugs B. Erythrocytes
B. Anticholinergic drugs C. Thrombocytes
C. Anticholinesterase drugs D. WBC
D. Cholinergic drugs
90. A client with Hodgkin’s disease is to receive the cyclic
84. What should a patient with Parkinson’s disease be taught antineoplastic vincristine (Oncovin) as part of a therapy
about levodopa? protocol. The nurse understands that Oncovin helps
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach. destroy the malignant cells by
B. Ongoing therapy brings continuous symptomatic A. Arresting mitosis in metaphase
relief B. Inhibiting the synthesis of pyrimidine
C. Signs of toxicity include muscle flaccidity C. Alkylating nucleic acids needed for mitosis
D. Avoid multivitamins with pyridoxine D. Inactivating DNA and inhibiting RNA synthesis
85. A patient is awaiting the insertion of a pacemaker. The BP 91. The nurse is reviewing a list of current medications with
is 128/60. Which medication should the nurse have an 80-year-old client who has developed GI bleeding. The
available during this patient’s pre-operative period? medication that should be questioned would be
A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) A. Ibuprofen (Advil)
B. Atropine sulfate B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Digoxin C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Propranolol HCl (Inderal) D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
92. A client with DKA is initially treated with IV fluids 99. The physician prescribes cholestyramine (Questran) to
followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse treat a client’s persistent diarrhea. This drug reduces the
anticipates that the physician probably will order a absorption of fat, which may produce a deficiency of
continuous infusion of A. Thiamine
A. Humulin N insulin B. Vitamin A
B. Humulin R insulin C. Riboflavin
C. Semilente D. Vitamin B6
D. Ultralente
100. A chelating agent used for lead poisoning would be
93. The nurse should monitor a child receiving vincristine A. Calcium gluconate
(Oncovin) for untoward reactions affecting the B. Lomustine (CCNU)
A. Emotional status C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Neurologic status D. Calcium disodium edentate (EDTA)
C. Respiratory status
D. Cardiovascular status