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1. Accounting
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sale
B. Cash balance C. Cost of the stock
C. Overdraft D. Replacement cost
D. Debit balance
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17. If debit balances = credit balances,
11. Which of the following inventory val- trial balance only shows or checks
uation methods show higher profits the and it does not indicate that
during the period of rising prices? no errors were made during recording
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20. Real account records 27. Which of the following items of bal-
A. Dealings with creditors or debtors ance sheet are useful in evaluating a
B. Dealings in commodities company’s liquidity?
C. Gains and losses A. Current assets and other assets
D. All of the above B. Current liabilities and current as-
sets
21. Which of the following can be dis- C. Current liabilities and plant and
tributed among the shareholders? equipment
A. Capital reserve D. In current liabilities and other as-
B. General reserve sets
C. Revaluation reserve
D. All of the above 28. The expenses that have fallen due for
payment but not paid are
22. When capital is increased by an A. Outstanding expenses
amount, it is recorded on the: B. Deffered expenses
A. Left or credit side of the account C. Accrues expenses
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B. Right or debit side of the account D. Prepaid expenses
C. Right or credit side of the account
D. Left or debit side of the account 29. Which of the following is a type of
cash receipt journal + cash payment
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23. When one or both aspects of a trans- journal?
action are recorded in the wrong class A. Bank statement
or category of account, it is called B. Statement of cash flow
C. Cash book
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A. Error of principle
B. Error of omission D. Cash documents
C. Error of commission
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A. 2 ticular year
C. Financial conditions of an institu-
B. 4
C. 3 tions
D. All of the above
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D. 5
42. Which of the following is an example
36. Return on Investment Ratio (ROI) =
of business liability?
A. (Gross profit / Net sales) x 100
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A. Land
B. (Gross profit x Sales / Fixed as-
B. Building
sets) x 100 C. Cash
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46. Which of the following is not re- 52. Which of the following ratios indicate
garded as the fundamental concept the short-term liquidity of a business?
that is identified by IAS-1? A. Inventory turnover ratio
A. The going concern concept B. Debt equity ratio
C. Acid test ratio
B. The separate entity concept
D. Proprietary ratio
C. The prudence concept
D. Correction concept 53. An expenditure whose benefit is
finished or enjoyed immediately is
47. The following is a statement of rev-
called
enues and expenses for a specific pe- A. Expense
riod of time B. Liability
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A. Trading account C. Cost
B. Trial Balance D. Income
C. Profit& Loss statements
D. Balance Sheet 54. Discount received is recorded on
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which of the following side of a cash
48. The value of inventories or stock is book?
figured out at the lower of cost and A. Receipts
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C. Customs duty paid in connection
D. Income
with the import of equipment
61. Cost of a fixed asset-Accumulated de- D. Repairs and maintenance on ma-
preciation expenses of the fixed asset chinery
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=?
A. Book value of a fixed asset 67. Which of the following is a selling
B. Market value of a fixed asset expense?
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D. Capital account in which services are received from
the asset, is termed as
73. Under which method of depreciation, A. Appreciation
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the amount of depreciation expenses B. Depreciation
remains constant throughout the life C. Fluctuation
of the asset? D. None of the above
A. Reducing balance method
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C. Expenses
A. Communicating-> Recording-> D. Liability
Identifying
B. Recording-> Communicating-> 80. Cash book with cash and discount col-
Identifying umn is mostly referred to as
C. Identifying-> Communicating-> A. Simple cash book
Recording B. Two columns cash book
D. Identifying-> Recording-> Com- C. Three columns cash book
D. Petty cash book
municating
81. Which account is the odd one out?
75. A current asset that is convertible to
A. Office furniture and equipment
cash within 3 months can be referred B. Freehold land and building
to as C. Stock of raw materials
A. Cash asset D. Plant and machinery
B. Operating asset
C. Intangible assets 82. A debit balance in the bank statement
D. Cash equivalent indicates
12 Chapter 1. Accounting
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C. Debtor committed a crime
A. Posting
D. Debtor declared to be a bankrupt
B. Entry
85. Bills receivable endorsed are debited C. Accounting
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to D. None of the above
A. Bills Payable A/c
92. Which of the following financial state-
B. Debtor’s A/c
C. Endorsee A/c ments show the financial health of an
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86. Budgeting is difficult to apply in the B. Trading and Profit& Loss account
following cases C. Cash flow statement
A. Products subjected to rapid D. Statement of retained earnings
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changes
B. Job order manufacturing 93. The basic consideration(s) in distinc-
C. Uncertain market condition tion between capital and revenue ex-
D. All of the above penditure is/are
A. Nature of business
87. Petty cash balance is B. Effect on revenue generating ca-
A. Liability pacity of the business
B. Income C. Purpose of expenses
C. Expense D. All of the above
D. Asset
94. Lower the Debt Equity ratio
88. are cheques that are issued by A. Lower the protection to creditors
the business but not yet presented to B. Higher the protection to creditors
bank for payment C. It does not affect the creditors
A. Uncollected cheques D. None of the above
B. Uncredited cheques
C. Outstanding cheques 95. A Trial Balance contains the balances
D. Bounced cheques of
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C. Current liability A. Cash
D. Current asset B. Charity
C. Purchases
98. Which of the following is NOT a cash D. Sales
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inflow?
105. The revenue recognition principle
A. Sale of fixed asset
dictates that all types of incomes
B. Issue of debentures
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109. An entry which is made on both 115. Which of the following accounting
sides of a cash book is called equation is correct?
A. Cash entry A. Cash + Other assets = Capital-
B. Contra entry Liabilities
C. Payment entry B. Capital + Liabilities = Assets + In-
D. Compound entry come
C. Assets-Liabilities = Capital
110. Bank pass book is also known as D. Assets + Capital = Liabilities
A. Bank book
B. Bank account 116. Which of the following subsidiary
C. Bank column books serves the purpose of ledger
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D. Bank statement too, in addition to the recording of
accounting transaction?
111. The concept of ’separate entity’ is
A. Purchases book
applicable to which of the following
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B. Sales book
types of businesses?
C. Bills receivable book
A. Sole proprietorship
D. Cash Book
B. Corporation
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A. A Debit note is sent to him both the parties
B. An Account sale is sent to him D. None of the above
C. A receipt is sent to him 129. Which of the following is time spann
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D. Either ’b’ or ’c’
into which the total life of a business
123. The assumption underlying the fixed is divided for the purpose of preparing
installment method of depreciation is financial statements?
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A. Equal usage
B. Usage D. Accrual period
C. Charge 130. Which one of the following inven-
D. None of the above
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A. It lists down the balances of ac-
A. Franchise rights counts
B. Goodwill B. It lists down the balances of a bal-
C. Patents ance sheet
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D. Land C. It is a kind of financial statement
135. A brief explanation recorded below D. It is not a part of accounting cycle
every entry in General Journal is com-
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144. Revenue from sale of product ordi- 150. Money spent to acquire or upgrade
narily is reported as part of earning in physical assets is known as
the period A. Revenue expense
A. The planning takes place B. Capital expense
B. The sale is made C. Administrative expense
C. The product is manufactured D. Operating expense
D. The cash is collected 151. principle requires that the
145. Overriding commission is generally same accounting method should be
calculated on used from one accounting period to
A. Cash sale only the next
B. Total sales exceeding invoice val- A. Conservatism
B. Consistency
ue/cost
C. Business entity
C. Credit sales D. Money measurement
D. None of the above
152. Which of the following is true when
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146. Which of the following accounts can a debtor pays his dues?
be classified as a real account? A. The asset side of the balance sheet
A. Rent expenses account will decrease
B. Rent income account B. The asset side of the balance sheet
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C. Insurance expenses account will increase
D. Cash account C. The liability side of the balance
sheet will increase
147. Which one of the following is IN-
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B. It is deducted from Material avail- 153. The debts which are to be repaid
able for use within a short period (year or less) are
C. It becomes opening stock of next known as
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158. Sales on credit is recorded in which A. Purchases account
of the following journal? B. Mr. Ali account
A. Purchase journal C. Cash account
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B. Sales journal D. Sales account
C. Purchase return journal
165. Which of the following enhances the
D. Sales return journal
earning capacity of an asset?
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the bill.
A. X C. Replacing damage parts of an as-
B. Y set
D. Both ’b’ and ’c’
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C. Z
D. None of the above
166. Which of the following account will
160. Capital increases if increases be credited, if business bought goods
A. Expenses are greater than income on credit from Mr. Z?
B. Drawings A. Purchases account
C. Interest on capital B. Mr. Z account
D. Revenue C. Cash account
D. Sales account
161. In Journal, the business transaction
is recorded 167. Under which depreciation method,
A. Same day the amount of depreciation expenses
B. Next day remains same throughtout the life of
C. Once in a week the asset?
D. Once in a month A. Straight line method
B. Reducing balance method
162. Authorized share capital is also C. Number of units produced method
known as D. Machine hours method
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168. Cash discount is allowed on 174. Which of the following are closed at
repayment of debt the end of an accounting period?
A. Lump sum A. Nominal accounts
B. Prompt B. Personal accounts
C. Actual C. Real accounts
D. None of them D. None of them
169. Which of the following sets of ex- 175. is the first phase of accounting
pense are the direct expense of busi- cycle
ness? A. Identifying an economic event or
A. Wages, Carriage Inward, Octroi transaction
B. Postage, Wages, Carriage Inward B. Preparing Journal
C. Purchases, Wages, Coal Expenses C. Posting entries to Ledger accounts
D. Both ’a’ and ’c’ D. Making decisions about business
170. Transaction between business and 176. No journal entry is required to be
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owner are recorded following passed when there is
concept A. Loss by theft
A. Periodicity B. Normal loss
B. Business entity
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C. Loss of bad debts
C. Prudence D. Abnormal loss of business
D. Going concern
177. Purchase of fixed assets on credit is
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A. Double column cash book is pre- A. Future economic benefits for the
pared business
B. Three column cash book is pre- B. All kinds of benefits for the busi-
pared ness
C. Simple cash book is prepared C. Expenses for the business
D. Merits& Demerits for the business
D. None of the above
181. Merchandise on hand at either the 186. The process of recording transac-
beginning or end of the accounting tions in different journals is called
period is called A. Posting
A. Raw material B. Entry making
B. Cost of goods sold C. Adjusting
D. Journalising
C. Work in progress
D. Inventory 187. Bookkeeping mainly consists of
which part of accounting process?
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182. What is depreciation? A. Analysing
A. Cost of a fixed asset B. Preparing financial statements
B. Cost of a fixed asset’s repair C. Recording financial information
C. The residual value of a fixed asset D. Auditing the books of accounts
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D. Portion of a fixed asset’s cost con- 188. Normally the following accounts are
sumed during the current accounting balanced
period A. Real account and Nominal ac-
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count
183. Which of the following is a leverage B. Personal account and Real ac-
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ratio? count
A. Debt equity ratio C. Only Nominal account
B. Current ratio D. All accounts
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191. Which of the following is the inter- 197. is the common base for prepar-
nal user of financial statements? ing a trial balance
A. Creditor of the business A. Ledger accounts
B. Government agency B. General Journal
C. Shareholder of the business C. Specialized journals
D. Manager of the business D. Balance sheet
192. Which of the following is a real ac- 198. Which of the following is used
count? to record financial transactions in
A. Salary account chronological (day-to-day) order?
B. Cash account A. Voucher
C. Outstanding rent account B. General Journal
D. Sundry creditors account C. General Ledger
D. Trial Balance
193. The persons who sign Articles ans
Memorandum of the company and 199. The installation expenses for a new
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contribute in the initial share capital machinery will be debited to
of the company are called A. Cash A/c
A. Subscribers B. Profit& Loss A/c
B. Shareholders C. Machinery A/c
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C. Managers D. Installation expenses A/c
D. Directors
200. Trial Balance is prepared to check
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a
A. Capital expenditure C. Income statement balances
D. Cash flow statement balances
B. Deferred Revenue expenditure
C. Revenue expenditure
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C. Supplier account C. Base stock
D. Work in progress account D. None of the above
206. Interest on Capital is for the 212. Balance sheets are prepared
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business A. Daily
A. Revenue B. Weekly
B. Expense C. Monthly
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C. Gain D. Annually
D. None of the above 213. A credit balance in cash book indi-
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cates
207. Commercial accounting is based on A. Bank balance
A. Single entry book keeping B. Cash at bank
B. Double entry book keeping
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C. Bank overdraft
C. Both single and double entry book D. Bank underdraft
keeping
D. Cash basis of book keeping 214. The accrual basis of accounting
records revenues when they are
208. Purchase book is maintained to A. Collected
record B. Earned
A. All credit purchases C. Contracted
B. All cash purchases D. Readily available for use
C. Purchases of goods
215. Any return evidence in support of a
D. None of the above
business transaction is called
209. Exercising a degree of caution in A. Journal
B. Ledger
the case of judgements needed under
C. Ledger posting
the condition of uncertainity is the as- D. Voucher
sumption of which of the following
accounting concepts? 216. Cash book records
23
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C. Patents by the business is known as
D. Prepaid expenses A. Contra asset revenue
B. Accrued expenses
C. Accrued revenue
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219. Which of the following account with
normal balance is shown at the debit D. Unearned revenue
side of a trial balance? 226. Which of the following specialized
A. Rent income account
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to B. Credit, Debit
A. Suspense A/c C. Liability, Asset
B. Difference A/c D. None of the above
C. P& L A/c
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D. Trading A/c 238. The accounting equation is based on
A. Dual aspect
232. General office expenses are charged B. Business entity
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C. Bills payable book B. Over investment in assets
D. Journal Proper C. Both A and B
245. Reserve capital means D. None of the above
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A. Part of subscribed uncalled capital
B. Accumulated profit 252. What is nature of Capital account?
C. Part of Capital Reserve A. Debit
D. Part of Capital Redemption Re- B. Credit
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C. Expenses
serve
D. Loss
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B. 1
C. 6 A. Depreciation
D. 2 B. Drawings
C. Outflow of cash
247. Under which method of inventory D. Appreciation
costing, a pre-determined cost is as-
signed to all items of inventory? 254. In case of debit balance, the words
A. Replacement cost method are written on the debit side
B. Standard cost method A. To Balance b/d
C. AVCO or average cost B. To Balance c/d
D. FIFO method C. By Balance c/d
D. By Balance b/d
248. The person from whom the goods
are purchased on credit are called 255. Patents accounts are
A. Debtors A. Secured loan account
B. Creditors B. Nominal account
C. Accounts receivable C. Real account
D. None of the above D. Debtors account
26 Chapter 1. Accounting
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ful life of a fixed asset is: C. When the inventory is sold
A. a certain figure D. Not at all recorded in the books
B. an estimate
265. Bank Reconciliation statement is the
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C. a predetermined figure for all fixed
assets comparision of a bank statement (sent
by bank) with the
259. Which of the following will be deb- A. Cash receipt journal
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A. Expenses
260. Double entry accounting system in- B. Revenues
cludes C. Capital
A. Accrual accounting only D. Drawing
B. Cash accounting only
C. Both cash and accrual accounting 267. Parties to a bill of exchange are
D. None of the above A. Drawer
B. Drawee
261. General Journal is a book of C. Payee
entries D. All of the above
A. First
B. Original 268. Gross profit is equal to
C. Secondary A. Opening stock + purchases-
D. Generic closing stock
B. Net profit-expenses
262. Discount allowed is a kind of deduc- C. Sales-Closing stock + purchases
tion from D. Sales-Cost of goods sold
27
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have value is known as
271. Which of the following is non-profit A. Current assets
organization? B. Fixed assets
A. Sole proprietorship C. Intangible assets
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B. Partnership D. Investments
C. Limited company
D. Trust 278. Interest on loan paid by business is
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an example of
272. An ‘account’ records the in A. Revenue expense
the balance of an item B. Income
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A. Increase C. Asset
B. Decrease D. Return outward
C. Increase or decrease
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B. Non Quantifiable economic event
D. Notary public C. All of them
D. None of them
284. Identify the asset from the following
A. Cash and cash equivalent
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291. Right shares are the shares
B. Creditors A. Issued by a newly formed com-
C. Notes payable pany
D. Bank loan B. Legally issued to the public at
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large
285. The ratios that refer to the ability of C. Offered to the existing equity
the firm to meet the short term obliga-
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shareholders
tions out of its short term resources D. That have a right of redemption
A. Liquidity ratio
B. Leverage ratio 292. Trial Balance is commonly prepared
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295. Cash book is prepared by 301. Profit& Loss account is prepared for
A. Bank a period of one year by following
B. Accountant of business A. Periodicity concept
C. Manager of a company B. Business entity concept
D. Bank’s cashier C. Accrual concept
D. None of the above
296. Which of the following is the effect
on net income if a business decreases 302. Net Profit = Gross Profit minus
A. Operating expenses
its provision for bad debts? B. Product cost
A. It will increase net income C. Deferred expenses
B. It will decrease net income D. Direct cost
C. No effect
D. It will increase gross profit and net 303. Preliminary expenses are treated as
income A. Fixed asstes
B. Current assets
297. Which of the following is the most C. Intangible assets
D. Miscellaneous expenditure
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important document of the company?
A. Memorandum of association
304. Journals are also referred to as
B. Articles of association A. Book of entries
C. Annual report B. Book of original entries
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D. Prospectus C. T account
D. Book of economic events
298. A cash book that is used to record
the small payments of cash is gener- 305. In the calculation of depreciation, all
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D. Salvage value
299. Every business transaction affects at
least accounts 306. Which of the following account will
A. One be credited in the books of XYZ Co.
B. Two Ltd, if the business purchases a vehi-
C. Three cle thriugh cheque?
D. Infinite A. Vehicle account
B. Business account
300. Does prudence concept allow a busi- C. Bank account
ness to build substantially higher re- D. Debtors account
serves or provisions than that are ac- 307. The assets that can be converted into
tually required? cash within a short period (i.e. 1 year
A. Yes or less) are known as
B. No A. Current assets
C. To some extent B. Fixed assets
D. It depends on the type of business C. Intangible assets
D. Investments
30 Chapter 1. Accounting
310. Opening and closing inventories are 317. Different accounting policies can be
recorded in adopted in the following area(s)
A. Journal proper A. Valuation of inventories
B. Purchase book B. Valuation of Investments
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C. Calculation of depreciation
C. Sales book
D. All of the above
D. Bill receivable book
318. Which of the following is a liability?
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311. Accrued expenses are considered as A. Cash
A. Asset B. Equipment
B. Liability C. Debtors
C. Gain D. Creditors
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D. Income
319. The concept that "an accountant
312. Net profit is computed in which of
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322. In case goods are manufactured and A. Increase gross profit and decrease
segregated for specified consumers, net profit
the best method for valuation of in- B. Decrease gross profit as well as
ventory would be net profit
A. FIFO C. Increase value of assets
B. Simple average D. Increase gross profit as well as net
C. Base stock profit
D. Specific identification method
328. Liquid or Quick assets =
323. Which of the following accounts A. Current assets-(Stock + Work in
will be credited if a company pur- progress)
B. Current assets + Stock + Work in
chases building for cash?
progress
A. Capital account
C. (Current assets + Stock) + Work
B. Fixed assets account
in progress
C. Building account D. (Current assets + Work in
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D. Cash account progress)-Stock
324. Del-credere Commission is allowed 329. Narrations are given at the end of
to cover
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A. Final accounts
A. All types losses B. Trial Balance
B. Abnormal loss C. Each Ledger account
C. Normal loss D. Each journal entry
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C. Credit sales and purchases B. Income
C. Liabilities
D. Cash sales and purchases
D. None of the above
335. Identify the nominal account
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342. What type of expenses are paid out
A. Machinery account
of Gross Profit?
B. Building account
A. General expenses
C. Creditors account
B. Financial expenses
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C. Net assets
ance sheet?
D. Working capital
A. Business entity concept
337. When a liability is reduced or de- B. Money measurement concept
C. Cost concept
creased, it is recorded on the:
D. Going concern concept
A. Left or credit side of the account
B. Right or debit side of the account 344. Which of the following would NOT
C. Right or credit side of the account be considered as a component of ’cost’
D. Left or debit side of the account of stock?
A. Transportation inward costs
338. The maximum amount beyond
B. Import duties
which a company is not allowed to C. Salaries of selling staff
raise funds by issue of shares is D. Purchase price
A. Issued capital
B. Reserve capital 345. Which is the most important char-
C. Nominal capital acteristic that all assets of a business
D. Subscribed capital have?
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D. None of the above A. Drawings
B. Income
348. is not required in Promissory C. Gains
Note D. Fresh capital
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A. Acceptance
B. Noting 355. Cost of goods available for sale-
C. Discounting closing inventory =?
D. None of the above A. Opening inventiry
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C. Business entity
D. Dual aspect is entered into the Journal?
A. Alphabetical order
350. Credit note is the basis for recording B. Numeric order
a transaction in which of the follow- C. Bullets order
D. Chronological order
ing journals?
A. Purchase Journal 357. A company cannot issue redeemable
B. Sales return journal preference shares for a period exceed-
C. General journal ing
D. Cash receipt journal A. 10 years
B. 20 years
351. The most common imprest system is C. 30 years
the system D. 15 years
A. Petty cash
B. Cash book 358. Which of the following appears in
C. Cash receipts journal the profit and loss appropriation ac-
D. Discount count?
34 Chapter 1. Accounting
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C. Credit note A. No error in recording transactions
D. Debit note B. No error in posting entries to
ledger accounts
361. Which of the following is/are kind
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C. Account balances are correct
of depreciation expenses? D. Mathematically Capital + Liabili-
A. Amortization ties = Assets
B. Depletion
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C. Both of them 368. When will the bill mature if the date
of maturity of a bill is a holiday
362. If a transaction is completely omit- A. Holiday itself
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B. No
C. Transactions can 369. In an account, when credit side total
< debit side total, then, the balance is
363. Which of the following account with known as
normal balance is shown at the credit A. Negative balance
side of a trial balance? B. Debit balance
A. Cash account C. Positive balance
B. Bank account D. Credit balance
C. Equipment account
D. Accrued expenses account 370. Double entry implies that
A. Recording entries in Journal
364. The normal balance of capital ac- B. Recording entries in Ledger ac-
count is count
A. Credit balance C. Recording two aspects of every
B. Debit balance transaction
C. Cash balance D. Recording every transaction in
D. Neither debit nor credit balance books
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371. Which liability is not included in the 377. American companies prepare their fi-
total of Balance Sheet? nancial statement in Dollars whereas
A. Current liabilities Japanese companies produce financial
B. Contingent liabilities statement in Yen. This is an example
C. Fixed liabilities of:
D. All of the above A. Stable monetary unit concept
B. Unit of measurement concept
372. Which one of the following concepts C. Money value concept
states that the publication or presen- D. Current swap concept
tation of financial statements should
378. Which of the following is (are)
not be delayed?
A. Objectivity concept type(s) of Public Limited Companies?
A. Listed companies
B. Timing concept B. Non listed companies
C. Timeliness concept C. Private limited companies
D. Reliability concept D. Both listed and non listed compa-
nies
am
373. The normal balance of asset account
is 379. Which of the following is TRUE
A. Credit balance about the treatment of insurance pre-
B. Debit balance mium paid in advance
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C. Cash balance A. Current asset
D. Neither debit nor credit balance B. Current liability
C. Short term liability
374. Which counting concept dictates the D. Fixed asset
hr
D. Prudence concept
C. If current assets = current liabili-
375. Patents, Copyrights and Trademarks ties
are 381. Which one of the following state-
A. Current assets
ment is CORRECT about long term
B. Fixed assets
liabilities?
C. Intangible assets
A. These are due within one year
D. Investments B. These consist of all debts, payabke
376. A firm has not recorded the bad after 12 months
C. In working capital, these are de-
debts by mistake. Which of the fol-
ducted from current assets
lowing is the effect of bad debt om- D. All of the above
mission?
A. Net profit would decrease 382. Which of the following accounts
B. Net profit would increase will be debited if the business’s owner
C. Gross profit would overstate withdraws cash from business for per-
D. Gross profit would understate sonal use?
36 Chapter 1. Accounting
am
385. The allocation of owner’s private A. Noting
expenses to his/her business violates B. Discounting
which of the following? C. Acceptance
A. Accrual concept D. None of the above
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B. Matching concept
C. Separate business entity concept 392. "Treating a revenue expenditure as a
D. Consistency concept capital expenditure" is an example of
hr
A. Compensating error
386. The purchase price of a software that B. Error of principle
will be used for more than 12 months C. Error of omission
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388. Expenditure incurred annually on re- 395. The normal balance of liability ac-
newal of patent is a count is
A. Revenue expenditure A. Credit balance
B. Capital expenditure B. Debit balance
C. Financial expenditure C. Cash balance
D. Operating expenditure D. Neither debit nor credit balance
37
396. The portion of the acquisition cost of 402. Which of the following capital is
an asset yet to be allocated is known taken up by the general public?
as A. Issued capital
A. Written down value B. Subscribed capital
B. Accumulated value C. Authorized capital
C. Realizable value D. Reserve capital
D. Salvage value
403. Which of the following assets are
397. Liabilities are which of the follow- shown at written down value in Bal-
ing? ance sheet?
A. Resources A. Current assets
B. Obligations B. Liquid asset
C. Future benefits C. Floating assets
D. Expenses D. Fixed asset
404. An informal accounting statement
398. The expenses related to the main op-
that lists the ledger account balances
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erations of a business are referred to
at a point of time and compares the
as
A. Administration expense total of debit balances with the total
B. Non-administration expense of credit balances is known as
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C. Selling expense A. Income statement
D. Operating expense B. Balance sheet
C. Trial balance
399. Drawings by owner of business are D. Cash Book
hr
A. These are the running expenses of 410. Which of the following capital is re-
the business quired for the registration of the com-
B. They improve the financial posi- pany?
tion of the business A. Issued capital
C. They reduce the profit of the con- B. Subscribed capital
cern C. Authorized capital
D. They do not appear in the balance D. Reserve capital
sheet
411. The unfavorable balance of Profit
408. How trial balance shows the accu- and Loss account should be
mulated depreciation? A. Added to liabilities
B. Subtracted from current assets
A. as a debit item
C. Subtracted from capital
B. as a credit item
D. Subtracted from liabilities
C. It doesn’t show
412. Accounting is the process of match-
409. Favourable balance of cash book im- ing
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plies A. Benefits and costs
A. Credit balance of cash book B. Revenues and costs
B. Debit balance of cash book C. Cash inflows and outflows
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C. Bank overdraft D. Potential and real performance
D. Adjusted balance of cash book
hr
Answers
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25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. C
36. D 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. D 41. D 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. D
47. C 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B
58. C 59. D 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. D 65. A 66. C 67. C 68. C
69. B 70. A 71. B 72. B 73. C 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. B
80. C 81. C 82. B 83. C 84. D 85. C 86. D 87. D 88. C 89. C 90. B
91. A 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. A 98. D 99. C 100. C 101. D
102. A 103. D 104. C 105. C 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. D 111. D
112. B 113. C 114. A 115. C 116. D 117. A 118. B 119. B 120. C 121. A
122. A 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. A 127. C 128. C 129. C 130. B 131. D
132. D 133. C 134. D 135. A 136. D 137. B 138. B 139. C 140. A 141. D
142. D 143. A 144. B 145. B 146. D 147. D 148. A 149. B 150. B 151. B
152. D 153. A 154. C 155. A 156. A 157. C 158. B 159. C 160. D 161. A
162. A 163. D 164. B 165. D 166. B 167. A 168. B 169. D 170. B 171. B
172. C 173. C 174. A 175. A 176. B 177. D 178. B 179. A 180. A 181. D
182. D 183. A 184. B 185. A 186. D 187. C 188. B 189. D 190. A 191. D
39
192. B 193. A 194. C 195. C 196. B 197. A 198. B 199. C 200. A 201. C
202. B 203. A 204. B 205. B 206. B 207. B 208. A 209. D 210. C 211. C
212. D 213. C 214. B 215. D 216. C 217. A 218. C 219. D 220. C 221. B
222. C 223. C 224. C 225. C 226. D 227. A 228. D 229. D 230. A 231. A
232. A 233. B 234. B 235. C 236. B 237. A 238. A 239. C 240. C 241. A
242. A 243. C 244. D 245. A 246. B 247. B 248. B 249. C 250. A 251. C
252. B 253. B 254. A 255. C 256. A 257. A 258. B 259. D 260. C 261. B
262. B 263. C 264. D 265. C 266. C 267. D 268. D 269. D 270. C 271. D
272. C 273. C 274. B 275. D 276. D 277. C 278. A 279. D 280. A 281. C
282. C 283. C 284. A 285. A 286. A 287. B 288. C 289. D 290. A 291. C
292. B 293. A 294. D 295. B 296. A 297. A 298. D 299. B 300. B 301. A
302. A 303. D 304. B 305. C 306. C 307. A 308. C 309. B 310. A 311. B
312. B 313. C 314. D 315. B 316. D 317. D 318. D 319. A 320. C 321. C
322. D 323. D 324. D 325. B 326. C 327. D 328. A 329. D 330. D 331. B
332. C 333. C 334. D 335. D 336. D 337. D 338. C 339. D 340. B 341. A
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342. D 343. A 344. C 345. D 346. D 347. C 348. A 349. B 350. B 351. A
352. C 353. C 354. A 355. D 356. D 357. B 358. B 359. B 360. C 361. C
362. B 363. D 364. A 365. D 366. D 367. D 368. C 369. B 370. C 371. B
372. C 373. B 374. D 375. C 376. B 377. B 378. D 379. A 380. A 381. B
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382. A 383. C 384. D 385. C 386. B 387. D 388. A 389. B 390. C 391. C
392. B 393. A 394. A 395. A 396. A 397. B 398. D 399. B 400. D 401. A
402. A 403. D 404. C 405. A 406. C 407. B 408. B 409. B 410. C 411. C
hr
412. B
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Ja
Ja
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hr
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am
2. Buiseness and commerce
am
D. Department of union government
D. mandiwalas
10. The preference shares which cannot
16. Which type of shareholders does not
be converted into equity shares are
have voting rights?
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preference shares. A. Equity shareholders
A. cumulative B. Preference shareholders
B. non-cumulative C. Deferred shareholders
C. redeemable
hr
D. Ordinary shareholders
D. non-convertible
17. A sleeping partner is one who
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D. contributes materials
C. 9 members
D. 8 members 18. The managerial grid consist of how
many possible leadership styles?
12. An open office has the benefit of A. 61
B. 71
A. privacy C. 81
B. economy D. 91
C. efficiency
D. inflexibility 19. A firm which outsources its works re-
quires
13. Liability of partners in respect of the A. more employees
firms debts is B. less employees
A. limited up to the amount of his C. skilled employees
capital in the business D. semi-skilled employees
B. Unlimited
C. limited up to the amount of guar- 20. Which shareholders are the real own-
antee given by the partner ers of the company?
43
am
C. records are kept B. repayment of capital
D. control is situated C. both dividend and repayment of
capital
23. Which index system is used when
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D. right to vote on all important mo-
small information is required about tions in AGM
customers?
A. Vowel index 29. societies are voluntary associ-
hr
32. The limit for maximum number of 38. The industry which is concerned with
members in a public company is re- the breeding of plants or animals,
stricted to which are used in reproduction is
A. 2000 termed as
B. 5000 A. Construction industry
C. 10000 B. Extractive industry
D. no limit C. Genetic Industry
D. Manufacturing industry
33. Decentralization of authority means
39. Layout is based on the se-
A. giving permission to the subordi- quence of work.
nate to do his work A. Group
B. conveying what the subordinate is B. Process
expected to do C. Open
C. delegating responsibility D. Closed
D. departmentalizing activities
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40. The first stock exchange in the
34. The interests and rights of customers world
are given top priority. A. Mumbai stock exchange
A. The Vendor Model B. America stock exchange
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B. The Civic Model C. London stock exchange
C. The Austre Model D. France stock exchange
D. The Artistic Model
hr
45. Economic activities are related to 51. When SEBI came into force?
A. 1992
A. Production of wealth B. 1991
B. Satisfy ones urge C. 1990
C. Undertaking social service D. 1993
D. Social service 52. A Piece Rate System written by
A. Harold Koontz
46. A nominal partner is
B. Taylor
A. not entitled to share the profits of C. Louis Allan
the concern D. Hendry Fayol
B. entitled to equal share in the prof-
am
its unless there is an agreement to any 53. Insurance business is based on
other profit sharing ratio A. Parkinson law
C. not liable for the acts of other part- B. Newton law
C. The theory of probability and law
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ners
D. not able to third parties of large numbers
D. Boyle law
47. The return of shares to the company
hr
B. Transmission of shares
C. Redeemable shares B. is a director
D. Irredeemable shares C. is a relative of the managing direc-
tor
Ja
48. A partnership firm cannot raise funds D. works to publicity to the company
by
A. bank loan
55. One-man-one-vote-is the principle
B. Partner loan
adopted by
C. debentures
A. Partnership
D. partner capital
B. Joint Stock Companies
49. The liability of shareholders of a pub- C. Co-operative Societies
D. Sole proprietorship
lic company is limited to the
A. nominal value of shares 56. Fixed capital is also called as
B. extent of their private assets A. blocked capital
C. paid up value of shares B. unblocked capital
D. accounts called up C. working capital
D. non-working capital
50. Life insurance in its present form
came to India from 57. layout is not flexible.
46 Chapter 2. Buiseness and commerce
am
65. Except life insurance generally the
B. negative style
maximum term of other insurance is
C. free-rain style
.
D. democratic style
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A. 12 months
60. The price of a share quoted in the B. 24 months
stock exchange is cum, dividend C. 6 months
D. 36 months
hr
when
A. it is inclusive of dividend declared 66. The liability of members of a co-
B. it is exclusive of dividend declared
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operative society is
C. it excludes interest A. limited to the amount of nominal
D. it includes interest value of capital held
Ja
63. The most important advantage of a 68. Which types of files are available in
joint stock company form of business the form of tray that lie flat horizon-
organization is that tally in a cabinet?
47
am
holders, it is known as
producers. A. private placing
A. Consumers B. bonus issue
B. Producers C. rights issue
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C. Marketing D. offer for sale
D. Housing
77. The optimum point is an size of
71. Which co-operative societies are help-
hr
a firm.
ful to their members in purchasing A. Ideal
land and constructing houses? B. Average
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A. Consumers C. Over
B. Producers D. Extra
C. Marketing
Ja
am
C. bad 89. A partner in a firm
D. good A. cannot transfer his share to an out-
sider
83. The agent of brokers who obtain busi- B. can transfer his share to an out-
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ness for them are sider with the consent of majority
A. remesiers partners
B. trade agents C. can transfer his share to an out-
hr
am
C. merits
D. None C. RBI
D. financial Institution
95. While delegating, a superior
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delegates 101. The transitional period in the life
A. Only authority of an expanding firm is called
B. Authority and responsibility firm.
C. Authority, responsibility and ac-
hr
A. pessimism
countability B. ideal
D. Authority and responsibility but C. average
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am
A. Entrepot trade
B. Import trade 113. means a method of filing
C. Export trade while indexing.
A. Classification
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D. wholesale trade
B. Trays
107. Members of Bombay stock ex- C. Page Index
D. Visible Books
change are unofficially classified into
hr
118. Fully paid-up shares are called 125. refers to a smaller area.
A. Securities A. Site
B. Stock B. State
C. Dividends C. District
D. Debentures D. Country
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D. method of distribution of profit
120. The management of the company is
127. A speculator who applies for new
entrusted to
share is
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A. Promoters
B. Employees A. a stag
C. Share holders B. middle man
C. jobber
D. Board of Directors
hr
D. lame duck
121. Memory unit performs the function
128. The term is concerned with
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of
moral values.
A. calculations at a very high speed
A. Ethics
B. giving out the end product B. Business
C. controlling at the operating units
Ja
C. Profit
D. storing the data D. Loss
122. Profession involves 129. Debentures are not re-
A. Rendering of personal service deemable during life time of the com-
B. Undertaking a business
pany.
C. Undertaking a contract A. Redeemable
D. Profit motive B. Irredeemable
C. Convertible
123. Which machine is used for stamping
D. Non-convertible
outward mail?
A. Franking machine 130. Providing fair returns to investors.
B. Adding machine A. Social objectives
C. Mailing machine B. National objectives
D. Accounting machine C. Economic objectives
D. Human objectives
124. Overall and strategic planning is
done by the 131. Registration of a partnership is
52 Chapter 2. Buiseness and commerce
A. compulsory A. Premium
B. voluntary B. Policy
C. statutory C. Insurance
D. mandatory D. Contract
132. The financial market for short term 138. The co-operative societies are
funds is known as formed to give financial help to small
A. capital market farmers and other poor sections of the
B. money market society.
C. bullion market A. Consumers
D. share market B. Producers
C. Credit
133. Secured debentures are also called D. Housing
as
A. Mortgaged debentures 139. Non-economic activities aim at
B. Simple debentures
C. Bearer debentures A. social service
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D. Registered debentures B. profit maximization
C. consumer satisfaction
134. The agreement of partnership D. wealth
A. Must be oral
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B. Must be in writing 140. Public deposits obtained by a com-
C. Can be either oral or in writing pany means
D. Must be in writing on a stamp pa- A. deposits received from govern-
hr
per ment
B. deposits received from public at
135. Registration of partnership is
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large
A. optional under Indian partnership C. deposits received from stockiest
act and agent as advance
B. compulsory under the Indian part- D. deposit received from share hold-
Ja
am
firm A. Promoter
D. Only debts of the firm B. Registered shareholder
C. Director
145. is a substitute for a companys D. Broker
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signature.
A. Director signature 152. Which of the following securities is
B. Manager Signature not redeemable?
hr
am
C. Equality C. Registrar of the company
D. Welfare D. Board of directors
158. Speculation in stock exchange
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164. Horizontal filing is also called as
means
A. Investment in securities A. box filing
B. Gambling in securities B. flat filing
hr
change in prices
D. Creating secret profits 165. means a fraction of the capital
of a company.
159. A bearer of a share warrant of a com- A. Stock
Ja
pany is B. Exchange
A. a creditor of the company C. Bear
B. a member of the company D. Stag
C. a member subject to certain condi-
tions 166. Fish culture should be classified as
D. not a member of the company
A. extractive industry
160. highly flexible type of organi- B. genetic industry
zation. C. manufacturing industry
A. Sole Trading Concern D. construction industry
B. Partnership
C. State Enterprises 167. Which of the following is not an
D. Joint Stock Companies ownership security?
A. Equity shares
161. Which of the following are compo- B. Preference shares
nents of organized sector of stock ex- C. Debentures
change? D. Both B and C
55
am
170. Which of the following is an eco- C. Debentures
nomic activity? D. Land
A. A farmer in the field
177. The moral beliefs held by an individ-
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B. A teacher teaching his son
C. A social worker at a relief camp ual.
D. A social worker A. Values
B. Rights
hr
jobs.
178. The minimum number of members
A. Human resources
B. Recruitment required for registration of a co-
operative society is
Ja
C. Staffing
D. Placement A. 2
B. 7
172. Stationary layout is suitable for man- C. 10
ufacturing D. 20
A. small products
B. light products 179. Business means
C. bulky products A. Commerce
D. technical items B. Industry and commerce
C. Trade and commerce
173. Contango charge is paid by D. Selling and buying of goods
A. bull speculator to bear speculator
B. bear speculator to bull speculator 180. Which type of classification is based
C. lame duck to bull speculator on numerical order?
D. stag to under writer A. Alphabetical classification
B. Alphanumeric classification
174. A written agreement signed by all C. Numerical classification
partners is called D. Geographical classification
56 Chapter 2. Buiseness and commerce
181. The most common method used for 187. Control of management of the com-
marketing of new securities is pany mainly vests in
A. sale of existing shareholders A. equity shareholders
B. stock exchange placing B. preference shareholders
C. direct sale to public through C. debenture holders
prospectus D. share holders
D. sale to biometers
188. Which of the following companies
182. Planning and control are func- may issue share warrants?
tions of an office. A. Companies limited by guarantee
A. informative B. Private limited companies
C. Public limited companies
B. administrative
D. Trust
C. public
D. private 189. Which is the first procedure for deal-
ing at stock exchange?
183. The Insurer who grants a guarantee A. Placing an order
am
from the direct insurer is called as B. Selection of broker
C. Contract note
A. Direct Insurer D. Settlement
B. Ceding Insurer
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C. Re-Insurer 190. is the arrangement of furniture
D. Double Insurer and equipment with the available floor
space.
hr
186. The primary function of an office is 192. Which type of adding machine pro-
vides a printed record?
A. making, using and preserving A. Listing machine
B. Non-listing machine
records
C. Numbering machine
B. remuneration personnel
D. Stamping matching
C. carrying out the management poli-
cies 193. A capital intensive enterprise re-
D. safeguarding of authority means quires
57
am
D. Horizontal filing B. issued of equity shares
C. issue of preference shares
196. Mimeograph is a D. issue of debentures
A. stencil duplicator
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203. The minimum number of sharehold-
B. method of photocopying ers in a public limited company is
C. process of electrical photography
D. process of blue printing A. 2
hr
B. 3
197. New issue market is an integral part C. 5
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of the D. 7
A. stock exchange
B. capital market 204. External oral communication is
C. stock exchange and capital market passed on with the help of me-
Ja
207. A partnership firm cannot raise 214. Industries are engaged in extracting
funds through and supplying products from earth,air
A. bank loan and water
B. partners loan A. Extractive Industries
C. Debentures B. Manufacturing Industries
D. partners capital C. Genetic Industries
D. Assembly Industries
208. Filing is an important aspect of
215. The office management simply
A. record keeping means to
B. book keeping A. Eliminate
C. house-keeping B. Withdraw
D. time keeping C. Control
D. Decide
209. Which function is basis of control?
A. Planning 216. Co-operative societies have
B. Organizing management.
am
C. Controlling A. Government
D. staffing B. Democratic
C. Autocratic
210. In which method of filing, papers D. Private
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and documents are placed in metal
holders in chorological order? 217. The oldest form of business organi-
A. Box file zation is
B. Bound book
hr
A. partnership
C. Metal holders B. sole proprietorship
D. Pillar file C. joint stock company
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D. co-operative undertaking
211. Which of the following speculators
expect fall in the prices of securities 218. An association of 25 people not reg-
Ja
221. The purpose of an office is to furnish A. only when there are profits
essential services to the B. even if there are no profits
A. public C. only when directors recommend
B. management D. only when share holders recom-
C. clerks mend
D. creditors
228. When a transfer of shares takes place
222. Partnership may come into existence by the operation of law, it is known as
am
A. size
A. Commercial banks B. profit
B. Trade credit C. sales
C. Installment credit D. Demand
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D. Advances
230. The primary objective of co-
224. A valid definition of a business pur- operative society is
pose is to A. Service Motive
hr
am
supplied including the amount of loan
236. Deferred shares can be issued by by each member
D. government company
D. Closed
237. firm enjoys lowest average
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C. Small-scale
D. Equilibrium C. 431992
D. 441992
238. The liability of a sole proprietor is
243. A building jointly owned is called
office
A. Limited to the extent of his capital
A. layout
invested in the business B. condominium
B. Limited to the extent of the value C. accommodation
of business assets D. location
C. Limited to the extent of the value
of business assets and his all private 244. Which of the following speculative
assets activities is based on disparity in
D. Limited value of the business as- quoted prices in different markets?
sets A. Option dealing
B. Arbitrage
239. Ploughing back of profits means C. Margin trading
D. Blank transfers
61
246. Which method of filing is useful for 252. A speculator who expects prices to
those concerns where numbers of let- fall in future and sell securities is
ters are small? called as
A. Pigeon-hole A. bear
B. Card board filing B. bull
C. Spike C. stag
D. Press copy book method D. lame duck
am
247. Sole-trade organization is also called 253. When the name of the transferee is
as not filled in not filled in the transfer
A. Individual proprietorship deed, without filling in the name of
B. Partnership the transferee it is called
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C. Joint stock company A. option dealing
D. Co-operative society B. forward dealing
C. blank transfers
hr
dia
D. Speculators Exchange Board of
249. In which method of filing, a spike is
India
fixed in a wooden or a metal base?
A. Pigeon-hole method 255. A Government company is one in
B. The spike file which
C. Card board filing A. the entire share capital is held by
D. Box filing the central and / or state government
B. 50% of capital is held by central
250. A manager with a share in the profits
government and the remaining 50%
by one or more state governments
A. is only a servant of the firm
C. at least 51% of the capital is held
B. becomes a partner by the opera-
by central and / or state governments
tion of law
D. all of above
C. becomes a partner by implied
agreement 256. The person whose risk is insured is
D. becomes a partner from status called .
62 Chapter 2. Buiseness and commerce
am
B. digital
D. not compulsory C. electronic
259. A bear speculator is also called as D. log
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266. A Joint stock company is governed
A. Manidiwala by
B. Tejiwala
A. Companies Act 2006
C. Tarawaniwalas
B. Companies Act 1936
hr
D. Vaniwala
C. Companies Act 2012
260. The first organized stock exchange D. Companies Act 2013
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C. 1991 India
D. 1994 B. Over The Country Exchange Of
India
261. In case of dissolution of partnership, C. Over The Comparison Exchange
the business of the firm Of India
A. does not come to an end D. Over The Company Exchange Of
B. comes to an end India
C. will come to an end shortly
D. constitution of the firm remains 268. is a force to drive a person to
unchanged action.
A. Motivation
262. Which of the following sources is B. Co ordination
not use for medium term financing? C. Co-operation
A. Issue of equity shares D. Control
B. Issue of debentures
C. Term loans from banks 269. were the pioneers of the co-
D. Sale of current asset operative movement.
63
am
A. fifteen
B. sixteen
2
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Answers
14. A 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. B 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. A
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36. B 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. A
47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. A 57. A
58. B 59. D 60. A 61. C 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. A 66. D 67. C 68. C
Ja
69. C 70. B 71. D 72. A 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. C 77. A 78. B 79. B
80. B 81. A 82. A 83. A 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. A 90. B
91. C 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. C 97. B 98. C 99. B 100. A 101. B
102. B 103. A 104. C 105. D 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. C 110. A 111. A
112. B 113. A 114. D 115. A 116. C 117. B 118. B 119. C 120. D 121. D
122. A 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. C 127. A 128. A 129. B 130. A 131. B
132. B 133. A 134. D 135. A 136. A 137. C 138. C 139. A 140. B 141. C
142. A 143. D 144. B 145. C 146. C 147. D 148. B 149. B 150. B 151. B
152. A 153. B 154. D 155. B 156. B 157. A 158. C 159. D 160. A 161. B
162. B 163. A 164. B 165. A 166. B 167. C 168. B 169. D 170. A 171. C
172. C 173. A 174. A 175. C 176. A 177. A 178. C 179. B 180. C 181. C
182. B 183. C 184. C 185. A 186. A 187. A 188. C 189. B 190. C 191. C
192. A 193. B 194. B 195. D 196. B 197. B 198. A 199. A 200. A 201. A
202. A 203. D 204. B 205. A 206. C 207. C 208. C 209. A 210. C 211. B
212. C 213. A 214. A 215. C 216. B 217. B 218. D 219. B 220. C 221. B
222. C 223. A 224. A 225. D 226. B 227. C 228. B 229. A 230. A 231. B
64 Chapter 2. Buiseness and commerce
232. A 233. B 234. B 235. A 236. B 237. B 238. C 239. C 240. B 241. A
242. A 243. B 244. B 245. D 246. B 247. A 248. B 249. B 250. A 251. A
252. A 253. C 254. C 255. D 256. D 257. B 258. B 259. A 260. A 261. A
262. A 263. A 264. A 265. B 266. D 267. A 268. A 269. B 270. C 271. D
272. D 273. A
am
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hr
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3. Costing
A. transferred-in costs
B. transferred-out costs 6. Value of sales considers sales value at
C. FIFO costs split off method is of
D. LIFO costs A. entire direct material of account-
ing period
3. In specification analysis, assumptions B. entire production of accounting
related to linearity states but linearity period
must be within C. portion of production of account-
A. irrelevant range ing period
B. relevant range D. entire indirect material of account-
C. significant range ing period
D. insignificant range
7. If an average inventory is 2000 units,
4. Input is 10,000 units and normal loss annual relevant carrying cost of each
is 20% of input and abnormal loss is unit is$5, then annual relevant carry-
400 units What is actual output? ing cost will be
66 Chapter 3. Costing
am
C. semi variable cost A. fixed cost function
D. semi fixed cost B. variable cost function
C. step variable cost function
D. step fixed cost function
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10. If sales budget variance is$57000
and flexible budget amount is$97000, 15. The type of loss that should not affect
then static budget amount will be cost of inventories is
A. $40,000
hr
A. normal loss
B. $154,000 B. abnormal loss
C. $164,000 C. seasonal loss
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12. Costs of issuing purchase orders, mak- 17. In process costing, a joint product is:
A. a product which is later divided
ing of delivery records for tracking
into many parts
payments and costs of inspection of
B. a product which is produced si-
items are classified as
multaneously with other products and
A. stock-out costs
is of similar value to at least one of
B. ordering costs the other products.
C. carrying costs C. A product which is produced si-
D. purchasing costs multaneously with other products but
67
am
B. purpose cost
joint to compute C. an activity
A. Gross margin percentage D. an allocation cost
B. total production cost of each prod-
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uct 25. An inward delivery charges and cus-
C. allocated joint costs tom duties are classified as
D. cost of split off point A. direct labour costs
B. indirect labour costs
hr
which have been used as allocation 26. The method in which issue prices of
base to calculate material is computed by dividing to-
A. budget overhead applied tal purchase cost of material in stock
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am
D. material wasted
30. Most suitable basis for apportioning
insurance of machine would be: 36. Direct labour and salary outlays direct
A. Floor Area material purchases, which are classi-
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B. Value of Machines fied as
C. No of Workers A. price disbursements
D. No of Machines B. cash disbursements
hr
C. budget disbursements
31. If budgeted indirect cost arte is$115 D. goods disbursements
and budgeted cost allocation base
iS
is$830 per hour, then annual indirect 37. Labour cost is the second element of
cost (budgeted) will be
A. $93,450 A. cost
Ja
B. $94,560 B. profit
C. $96,450 C. sales
D. $95,450 D. task
32. Total cost of producing similar prod- 38. Following information is available of
ucts divided by number of units pro- PQR for year ended March, 20XX:
duced is a technique known as 4,000 units in process, 3,800 units out-
A. sale costing system put, 10% of input is normal wastage,
B. job costing system Rs 2.50 per unit is scrap value and Rs
C. price costing system 46,000 incurred towards total process
D. process costing system cost then amount on account of abnor-
mal gain to be transferred to Costing
33. If difference between costs linked to P&L will be:-
highest and lowest observation of cost A. Rs 2,500
driver is$8000 and observation of cost B. Rs 2,000
driver is 40 machine hours, then slope C. Rs 4,000
coefficient will be D. Rs 3,500
69
39. A helpful technique, for accurate fore- 45. An arrangement of line of authority
casts about costs to be incurred in fu- within company is classified as
ture is a part of A. company structure
A. unit estimation B. organization structure
B. production estimation C. line of authority
C. cost estimation D. line of responsibility
D. price estimation 46. First step in developing an operating
budget is to
40. Which one of following is an example A. identify product
of spoilage? B. identify problem
A. short lengths from wood work C. identify quartiles
B. defective aluminium cans recy- D. identify percentiles
cled by manufacturer
C. detection of defective pieces be- 47. If budgeted cost in indirect cost pool
fore shipment is$139600 and total quantity of cost
D. all of above allocation base is$155600, then bud-
am
geted indirect cost rate would be
41. Depreciation of plant and machinery A. 69.72%
is a part of B. 79.72%
C. 99.75%
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A. factory overhead
D. 89.72%
B. selling overhead
C. distribution overhead 48. Conversion cost includes cost of
D. administration overhead converting into
hr
51. Budgeted direct labour hours are mul- 57. Indirect materials can be apportioned
tiplied to direct labour cost rate to cal- on the basis of
culate A. direct material
A. expected total direct labour cost B. prime cost
B. budgeted total direct labour cost C. direct labour hour
C. budgeted total indirect labour cost D. machine hour
D. expected labour hours
58. Continuous stock taking is a part of
52. Process of tracing direct costs and al-
location of indirect costs is known as A. annual stock taking
A. cost assignment B. perpetual inventory
B. direct assignment C. ABC analysis
C. indirect assignment D. VED analysis
D. economic assignment
59. Costing system, which classify cost
53. Non-financial and financial aspects of into cost categories in a way when
am
plan by company management, is clas- an expense is incurred in process is
sified as called
A. complexity A. conversion expense costing sys-
B. process tem
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C. budget B. inventory costing system
D. batching C. process costing system
D. job costing system
hr
A. two rates
B. three rates get for next year Each unit of product
C. four rates requires 2kg of material, and 5,000
D. five rates units of product are to be produced
Ja
April 70,000 May 55,000 June 65,000 66. In plotting of cost functions, level of
40% of its sales are expected to be for activities according to which charged
cash. Of its credit sales, 70% are ex- cost is represented on
pected to pay in month after sale and A. x-axis
take a 2% discount. 27% are expected B. y-axis
to pay in the second month after the C. unit axis
sale, and the remaining 3% are ex- D. term axis
pected to be bad debts. The value of
67. If static budget is$208000 and flexible
sales budget to be shown in the cash
budget amount is$305000, then sales
budget for May 20XX is"
A. Rs. 60,532 budget variance will be
B. Rs. 61,120 A. $67,000
C. Rs. 66,532 B. $97,000
D. Rs. 86,620 C. $57,000
D. $47,000
62. Which of the following methods of
am
stock control aims at concentrating 68. An ability of an accounting system,
efforts on selected items of material? to point out use of resources in every
A. Perpetual inventory system step of production process is called
B. Material turnover ratio A. back-flush trails
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C. Level setting B. audit trails
D. ABC analysis C. trigger trails
D. lead manufacturing trails
63. Cost which is related to specific cost
hr
object and cannot be economically 69. The type of process loss that should
traceable is classified as not affect the cost of inventory value
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A. line cost is
B. staff cost A. abnormal loss
C. direct cost B. normal loss
Ja
am
B. 4000 units
B. $3,000,000
C. no units C. $2,000,000
D. 8000 units D. $1,000,000
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74. Describe the cost unit applicable to 80. "The following information is avail-
the Bicycle industry: able for the W hotel for the latest
A. per part of bicycle thirty day period. Number of rooms
hr
76. Manager who is responsible for in- 81. The basis for determining profit to be
vestments of company, its costs and taken into account on incomplete con-
revenues is known as tract is
A. cost of contract
A. profit center
B. contract price
B. investment center C. percentage of work certified as
C. cost center done
D. revenue center D. uncertified work
77. The cost which is to be incurred even 82. is the value of economic re-
when a business unit is closed is a sources used as a result of producing
or doing the thing costed.
73
am
A. a ledger account
B. profit and loss a/c year is Rs 90,000 the Average Collec-
C. balance sheet tion Period will be
D. a statement A. 30 days
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B. 61 days
85. A technique for estimating regression C. 90 days
line, which minimizes sum of vertical D. 120 days
deviations squares is classified as
hr
C. variable drivers
ticollinearity leads to D. fixed drivers
A. decrease in variance
B. increase in variance error 91. Multiple costing is a technique of us-
C. increase in standard error ing two or more costing methods for
D. decrease in standard error ascertainment of cost by
A. the same firm
87. As compared to cumulative average- B. the several firms
time learning model, learning model C. the same industry
which predicts more cumulative total D. the several industries
time to produce more units is known
as 92. Products, divisions and customers are
A. incremental unit time learning examples of
model A. revenue increment
B. incremental price learning model B. reciprocal revenue
C. incremental unit average model C. revenue allocation
D. incremental cost learning model D. revenue object
74 Chapter 3. Costing
93. An estimated coefficient, which indi- 98. Difference between attendance time
cates degree by which estimated val- and job time is
ues are affected by random factors is A. job time
known as B. over time
A. standard error of estimated coeffi- C. actual time
cient D. idle time
B. weighted error of estimated coeffi-
99. Costs are classified as fixed or vari-
cient
able on basis of
C. average of estimated coefficient
A. specific activity
D. variance of estimated coefficient B. given time period
C. common activity
94. If beginning work in process inven-
D. both a and b
tory units are 2600, units started are
9000, ending work in process units 100. is a summary of all functional
are 2300 and completed good units budgets in a capsule form.
are 8000 then total spoilage will be
am
A. Functional Budget
A. 1200 units B. Master Budget
B. 990 units C. Long Period Budget
C. 1100 units D. Flexible Budget
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D. 1000 units
101. If coefficients are similar for two ac-
95. In step cost functions, cost is in- counting periods, then single cost re-
lationship is estimated with help of
hr
creased by
A. discrete amounts A. data of fixed cost
B. same amounts B. cost driver of data
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am
C. Rs 152 D. both a and c
D. Rs 140
112. For slope coefficient b, value of esti-
106. Prime cost is$50000 and direct man- mated coefficient is considered as
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ufacturing labour is$10000, then di- A. d-value
rect material cost will be B. c-value
A. $40,000 C. t-value
B. $60,000 D. b-value
hr
C. $52,000
D. $20,000 113. In cost terms, direct manufacturing
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am
A. work certified
20 workers were discharged and 75 B. work uncertified
workers were recruited Ofthese, 10 C. contract cost
workers were recruited in the vacan- D. value of plant used in the contract
iR
cies of those leaving and while the
rest were engaged for an expansion
123. An overtime is considered in cost
scheme"
A. 0.0455 accounting as
hr
A. indirect costs
B. 182 B. overhead costs
C. 6 C. premium costs
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D. 3 D. both a and b
118. Costing technique, in which actual 124. Inter process profits are
Ja
am
A. Third incremental party
B. second incremental party technique in which:
C. primary party A. Inventory levels are maintained
B. Inventory is classified into A, B
D. First incremental party
iR
and C category with A being the high-
129. Abnormal cost is the cost: est quantity, lowest value
A. Cost normally incurred at a given C. Inventory is classified into A, B
and C Category with A being the low-
hr
level of output
B. Cost not normally incurred at a est quantity, highest value
given level of output D. Either b or c
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136. "Which of the following would ex- 141. Direct material cost is$75000 and di-
plain an adverse variable production rect manufacturing labour is$20000,
overhead efficiency variance? 1 Em- then prime cost would be
ployees were of a lower skill level A. $55,000
than specified in the standard 2 Unex- B. $37,500
pected idle time resulted from a series C. $95,000
of machine breakdown 3 Poor Quality D. $26,000
material was difficult to process" 142. Hierarchy which is based on dif-
A. (1), (2) and (3) ferent types of cost allocation and
B. (1) and (2) drivers, is to categorize cost pool ac-
C. (2) and (3) tivity is classified as
D. (1) and (3) A. cost hierarchy
B. price hierarchy
137. Costs incurred in production process C. activity hierarchy
that yield range of products simulta- D. purpose hierarchy
neously are known as
am
A. separable costs 143. Relationship between change in ac-
B. joint costs tivity and change in total costs is con-
C. main costs sidered as
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D. split off costs A. fixed relationship
B. cause and effect relationship
138. Balance sheet, in which all costs of C. ineffective relationship
product that must be considered as its D. variable relationship
hr
assets, is said to be
A. factory overhead costs 144. In incremental cost allocation
method, cost object user who is
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am
154. Factor which provides hedge to man-
is known as
A. source cost agers in adverse and unexpected cir-
B. sacrifice cost cumstances is known as
C. treated cost A. budgetary slack
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D. cost B. costly slack
C. influential slack
149. Third ranked product in incremental D. target slack
revenue-allocation method is known
hr
158. Direct cost incurred can be identified 164. Partial or completed units of manu-
with factured goods, that do not meet cus-
A. each department tomer specifications and get sold at
B. each unit of output reduced price or simply discarded, are
C. each month called
D. each executive A. spoilage
B. rework
159. A joint cost allocation method is C. scrap
based on relative value of total sales, D. equivalence
at point of split off is classified as
A. sales value at split off method 165. Support department cost allocation
B. joint costs at split off point method method which makes no difference
C. joint products value at split off between variable and fixed costs is
method classified as
D. main product cost at split off A. sales mix allocation method
method B. dual-rate cost-allocation method
am
C. single rate cost allocation method
160. In cost accounting, conference, D. quantity variance allocation
quantitative analysis and account anal- method
ysis methods are considered as
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A. cost estimation methods 166. Which method of costing is best
B. price estimation methods suited for interior decoration.
C. unit estimation method A. Contract accounting
B. Operating costing
hr
C. cost of sales
A. actual cost
D. cost of production B. budgeted cost
162. If difference in costs is$32000 and C. past cost
D. incurred cost
slope coefficient is 0.40, then differ-
ence in machine hours would be 168. If cost incurred for work in process
A. $80,000 inventory is$350000 and total equiva-
B. $12,800 lent units completed till date are 3500,
C. $70,000 then weighted average cost will be
D. $22,800 A. $10
B. $100
163. In quantitative analysis to estimate C. $1,000
cost function, fourth step is to D. $1,200
A. write a liner function
B. write price function 169. An act of making sure, that all em-
C. write manufacturing function ployees must understand goals is clas-
D. plot data sified as
81
am
A. At best Control
172. Which of the following item of ex- B. Always better Control
penses will not appear in cost account- C. Average better Control
D. All best control
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ing.
A. Direct material cost 179. In activity based costing method im-
B. Factory overheads
plementation, indirect costs are allo-
C. Selling Expenses
hr
am
A. partial revenue
184. If difference between costs linked B. total revenue
to highest and lowest observation of C. relevant revenues
cost driver is$36000 and observation D. irrelevant revenues
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of cost driver is 30 machine hours,
then slope coefficient would be 190. If an unexplained variation is
A. $1,200 456870 and total variation is 955000,
B. $1,400 then coefficient of determination will
hr
C. $1,600 be
D. $1,800 A. 0.4528
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B. 0.4783
185. Method which divides support de- C. 0.5216
partment cost into two dimensions D. 0.5425
such as fixed and variable cost pool is
Ja
am
C. Liquid ratio A. indirect costs
D. Debt-equity ratio B. direct cost
C. labour cost
195. If purchase order lead time is 35 min- D. raw material cost
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utes and number of units sold per time
201. When standard output is 10 units per
is 400 units, then reorder point will be
A. 14000 units hour and actual output is 12 units per
B. 14500 units hour, the efficiency is
hr
A. 75%
C. 15000 units
B. 80%
D. 15500 units C. 90%
iS
D. 120%
196. Systematic flow of services, goods
or information from buying material 202. Cost unit of a sugar industry can be
Ja
am
C. profit sharing fied as
A. First incremental user
D. product costing
B. primary user
C. secondary user
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207. "For the financial year ended as on
March 31, 20XX the figures extracted D. second incremental user
from the balance sheet of Xerox Lim- 212. In assumptions testing, violation of
ited as under: Opening Stock Rs
hr
am
B. normal spoilage D. marketing plan
C. transferred-in spoilage
D. transferred-out spoilage 223. Work measurement method of cost
estimation is also called
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217. Under which plan efficiency is A. price engineering method
shared by employee and employer B. industrial engineering method
C. measuring engineering method
equally?
hr
am
A. decisional management
B. throughput management A. joint products value at split off
C. inventory management method
D. manufacturing management B. main product cost at split off
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method
229. In adjustment issues and data collec- C. Gross realizable value method
tion, inflation affects the D. net realizable value method
hr
232. Directors remuneration and ex- 238. Factory overhead is also called as
penses form part of
87
am
A. real price data 246. Capital gearing ratio is
B. real cost data A. Market test ratio
C. multiplier data B. Long-term solvency ratio
D. divisional data C. Liquid ratio
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D. Turnover ratio
241. If budgeted total direct labour hours
are 3800 and budgeted direct labour 247. Cause and effect relationship be-
cost is$480000, then budgeted direct
hr
248. Scrap is
242. Cost pattern, when production in- A. residue of material
puts are to be used in discrete func- B. wastage of material
tions, but quantities are fractional, C. surplus material
will be categorized as D. abnormal loss of material
A. continuously variable cost func-
tion 249. Costs, which consist of interdepart-
B. fixed cost function mental cost allocations plus cost of
C. mixed cost function support department are classified as
D. semi variable cost function A. complete reciprocal costs
B. artificial costs
243. Increase in total variable cost is due C. operating costs
to D. flexible operating costs
A. increase in fixed cost
B. increase in sales 250. If direct material cost is$5500 and
C. increase in production prime cost is$25000, then direct man-
D. increase in efficiency ufacturing labour would be
88 Chapter 3. Costing
am
A. variance of residuals is constant ’$6000’ is a
B. variance of goodness is constant A. constant
C. goodness of fit is constant B. variable
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D. standard error is constant C. expression
D. base and exponent
253. If budgeted cost in indirect cost pool 259. The actual output of 162,500 units
is$144500 and total quantity of cost
hr
D. 45.50% B. Rs 1.31
C. Rs1.42
254. Time and motion study is conducted D. Rs 1.50
by
A. time keeping department 260. Process of assigning indirect costs to
B. personnel department any specific cost object is known as
C. payroll department A. economic cost
D. engineering department B. cost tracing
C. cost allocation
255. According to which method of pric- D. non-economic costs
ing issues is close to current economic 261. A group of individual indirect cost
values? item is defined as
A. Last In First Out A. direct pool
B. First In First Out B. cost pool
C. Highest In First Out C. indirect pool
D. weighted average price D. item pool
89
am
269. Number of methods available for cal-
multinational company using the fol-
culation of Labour turnover is
lowing information. Miles travelled A. two
636,500 Tonnes carried 2,479 Num- B. three
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ber of drivers 20 Hours worked by C. four
drivers 35,520 Tonnes miles carried D. five
375,200 Cost incurred 562,800"
hr
is known as
A. average of coefficient 271. An implementation of activity based
B. variance of residual costing would be possible only if ac-
C. mean of residual countants find
A. goodness of each activity
D. average of residual
B. handling of each activity
266. An average unit cost, applicable to C. cost driver for each activity
each similar produced units is classi- D. cost object for each activity
fied as 272. Warehouse rent is a part of
A. per unit cost A. prime cost
B. per post cost B. factory cost
C. per price cost C. distribution cost
D. application cost D. production cost
267. Discarded material substances hav- 273. Residual material which results from
ing no value is called manufacturing products is called
90 Chapter 3. Costing
am
B. Minimum consumption x Mini- A. costing department
mum re-order period B. stores department
C. 1/2 of (Minimum + Maximum C. finance department
consumption)
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D. accounting department
D. Maximum level-Minimum level
281. Material is issued by store keeper
276. An amount by which total cost against
hr
am
balance: 50 units @ Rs 4 Receipts:
286. Sum of beginning work in process 5th January, 20XX: 100 units @ Rs 5
inventory units and started units, is 12th January, 20XX: 200 units @ Rs
subtracted from sum of ending work 450 Issues: 2nd January, 20XX: 30
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in process inventory units and trans- units 18th January, 20XX: 150 units"
ferred out units of goods to calculate A. Rs. 765
A. Gross weighted spoilage B. Rs. 805
hr
D. total spoilage
291. Success of cost reduction initiatives
287. Time keeping refers to are evaluated by accurate
Ja
am
D. cash budget
tion about used material sequence, de-
tail and quantity of raw material is 300. Forth step in process costing system
classified as is to
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A. bill of materials A. summarize total costs
B. bill of sequence B. compute cost for each equivalent
C. bill of detail unit
C. summarize flow of output
hr
am
305. Terms used in manufacturing cost
D. provide highest value of profit but
systems are
A. manufacturing costs lowest value of closing stock
B. prime costs
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310. The process of allocating and appor-
C. conversion costs
tioning the costs on suitable basis to
D. both B and C
all the departments is
hr
am
A. cost assignment
315. "Calculate the labour turnover rate B. cost expectation
according to replacement method C. event assignment
from the following: No of workers on D. probability assignment
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the payroll:-At the beginning of the
320. If employees of division A work for
month: 500-At the end of the month:
8000 hours for$90 per hour, then rate
600 During the month, 5 workers left,
must be paid in division B in accor-
hr
am
324. Second ranked product in incre-
wastages and losses
mental revenue allocation method is D. assessing the profitability and fi-
termed as nancial position of the firm
A. primary product
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B. First incremental product 329. A push through system, according
C. Second incremental product to which goods are manufactured for
D. Third incremental product finished inventory solely, on basis of
hr
ucts is classified as
A. economic accounting 330. Continuous budget is also known as
B. back-flush accounting A. rolling budget
C. lean accounting B. pin budget
D. lead accounting C. specific budget
D. past budget
326. "From the following information,
calculate the extra cost of material by 331. Flexible budget variance for rev-
following EOQ: Annual consumption enues of company is classified as
A. selling price variance
= 45000 units Ordering cost per order
B. investment variance
= Rs 10 Carrying cost per unit per an- C. profit variance
num = Rs 10 Purchase price per unit = D. primary variance
Rs 50 Re-order quantity at present =
45000 units There is discount of 10% 332. Under which method of wage pay-
per unit in case of purchase of 45000 ment, wages are influenced by idle
units in bulk" time?
96 Chapter 3. Costing
am
C. separate statement C. batch costing
D. separate ledger a/c D. multiple costing
335. Joint cost allocation method, in 340. A transport company is running five
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which individual product from joint buses between two towns, which are
products must gain a gross margin per- 50 kms apart. Seating capacity of
centage is classified as each bus is 50 passengeRs Actually
hr
A. sales value at split off method passengers carried by each bus were
B. joint products value at split off 75% of seating capacity. All buses
method ran on all days of the month. Each
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C. constant gross margin percentage bus made one round trip per day. Pas-
NRV method senger kms are:
D. Gross realizable value method A. 281250
Ja
B. 187500
336. Percentage of overall gross margin
C. 562500
is multiplied to final sales value of D. None of the above
products total production is used to
calculate 341. Wages and other benefits, provided
A. Gross margin in terms of amount to assembly line workers and opera-
of money tors of machine are classified under
B. Gross margin in terms of separa- A. work in process costs
ble costs B. finished costs
C. Gross margin in terms of total cost C. direct manufacturing labour costs
D. Gross margin in terms of labour D. indirect manufacturing labour
cost costs
337. Budgeting method, which incorpo- 342. In normal costing, situation in which
rates an improvement anticipated in allocated amount of indirect cost is
budgeting period into budget numbers greater than incurred cost, is consid-
can be classified as ered as
97
am
able production cost-Rs 1.20 per unit
Variable selling cost-Rs 0.40 per unit
Fixed production cost-Rs 4 per unit 349. Package which consists of two or
Fixed selling cost-Rs 0.80 per unit more products to be sold for single
iR
Budgeted production and sales for the price, but components of products
year are 10,000 units. " in package have separate stand-alone
A. 8,000 units price is called
hr
D. 10,909 units
D. reciprocal product
345. Method, which considers cost and
350. The costing method which can be
Ja
am
amount and corresponding static bud- 360. If budget sales units are 5000, end-
get amount is classified as ing inventory is 4000 units and begin-
A. sales revenue variance ning inventory is 1000, then budget
B. cost profit variance production will be
iR
C. profit volume variance A. 4000 units
D. sales volume variance B. 5000 units
C. 8000 units
hr
A. bundled cost
356. Job costing method is the most suit- B. common cost
able method for C. stand-alone cost
A. oil process units D. incremental cost
B. transport companies
C. sugar industries 362. Third step in process costing system
D. repair shops is to
A. summarize flow of output
357. Generally types of stores are classi- B. compute output in units
fied into C. summarize total costs
A. two types D. compute cost for each equivalent
B. three types unit
C. four types
D. five types 363. Budget sales, plus target ending fin-
ished goods inventory, minus begin-
358. Which one out of the following is ning finished goods inventory is equal
not an inventory valuation method? to
99
am
C. two sumptions testing as
D. three A. homogenous
B. homoscedasticity
366. Comparing Rowan plan and Halsey
iR
C. heteroscedasticity
plan, it is seen that when the time D. heterogeneous
saved is less than 50% of the standard
time 372. Department which directly adds
hr
D. Rowan plan and Halsey plan are 373. Which of the following method of
equal to ordinary time wage wage payment is most suitable where
the speed of production is beyond the
367. Cash sales, accounts receivables and
control of worker?
rental receipts all are known as
A. Time rate system
A. cash receipts
B. Piece rate system
B. budget receipts C. Halsey premium system
C. goods manufactured D. Rowan premium plan
D. total goods sold
374. Labour productivity can NOT be
368. In estimation of cost function, an ex- measured by comparing
ample of independent variable is A. actual time with standard time
A. level of activity B. total output with total man hours
B. quantity stored C. added value for the product with
C. quantity manufactured total wage cost
D. quality of product D. total wage and total output
100 Chapter 3. Costing
am
B. three ways
377. 100 units are introduced in a process C. four ways
in which normal loss is 5% of input If D. several ways
actual output is 97 then there is
383. Which of these is not an objective of
iR
A. no abnormal loss and normal gain
Cost Accounting?
B. 2 units of abnormal gain A. Ascertainment of Cost
C. 3 units of abnormal gain B. Determination of Selling Price
hr
am
A. bincard and stores ledger A. Salary
B. bill of material and material requi- B. Tax
sition C. Telephone expenses
D. Office expenses
iR
C. purchase requisition and purchase
order 395. In Kaizen budgeting, costs are based
D. inward and outward invoices on all improvements which is
A. to be implemented
hr
B. -$2000
C. $2,000 enues or overestimating cost is called
D. -$48000 A. cost slack
B. target slack
390. Formula of 1-unexplained variation C. budgetary slack
/ total variation is used to calculate D. revenue slack
A. coefficient of determination 397. Under which method the rate of
B. coefficient of index wages are linked with the cost of liv-
C. coefficient of residual
ing index?
D. coefficient of prediction A. Flat time rate
B. High day rate
391. Relationship between cost and cost C. Measured day rate
drivers is D. Graduated time rate
A. stationary
B. not stationary 398. System which measures budget, ac-
C. intrinsic tion and plan of each responsibility
D. extrinsic center is known as
102 Chapter 3. Costing
am
A. 25% B. lower repair cost
B. 30% C. higher setup cost
C. 60% D. higher repair cost
iR
D. 75%
407. If slope coefficient is 0.60 and differ-
401. operating costing is a ence in machine hours is$50000, then
A. method of costing difference in cost can be
hr
A. $68,700
B. technique of costing
B. $58,700
C. norm of costing
iS
C. $30,000
D. procedure of costing D. $83,333.34
402. Conversion cost is$20000 and manu- 408. Focus on budget cost of all activities
Ja
facturing overhead cost is$7000, then necessary to sell and produce market
direct manufacturing labour cost will offerings is known as
be A. cost based budgeting
A. $27,000 B. activity based budgeting
B. $13,000 C. production based budgeting
C. $130,000 D. raw material budgeting
D. $29,500
409. Charging output with overhead at
403. If an unexplained variation is reasonable rate is called
A. allocation
350050 and total variation is 700505,
B. appropriation
then coefficient of determination
C. apportionment
would be D. absorption
A. 3
B. 0.5003 410. Method, which allocates cost of sup-
C. 0.7003 port department to operating and sup-
D. 2 port departments is known as
103
411. In process costing, if an abnormal 416. Costing system, which omits some
loss arises, the process account is gen- of journal entries in accounting sys-
erally. tem is known as
A. in-time costing
A. Debited with the scrap value of
B. trigger costing
the abnormal loss units C. back flush costing
B. Debited with the full production D. lead time costing
cost of the abnormal loss units
C. Credited with the scrap value of 417. Cost of abnormal wastage is:
the abnormal loss units A. Charged to the product cost
D. Credited with the full production B. Charged to the profit& loss ac-
cost of the abnormal loss units count
C. charged partly to the product and
am
412. If beginning work in process equiva- partly profit& loss account
lent units is 2500 units, work done in D. not charged at all
current period equivalent units is 3800 418. The summarized balance sheet of
iR
units and units completed in current Autolight Limited shows the balances
period are 4000, then ending work in of previous and current year of re-
process equivalent units will be tained earnings Rs 25,000 and Rs
hr
B. Rs 55,000
plained by X is measured by C. Rs 15,000
A. coefficient of residual D. Rs 65,000
B. coefficient of prediction
C. coefficient of determination 419. Bad debt is an example of
D. coefficient of index A. production overhead
B. administrative overhead
414. Under ABC method of material con- C. selling overhead
trol, the material are classified accord- D. distribution overhead
ing to
420. Departmentalization of overhead is
A. its value
known as
B. its usage A. primary distribution
C. its nature B. secondary distribution
D. its availability C. absorption
D. allocation
415. Cost which remains unchanged, in
proportion to level total volume of 421. Describe the method of costing to be
production is classified as applied in case of Nursing Home:
104 Chapter 3. Costing
am
A. activity level costs
B. input level costs 429. Costing and allocating situation, in
C. batch level costs which indirect cost allocated amount
iR
D. output level costs is less than actually incurred amount
is known as
424. Costs of goods acquired from suppli- A. over allocated budget
ers is classified as B. under allocated budget
hr
433. Budgeted income statement and sup- 439. Budgeted total direct labour cost
porting budget schedules are catego- is divided with budgeted total direct
rized under labour to calculate
A. focused statement A. budgeted indirect labour cost rate
B. slack statement B. expected direct labour cost rate
C. budgeted income statement C. budgeted direct labour cost rate
D. operating budget D. expected indirect labour cost rate
am
B. batch budget B. job cost sheet
C. discontinued budget C. source document
D. both a and b
D. continuous budget
iR
441. Direct service labour is$5000, idle
435. Higher and accurate budgeted profit
time wages are$1000 and overtime
forecast of managers lead to
A. high incentive bonus premium is$450, then total figure
hr
C. $21,500
436. Chances of cost to be considered as D. $14,300
variable are more, if the 442. Second step in developing operating
Ja
445. In case of joint products, the main 449. Overvaluation of opening stock in
objective of accounting of the cost is financial accounting results
to apportion the joint costs incurred A. decreases costing profit
up to the split off point. For cost ap- B. decreases financial accounts profit
portionment one company has cho- C. increases costing profit
D. increases financial accounts profit
sen Physical Quantity Method. Three
joint products ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are
produced in the same process. Up 450. Goodness of fit is used to measure
to the point of split off the total pro- wellness of
duction of A, B and C is 60,000 kg, A. actual values
out of which ‘A’ produces 30,000 kg B. predicted values
am
and joint costs are Rs 3,60,000. Joint C. residual values
costs allocated to product A is. D. indexed values
A. Rs 1,20,000
451. If actual result is$25000 and flexible
iR
B. Rs 60,000
C. Rs 1,80,000 budget amount is$11000, then flexi-
D. None of the these ble budget amount is
A. $36,000
hr
A. material consumed
B. number of employees
452. Slope coefficient of cost function is
C. labour hours
zero because it intersects the
Ja
D. machine hours
A. x-axis at one
447. "Calculate the value of closing stock B. y-axis at constant
from the following according to LIFO C. x-axis at constant
D. y-axis at one
method: 1st January, 20XX: Opening
balance: 50 units @ Rs 4 Receipts: 453. If relevant opportunity cost of capi-
5th January, 20XX: 100 units @ Rs 5 tal is$2950 and relevant carrying cost
12th January, 20XX: 200 units @ Rs of inventory is$6700, then relevant in-
450 Issues: 2nd January, 20XX: 30 cremental cost will be
units 18th January, 20XX: 150 units" A. $9,650
A. Rs. 765 B. $2,350
B. Rs. 805 C. $3,750
C. Rs. 786 D. $2,750
D. Rs. 700
454. Which method of costing can be
448. Operating costing is more suitable used in furniture manufacture indus-
for industries try?
107
am
A. time keeping department
B. personnel department 462. In case of rising prices (inflation),
C. payroll department LIFO will:
D. cost accounting department A. provide lowest value of closing
iR
stock and profit
457. Conversion cost is subtracted from B. provide highest value of closing
manufacturing overhead cost is to cal- stock and profit
C. provide highest value of closing
hr
culate the
stock but lowest value of profit
A. manufacturing labour costs
D. provide highest value of profit but
iS
465. "State which of the following are the 470. If total incurred cost in a production
characteristics of service costing. 1. process are$30000 and number of out-
High levels of indirect costs as a pro- put units are 5000 units, then units
portion of total costs 2. Use of com- cost will be
posite cost units 3. Use of equivalent A. $16
units" B. $60
A. (1) only C. $6
D. $26
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (2) only 471. If an actual indirect cost incur
D. (2) and (3) only is$35000 and indirect cost allocated
is$43000, then under allocated indi-
466. Sale of defectives is reduced from rect cost will be
A. $78,000
A. prime cost B. -$78000
B. works cost C. -$8000
am
C. cost of production D. $8,000
D. cost of sales 472. Actual loss is more than the prede-
termined normal loss, it is
467. If demand of one year is 25000 units,
iR
A. normal loss
relevant ordering cost for each pur- B. abnormal loss
chase order is$210, carrying cost of C. seasonal loss
one unit of stock is$25 then economic D. standard loss
hr
B. 648 packages
C. 658 packages cost and adding 30% to total costs as a
profit margin. Job number Y256 was
D. 668 packages
sold for Rs1690 and incurred over-
Ja
468. Third step in developing operating heads of Rs 694. What was the prime
budget is cost of the job?
A. Rs 489
A. analysis of batches
B. Rs 606
B. analysis of batches C. Rs 996
C. analysis of products D. Rs 1300
D. making predictions about future
474. Audit fess is a part of
469. Third step in estimation of cost func- A. works on cost
tion, by using quantitative analysis is B. selling overhead
collection of data for C. distribution overhead
D. administration overhead
A. cost and cost object
B. price and cost driver 475. The P/v ratio of a company is 50%
C. dependent variable and cost driver and margin of safety is 40%. If
D. independent variable and cost present sales is Rs 30,00,000 then
driver Break Even Point in Rs will be
109
am
483. Number of units are multiplied to
sition for fresh supply It is
A. maximum stock level per unit price, to calculate
A. multiple budget variable
B. minimum stock level
B. fixed budget variable
iR
C. reorder level
C. flexible budget variable
D. average stock level
D. constant budget
478. Under Gantts task and bonus plan 484. Cost influences by responsibility
hr
D. 100%
485. If required rate of return is 12% and
479. Relationship between cost and cost per unit cost of units purchased is$35,
driver is economically plausible if then relevant opportunity cost of capi-
goodness of fit tal will be
A. has meaning A. $6.20
B. has no meaning B. $7.20
C. has index values C. $4.20
D. has no index values D. $5.20
487. Sales budget variance is subtracted 493. Procedure of assigning direct cost to
from flexible budget amount to calcu- any cost abject is classified as
late A. sales allocation
A. static budget amount B. cost tracing
B. unstated amount C. cost allocation
C. constant amount D. sales tracing
D. variable amount
494. If actual result is$26000, flexible
488. Collection of cost data, according budget amount is$13000, then flex-
to accounting system in an organized ible budget amount will be
way is classified as A. $39,000
A. system accumulation B. $49,000
B. accumulated data C. $13,000
C. cost accumulation
D. $15,000
D. organized accumulation
489. First step in process costing system 495. "Calculate the value of closing
am
is to stock from the following according to
A. summarize flow of output Weighted Average method: 1st Jan-
B. compute output in units uary, 20XX: Opening balance: 50
iR
C. summarize total costs units @ Rs 4 Receipts: 5th January,
D. compute cost for each equivalent 20XX: 100 units @ Rs 5 12th Jan-
unit uary, 20XX: 200 units @ Rs 450 Is-
sues: 2nd January, 20XX: 30 units
hr
490. If units of normal spoilage are 150 18th January, 20XX: 150 units"
and total good units manufactured are A. Rs. 765
iS
am
D. $10,050 506. Bonus under Rowan scheme is paid
am
B. decrease in financial accounts
511. Variable cost per unit profit
A. varies when output varies C. increase in costing profit
D. increase in financial accounts
B. remains constant
iR
profit
C. increase when output increases
D. decreases when output decreases 516. Purchase order lead time is multi-
plied to number of units is sold per
hr
costs for material, labour and produc- 517. In order to avoid the stoppage of pro-
tion overheads, and non-production duction due to shortage of material
overheads are often added as a per-
centage of total production cost. 3. A. maximum stock level is main-
The job costing method can be ap- tained
plied in costing batches" B. minimum stock level is main-
A. (1) only tained
C. re-order level is maintained
B. (1) and (2) only
D. average stock level is maintained
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only 518. Classification of cost is useful
A. to find gross profit
513. Annual usage is 6000 units @ Rs 20 B. to find net profit
C. to identify costs
per unit Cost of placing an order is
D. to identify efficiency
Rs 60 and annual carrying cost of one
unit is 10% of inventory value EOQ 519. Any output that has total positive
= sales is a
113
am
is termed as B. replacement cost
A. t-value C. preventive cost
B. b-value D. compensation cost
iR
C. d-value
D. c-value 528. Which of the following is a service
department?
522. is a detailed budget of cash re- A. Refining department
hr
A. Cash Budget
D. Finishing department
B. Capital Expenditure Budget
C. Sales Budget 529. Segment of subunit of company,
Ja
531. Function used to measure decline in 537. Cost, which is related to specific
labour hours per unit as units of pro- cost object and economically trace-
duction increases is called able, will be classified as
A. fixed curve A. direct cost
B. learning curve B. indirect cost
C. linear curve C. line cost
D. mixed curve D. staff cost
532. Fixed cost per unit increases when 538. The summarized balance sheet of
Rakesh udyog Limited shows the bal-
A. variable cost per unit increases ances of previous and current year of
B. variable cost per unit decreases provision for taxation Rs 50,000 and
C. production volume increases Rs 65,000. If taxed paid during the
D. production volume decreases
current year amounted to Rs 70,000
533. Statutory cost audit are applicable then amount charge from Profit and
only to: Loss Account will be:
am
A. Firm A. Rs 55,000
B. Company B. Rs 85,000
C. Individual C. Rs 45,000
D. Rs 1,85,000
iR
D. Society
534. Normal loss in the manufacturing 539. First step in estimation of cost func-
process leads to tion by using quantitative analysis is
hr
543. Second step in processing costing 549. What-if technique, which examines
system is to changes in results if original predic-
A. summarize total costs tion would not be achieved is called
B. compute cost for each equivalent A. change analysis
unit B. original analysis
C. summarize flow of output C. sensitivity analysis
D. compute output in units D. predicted analysis
544. If any by-product is produced and 550. Cost accounting was developed be-
sold it is credited to cause of the
A. profit and loss a/c A. limitations of the financial ac-
B. by-product a/c counting
am
C. process a/c B. limitations of the management ac-
D. abnormal gain a/c counting
C. limitations of the human resource
545. Most appropriate basis for the appor- accounting
iR
tionment of power is D. limitations of the double entry ac-
A. no of labour counting
B. no of output
C. no of machines 551. Difference between flexible budget
hr
A. corresponding variance
machine is$500000 for 1000 hours, B. resultant variance
then cost allocation rate will be C. flexible budget variance
A. $1500 per machine hour
Ja
554. Model which states decline in extra 560. Decision model to calculate optimal
time needed to produce last unit, ev- quantity of inventory to be ordered is
ery time for cumulative quantity of called
doubled units produced is classified A. efficient order quantity
as B. economic order quantity
A. incremental unit average model C. rational order quantity
B. incremental cost learning model D. optimized order quantity
C. incremental unit time learning
561. better administration of budget in
model
D. incremental price learning model budgeting plans require
A. intelligent interpretations
555. Halsey premium plan is B. participation
A. individual incentive scheme C. persuasion
B. group incentive scheme D. all of above
C. time and piece wage system
562. A budget which is prepared in a man-
D. differential piece wage system
ner so as to give the budgeted cost for
am
556. Which of the following is not an any level of activity is known as:
avoidable cause of labour turnover: A. Master budget
A. Dissatisfaction with Job B. Zero base budget
iR
B. Lack of training facilities C. (Functional budget
C. Low wages and allowances D. Flexible budget
D. Disability, making a worker unfit
563. Difference between final sales value
hr
for work
and separable costs is equal to
557. Goodness of fit predicted values is A. net income
iS
am
cost centre is pacity
A. allocation
B. allotment 574. Small residual terms and positive
slope of line indicate
iR
C. primary distribution
D. secondary distribution A. badness proportions
B. goodness proportion
569. As compared to sale value of main C. inversely proportion
hr
am
B. Rs 2,40,000 B. 80
C. Rs 3,00,000 C. 48
D. Rs 5,40,000 D. 64
iR
580. Line which uses to join observations 585. In linear cost function, which is y =
with lower and highest values of cost a + bx, y is classified as
A. predicted fixed cost
driver is called
hr
C. horizontal line
D. vertical line 586. Relevant ordering costs are added
into relevant carrying costs to calcu-
Ja
am
590. Direct cost assignment for specific 596. Costing method, which calculates
cost object is classified as per equivalent unit cost of all produc-
A. cost object line cost tion related work done till calculate
iR
B. cost tracing date is termed as
C. cost object indirect cost A. weighted average method
D. cost object staff cost B. net present value method
C. Gross production method
hr
600. In cause and effect relationship be- and sales level of 25,000 units for the
tween cost level and cost driver, infla- next period. Due to market changes
tionary price effects are removed by both the selling price and the variable
dividing cost through cost are expected to increase above
A. price index the budgeted level in the next period.
B. cost index If the selling price and variable cost
C. profit index per unit increase by 10% and 8% re-
D. cost driver index spectively, by how much must sales
volume change, compared with the
601. A particular term for which specific
original budgeted level, in order to
revenue measurement is required is
achieve the original budgeted profit
known as
A. revenue allocation for the period?"
B. revenue object A. 10.1% decrease
C. revenue increment B. 11.2% decrease
D. reciprocal revenue C. 13.3% decrease
am
D. 16.0% decrease
602. If the actual loss is more than the
estimated normal loss, then it is 606. When output of earlier process is
A. abnormal loss transferred at a profit to the subse-
iR
B. normal loss quent process, it is
C. seasonal loss A. inter departmental profit
D. abnormal gain
B. abnormal gain
hr
value will be
A. 14 607. In regression analysis, if predicted
B. 88 cost value is 65 and observed cost
Ja
am
B. health costs 617. An estimation of relationship be-
C. premium costs tween one independent variable and
D. workers costs dependent variable is known as
iR
A. simple regression
612. Packing cost is B. Two way regression
A. production cost C. One variable series
B. selling cost D. multiple regression
hr
C. administration cost
D. distribution cost 618. Cost of idle time arising due to non
iS
621. Budget which calculates expected 627. If sales budget variance for operat-
revenues and expected costs, based ing income is$68000 and static bud-
on actual output quantity is named as get amount is$19000, then flexible
A. flexible budget budget amount will be
B. fixed budget A. $47,000
C. variable budget B. $57,000
C. $87,000
D. multiplied budget
D. $97,000
622. A problem which arises because 628. Profit to be transferred to profit and
of presence of systematic pattern in loss a/c, if the contract is complete to
residual value sequence is considered the extent of only 20% is
am
as A. nil
A. parallel correlation B. 20%
B. serial correlation C. 25%
iR
C. auto correlation D. 75%
D. both B and C
629. Single or multiple units of distinct
623. Regression Analysis Method of services or products are classified as
hr
am
C. performance evaluation A. cost per good units transferred out
B. cost per good units transferred in
D. well evaluated
C. revenue per good units transferred
635. Larger number of manager subordi- out
iR
nates and higher level manager are D. revenue per good units transferred
termed as in
A. activity subordinates 641. Direct manufacturing labour costs is
hr
A. transaction costs
636. Number of purchase orders for each B. conversion costs
C. resale costs
year is multiplied to relevant ordering
Ja
D. merchandise costs
cost for each purchase order to calcu-
late 642. If an allocated indirect cost is$1500
A. annual irrelevant ordering costs and actual incurred indirect cost
B. annual relevant carrying costs is$1200, then this is classified as
C. annual relevant ordering costs A. applied indirect cost
D. annual irrelevant carrying costs B. applied direct cost
C. incurred indirect cost
637. A manager, who is responsible for D. over allocated indirect cost
both cost and revenues belongs to de-
partment of 643. If budgeted total direct labour hours
A. cost center are 5500 and budgeted direct labour
B. revenue center cost is$755000, then budgeted direct
C. profit center labour cost rate is
D. investment center A. $138 per labour hour
B. $137.27 per hour
638. A concept used to define learning C. $140 per labour hour
curve in broader application is called D. $142 per labour hour
124 Chapter 3. Costing
am
cost centre or cost unit is known as: B. constant
A. Cost Apportionment C. variable
B. Cost Allocation D. both a and b
C. Cost Absorption
iR
652. If static budget amount is$9000, flex-
D. Machine hour rate
ible budget amount is$20000, then
647. Which of the following is an abnor- sales volume variance will be
hr
am
tion: 24000 units Ordering cost: Rs in incremental cost allocation method
10 per order Purchase price: Rs 100 is known as
per unit Carrying cost: 5%" A. First incremental user
A. 310 B. primary user
iR
B. 400 C. secondary user
C. 290 D. second incremental user
D. 300
hr
am
B. Essential Order Quantity year or any specific period of time is
C. Economic Output Quantity classified as
D. Essential Output Quantity A. annual budget
B. operating budget
iR
670. In an accounting system, document C. specific budget
which supports journal entries is clas- D. master budget
sified as
676. Piece workers are paid on the basis
hr
A. cost document of
B. priced document A. output sold
iS
679. Cost pool category, which have simi- 685. In an activity based costing imple-
lar cause and effect relationship, with mentation, product’s diverse demand
each cost driver uses as an allocation is based on
base is classified as A. batch size
A. heterogeneous price pool B. complexity
B. homogenous cost pool C. process steps
C. heterogeneous cost pool D. all of above
D. homogenous price pool
686. Stage in production process, where
680. Examples of nonlinear cost func-
manufactured goods are checked;
tions are
whether units are acceptable or not
A. step constant functions
B. step cost functions is classified as
C. step price functions A. rework point
D. step object functions B. inspection point
C. spoilage point
681. Which of following is an example of D. scrap point
am
revenue center?
A. sales department 687. Cost Unit is defined as:
B. investing center A. Unit of quantity of product, ser-
iR
C. marketing department vice or time in relation to which costs
D. segment department may be ascertained or expressed
682. Individual activities such as machine B. A location, person or an item of
equipment or a group of these for
hr
am
facturing company B. step object functions
D. A light engineering company C. step constant functions
D. step cost functions
692. Which of the following will be af-
iR
fected by normal loss? 698. In a joint process of production, a
A. Costing profit product which yields high volume of
B. Financial profit sales as compared to total sales vol-
hr
am
is considered as
703. Factor used to predict dependent
A. manufactured costing
variable is named as B. activity based costing
A. independent variable
iR
C. allocation costing
B. function variable D. base costing
C. evaluation variable
D. estimation variable 710. In a machine dominated industry
hr
705. Type of relationship stating "how 711. Second step, in constant gross mar-
changes in cost driver drives cause gin percentage NRV method, to allo-
changes in cost" will be termed as cate joint cost is to compute
A. marginal plausibility A. allocated joint costs
B. economic plausibility B. cost of split off point
C. financial plausibility C. Gross margin percentage
D. market plausibility D. total production cost of each prod-
uct
706. If budgeted direct labour hours are
4550 and direct labour cost rate 712. In estimation of cost functions, vari-
is$600 per labour hour then, total di- ations in a single activity level repre-
rect labour cost would be sents the
A. $4,730,000 A. related total costs
B. $3,730,000 B. related fixed cost
C. $2,730,000 C. related variable cost
D. $1,730,000 D. related per unit cost
130 Chapter 3. Costing
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C. relevant purchase order costs method is based on
D. relevant inventory carrying costs A. total labour costs
B. total production
715. In master budgeting, cost drivers for C. total revenues
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manufacturing overhead costs are D. total costs
A. direct manufacturing labour-hours
B. setup labour-hours 721. In activity based costing system, de-
hr
A. activity list
716. Cash receipts is added in to begin- B. activity dictionary
ning cash balance to calculate C. active purpose
D. both a and b
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725. Process costing is suitable for 731. "How many units must be sold if
A. hospitals company wants to achieve a profit
B. oil reefing firms of Rs 11,000 for the year? Selling
am
C. transport firms price-Rs 6 per unit Variable produc-
D. brick laying firms tion cost-Rs 1.20 per unit Variable
726. If indirect manufacturing labour selling cost-Rs 0.40 per unit Fixed
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is$20000, power cost is$5000, main- production cost-Rs 4 per unit Fixed
tenance and supplies are of$10000 selling cost-Rs 0.80 per unit Budgeted
then manufacturing budget will be production and sales for the year are
10,000 units."
hr
A. $5,000
B. $35,000 A. 2,500 units
C. $15,000 B. 9,833 units
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735. An under allocated indirect cost is 741. The process of setting standards and
also called comparing actual performance with
A. under applied indirect cost standards with a view to control the
B. under absorbed indirect cost cost is
C. absorbed indirect cost A. cost reduction
D. both a and b B. cost control
C. cost allocation
736. In ‘make or buy’ decision, it is prof- D. cost ascertainment
itable to buy from outside only when 742. Conversion cost is subtracted from
the supplier’s price is below the firm’s direct manufacturing labour cost is to
own calculate the
am
A. Fixed Cost A. direct overheads
B. Variable Cost B. overhead costs
C. Total Cost C. factory overhead
D. Prime Cost D. manufacturing overhead cost
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737. An inventory, which consists of 743. Costs that are incurred in last depart-
partially worked goods or work in ment, where product has been pro-
cessed and will be carried to next de-
hr
progress is called
A. direct materials inventory partment for further processing are
B. work in process inventory called
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746. Office and administrative expenses distance between estimated and ac-
can be charged on the basis of tual cost for every single observation
A. material cost is classified as
B. labour cost A. residual term
C. prime cost B. positive term
D. factory cost C. negative term
D. squared term
747. Vertical difference, which measures
Answers
am
36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. B
47. D 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. D 57. A
58. B 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. D 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B
69. A 70. D 71. D 72. A 73. B 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. D 79. B
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80. B 81. C 82. A 83. B 84. D 85. B 86. C 87. A 88. D 89. B 90. A
91. A 92. D 93. A 94. C 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. D 99. D 100. B 101. C
102. C 103. A 104. C 105. C 106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. A 111. D
hr
112. C 113. D 114. C 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. D 121. B
122. A 123. D 124. B 125. C 126. A 127. D 128. C 129. B 130. B 131. A
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132. B 133. C 134. D 135. C 136. D 137. B 138. C 139. A 140. A 141. C
142. A 143. B 144. A 145. C 146. A 147. C 148. D 149. D 150. D 151. A
152. C 153. A 154. A 155. A 156. C 157. D 158. B 159. A 160. A 161. A
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162. A 163. D 164. A 165. C 166. D 167. A 168. B 169. B 170. B 171. D
172. D 173. C 174. C 175. D 176. C 177. B 178. B 179. B 180. D 181. A
182. C 183. C 184. A 185. B 186. A 187. B 188. D 189. C 190. C 191. B
192. C 193. D 194. A 195. A 196. A 197. B 198. A 199. D 200. A 201. D
202. B 203. A 204. D 205. B 206. C 207. A 208. B 209. D 210. D 211. D
212. A 213. A 214. C 215. A 216. A 217. C 218. A 219. D 220. D 221. B
222. A 223. B 224. A 225. B 226. B 227. C 228. C 229. A 230. C 231. B
232. B 233. A 234. D 235. D 236. B 237. C 238. C 239. A 240. B 241. A
242. A 243. C 244. D 245. B 246. B 247. D 248. A 249. A 250. A 251. B
252. A 253. B 254. D 255. A 256. A 257. B 258. A 259. A 260. C 261. B
262. B 263. B 264. B 265. B 266. A 267. A 268. B 269. B 270. A 271. C
272. C 273. D 274. B 275. A 276. D 277. C 278. D 279. C 280. B 281. A
282. D 283. B 284. B 285. A 286. D 287. B 288. D 289. B 290. A 291. D
292. D 293. C 294. A 295. A 296. A 297. A 298. B 299. D 300. B 301. A
302. D 303. C 304. A 305. D 306. D 307. A 308. A 309. B 310. B 311. C
312. C 313. C 314. B 315. B 316. C 317. D 318. A 319. A 320. A 321. C
134 Chapter 3. Costing
322. C 323. D 324. B 325. C 326. D 327. A 328. D 329. B 330. A 331. A
332. D 333. B 334. D 335. C 336. A 337. D 338. D 339. C 340. C 341. D
342. B 343. C 344. D 345. C 346. B 347. B 348. C 349. C 350. D 351. B
352. D 353. D 354. D 355. D 356. D 357. B 358. D 359. C 360. C 361. B
362. C 363. A 364. A 365. A 366. A 367. A 368. A 369. A 370. C 371. B
372. D 373. A 374. D 375. A 376. D 377. B 378. B 379. A 380. B 381. B
382. D 383. D 384. D 385. C 386. D 387. B 388. A 389. C 390. A 391. B
392. B 393. B 394. C 395. A 396. C 397. D 398. D 399. C 400. C 401. A
402. B 403. B 404. D 405. C 406. B 407. C 408. B 409. C 410. C 411. D
412. B 413. C 414. A 415. C 416. C 417. B 418. C 419. C 420. A 421. A
422. B 423. C 424. D 425. C 426. B 427. B 428. C 429. C 430. C 431. A
432. A 433. D 434. D 435. A 436. A 437. B 438. A 439. C 440. D 441. B
442. C 443. B 444. C 445. C 446. C 447. B 448. B 449. B 450. B 451. D
452. B 453. C 454. A 455. B 456. C 457. C 458. D 459. A 460. B 461. A
462. A 463. A 464. B 465. B 466. C 467. B 468. D 469. C 470. C 471. C
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472. B 473. B 474. D 475. B 476. B 477. C 478. D 479. A 480. C 481. B
482. A 483. C 484. D 485. C 486. B 487. A 488. C 489. A 490. C 491. A
492. B 493. C 494. C 495. C 496. A 497. B 498. C 499. C 500. A 501. D
502. B 503. A 504. A 505. A 506. C 507. C 508. A 509. B 510. A 511. B
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512. C 513. A 514. D 515. C 516. D 517. B 518. C 519. D 520. B 521. A
522. A 523. C 524. B 525. C 526. D 527. C 528. C 529. C 530. B 531. B
532. D 533. B 534. B 535. B 536. B 537. A 538. B 539. B 540. B 541. A
hr
542. D 543. D 544. C 545. D 546. C 547. C 548. A 549. C 550. A 551. C
552. A 553. A 554. C 555. A 556. D 557. A 558. D 559. B 560. B 561. D
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562. D 563. B 564. A 565. A 566. D 567. B 568. A 569. A 570. D 571. A
572. D 573. D 574. D 575. A 576. C 577. B 578. B 579. C 580. A 581. C
582. A 583. A 584. A 585. C 586. A 587. C 588. A 589. C 590. B 591. D
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592. C 593. A 594. A 595. B 596. A 597. A 598. B 599. D 600. A 601. B
602. A 603. B 604. B 605. B 606. C 607. A 608. B 609. B 610. B 611. A
612. D 613. B 614. B 615. A 616. D 617. A 618. A 619. D 620. A 621. A
622. D 623. A 624. C 625. A 626. A 627. C 628. A 629. B 630. A 631. D
632. D 633. B 634. C 635. B 636. C 637. C 638. D 639. C 640. A 641. B
642. D 643. B 644. A 645. D 646. B 647. D 648. D 649. B 650. A 651. A
652. B 653. A 654. D 655. A 656. B 657. A 658. C 659. B 660. C 661. D
662. A 663. B 664. D 665. A 666. D 667. D 668. D 669. A 670. C 671. C
672. D 673. B 674. A 675. D 676. B 677. A 678. B 679. B 680. B 681. A
682. A 683. B 684. C 685. D 686. B 687. A 688. A 689. C 690. D 691. D
692. D 693. D 694. B 695. C 696. A 697. D 698. C 699. D 700. A 701. C
702. A 703. A 704. C 705. B 706. C 707. D 708. A 709. B 710. D 711. D
712. A 713. D 714. B 715. D 716. B 717. C 718. C 719. D 720. B 721. D
722. A 723. A 724. B 725. B 726. B 727. D 728. A 729. D 730. A 731. D
732. D 733. C 734. B 735. D 736. B 737. B 738. C 739. A 740. A 741. B
742. D 743. B 744. B 745. A 746. C 747. A
4. E commerce
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B. Retina A. firewall
C. Password B. Virus
D. Voice C. Trojan horse
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D. None of the above
11. A website offering content created by
17. Which one is also known as plastic
third party transparently to customers
money?
hr
is an example of
A. Credit card
A. Reintermediation B. Debit card
B. Syndication
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C. Paper cash
C. Virtual Manufacturing D. All of the above
D. Build-to-order
18. All of the following are steps in the
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12. Which one is not layer of E- systems development life cycle except
commerce infrastructure?
A. Physical layer A. Systems Design
B. Product layer B. Testing
C. Service layer C. Implementation
D. None D. Debugging
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and business-supported group with a involves which of the following FTC
legislative focus? fair information practice principles?
A. Cdt.org A. Security
B. PrivacyInternational.org B. Enforcement
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C. Epic.org C. choice /Consent
D. Privacy.org D. Access/Participation
23. Which e-government arena is being 29. Which one is the component of cyber-
hr
B. CC merachant software
A. G2G C. CC Server Software
B. G2B D. All of the above
C. G2C
Ja
am
(AES) C. power of consumers
B. Data Encryption Standard (DES) D. industry value chain
C. Universal Encryption Standard 39. During E-commerce transaction we
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(UES) should ensure
D. Optimal Encryption Standard A. Integrity
(OES) B. Security
hr
C. Confidentiality
34. The most common and easily un- D. All the above
derstood type of Net marketplace is
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B. Viruses
C. industry consortia C. Worm
D. independent exchanges D. None
35. Which of the following was the first 41. Which form of e-marketplace brings
commercial Web browser? together buyers and sellers from mul-
A. Mosaic tiple industries, often for MRO mate-
B. Mozilla rials?
C. Netscape Navigator A. horizontal
B. Vertical
D. Internet Explorer
C. Integrated
D. Inclined
36. Which of the following is not an enter-
tainment industry value chain model? 42. What harnesses far-flung computers
A. content owner direct model together by way of the Internet or a
B. user distribution model virtual private network to share CPU
C. aggregator model power, databases, and database stor-
D. Internet innovator model age?
139
43. Trust card is introduced by. 49. Which of the following market entry
A. BSNL and itzcash strategies are the most common for
B. BSNL and oxicash existing firms?
C. BSNL only A. first mover
D. None B. fast follower
C. brand extender
44. Secret key is used for. D. alliances
A. Public key cryptography 50. Which type of add appears on a web
B. Private key cryptography page?
C. Asymmetric key cryptography A. pop-under ad
D. None of these B. Pop-up ad
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C. Banner ad
45. A describes the flow of infor- D. Discount ad
mation at your e-commerce site and
the infrastructure that will be used in 51. What Web server functionality allows
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the system. it verify usernames and passwords
A. system design and process certificates and encryp-
B. logical design tion information?
hr
C. Data capture
46. What describes a process of continu- D. Security services
ously measuring results and compar-
ing those results to optimal perfor- 52. What is an electronic representation
Ja
48. The study of encryption is called 54. The most prevalent online payment
method is
140 Chapter 4. E commerce
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B. Pirated software
C. Counterfeit software 62. Which segment is eBay an example?
D. Privacy A. B2B
B. C2B
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57. Which of the following best describes C. C2C
predicted growth in C2C and B2C D. None of the above
auction spending?
A. B2C spending will overtake C2C 63. What is a technology-enabled mi-
hr
am
A. S-HTTP B. decrease
B. VPNs C. increase
C. SSL D. rapidly increase
D. PPTP
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75. The viruses spreads through
A. Mails
69. The basic elements of website is.
B. Pen drives and cds
A. Home page C. Websites
B. Web pages
hr
79. Which item can a password be used A. Technology has caused buyer
to protect? power to increase
A. Network B. Technology has lessened the entry
B. File barriers for many industries
C. Folder C. Technology has increased the
D. All of the above threat of substitute products and ser-
vices
80. Secure Sockets Layers does which of D. all of the above
the following?
A. creates a secure, private connec- 85. When you purchase copyrighted soft-
tion to a web server ware, what actually are you paying
for?
B. encrypts information
A. The cost of the CDs, manuals, and
C. sends information over the inter-
development of the software
net
B. The cost of the CDs, manuals, and
D. all of the above
a share of the cost of the software de-
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velopment
81. Which form of e-commerce currently
C. A share of the cost of software de-
accounts for about 97% of all e-
velopment
commerce revenues?
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D. All of the above
A. B2B
B. B2C 86. Secure communication means.
C. C2B A. Protect transmission of credit card
hr
D. C2C number
B. Guarantee privacy of customer
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A. Innovation
B. Consolidation 87. Most individuals are familiar with
C. Preservation which form of e-commerce?
D. Reinvention A. B2B
B. B2C
83. The number of business methods C. C2B
patents granted is compared to D. C2C
the number of patents applied for. 88. marketing is the Internet ver-
A. substantially smaller sion of word-of-mouth marketing.
B. slightly smaller A. Visceral
C. close to equal B. Virile
D. equal C. Viral
D. Virtual
84. Which of the following statements ac-
curately reflect the impact of technol- 89. Public key cryptography is also
ogy? known as cryptography.
143
am
D. Cybersoft A. keywords and page titles
B. identifying market niches
92. The E-commerce domain that in- C. buying ads
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volves business activity initiated by D. benchmarking
the consumer and targeted to busi-
nesses is known as 98. The solution for all business needs is.
A. Business to Business (B2B) A. EDI
hr
93. What is an encryption system that 99. Which one is threat for E-commerce?
uses two keys: a public key that ev- A. Trojan horse
Ja
102. Which of the following connections 108. Which process can preventata from
allows the fastest download speeds? lose due to computer problems or hu-
A. DSL man errors?
B. cable modem A. backup
C. T1 B. recovery
D. T3 C. benchmarking
D. data cleansing
103. All of the following are techniques
B2C e-commerce companies use to 109. What is the process in which a buyer
attract customers, except: posts its interest in buying a certain
A. Registering with search engines quantity of items, and sellers compete
B. Viral marketing for the business by submitting succes-
C. Online ads sively lower bids until there is only
D. Virtual marketing one seller left?
A. B2B marketplace
104. The virus that are attached with vb B. Intranet
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and java files are called. C. Reverse auction
D. Internet
A. Macro
B. Trojan horse 110. Who protects system from external
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C. Script virus threats?
D. None of the above A. firewall
B. EDI
105. The business model involves
hr
C. ERP
an independently owned vertical digi- D. Script kiddies
tal marketplace for direct inputs.
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am
C. Denial-of-service attack B. Can be mass-customized and per-
D. None of the above sonalized
C. Can be delivered at the time of
116. Which type of technology will in-
purchase
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crease portability and mobility?
D. All of the above
A. Implant chips
B. Micro-payments 122. E-Banking is also known as.
hr
am
D. utilization
127. Which of the following examines in-
formation passing through switches, 133. A good or service for which there
hubs, or routers? are many dealers supplying the same
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A. Key logger product, and all products in the
B. Packet sniffer segment are essentially identical is
C. Log analysis tools known as
hr
am
B. private, public
B. social networking C. encryption, public
C. virtual life D. public, private
D. Web 2.0
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144. The component of TCP/IP that
139. The set of standards for communi- provides the Internet’s addressing
cation between a browser and a pro- scheme and is responsible for the ac-
gram running on a server that allows tual delivery of packets is
hr
(CGI)
D. VBScript
A. pages that work, load quickly, and
140. Which is the most important compo- point the customer toward your prod-
nent of IT? uct offerings
A. Information B. simple, fool-proof navigation
B. People C. a site working with the most pop-
C. Information technology ular browsers
D. Computers D. alternative navigation to the same
content
141. Which is not a function of ERP?
A. Human resource management 146. Which of the following is a method
B. financial of transferring money from one per-
C. warehousing son’s account to another?
D. None of the above A. electronic check
B. credit card
142. What sends work assignments C. e-transfer
through an e-mail system? D. none of the above
148 Chapter 4. E commerce
147. What defines all of the steps or busi- 152. What is the process of making a copy
ness rules, from beginning to end, re- of the information stored on a com-
quired for a process to run correctly? puter?
A. Workflow A. Backup
B. EIP B. Anti-virus
C. Workflow system C. Firewall
D. Biometrics
D. SLA
153. A(n) represents data as two-
148. The threat of new entrants is high dimensional tables with records or-
when it is: ganized in rows and attributes in
A. Hard for customers to enter the columns.
market A. database management system
B. Hard for competitors to enter the B. data warehouse
market C. SQL query
C. Easy for competitors to enter the D. relational database
market
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154. Which of the following can be used
D. Easy for customers to enter the
to help identify people in a crowd?
market A. Biochip
B. Implant chip
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149. Which of the following is the pri- C. Facial recognition software
mary characteristic of an intranet? D. Vision chip
A. People outside the organization
can access it 155. Unsolicited e-mail is called what?
hr
C. Extra mail
C. People outside the organization D. None of the above
can’t access it
D. None of the above 156. A materials requirements planning
Ja
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D. podcasts a
A. hardware platform
161. Which of the following captures B. content platform
screen images? C. transaction platform
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A. Key logger D. scalability platform
B. Packet sniffer
166. Which of the following is not a di-
C. Log analysis tools
hr
am
B. sales 177. What is a set of conditions used to
C. scheduling measure how well a product or system
D. None of the above functions?
A. Flexibility
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172. What software detects and removes B. Performance
or quarantines computer viruses? C. Capacity planning
D. Benchmark
A. Backup
hr
am
189. Materials used in the normal oper-
B. Accessibility
C. Reliability ation of a business but not related to
D. Scalability primary business operations are called
what?
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183. Which of the following is not a hori- A. Supplies
zontal portal? B. Direct materials
A. AOL C. Indirect materials
hr
193. What are plastic cards the size of a A. The Golden Rule
credit card that contains an embedded B. Slippery Slope
chip on which digital information can C. No Free Lunch
be stored? D. Universalism
A. Customer relationship manage- 199. All of the following are wireless In-
ment systems cards ternet access network technologies ex-
B. E-government identity cards
cept
C. FEDI cards A. Wi-Fi
D. Smart cards B. Bluetooth
C. Zigbee
194. Which one of the following is
D. GigaPoP
not one of the major types of e-
commerce? 200. A patent grants the owner an exclu-
A. C2B sive monopoly on the ideas behind the
B. B2C invention for years.
C. B2B A. 10
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D. C2C B. 20
C. 30
195. A product or service that customers D. 40
have come to expect from an indus-
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try, which must be offered by new en- 201. What is I stands in CIA of smart
trants if they wish to compete and sur- card?
vive, is known as a(n)? A. International
B. Integrity
hr
A. Switching costs
C. Identity
B. Loyalty programs
D. None of the above
C. Entry barriers
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am
B. B2Cs D. Face book
C. C2Bs 212. Which factor determines when your
D. C2Cs IT system will be available for knowl-
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edge workers to access?
207. After television, the next largest ma-
A. Availability
jor player in the commercial entertain- B. Accessibility
ment industry is C. Reliability
hr
A. scope
other cards using. B. differentiation
A. Encryption C. cost
B. Firewall D. focus
C. Hub
214. Which is used to identify mobile
D. All the above
money?
209. If it is easy for competitors to enter A. MCID
B. MMID
the market, the threat of new entrants
C. RSID
is considered: D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
A. High
B. Low 215. Which of the following is not a pri-
C. More mary function of a portal?
D. Less A. navigation of the Web
B. social networking
210. All of the following are goals of In- C. commerce
ternet 2 except D. content
154 Chapter 4. E commerce
216. In which website Global Easy Buy 221. What is a detailed process for recov-
is facilitated? ering information or an IT system in
A. Ebay.com the event of a catastrophic disaster
B. Amazon.com such as a fire or flood?
C. Yepme.com A. Disaster recovery plan
D. None of these B. Hot site
C. Cold site
217. Private Key cryptography is also D. Disaster recovery cost curve
known as cryptography.
222. Which of the following permits the
A. Public key transmission of a bill, along with pay-
B. Symmetric ment of that bill, to be conducted over
C. Asymmetric the Internet?
D. None A. financial cybermediary
B. electronic check
218. Which of the following is an C. electronic bill presentment and
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Internet-based company that makes payment
it easy for one person to pay another D. all of the above
over the Internet?
A. electronic check 223. All of the following are major B2C
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B. electronic bill presentment and business models except
payment A. content provider
C. conversion rates B. industry consortium
hr
C. transaction broker
D. financial cybermediary
D. service provider
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219. The combination of technical and 224. Products are made to prior to orders
legal means for protecting digital received based on estimated demand
content from unlimited reproduction under a
Ja
am
D. security organization A. Affiliate programs
B. Click-through
229. All of the following are poten- C. Spam
tial benefits of B2B e-commerce D. Conversion rate
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except
235. In the e-commerce security environ-
A. reduced amount of ’first-mover’
ment, which of the following consti-
advantages
hr
am
ernment and private sectors?
A. US-CERT best described as
A. many sites attaining similar levels
B. OECD
C. IC3 of profitability
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D. P3P B. easy to enter due to minimal barri-
ers
240. A worm is designed to spread C. populated mostly with small,
thriving specialty sites
hr
most common categories of spam ex- A. reduced transaction costs for the
cept user
A. fraud B. requirement of expensive devices
B. commercial products to use
C. finance C. portability compared to print
D. health (drugs) books
D. copyright management
242. The presence of make the
smart card smart. 247. The type of website that is designed
A. Memory to build customer goodwill and to sup-
B. Microchip plement other sales channels rather
C. E-cash then sell the company’s products di-
D. None of the above rectly is known as a website.
A. marketing
243. All of the following are technologies B. click-and-mortar
used to gather information about you C. customer service
online except D. corporate
157
248. Which of the following is not a di- 253. What is A stands in CIA of smart
mension of privacy? card?
A. Need for personal space A. auditing
B. Need to feel in control of our pos- B. authenticity
sessions C. authorized
C. Need to feel in control of our per- D. None of the above
sonal information 254. Which of the following applies to
D. All of the above are dimensions the implementation of an idea?
of privacy A. Copyright
B. Intellectual property
249. All of the following are examples of C. Patent
2G wireless phone technologies ex- D. Denial-of-service attack
cept
A. CDMA 255. What is software you don’t want hid-
B. W-CDMA den inside software you do want?
C. TDMA A. Adware
am
D. GSM B. Trojan-horse software
C. Spyware
250. Which of the following describes D. All of the above
paid content’s relation to free user-
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256. Which of the following are advan-
generated content?
tages normally associated with B2B
A. Free content jeopardizes paid con-
e-commerce?
tent A. Shorter cycle times
hr
am
C. Ask people to click a link in an
C. softwares
e-mail to open a submission form on
D. none
a web page
D. All of the above are uncommon
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266. The source of revenue in a subscrip-
approaches to phishing tion revenue model is
A. Fees from advertisers in exchange
261. What is the first step in a P3P-
for advertisements
hr
enabled transaction?
B. Fees for business referrals
A. send Web page C. Fees from subscribers in exchange
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262. All of the following are challenges 267. The two main types of Internet-
to online retail except based B2B commerce are
A. Consumer concerns about the se- A. Net marketplaces and private in-
curity of transactions dustrial networks
B. Consumer concerns about the pri- B. EDI and collaborative commerce
vacy of personal information given to C. Net marketplaces and collabora-
Web sites tive commerce
C. Delays in delivery of goods when D. EDI and private industrial net-
compared to store shopping works
D. Inability to change prices nearly
instantly 268. is a program that you can run
from the DOS prompt in the Windows
263. Which protocol permits users to operating system in order to check the
transfer files from the server to their connection between your client and
client computer, and vice versa? the server.
159
am
standard business documents? supply chain management systems
A. internet commerce includes all of the following except
B. e-commerce
A. supply chain simplification
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C. transaction information transfer
B. continuous inventory replenish-
D. electronic data interchange
ment
C. ERP systems
271. What type of ad appears under a web
hr
A. affiliate marketing
272. Which of the following measures B. viral marketing
the percentage of people exposed to C. permission marketing
an online advertisement who actually D. blog marketing
click on the banner? 278. Compared to Internet users, the num-
A. impression rate ber of cell phone subscribers is
B. view-through rate A. about the same
C. click-through rate B. slightly fewer
D. stickiness ratio C. much fewer
D. much larger
273. The dominant Web server software
is 279. The protocol which allows the file
A. Zeus transfer between computers is.
A. TCP/IP
B. Apache B. FTP
C. Microsoft IIS C. HTTP
D. Google D. SOA
160 Chapter 4. E commerce
280. If you need to transfer money to an- 285. Which of the following is used in
other person via the internet, which B2B to pay for purchases?
of the following methods could you A. e-commerce
use? B. financial electronic data inter-
A. financial cybermediary change
B. electronic check C. electronic data exchange
C. electronic bill presentment and D. electronic checks
payment 286. All of the following are examples
D. all of the above of intelligent agent technology except
281. Industry structure is defined as
A. automated response systems
A. the nature of the players in an in- B. automatic shipping confirmation
dustry and their relative bargaining C. order status reports
power D. online web bugs
B. a set of plans for achieving long
term returns on the capital invested in 287. The most popular type of media in
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a business firm terms of total hours of consumption
C. set of planned activities designed per year is
to result in a profit in a marketplace A. television
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D. how a company’s product or ser- B. radio
C. Internet
vice fulfills the needs of customers
D. newspaper
hr
282. The practice of forging a return ad- 288. Which one is the third party payment
dress on an e-mail so that the recipient providers who offer digital wallets for
is fooled into revealing private infor-
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E-merchants?
mation is termed? A. Oxicash
A. hacking B. PayMate
B. cracking C. PayPass
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291. What is software that comes hidden A. It is a moral right to be left alone
in free downloadable software and B. Only corporations and govern-
tracks your online movements, mines ment need to be concerned about it
the information stored on your com- C. It has only just recently become a
puter, or uses your computer’s CPU concern
and storage for some task you know D. It is most easily obtained on the
nothing about? Internet
A. Web log 297. What floods a Web site with so many
B. Clickstream requests for service that it slows down
C. Anonymous Web browsing ser- or crashes?
vice A. Computer virus
D. None of the above B. Worm
C. Denial-of-service attack
292. The online content revenue model D. None of the above
in which free content drives offline
revenues is called the 298. A dynamically priced market that
am
A. marketing model features few buyers and many sellers
B. advertising model is a market that exhibits
C. pay-per-view model A. market neutrality
D. subscription model B. buyer bias
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C. seller bias
293. Which of the following is the largest D. owner bias
online travel service? 299. Which one is a physical threat?
hr
A. Travelocity A. Phishing
B. Orbitz B. Storm
C. Priceline C. Earthquake
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294. What looks for people on the net- 300. An auction that has multiple winners
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work who shouldn’t be there or who that all pay the same price is an exam-
are acting suspiciously? ple of
A. Encryption A. uniform pricing
B. Public key encryption B. discriminatory pricing
C. Intrusion-detection software C. bid rigging
D. price matching
D. Security-auditing software
301. The type of Net marketplace char-
295. Digital signature is a.
acterized by indirect inputs and spot
A. Digital id,send as an attachment
purchasing is called an
to a web page/e-mail/message A. industry consortium
B. Is used for verifying the attach- B. independent exchange
ments send using web C. e-distributor
C. Both a and b D. e-procurement marketplace
D. None of these
302. Which products are people most
296. Which of the following statements likely to be comfortable buying on
about privacy is true? the Internet?
162 Chapter 4. E commerce
am
ity?
A. Flexibility B. eBay.in
B. Performance C. amazon.com
C. Capacity planning D. none
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D. Benchmark
311. The virus that are commonly found
305. What is a model of a proposed prod- in word documents are called
uct, service, or system?
hr
A. Macro
A. Prototyping B. Trojan horse
B. Prototype C. Script virus
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C. Proof-of-concept prototype
D. None of the above
D. Selling prototype
306. The fastest growing form of online 312. Internet users account for about
Ja
307. All of the following are objectives 313. The majority of job seekers rely on
of private industrial networks except which of the following?
A. Word-of-mouth leads
A. developing efficient purchas- B. Employment agencies
ing and selling business processes C. Internet and newspapers equally
industry-wide D. Internet only
B. operating on a local scale
C. creating increased supply chain 314. Which of the following is not a rea-
visibility son why digital cash has turned out to
D. reducing industry risk be extremely difficult?
163
am
D. Stop Spam
316. Which of the following is a useful se- 322. Which of the smart card uses a sim
curity mechanism when considering like structure for reading and writing
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business strategy and IT? data?
A. encryption A. Contact smart card
B. decryption B. Contactless smart card
C. firewall C. Proximity smart card
hr
am
Answers
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. D
14. D 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D
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25. B 26. D 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C
36. B 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. C
47. D 48. B 49. C 50. C 51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. B
hr
58. C 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. D 63. C 64. B 65. C 66. D 67. B 68. C
69. D 70. C 71. D 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. D 76. A 77. D 78. A 79. D
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80. D 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. D 85. D 86. D 87. B 88. C 89. C 90. C
91. D 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. D 98. B 99. A 100. D 101. D
102. D 103. D 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. A 108. A 109. C 110. A 111. D
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112. A 113. D 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. A 118. A 119. D 120. A 121. D
122. B 123. A 124. C 125. D 126. D 127. B 128. D 129. B 130. A 131. A
132. A 133. A 134. D 135. D 136. A 137. D 138. D 139. C 140. B 141. D
142. D 143. D 144. B 145. D 146. A 147. A 148. C 149. C 150. B 151. C
152. A 153. D 154. C 155. B 156. C 157. A 158. A 159. B 160. C 161. D
162. C 163. C 164. B 165. A 166. A 167. B 168. D 169. A 170. A 171. D
172. B 173. B 174. D 175. D 176. C 177. D 178. D 179. B 180. C 181. A
182. D 183. C 184. D 185. A 186. A 187. D 188. D 189. C 190. D 191. A
192. B 193. D 194. A 195. C 196. D 197. D 198. D 199. D 200. B 201. B
202. C 203. A 204. B 205. D 206. B 207. D 208. A 209. A 210. B 211. C
212. A 213. A 214. B 215. B 216. A 217. B 218. D 219. A 220. C 221. A
222. C 223. B 224. A 225. A 226. B 227. D 228. B 229. A 230. C 231. B
232. C 233. C 234. D 235. B 236. B 237. D 238. B 239. A 240. A 241. A
242. B 243. D 244. D 245. D 246. A 247. D 248. D 249. B 250. C 251. A
252. A 253. B 254. C 255. D 256. D 257. A 258. A 259. C 260. B 261. B
262. D 263. D 264. C 265. A 266. C 267. D 268. A 269. C 270. D 271. A
165
272. C 273. B 274. C 275. A 276. D 277. B 278. D 279. B 280. D 281. A
282. D 283. B 284. C 285. B 286. D 287. A 288. D 289. A 290. B 291. D
292. A 293. D 294. C 295. C 296. A 297. C 298. B 299. D 300. A 301. C
302. D 303. A 304. C 305. B 306. C 307. B 308. C 309. C 310. B 311. A
312. B 313. C 314. B 315. B 316. D 317. D 318. A 319. C 320. B 321. B
322. A 323. D 324. D 325. A 326. C 327. A 328. C
am
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Ja
Ja
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hr
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am
5. Economics
am
C. Price to a change in income A. Stock available for sale
D. Income to a change in quantity de- B. Total stock in the warehouse
manded C. Actual production of the good
D. Quantity of the good offered for
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10. The following are causes of shift in
sale at a particular price per unit of
demand EXCEPT
time
A. Change in income
hr
am
D. Permanent sector
D. Neither household nor govern-
22. The ’substitution effect’ takes place ment sector
due to change in
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A. Income of the consumers 28. When two goods are perfect substi-
B. Prices of the commodity tutes of each other, then
C. Relative prices of the commodi- A. MRS is falling
ties B. MRS is rising
hr
am
ticity of supply is is the name of John Stuart Mill asso-
A. Zero ciated?
B. Infinite A. Marginal productivity theory of
C. Equal to 1 wages
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D. Greater than 0 but less than 1 B. Wages-fund theory
35. Under which market structure, aver- C. Subsistence theory of wages
D. Iron aw of wages
age revenue of a firm is equal to its
hr
36. When equilibrium price rises but equi- 41. As output increases
librium quantity remains unchanged, A. MC curve initially falls and then
the cause is rises
A. Supply and demand both increase B. MC initially rises and then falls
equally C. MC continuously rises
B. Supply and demand both decrease D. None of the above
equally
C. Supply decreases and demand in- 42. Which of the following is NOT an in-
creases put?
D. Supply increases and demand de- A. Labour
creases B. Entrepreneurship
C. Natural resources
37. is the official minimum rate at D. Production
which the Central Bank of a country is
prepared to rediscount approved bills 43. Discriminating monopoly is possible
held by the commercial banks if two markets have
171
am
A. Price does not at least cover aver- C. Marginal revenue equals marginal
age total cost cost
B. Price does not equal marginal cost D. All of the above
C. Economies of sale are being
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reaped 51. If there are implicit costs of produc-
D. Price is greater than long run aver- tion
age cost A. Economic profit will be equal to
hr
accounting profit
46. If a firm shuts down temporarily, it B. Economic profit will be less than
accounting profit
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am
takes risk, innovates and coordinates
bility
A. Capital
B. Collecting and compilation of sta-
B. Labour
C. Productivity tistical information relating to bank-
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D. Entrepreneur ing& other financial sector
C. Banks underwrite the securities is-
57. Identify the factor which generally sued by public or private organiza-
keeps the price-elasticity of demand tions
hr
is always
58. If all inputs are trebled and the resul- A. Positive
tant output is doubled, this is a case B. Negative
of C. Constant
A. Constant returns to scale D. Greater than 1
B. Increasing returns to scale
C. Diminishing returns to scale 63. The Revealed Preference Theory de-
D. Negative returns to scale duces the inverse price-quantity rela-
tionship from
59. If a firm’s average variable cost curve A. Assumption of indifference
is rising, its marginal cost curve must B. Postulate of utility maximization
be C. Observed behavior of the con-
A. Constant sumer
B. Above the total cost curve D. Introspection
C. Above the average variable cost
curve 64. Price and demand are positively cor-
D. All of the above related in case of
173
am
C. Enable economists to simplify re-
B. 1764 ality
C. 1761 D. That no other assumptions are
D. 1758 made
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67. The cost of one thing in terms of the 74. In long run equilibrium, the pure mo-
alternative given up is called nopolist can make pure profits be-
A. Real cost cause of
hr
am
fect is of demand
A. Zero C. That are in short supply
B. Negative D. None of the above
C. Infinite
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D. Positive 86. Consumer’s surplus left with the con-
sumer under price discrimination is
80. Which of the following bodies final-
A. Maximum
hr
am
C. MC = AC B. Uncertain policy of rival firms
D. AR = MR C. Changes in tastes
D. All of the above
91. The cost which a firm incurs for pur-
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97. If price changes by 1% and supply
chasing or hiring factors is called changes by 2%, then supply is
A. Implicit A. Elastic
B. Explicit B. Inelastic
hr
C. Real C. Indeterminate
D. Nominal D. Static
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am
price changes D. Elasticity of demand is perfectly
D. The value of sales at a given price elastic if price increases and perfectly
inelastic if price decreases
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103. If the price of ’X’ rises by 10 percent 108. Under market condition, firms
and the quantity demanded falls by 10 make normal profits in the long run.
percent, ’X’ has A. Perfect competition
hr
D. Elastic demand
109. Identify the author of "The princi-
104. The human effort applied to the pro- ples of Political Economy and Taxa-
Ja
am
price at Rs.5, there is
C. One’s choice s never vary
A. A shortage
D. One makes choice s that do not
B. A surplus
involve trade offs
C. Excess supply
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D. Loss 120. Calculate income elasticity for the
household when the income of a
114. All of the following are determinants
household rises by 10% and the de-
hr
of demand except
A. Tastes and preferences mand for Rice rises by 5%.
A. -0.5
B. Quantity supplied
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B. 0.5
C. Income
C. -2
D. Price of related goods
D. 2
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115. The necessary condition for equilib- 121. According to Marshall, the basis of
rium position of a firm is consumer surplus is
A. MR>MC A. Law of diminishing MU
B. MC>Price B. Law of Equi-MU
C. MC=MR C. Law of proportions
D. MC=AC D. All of the above
116. The producer’s demand for a fac- 122. The IC curve approach assumes
tor of production is governed by the A. Rationality
of the factor. B. Consistency
A. Price will decrease C. Transitivity
B. Marginal productivity D. All of the above
C. Availability
D. Profitability 123. A factor of production, whose sup-
ply is fixed in the short tun, may get
117. The upper portion of the kinked de- additional earnings. These earnings
mand curve is relatively are generally referred to as
178 Chapter 5. Economics
124. If firm’s average cost curve is falling 130. In which of the following market
then marginal curve must be structure is the degree of control over
A. Falling the price of its product by a firm very
B. Rising large?
C. Below average cost curve A. Imperfect competition
D. None of the above B. Perfect competition
C. Monopoly
125. In perfect competition, in the long D. In A and B both
run, there will be 131. Which of the following cost curves
A. Normal profits
is never U-shaped?
B. Super normal profits A. Average cost curve
am
C. Less production B. Marginal cost curve
D. Cost will be falling C. Average variable cost curve
D. Average fixed cost curve
126. Standard of living of a country can
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be raised if it increases 132. When marginal revenue is zero, total
A. Labour force revenue is
B. Production A. Maximum
C. Money supply B. Minimum
hr
D. Exports C. Zero
D. Decreasing
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am
D. Opportunity cost
A. Law of supply
B. Law of demand 144. Standard of living of a country can
C. Law of returns be raised if it increases
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D. None of the above A. Labour force
B. Production
138. The standard of living of workers C. Money supply
depends upon their D. Exports
hr
A. Nominal wages
145. Zubair has a special taste for col-
B. Real wages
lege canteen’s hotdogs. The owner
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C. Average product
of the canteen doubles the prices of
D. Government policy
hotdogs. Zubair did not respond to
139. Unit cost is another name for the increase in prices and kept on de-
Ja
am
A. Stock concept
C. Mobility rent
B. Flow concept
C. Both stock and flow concept D. Location rent
D. None of the above
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156. If demand is inelastic, a change in
150. Unemployment of labour means that the price
A. A worker does not get full time A. Will change the quantity in same
job direction
hr
B. A worker is not happy with his B. Will change total revenue in same
present job direction
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C. A person does not get job accord- C. Will change total revenue in the
ing to his qualification opposite direction
D. a’ and ’c’ both
D. Will not change total revenue
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159. Other things equal, if a good has 165. The three broad types of productive
more substitutes, its price elasticity resources are
of demand is A. Money, profit and interest
A. Larger B. Capital, labour and natural re-
B. Smaller sources
C. Zero C. Bond, stock shares and deposits
D. Unity D. Technology, human capital and
markets
160. Mr. Raees Ahamd bought 50 litres
of petrol when his monthly income 166. When price is below equilibrium
was Rs.25000. Now his monthly in- level, there will be
come has risen to Rs.50,000 and he A. Surplus commodity in the market
B. Shortage of commodity in the mar-
purchases 100 litres of petrol. His in-
ket
come elasticity of demand for petrol
C. Supply curve will shift
is D. Demand curve will shift
A. 1
am
B. 100% 167. The Communist Manifesto, written
C. Less than 1 jointly by Marx and Engels’s was pub-
D. More than 1 lished in
A. 1843
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161. Unemployment due to mechaniza- B. 1848
tion of agriculture is C. 1853
A. Seasonal D. 1859
B. Structural
hr
am
ciency petition is created by
D. The founder of Welfare eco- A. Small number of producers of a
nomics was Alfred Marshall commodity
B. Lack of homogeneity of the prod-
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173. The short run uct produced by different firms
A. Is less than one year C. Imperfection of the market for that
B. Requires that at least one input is product
hr
C. how society manages its scarce re- 187. If lowering of fares reduces rail-
sources way’s revenues and increasing of fares
D. how to fully satisfy our unlimited increases, then the demand for rail
wants travel has a price elasticity of
A. Zero
182. A significant property of the Cobb- B. Greater than Zero but less than
Douglas production function is that One
the elasticity of substitution between C. One
inputs is D. Greater than One
A. Equal to 1
B. More than 1 188. The economic analysis expects the
C. Less than 1 consumer to behave in a manner
D. 0
which is
183. In the case of a straight-line demand A. Rational
curve meeting the two axes, the price- B. Irrational
elasticity of demand at the mid-point C. Emotional
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of the line would be D. Indifferent
A. 0
B. 1 189. The cost that a firm incurs in hiring
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C. 1.5 or purchasing any factor of produc-
D. 2 tion is referred to as
A. Explicit cost
184. A decrease in demand causes the B. Implicit cost
hr
B. Fall
C. Remain constant 190. In which form of the market struc-
D. Indeterminate ture is the degree of control over the
Ja
185. What is the shape of the demand price of its product by a firm very
curve faced by a firm under perfect large?
A. Monopoly
competition?
A. Horizontal B. Imperfect condition
B. Vertical C. Oligopoly
C. Positively sloped D. Perfect competition
D. Negatively sloped
191. Who expressed the view that ’Eco-
186. "The real price of everything, what nomics should be neutral between
every thing really costs to the man ends’?
who wants to require it, is the toil and A. Robbins
trouble of acquiring it. Who made B. Marshall
this statement? C. Pigou
A. Karl Marx D. Adam Smith
B. Adam Smith
C. David Ricardo 192. The shape of rectangular hyperbola
D. J.S.Mill is made by
184 Chapter 5. Economics
A. MC A. Monopoly
B. AFC B. Monopolistic competition
C. AVC C. Perfect competition
D. Oligopoly
D. None of the above
198. Which of the following is example
193. Profit is maximum when of external economies of scale?
A. Distance between TR and TC is A. Discount on purchases of raw ma-
maximum terials
B. Distance between AR and AC is B. Technical progress leads to devel-
maximum opment of machine at low price
C. Distance between MR and MC is C. Hiring of specialized staff due to
maximum increase in scale of production
D. None of the above D. A firm starts producing by-
products
194. Demand for a commodity refers to a
199. The transformation of resources into
A. Desire for the commodity
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economic goods and services is called
B. Need for the commodity A. Technical efficiency
C. Quantity demanded of that com- B. Input
modity C. Production
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D. Quantity of the commodity de- D. Increasing returns
manded at a certain price during any
200. The various combination of goods
particular period of time
that can be produced in any econ-
hr
195. Normal profit is called normal be- omy when it uses its available re-
cause sources and technology efficiency are
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A. A decrease in total revenue B. Human capital
B. An increase in total revenue C. Physical capital
C. No change in total revenue D. All of the above
D. A decrease in quantity demanded
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212. Profits
206. Normal profit is A. Are lower in the long run than in
A. Part of total cost the short run
B. Part of economic profit B. Can be negative
hr
am
223. Which is the first-order condition for
modity
C. Stock available for sale the profit of a firm to be maximum?
A. AC=MR
D. Amount of the commodity offered B. MC=MR
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for sale at a particular price per unit C. MR=AR
of time D. AC=AR
218. If the income elasticity is greater 224. Which of the following markets
hr
219. Which one of the following is the 225. Total utility of a commodity is mea-
task of the Planning Commission? sured by which price of that commod-
A. Preparation of the plan ity?
B. Implementation of the plan A. Value in use
C. Financing of the plan B. Value in exchange
D. None of the above C. Both of above
D. None of above
220. The offer curves introduced by Al- 226. As for the cost of production of an in-
fred Marshall, helps us to understand dividual farmer, the rent paid by him
how the is established in inter- A. Enters into the price of his product
national trade. B. Does not enter into price of his
A. Terms of trade product
B. Equilibrium price ratio C. Is unjustified
C. Exchange rate D. None of the above
D. Satisfaction level
227. Which of the following is not the
221. Economic problems arise because name of LAC curve?
187
am
D. Horizontal in both short and long
run 236. Identify the work of Irving Fisher
A. A Treatese on Money
230. The capital that is consumed by an B. Policy against Inflation
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economy or a firm in the production C. The Making of Index numbers
process is known as D. Monetary Theory
A. Capital loss
B. Production cost 237. Which statement is true
hr
B. Price rises
the
C. Demand shots A. Proportion of population that is
D. Technology changes
working
232. The LAC curve B. Proportion of population working
A. Falls when the LMC curve falls or looking for work
C. Proportion of skilled workers pop-
B. Rises when the LMC curve rises
C. Goes through the lowest point of ulation
D. Proportion of female workers to
the LMC curve
male workers
D. Falls when LMCLAC
239. Marginal utility is equal to average
233. Which one of the following is true
utility at that time when average util-
about Planning Commission?
ity is
A. It is a Ministry A. Increasing
B. It is a Government Department B. Maximum
C. It is an Advisory Body C. Falling
D. It is an Autonomous Corporation D. Minimum
188 Chapter 5. Economics
240. Which one of the following is the D. An indifference curve relating the
condition of equilibrium for the mo- two goods will be convex to the origin
nopolist?
A. MR=MC
B. MC=AR 246. Agricultural goods market depicts
C. MR=MC=Price characteristics close to
D. AC=AR A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
241. Some economists refer to iso- C. Monopoly
product curves as D. Monopolistic competition
A. Engels curve
B. Production indifference curve 247. When was Adam Smith’s major
C. Budget line work "An enquiry into the Nature and
D. Ridge line Causes of Wealth of Nations" pub-
lished?
242. Suppose the short run cost function A. 1756
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can be written as TC=250 + 10Q. Av- B. 1766
erage fixed cost equals C. 1776
A. 250/Q D. 1786
B. 250
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C. 10 248. If elasticity of demand is very low, it
D. 250/Q + 10 shows that the commodity is
A. A necessity
hr
A. An upward shift in demand for the 257. Marginal revenue is always less than
other commodity price at all levels of output in
B. A rise in the price of the other A. Perfect competition
commodity B. Monopoly
C. A downward shift in demand for C. Both ’a’ and ’b’
the other commodity D. None of the above
D. No shift in the demand for the
other commodity 258. One characteristic not typical of
oligopolistic industry is
252. Identify the aspect of taxation which A. Too much importance to non-price
is related to normative economics competition
A. Incidence of tax B. Price leadership
B. Effect of tax on the capacity will- C. Horizontal demand curve
ingness to work D. A small number of firms in the
C. Equity of tax industry
D. None of the above
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259. Calculate the income elasticity for a
253. When cross elasticity of demand is household when the income of this
a large positive number, one can con- household rises by 5% and the de-
clude that mand for buttons does not change at
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A. The good is normal all.
B. The good is inferior A. Infinity
C. The good is a substitute B. 1
D. The good is complement
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C. Zero
254. Larger production of goods D. 5
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B. Demand
C. Agricultural goods
C. Utility
D. Public goods
D. Efficiency
255. Under which of the following forms
261. Price of a product is determined in a
of market structure does a firm have
free market by
no control over the price of its prod-
A. Demand for the product
uct?
B. Supply of the product
A. Monopoly
C. Both demand and supply
B. Monopolistic competition
D. The government
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition 262. The term ’marginal’ in economics
256. Productivity of land can be raised by means
A. Extensive cultivation A. Unimportant
B. Intensive cultivation B. Additional
C. Better marketing C. The minimum unit
D. a’ and ’b’ both D. Just barely passing
190 Chapter 5. Economics
264. In the case of an inferior good, the 270. Which among the following state-
income elasticity of demand is ment is INCORRECT?
A. Positive A. On a linear demand curve, all the
B. Zero five forms of elasticity can be de-
C. Negative picted
D. Infinite B. If two demand curves are linear
and intersecting each other, then, coef-
265. Who is generally regarded as the ficient of elasticity would be same on
founder of the ’Classical School’? different demand curves at the point
A. David Ricardo of intersection.
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B. Adam Smith C. If two demand curves are linear
C. T.R.Malthus and parallel to each other, then, at a
D. J.S.Mill particular price, the coefficient of elas-
ticity would be different on different
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266. If marginal opportunity cost is demand curves.
falling, the PPF would be D. The price elasticity of demand is
A. Straight line expressed in terms of relaive not ab-
B. Concave
hr
268. Total costs in the short-term are clas- 272. When indifference curve is L shaped,
sified into fixed costs and variable then two goods will be
costs. Which one of the following A. Perfect substitute goods
is a variable cost? B. Substitute goods
C. Perfect complementary goods
A. Cost of raw material
D. Complementary goods
B. Cost of equipment
C. Interest payment on past borrow- 273. Economic development of a country
ing requires
D. Payment of rent on buildings A. Skilled labour
B. Diplomacy
269. Which of the following is not an es- C. Abundant natural resources
sential condition of pure competition? D. a’ and ’c’ both
191
274. Economic survey is published by 280. What is the shape of the average
A. Ministry of Finance fixed cost (AFC) curve?
B. Planning Commission A. U-shape
C. Government of India B. Horizontal up to a point and then
D. Indian Statistical Institute rising
275. Which of the following is NOT a fea- C. Sloping down towards the right
D. Rectangular hyperbola
ture of iso-product curve? Iso-product
curves 281. Which statement relates to macroe-
A. Are downward sloping to the right
conomics?
B. Show different input combination
A. Oil prices are rising in Pakistan
producing the same output
B. Profit rate is high on textile indus-
C. Intersect each other
D. Are convex to the origin try
C. The firms try to make huge profits
276. If regardless of changes in its price, D. The government has failed to con-
the quantity demanded of a commod- trol inflation
am
ity remains unchanged, then the de-
mand curve for the commodity will 282. The average profit is the difference
be between
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A. Horizontal A. AC and TC
B. Vertical B. AC and VC
C. Positively sloped C. AC and AR
D. Negatively sloped D. AC and TR
hr
277. The exception to law of demand is 283. If rate of interest is 10%, the PV
A. Veblen goods
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B. 90.9
278. All but one of the following are as- C. 95
D. 110
sumed to remain the same while draw-
ing an individual’s demand curve for 284. If the demand for a good is inelastic,
a commodity. Which one is it? an increase in the price of the good
A. The preferences of the individual
will cause the total expenditure of the
B. His monetary income
C. The price of the commodity under consumers of the good to
A. Remain the same
consideration
D. The prices of other goods B. Increase
C. Decrease
279. In case of inferior goods, the income D. Any of the above
elasticity is
A. Zero 285. During a particular year, farmers ex-
B. Positive perienced a dry weather. If all the oth-
C. Negative err factors remain constant, farmers
D. None supply curve for wheat will shift
192 Chapter 5. Economics
am
C. Wage earner B. Revealed preference theory
D. Government officer C. Law of substitution
D. The law of diminishing marginal
288. Economic profit is
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utility
A. Part of total cost
B. Total revenue minus total cost 295. Quantity demanded is a
C. Total revenue minus explicit cost A. Flow concept
hr
A. Zero
B. Monopoly
B. Greater than zero
C. Monopolistic competition
C. Less than infinity
D. Oligopoly D. Infinity
290. All inputs can be varied in 297. He described economics as a science
A. Short run of material welfare
B. Long run A. Robbins
C. Both periods B. Marshall
D. None of the period C. Ricardo
D. Keynes
291. MC curve cuts curves at their
minimum points 298. Assume that consumer’s income and
A. AVC and AC the number of sellers in the market
B. AFC and AVC for good X both falls. Based on this
C. AC and AFC information, we can conclude with
D. All of the above certaintty that the equilibrium
193
am
C. Absence of government taxes
the first fruits of Karl Marx’s long
D. No close substitute
painstaking research at the British
301. If a good is a luxury, its income elas- Museum, appeared in
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ticity of demand is A. 1859
A. Positive and less than 1 B. 1857
B. Negative but greater than 1 C. 1855
D. 1853
hr
A. Rises input
B. Falls D. Natural resources include human
C. Remains unchanged input
D. Becomes Zero
309. Mobility of labour
303. A firm under perfect competition is A. Increases efficiency of labour
A. Price maker B. Spoils labour
B. Price breaker C. Increases division of labour
C. Price taker D. a’ and ’c’ both
D. Price shaker
310. In market equilibrium, supply is ver-
304. A firm earns economic profit when tical line. The downward sloping de-
total profit exceeds mand curve shifts to the right. Then
A. Normal profit A. Price will fall
B. Implicit costs B. Price remains same
C. Explicit costs C. Price will rise
D. Variable costs D. Quantity rises
194 Chapter 5. Economics
am
C. AR>MR These changes show that supply of
D. None of the above sugar is
A. Oerfectly elastic
314. In imperfect competition B. Perfectly inelastic
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A. Excess capacity always exists C. Less elastic
B. Excess capacity never exists D. More elastic
C. Excess capacity may or may not
320. The structure of the cold drink indus-
hr
exist
D. None of the above try in India is best described as
A. Perfectly competitive
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am
C. Isoquant
D. Consumption possibility line
331. A firm’s average total cost of pro-
326. Identify the coefficient of price- duction is Rs.300 at 5 units of out-
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elasticity of demand when the percent- put and Rs.320 at 6 units of output.
age increase in the quantity of a com- The marginal cost of producing the
modity demanded is smaller than the 6th unit is
percentage fall in its price A. Rs.20
hr
335. Total utility is maximum when 341. During short period, diminishing re-
A. Marginal utility is zero turns may follow because
B. Marginal utility is at its highest A. Quantity of labour is fixed
point B. Quantity of output is fixed
C. Quantity of capital is fixed
C. Marginal utility is equal to aver-
D. Quantity of any one factor is fixed
age
D. Average utility is maximum
342. The elasticity of demand of durable
336. In market equilibrium, supply is ver- goods is
tical line. The downward sloping de- A. Less than unity
mand curve shifts to the right. Then B. Greater than unity
am
A. Price will fall C. Equal to unity
B. Price remains same D. Zero
C. Price will rise
343. Demand is a function of
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D. Quantity rises
A. Price
337. When marginal is negative, it must B. Quantity
be true that C. Supply
hr
am
TFC B. AVC
D. All of the above C. TFC
D. None of the above
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349. When the perfectly competitive firm
and industry are in long run equilib- 354. When total utility becomes maxi-
rium, then mum, then marginal utility will be
A. P = MR = SAC = LAC
hr
A. Minimum
B. D = MR = SMC = LMC
B. Average
C. P = MR = Lowest point on the
C. Zero
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LAC curve
D. All of the above D. Negative
350. Price-taking firms i.e., firms that op- 355. Which of the following oligopoly
Ja
351. Which of the following is a cause of 357. Mixed economy means an economy
an economic problem? where
198 Chapter 5. Economics
am
est as a reward for
A. Parting with liquidity 365. TVC curve
B. Abstinence A. Starts from origin
C. Saving B. Does not start from origin
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D. Inconvenience C. Is parallel to Y-axis
D. None of the above
360. Which of the following is not a char-
acteristic of a ’price taker’?
hr
am
B. SAC is minimum need to make choice s
C. LMC is minimum C. We must develop ways to decrease
D. SMC is minimum our individual wants
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372. A higher indifference curve shows D. The discovery of new natural re-
A. A higher level of satisfaction sources is necessary to increase our
B. A higher level of production ability to satisfy wants
C. A higher level of income
hr
Answers
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58. C 59. C 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. B
69. B 70. B 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. D 76. B 77. C 78. B 79. B
80. C 81. C 82. A 83. B 84. B 85. A 86. C 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. A
91. B 92. B 93. B 94. D 95. A 96. D 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. B
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102. C 103. B 104. A 105. C 106. D 107. A 108. A 109. C 110. B 111. C
112. D 113. A 114. B 115. C 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. B 121. A
122. D 123. B 124. C 125. A 126. B 127. B 128. C 129. B 130. C 131. D
hr
132. A 133. B 134. D 135. D 136. C 137. B 138. B 139. C 140. A 141. A
142. A 143. D 144. B 145. B 146. B 147. C 148. B 149. B 150. D 151. A
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152. B 153. A 154. C 155. C 156. B 157. B 158. D 159. A 160. A 161. B
162. C 163. C 164. A 165. B 166. B 167. B 168. B 169. D 170. C 171. D
172. D 173. B 174. B 175. C 176. C 177. B 178. D 179. A 180. D 181. C
Ja
182. A 183. B 184. B 185. A 186. C 187. B 188. A 189. A 190. A 191. A
192. B 193. A 194. D 195. B 196. B 197. C 198. B 199. C 200. D 201. A
202. C 203. B 204. C 205. B 206. A 207. D 208. B 209. C 210. C 211. D
212. D 213. C 214. A 215. C 216. D 217. D 218. B 219. A 220. A 221. D
222. C 223. B 224. A 225. A 226. A 227. C 228. C 229. B 230. D 231. D
232. D 233. C 234. B 235. A 236. C 237. D 238. C 239. B 240. A 241. B
242. A 243. C 244. D 245. B 246. A 247. C 248. D 249. D 250. D 251. C
252. C 253. C 254. B 255. D 256. B 257. B 258. C 259. C 260. C 261. C
262. B 263. C 264. C 265. B 266. D 267. C 268. A 269. D 270. B 271. D
272. C 273. D 274. A 275. C 276. B 277. C 278. C 279. C 280. D 281. D
282. C 283. B 284. B 285. B 286. A 287. C 288. B 289. A 290. B 291. A
292. A 293. D 294. D 295. A 296. D 297. B 298. C 299. B 300. D 301. C
302. A 303. C 304. A 305. D 306. B 307. A 308. B 309. D 310. C 311. D
312. D 313. A 314. A 315. A 316. D 317. A 318. A 319. C 320. D 321. C
322. B 323. B 324. C 325. D 326. C 327. C 328. B 329. A 330. D 331. D
332. D 333. B 334. A 335. A 336. C 337. D 338. D 339. B 340. A 341. D
201
342. B 343. A 344. C 345. B 346. D 347. B 348. D 349. D 350. D 351. D
352. A 353. C 354. C 355. C 356. B 357. B 358. D 359. C 360. C 361. B
362. D 363. B 364. C 365. A 366. B 367. D 368. A 369. B 370. B 371. A
372. A 373. D 374. A 375. C 376. D 377. A 378. D 379. C 380. A 381. A
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Ja
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am
6. Financial management
am
9. The amount of current assets that
15. I modern investment analysis, the risk
varies with seasonal requirements is
for a stock is related to its
referred to as working capital. A. leverage factor
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A. Permanent B. standard deviation
B. Net C. beta coefficient
C. Temporary D. coefficient of variation
hr
D. Gross
16. An option which can be exercised any
10. If coupon rate is more than going rate desired time before an expiry date is
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am
A. national markets system 27. Subset of primary market where firms
B. electronic communications net- go publicly by issuing stocks in finan-
works cial markets is considered as
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C. internet investment service A. initial public offering market
D. global investment network. B. stock market
C. issuance market
22. Type of basic financial statements D. First stock market
hr
23. Second factor in Fama French three 29. Dividend per share is Rs 15 and sell
factor model is the it for Rs 120 and floatation cost is Rs
A. size of industry 3.0 then component cost of preferred
B. size of market stock will be
C. size of company A. 12.82 times
D. size of portfolio B. 0.1282 times
C. 12.82%
24. The expected return on an investment D. Rs 12.82
in stock is 30. An opposite of perfect positive corre-
A. the expected dividend payments lation + 1.0 is called
B. the anticipated capital gains A. negative correlation
C. the sum of expected dividends and B. multiple correlation
capital gains C. divisor correlation
D. less than the realized return D. none of above
206 Chapter 6. Financial management
31. Stock selling price is Rs 35, expected C. The average rate of return it must
dividend is Rs 5 and expected growth earn on its investments to satisfy the
rate is 8% then cost of common stock various investors
would be D. The minimum rate of return it
A. 40.00% must earn on its investments to keep
B. 22.29% its investors satisfied
C. 14.28%
D. 80.00% 37. Value of stock is Rs 1000 and current
value of portfolio is Rs 1500 then obli-
32. Constant growth rate is 7.2% and an gation to cover call option will be
expected rate of return is 12.5% then A. Rs 6,667.00
expected dividend yield will be B. Rs 2,500.00
C. Rs 2,000.00
A. 5.30% D. Rs 500.00
B. 19.70%
C. -5.30% 38. A formula such as net income avail-
D. 17.36% able to common stockholders divided
am
by common equity is used to calculate
33. Beta coefficient is used to measure A. return on earning power
market risk which is an index of B. return on investment
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A. coefficient risk volatility C. return on common equity
B. market risk volatility D. return on interest
C. stock market volatility
39. Until word of preferred is used, an
D. portfolio market portfolio
hr
am
B. steeper, smaller will be
C. steeper, zero A. Rs 12.54
D. Both A and B B. Rs 12,500.00
C. Rs 12,504.00
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45. Size of firm and market or book ratio D. Rs 8,400.00
are variables which are related to 51. Financial securities that can be con-
A. premium returns
verted into cash at closing to their
hr
B. unquoted returns
book value price are classified as
C. quoted returns A. inventories
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54. Growth in earnings per share is pri- C. A portfolio with securities all hav-
marily resultant of growth in ing negative correlation with each
A. dividends other
B. asset value D. A portfolio with securities all has
C. fundamental value skewed correlation with each other
D. yearly value
60. Statement of cash flows are included
55. Market value of the shares are decided A. operating activities
by B. investing activities
A. the respective companies C. financing activities
B. the investment market D. all of above
C. the government
D. shareholders 61. An actual rate of return is subtracted
from expected growth rate then it is
56. Realized and required return for indi-
divided from dividend stockholders
vidual stocks are classified as function
expects use for calculating
of fundamental
am
A. dividend growth model
A. arbitrage factors
B. actual growth model
B. economic factors
C. constant growth model
C. portfolio factors
D. variable growth model
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D. realized theory factors
57. Mr. A is a daring portfolio manager. 62. In arbitrage pricing theory, higher re-
He wants to increase the return in his quired rate of return is usually paid on
hr
A. defensive industry
B. industry at a growth stage C. lower dividend
C. industry in the maturity period D. lower market risk
D. industry with more export poten-
Ja
am
option pricing is to define range of B. financial leverage
values C. variable cost leverage
A. at expiration D. combined leverage
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B. at buying date
C. at exchange closing time 74. Free cash flow is Rs 15000 and net
D. at exchange opening time investment in operating capital is Rs
9000 then net operating profit after
hr
69. Price of an outstanding bond de- 75. Risk lover’s utility curves have
creases when market rate is A. Positive slope
A. increased B. Negative slope
B. decreased C. Convex to the origin
C. earned D. Negative slope and convex to the
D. never changed origin
70. A project which have one series of 76. In calculation of betas, an adjusted be-
cash inflows and results in one or tas are highly dependent on historical
more cash outflows is classified as A. unadjusted betas
A. abnormal costs B. adjusted historical betas
B. normal cash flows C. fundamental historical betas
C. abnormal cash flow D. fundamental varied betas
D. normal costs
77. Financial security issues by major
71. Owners of corporation having certain banks and risk depends on strength
rights and privileges are considered as of issuer is classified as
210 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
A. probability error 85. Traditional theorists believe that.
B. actual error
A. there exists an optimal capital
C. prediction error
structure
D. random error
B. no optimal capital structure
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80. Offering cash discount to customers C. equal optimal capital structure
result in D. 100% debt financial organizations
A. reducing the average collection pe-
hr
riod
B. increasing the average collection 86. If market interest rates are expected
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am
B. Rs 1.25 the future
C. 50 times D. unpaid dividends are never repaid
D. Rs 23.75
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91. Shares or stocks which are protected 96. Purchase cost of assets over its useful
against withdrawals of funds by an life is classified as
original stock owners are classified as A. appreciation
hr
100. An equity multiplier is multiplied to 106. Constant growth rate is 9.5% and an
return on assets to calculate expected rate of return is 13.5% then
A. return on assets expected dividend yield would be
B. return on multiplier A. 23.00%
C. return on turnover B. 1.42%
D. return on stock C. 4.00%
D. 14.50%
101. Forecast by analysts, retention 107. Tendency of measuring correlation
growth model and historical growth of two variables is classified as
rates are methods used for an A. tendency coefficient
A. estimate future growth B. variable coefficient
am
B. estimate option future value C. correlation coefficient
C. estimate option present value D. double coefficient
D. estimate growth ratio
108. A major difference between individ-
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102. An indication in a way that vari- ual and institutional investors is their
ance of y-variable is explained by x- very different
variable which is shown as A. approaches to market analysis
B. evaluations of return
hr
112. Stock which has fixed payments and 118. Financial corporations which serve
failure of payments which do not lead individual savers and commercial
to bankruptcy is classified as mortgage borrowers are classified as
A. common stock A. savings associations
B. preferred stock B. loans associations
C. preferred and common associa-
C. bonds equity
D. common shares tions
D. savings and loans associations
113. An investor who writes stock call op- 119. Payment divided by par value is clas-
tions in his own portfolio is classified sified as
as A. divisible payment
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A. due option B. coupon payment
B. covered option C. par payment
C. undue option D. per period payment
D. uncovered option
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120. One way to obtain earnings forecasts
114. Price per share divided by earnings is the mechanical procedure known
per share is formula for calculating as
hr
115. According to put call parity relation- 121. Situation in financial options in
which strike price is less than current
Ja
124. Formula such as net income avail- 130. A company may raise capital from
able for common stockholders di- the primary market through
vided by total assets is used to cal- A. Public issue
B. Rights issue
culate C. Bought out deals
A. return on total assets D. All of the above
B. return on total equity
C. return on debt 131. According to traditional approach,
D. return on sales the average cost of capital
A. Remains constant up to a degree
125. Stated value of bonds or face value of leverage and rises sharply there-
is considered as after with every increase in leverage
A. state value
am
B. Rises constantly with increase in
B. par value leverage
C. bond value C. Decrease up to certain point, re-
D. per value
mains unchanged for moderate in-
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126. In expected rate of return for con- crease in leverage and rises beyond
stant growth, an expected yield on a certain point
capital must be D. Decrease at an increasing rate
hr
C. money value
stock price reflects. D. stock value
A. the company’s financial perfor-
mance 133. Net operating profit after taxes is Rs
B. the past price of the scrip 4500, net investment in operating cap-
C. the demand for the scrip ital is Rs 8500 and then free cash flow
D. the past price and traded volumes would be
A. -Rs 4,000.00
128. In cash flow estimation and risk anal- B. Rs 4,000.00
ysis, real rate will be equal to nominal C. -Rs 18,000.00
rate if there is D. Rs 18,000.00
A. no inflation
B. high inflation 134. Reinvestment risk of bonds is higher
C. no transactions on
D. no acceleration A. short maturity bonds
B. high maturity bonds
129. In cash flow estimation, depreciation C. high premium bonds
shelters company’s income from D. high inflated bonds
215
135. The company’s average cost of capi- 140. Real risk-free interest rate in ad-
tal is dition with an inflation premium is
A. the average cost of equity shares equal to
and debentures A. required interest rate
B. the average cost of equity prefer- B. quoted risk-free interest rate
ence shares C. liquidity risk-free interest rate
C. the average cost of shares and all D. premium risk-free interest rate
sources of long-term funds
D. the average cost of short term 141. If bond’s call provision is practiced
funds in first year of issuance then an addi-
tional payment is classified as
136. An effect of interest rate risk and A. issuance provision
investment risk on a bond’s yield is B. bond provision
classified as C. call provision
A. reinvestment premium D. First provision
B. investment risk premium
am
142. In cash flow analysis, two projects
C. maturity risk premium
are compared by using common life
D. defaulter’s premium
is classified as
137. In finance, "working capital" means A. transaction approach
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the same thing as B. replacement chain approach
A. total assets C. common life approach
B. fixed assets D. Both B and C
hr
ities. A. financial
B. Marketing
138. A situation in which an outside
C. stock
group solicit proxies to take control
Ja
D. purchasing
of business is classified as
A. outside group 144. According to probability distribution
B. solicit process of rates of return, a close outcome to
C. proxy fight an expected value is shown by
D. controlled management A. value distribution
B. expected distribution
139. Markowitz’s main contribution to
C. more peaked distribution
portfolio theory is D. less peaked distribution
A. that risk is the same for each type
of financial asset 145. An average inflation rate which is
B. that risk is a function of credit, liq- expected over life of security is clas-
uidity and market factors sified as
C. risk is not quantifiable A. inflation premium
D. insight about the relative impor- B. off season premium
tance of variances and co variances in C. nominal premium
determining portfolio risk D. required premium
216 Chapter 6. Financial management
146. Formula written as market risk pre- 152. Finance company providing loans at
mium divided by standard deviations 12% with 2 compounding periods per
of returns on market portfolio is used year, periodic rate is classified as
to calculate A. 3% per quarter
A. capital market line B. 6% per quarter
B. security market line C. 6% per year
C. fixed market line D. 0.1667% per year
D. variable market line
153. Merrill Lynch, Morgan Stanley and
147. limited partners in partnership busi- Credit Suisse Group plan for raising
ness have capital is classified as
A. no control A. investment banking houses
B. whole control B. exchange houses
C. corporate authority C. transfer houses
D. general authority D. foreign exchange houses
am
148. Bond risk premium is added in to 154. A major difference between real and
bond yield to calculate the nominal returns is that
A. cost of American option A. real returns adjust for inflation and
B. cost of European option nominal returns do not
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C. cost of common stock B. real returns use actual cash flows
D. cost of preferred stock and nominal returns use expected
cash flows
149. A right which controls and prevents
hr
am
A. All aspects of acquiring and utiliz-
value of stock in portfolio is Rs 1400
ing financial resources for firms activ-
then present value of portfolio will be
ities A. -Rs 700.00
B. Arrangement of funds
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B. Rs 2,100.00
C. Efficient Management of every C. Rs 700.00
business D. Rs 2,000.00
D. Profit maximization
hr
am
177. In weighted average cost of capital,
C. undiversified portfolio rising in interest rate leads to
D. high risk portfolio A. increase in cost of debt
B. increase capital structure
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172. Payment if it is divided with interest C. decrease in cost of debt
rate will be formula of D. decrease capital structure
A. future value of perpetuity
B. present value of perpetuity 178. Expected capital gain is Rs 20 and
hr
A. Rs 30.00
173. For which of the following factors
B. -Rs 30.00
are the debentures more attractive to
C. Rs 70.00
the investors?
Ja
D. -Rs 70.00
A. The principal is redeemable at ma-
turity 179. Special situation in which large
B. A debenture-holder enjoys prior projects are financed by with and se-
claim on the assets of the company curities claims on project’s cash flow
over its shareholders in the event of is classified as
liquidation A. claimed securities
C. trustee is appointed to preserve the B. project financing
interest of the debenture holders C. stock financing
D. All the above. D. interest cost
174. The gross working capital is a 180. Effective cost of debentures is
concern concept. as compared to shares.
A. Going concern A. higher
B. money measurement B. lower
C. revenue concept C. equal
D. cost concept D. medium
219
181. Dividend per share is Rs 18 and sell 187. Investment bankers perform the fol-
it for Rs 122 and floatation cost is Rs lowing role
4 then component cost of preferred A. market new stock and bond issues
stock will be for firms
A. 15.25% B. provide advice to the firms as to
B. 0.1525 times market conditions, price, etc
C. 15.25 C. design securities with desirable
D. 0.15% properties
D. all of the above
182. First step in binomial approach of
option pricing is to 188. Total common equity divided by
A. define ending price of stock common shares outstanding which is
B. define beginning price of stock used to calculate
C. define range of values A. book value of share
D. define domain of values B. market value of shares
C. earning per share
am
183. Capital budgeting decisions are ana- D. dividends per share
lyzed with help of weighted average
and for this purpose 189. Another name for stock brokers
A. component cost is used is
iR
B. common stock value is used A. specialists
B. registered representatives
C. cost of capital is used
C. security analysts
D. asset valuation is used
D. portfolio managers
hr
184. Value of stock is Rs 300 and pre- 190. Risk on a stock portfolio which can
ferred dividend is Rs 60 then required be reduced by placing it in diversified
iS
193. Portfolio which consists of perfectly 199. Which of the following is true re-
positive correlated assets having no garding the expected return of a port-
effect of folio?
A. negativity A. It is a weighted average only for
B. positivity stock portfolios
C. correlation B. It can only be positive
D. diversification C. It can never be above the highest
individual return
194. First factor in Fama French three fac- D. All of the above are true
tor model is
A. CAPM stock beta 200. Which of the following approaches
B. economic stock beta advocates that the costs of equity cap-
C. CAPM portfolio beta ital and debt capital remain unaltered
D. CAPM realized beta when the degree of leverage varies?
A. Net Income Approach
195. Arbitrage is the level processing B. Traditional Approach
am
technique introduced in C. Modigliani-Miller Approach
A. Net income approach D. Net operating Income
B. MM approach
C. Operating approach
iR
201. Type of partnership in which liabili-
D. Traditional approach ties are limited for business owners is
classified as
196. The is a window through A. unlimited partnership
hr
205. Rate charged by bank 12.5% on 211. In capital budgeting, term of bond
credit loans and 3% semi-annually on which has great sensitivity to interest
instalment loans is considered as rates is
A. periodic rate A. long-term bonds
B. perpetuity rate of return B. short-term bonds
C. internal term bonds
C. annual rate
D. external term bonds
D. annuity rate of return
212. Cash flows that could be generated
206. An investment outlay cash flow is from an owned asset by company but
Rs 2000, an operating cash flow is Rs not use in project are classified as
1500 and salvage cash flow is Rs 3000 A. occurred cost
am
then free cash flow would be B. mean cost
A. Rs 500.00 C. opportunity costs
B. Rs 2,500.00 D. weighted cost
C. Rs 650.00
iR
D. Rs 6,500.00 213. Project whose cash flows are suffi-
cient to repay capital invested for rate
207. Which of the following is not a of return then net present value will
hr
am
C. 0.32
B. retained cash flow D. 0.68
C. net cash flow
D. financing cash flow 225. Present value of dividends which is
iR
expected to be provided in future is
219. Capital gain is Rs 3 and capital gains
classified as an
yield is 6% then beginning price will
A. intrinsic value of stock
be B. extrinsic value of stock
hr
A. Rs 18.00
C. intrinsic bonds
B. Rs 36.00
D. extrinsic bonds
iS
C. Rs 50.00
D. Rs 55.00 226. The bonus issue is made to make the
220. The cost of capital of a long term nominal value and the value of
Ja
221. Profit margin multiply assets 227. An internal rate of return in capital
turnover multiply equity multiplier budgeting can be modified to make it
is used to calculate representative of
A. return on turnover A. relative outflow
B. return on stock B. relative inflow
C. return on assets C. relative cost
D. return on equity D. relative profitability
222. An expected rate of return is sub- 228. Price at which European and Ameri-
tracted from capital gains yield to cal- can options can be exercised is classi-
culate fied as
223
229. The return component that gives pe- 235. Constant growth rate is 6.5% and an
riodic cash flows to the investor is expected dividend yield is 3.4% then
known as the an expected rate of return would be
A. capital gain A. 9.90%
B. interest rate B. 10.00%
C. yield C. 3.10%
D. unrealized gain. D. 19.12%
230. Protective covenant devised in mar- 236. Real rate of return, risk and expected
ket to reduce event risk and to control inflation are primary determinants of
debt cost is classified as A. minimum rate of return
am
A. super poison covenant B. accepted return
C. expected return
B. super poison put
D. real risk free rate
C. super poison call
iR
D. super poison redemption 237. The most popular type of Investment
Company is a
231. The formula of EBIT =
A. unit investment trust
A. Sales-Variable cost
B. mutual fund
hr
is used to calculate
classified as A. option return rate
A. minimum option value B. exercise value
B. minimum value C. option value
C. maximum value D. stock value
D. exercise value
239. A higher accounts receivable
233. An estimation by marginal investor, turnover ratio means
a higher expected return is earned on A. lower debt collection period
A. more risky securities B. higher debt collection period
B. less risky securities C. lower sales
C. less premium D. higher sales
D. high premium
240. Present value of portfolio is Rs 500
234. Net income is Rs 2250 and noncash and current option price is Rs 1200
charges are Rs 1150 then net cash then value of stock included in portfo-
flow would be lio will be
224 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
B. Net liability
248. In calculation of time value of
C. Total payable
money, ’PMT’ represents
D. Total liability
A. present money tracking
iR
243. Payments if it is made at end of each B. payment
period such as an end of year is clas- C. payment money tracking
sified as D. future money payment
A. ordinary annuity
hr
252. Bonds that do not pay original 258. Cost of common stock is 13% and
coupon payment but payment is made bond risk premium is 5% then bond
from additional bonds are classified yield would be
as A. 20.00%
A. payment in-kind bonds B. 2.60%
B. payment off-kind bonds C. 8.00%
C. kind payment D. 18.00%
D. additional bond
259. A technique of lowering risk for
253. What is the most appropriate goal of multinational companies and globally
the firm? designed portfolios is classified as
A. Shareholder wealth maximization A. national diversification
B. Profit maximization B. behavioral diversification
C. Stakeholder maximization C. global diversification
D. EPS maximization D. behavioral finance
254. Call provision practiced by company
am
260. Type of risk in which beta is equal
which states that call price will be
to one is classified as
paid is classified as A. multiple risk stock
A. super refund provision
B. varied risk stock
iR
B. super put redemption
C. total risk stock
C. make-whole call provision
D. super call provision D. average risk stock
hr
D. Rs 8.00
262. Required rate of return in calculating
256. Government spending, if it exceeds bond’s cash flow is also classified as
federal government tax revenues then A. going rate of return
it is classified as B. yield
A. Federal Reserve C. earning rate
B. federal budget D. Both A and B
C. budget surplus
D. budget deficit 263. An analysis of decision making of
investors and managers is classified
257. Bond which is issued in market and as
few days are passed of its issuance is A. risky finance
classified as B. behavioral finance
A. instable bond C. premium finance
B. outstanding bond D. buying finance
C. standing bond
D. stable bond 264. All partners have limited liability in
226 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
A. -Rs 21,000.00 272. The measure of business risk is
B. Rs 21,000.00
C. -Rs 3,000.00 A. operating leverage
iR
D. Rs 3,000.00 B. financial leverage
C. total leverage
267. In capital budgeting, an internal rate D. working capital leverage
of return of project is classified as its
hr
tied to any particular part of a firm is 274. The growth in book value per share
classified as shows the
A. dividend stock A. rise in share price
B. increase in physical asset of the
B. firm part stock
C. tied stock firm
C. increase in net worth
D. tracking stock
D. growth in reserves
269. The Accounting period cycle of NSE 275. Bond which is offered below its face
is value is classified as
A. Wednesday to next Tuesday A. present value bond
B. Tuesday to next Wednesday B. original issue discount bond
C. Monday to next Friday C. coupon issued bond
D. Wednesday to next Wednesday D. discounted bond
270. Constant growth model would not 276. Values recorded as determined in
be used in condition if growth rate is marketplace are considered as
227
am
A. 37.50% the owners of the concern
B. 7.50% D. All of the above
C. 15.50%
284. A type of security payment in which
iR
D. 2.67%
payments are made at equal intervals
279. The available capital funds are to be of time and each payment amount is
carefully allocated among competing same is classified as
hr
288. Bonds issued by government and 294. Earnings Per Share (EPS) is equal to
backed by U.S government are classi-
fied as A. Profit before tax/No of outstand-
A. issued security ing shares
B. treasury bonds B. Profit after tax/No of outstanding
C. U.S bonds shares
D. return security C. Profit after tax/Amount of equity
share capital
289. An attitude of investor towards deal- D. Profit after tax less equity divi-
ing with risk determines the dends/No of outstanding shares
A. rate of return
B. rate of exchange 295. Bonds issued by corporations and
am
C. rate of intrinsic stock exposed to default risk are classified
D. rate of extrinsic stock as
A. corporation bonds
290. Type of financial security in which
iR
B. default bonds
firms do not borrow money rather C. risk bonds
lease their assets is classified as D. zero risk bonds
A. leases
hr
B. retained earnings
291. Net income and depreciation is Rs C. maintained earnings
313,650,000 and common shares out- D. saving account earning
Ja
am
C. voting process
common stock is 42% then expected D. assigning right process
growth rate will be
A. 0.1123 times 308. Type of cost which is used to raise
iR
B. 11.23% common equity by reinvesting inter-
C. 11.23 times nal earnings is classified as
D. Rs 11.23 A. cost of mortgage
B. cost of common equity
hr
am
C. liquid; personal is equal to risk free rate plus bearing
D. liquid; marketable risk premium is an explanation of
A. security market line
B. capital market line
iR
314. If default probability is zero and
bond is not called then yield to ma- C. aggregate market line
turity is D. beta market line
A. mature expected return rate
hr
B. lower than expected return rate 321. According to top rating agencies
C. higher than expected return rate S&P triple-A and double-A rating
iS
317. Ownership securities are represented 323. Long period of bond maturity leads
by to
A. stock A. more price change
B. loan B. stable prices
C. debt C. standing prices
D. debentures D. mature prices
231
324. Return on assets = 6.7% and equity 330. Initial cost is Rs 5000 and probabil-
multiplier = 2.5% then return on eq- ity index is 3.2 then present value of
uity will be cash flows is
A. 16.75% A. Rs 8,200.00
B. 2.68% B. Rs 16,000.00
C. 0.37% C. Rs 10,000.00
D. 9.20% D. Rs 1,562.50
325. According to the model, the 331. In weighted average capital, capital
dividend decision is irrelevant. structure weights estimation does not
A. MM
rely on value of
B. Garden
C. Walter A. investor’s equity
D. XY B. market value of equity
C. book value of equity
326. High portfolio return is 6.5% and D. stock equity
low portfolio return is 3.0% then
am
HML portfolio will be 332. Intangible assets such as copyrights,
A. 2.16% trademarks and patents are applicable
B. 9.50% for
iR
C. 3.50% A. depreciation
D. 0.4615 times B. amortization
C. stock amortization
327. An attempt to make correction by D. perishable assets
hr
am
A. Demat account 343. Portfolio weights are found by
B. Securities Exchange Commission A. dividing standard deviation by ex-
C. Depository Trust Company
pected value
iR
D. Federal Depository Insurance Cor-
B. calculating the percentage each as-
poration.
set is to the total portfolio value
338. shifts the weights of securities C. calculating the return of each asset
hr
am
354. The decision function of financial
dividend will be
management can be broken down into
A. Rs 270.00
the decisions.
B. Rs 27,000.00 A. financing and investment
iR
C. Rs 90.00 B. investment, financing, and asset
D. Rs 90.00 management
C. financing and dividend
349. Net investment in operating capital
hr
358. Most financial advisors are regis- 364. An expected final stock price is Rs
tered with the Securities and Ex- 70 and an expected capital gain is Rs
change Commission as 25 then an original investment would
A. registered representatives be
B. registered investor advisors A. Rs 45.00
C. registered financial planners B. -Rs 45.00
D. registered securities consultants C. Rs 95.00
D. -Rs 95.00
359. is concerned with the interrela-
365. Which of the following generally
tionships between security returns.
A. random diversification traded on stock exchanges?
A. Unit investment trusts
B. correlating diversification
am
B. Closed-end investment companies
C. Friedman diversification C. Open-end investment companies
D. Markowitz diversification D. All trade on stock exchanges
360. Pricing model approach in which it
iR
366. A portfolio consists of all stocks in
is assumed that stock price can have a market is classified as
one of two values of stock is classified A. market portfolio
as B. return portfolio
hr
C. stock approach
D. binomial approach 367. In capital budgeting, two projects
who have cost of capital as 12% is
361. Mutual fund allows investors to sale classified as
Ja
370. Financial intermediaries exist be- 376. According to capital asset pricing
cause small investors cannot effi- model assumptions, quantities of all
ciently assets are
A. diversify their portfolios A. given and fixed
B. gather all relevant information B. not given and fixed
C. assess credit risk of borrowers C. not given and variable
D. advertise for needed investments D. given and variable
E. all of above
377. An increase in marginal cost of capi-
371. Which of the following is not a fea- tal and capital rationing are two aris-
ture of an optimal capital structure? ing complications of
A. Safety A. maximum capital budget
B. greater capital budget
B. Flexibility
C. optimal capital budget
C. Control D. minimum capital budget
D. Solvency
378. A type of beta which incorporates
am
372. In pure play method, a company can about company such as changes in
calculate its own cost of capital with capital structure is classified as
help of averaging an A. industry beta
iR
A. other company capital policy B. market beta
B. other company beta C. subtracted beta
C. other company cost D. fundamental beta
D. other division cost
hr
C. multiplied on timeline
D. divided on timeline C. -Rs 27,000.00
D. -Rs 7,000.00
374. Cost of equity which is raised by
reinvesting earnings internally must 380. An unmanaged fixed income secu-
be higher than the rity portfolio handled by an indepen-
A. cost of initial offering dent trustee is known as a
A. junk bond fund
B. cost of new common equity
B. closed-end investment company
C. cost of preferred equity
C. unit investment trust
D. cost of floatation D. hedge fund
375. Formula written as 0.67(Historical 381. Value of future dividends after hori-
Beta) + 0.35(1.0) is used to calculate zon date is classified as
A. historical betas A. hypothesis value
B. adjusted betas B. horizon value
C. standard betas C. terminal value
D. varied betas D. Both B and C
236 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
D. 113.56 A. secured bond
B. debenture
384. Required increasing in current assets C. obligation bond
and an increasing in current liabilities D. specific bond
iR
is subtracted to calculate
A. change in net working capital 390. A risk which is classified as its con-
B. change in current assets tribution to risk of portfolio is classi-
hr
B. contributed risk
385. In financial markets, period of matu-
C. irrelevant risk
rity more than five years of financial
D. relevant risk
instruments is classified as
Ja
393. Current value of portfolio is Rs 550 A. They enjoy a high order of priority
and to cover an obligation of call op- in the event of liquidation
tion is Rs 200 then value of stock B. Stable rate of return
would be C. No risk
A. Rs 350.00 D. All of the above
B. Rs 275.00
399. Re-order level is than safety
C. Rs 750.00
level.
D. Rs 1,000.00
A. higher
394. Shareholder wealth in a firm is rep- B. lower
C. medium
resented by
D. fixed
A. the number of people employed in
the firm 400. A model which regresses return of
B. the book value of the firm’s assets stock against return of market is clas-
less the book value of its liabilities sified as
C. the amount of salary paid to its A. regression model
am
employees B. market model
D. the market price per share of the C. error model
firms common stock D. risk free model
iR
395. A technique uses in comparative 401. Cost which is used to calculate
analysis of financial statement is weighted average cost of capital is
A. graphical analysis classified as
hr
am
A. alpha decreased can be classified as
B. beta A. limited life
C. standard deviation B. unlimited life
D. coefficient of variation C. corporate life
iR
D. deceased partnership
407. Mutual funds may be affiliated with
an underwriter. This means 413. Value of net income is Rs
A. the underwriter has an exclusive 124,500,000 and common shares out-
hr
am
D. none of above
C. standing bonds
D. premium bonds 425. One reason for the declining impor-
tance of pension funds is the
iR
419. Discounted cash flow analysis is also
A. decrease in pension benefits for
classified as
A. time value of stock workers
B. time value of money B. downsizing of US companies
hr
420. According to Black Scholes model, lations that restrict pension fund port-
call option is well exercised on its folios
A. mid buying date
Ja
429. This type of risk is avoidable 435. Long term fund sources are
A. Retained earnings
through proper diversification. B. Debentures
A. portfolio risk C. Share capital
B. systematic risk D. All of the above
C. unsystematic risk
D. total risk 436. Markets dealing loans of autos, ed-
ucation, vacations and appliances are
430. Cost of capital is the rate of considered as
return expected by the investor. A. consumer credit loans
A. minimum B. commercial markets
B. maximum C. residential markets
am
C. expected D. mortgage markets
D. marginal
437. An outstanding bonds are also clas-
431. Investment bankers operate in sified as
iR
A. standing bonds
the
B. outdated bonds
A. primary market C. dated bonds
B. secondary market D. seasoned bonds
hr
C. A and B both
D. None of above 438. Bonds with deferred call have pro-
iS
441. Preferred stock dividends must be 447. Corporate associations who have
paid on common stock and must have common bonds being employees of
A. fixed amount of dividends same firm are classified as
B. fixed amount of shares A. credit unions
C. variable amount of dividends B. debit unions
D. variable amount of shares C. preferred unions
D. solving unions
442. When price of bond is calculated be-
448. The Markowitz model assumes most
low its par value, it is classified as
A. classified bond investors are
A. risk averse
B. discount bond
B. risk neutral
C. compound bond C. risk seekers
D. consideration earning D. risk moderators
443. A premium charged by lenders for 449. The market value of the firm is the
securities that cannot be converted result of
am
into cash is classified as A. dividend decisions
A. required premium B. working capital decisions
B. liquidity premium C. capital budgeting decisions
C. marketability premium D. trade-off between cost and risk
iR
D. Both B and C
450. Complex statistical and mathemat-
444. Present value of portfolio Rs 850 ical theory is an approach, which is
hr
am
B. Vice President of Operations
B. 7.40% C. Chief Executive Officer
C. 17.14% D. Board of Directors
D. 17.24%
iR
462. Investment professionals whose jobs
456. A stock which is hybrid and works
may depend on their performance rel-
as a cross between debt and common
ative to the market are the
stock is considered as
hr
A. registered representatives
A. hybrid stock
B. security analysts
B. common liabilities
C. investment bankers
iS
C. debt liabilities
D. preferred stock D. portfolio managers
457. According to Black Scholes model, 463. Process in which managers of com-
Ja
trading of securities and stock prices pany identify projects to add value is
moves respectively classified as
A. constant and randomly A. capital budgeting
B. randomly and constant B. cost budgeting
C. randomly and continuously C. book value budgeting
D. continuously and randomly D. equity budgeting
458. A line which shows relationship be- 464. According to the traditional ap-
tween an expected return and risk on proach cost of capital affected by?
efficient portfolio is considered as A. debt-equity mix
A. efficient market line B. debt-capital mix
B. attributable market line C. equity expenses mix
C. capital market line D. debt-interest mix
D. security market line
465. Which of the following is not an as-
459. Situation in which firm limits expen- sumption in Miller and Modigliani ap-
ditures on capital is classified as proach?
243
am
C. acquiring capital assets of the or-
writes a call option on stock is classi-
ganization
fied as
D. Efficient management of capital
A. put investor
iR
B. call investor 473. Default free financial security sells
C. hedger by U.S treasury is classified as
D. volatile hedge A. U.S treasury bills
hr
B. commercial paper
468. International investing is C. certificate of deposit
A. is only practical for institutional
iS
D. mutual funds
investors
B. increases the overall risk of a stock 474. If the Dow Jones Industrials had a
portfolio price appreciation of 6 percent one
Ja
C. always leads to higher returns than year and yet Total return for the year
a domestic portfolio was 11 percent; the difference would
D. can reduce risk due to increased be due to
diversification A. the tax treatment of capital gains
B. the cumulative wealth effect
469. Method of inventory recording gives C. dividends
lower cost of goods sold in income D. profits
statement is classified as
A. last in first out 475. Variable cost in an organization
B. last out receivable A. be fixed according to the rate of
C. First out receivable growth
D. First in first out B. changes with the volume of pro-
duction
470. Partners who are only liable for their C. does not change with volume of
own part of investment are considered production
as D. remains constant
244 Chapter 6. Financial management
476. If an expected final stock price is Rs 482. An interest yield = 7.9% and capital
85 and an original investment is Rs gains yield = 2.5% then total rate of
70 then value of expected capital gain return is
would be A. 10.00%
A. Rs 15.00 B. 3.16%
B. -Rs 15.00 C. 0.31%
C. Rs 155.00 D. 5.40%
D. -Rs 155.00
483. Cost of money is affected by factors
477. is the most important invest- which includes
ment decision because it determines A. production opportunities
the risk-return characteristics of the B. risk
portfolio. C. all of above
A. Hedging D. inflation
B. Market timing
C. Performance measurement 484. Prices of bonds will be increased if
am
D. Asset allocation interest rates
478. is equal to (common share- A. equals
holders’ equity/common shares out- B. lump sum declines
C. rises
iR
standing).
A. book value per share D. declines
B. liquidation value per share
C. market value per share 485. A model in which behavior of asset
hr
A. factorization model
sion for operating leverage? B. Two factor model
A. Contribution/EBIT C. multifactor model
B. EBT/Contribution D. quoted factor model
Ja
C. Contribution/EAT
D. Contribution/Quantity 486. Rate of return which is required to
satisfy stockholders and debt holders
480. A type of contract in which contract is classified as
holder has right to sell an asset at spe- A. weighted average cost of interest
cific period for predetermining price B. weighted average cost of capital
is classified as C. weighted average salvage value
A. option D. mean cost of capital
B. written contract
C. determined contract 487. decision relates to the determi-
D. featured contract nation of total amount of assets to be
481. EBIT is usually the same thing as. held in the firm.
A. funds provided by operations A. Financing
B. earnings before taxes B. Investment
C. net income C. Dividend
D. operating profit D. Controlling
245
am
projects is classified as
A. expected risk C. complexity
B. stand-alone risk D. inability to handle large number
C. variable risk of inputs
iR
D. returning risk
497. Profit margin = 4.5%, assets turnover
491. Diversification reduces - = 2.2 times, equity multiplier = 2.7
times then return on equity will be
hr
500. In expected rate of return for con- 506. A measure which is not included in
stant growth, capital gains is divided Fama French Three-Factor model is
by beginning price to calculate A. realized risk free rate
A. yield of loan return B. rate of return on market
B. yield of mortgage return C. random error
C. yield of capital gains D. risk premium
D. yield of fixed cost
507. Stock portfolio with lowest book for
501. The value of EBIT at which EPS is market ratios is considered as
equal to zero is known as A. S portfolio
A. Break-even point B. B to M portfolio
B. Financial break-even point C. H portfolio
C. Operating break-even point D. L portfolio
D. Overall break-even point
508. factors lead to activity of stock
502. Stock selling price is Rs 45, an ex- market.
A. Money supply
am
pected dividend is Rs 10 and an ex-
pected growth rate is 8% then cost of B. Per capita income
common stock would be C. Unemployment rate
D. Manufacturing and Trade
A. 55.00%
iR
B. 35.00% 509. In financial planning, most high op-
C. 30.00% tion price will lead to
D. 30.22% A. longer option period
hr
B. I+p
C. I-P 510. Correct measure of risk of stock is
D. Ixp called
Ja
A. alpha
504. According to Black Scholes model,
B. beta
short term seller receives today price
C. variance
which D. market relevance
A. short term cash proceeds
B. proceeds in cheques 511. In stock option, a little chance exists
C. full cash proceeds for large gain on stock when price of
D. zero proceeds stock
A. have volatile movement
505. Set of rules consisting of behavior B. moves freely
towards its directors, creditors, share- C. rarely moves
holders, competitors and community D. stays same
is considered as
A. agency governance 512. Total common equity Rs
B. hiring governance 996,000,000 and shares outstanding
C. corporate governance 50,000,000 then book value per share
D. external governance would be
247
513. is concerned with the acqui- 519. Which of the following is a function
sition, financing, and management of of the finance manager?
assets with some overall goal in mind. A. Mobilizing funds
A. Financial management B. Risk returns trade off
B. Profit maximization C. Deployment of funds
C. Agency theory D. Control over the uses of funds
D. Social responsibility E. All of above
514. If coupon rate is less than going rate 520. Rate of return which is asked by in-
of interest then bond will be sold vestors is classified as
A. seasoned par value A. average cost of capital
am
B. more than its par value B. mean cost of capital
C. seasoned par value C. weighted cost of capital
D. at par value D. weighted average cost of capital
iR
515. Betas that are constantly adjusted to 521. A stock which is issued to meet spe-
reflect changes in capital structure and cific needs of company is considered
firms operations are classified as as
hr
516. If deposited money Rs 10,000 in 522. Cost which has occurred already and
Ja
517. Interest rates, tax rates and market 523. Greater chance of lower actual re-
risk premium are factors which an/a turn than expected return and greater
A. industry cannot control variation is indicated by
B. industry cannot control A. smaller standard deviation
C. firm must control B. larger standard deviation
D. firm cannot control C. smaller variance
D. larger variance
518. An inflation rate including in quoted
interest rate on security, is inflation 524. Real interest rate and real cash flows
rate do not include
248 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
A. dividend cash flow debentures
B. expected cash flows A. dividend
C. price cash flows B. Commission
D. investing cash
iR
C. Interest
D. Brokerage
527. Stock portfolio with highest book to
market ratios is considered as 533. An efficient market hypothesis states
hr
C. S portfolio sified as
D. B to M portfolio A. weak form efficiency
B. strong form efficiency
Ja
536. All points lie on line if degree of dis- 542. Input call parity relationship, put op-
persion is tion minus call option in addition with
A. four stock is equal to
B. one A. exercise price present value
C. Two B. exercise price future value
D. five C. time line value
D. time value of bond
537. If current price increases from lower
to higher then an 543. A firm will have favourable leverage
A. option value equal to one if its are more than the debt cost
B. option value will increase A. debt
B. interest
C. option value will decrease
C. equity
D. option value equal to zero D. earnings
538. In asset portfolio, number of stocks 544. The objective of financial manage-
are increased to ment is to
am
A. reduce return A. generate the maximum net profit
B. reduce average B. generate the maximum retained
C. reduce risk earnings
D. increase prices C. generate the maximum wealth for
iR
its shareholders
539. Required return is 15% and premium D. generate maximum funds for the
for risk is 11% then risk free return firm at the least cost.
would be
hr
C. 16.50% siders as
D. 1.36% A. payment interest
B. par interest
Ja
548. Relationship between Economic 554. Company who sells products to cus-
Value Added (EVA) and Net Present tomer without demanding immediate
Value (NPV) is considered as payment but record it in balance sheet
A. valued relationship as
B. economic relationship A. account payable
C. direct relationship B. account receivable
D. inverse relationship C. account equivalent
D. account investment
549. Company specific risk is also known
as 555. Situation in which new business re-
A. market risk duces an existing business of firm is
B. systematic risk classified as
C. non-diversifiable risk A. non-cannibalization effect
D. idiosyncratic risk B. cannibalization effect
C. external effect
550. Which of the following represents D. internal effect
am
the rate at which a company can grow
from internal sources? 556. Two alternative expected returns are
A. return on assets compared with help of
B. sustainable growth rate A. coefficient of variation
iR
C. adjusted EPS B. coefficient of deviation
D. return on equity C. coefficient of standard
D. coefficient of return
551. Expected returns weighted average
hr
fied according to
B. expected return on portfolio
A. Financing method and time
C. coefficient of portfolio
B. rate of return and financing
D. expected assets
method
Ja
552. Retention ratio is 0.55 and return on C. time and rate of return
equity is 12.5% then growth retention D. components and time
model would be 558. First step in calculation of net
A. 11.95% present value is to find out
B. 6.88% A. present value of equity
C. 13.05% B. future value of equity
D. 22.72% C. present value cash flow
D. future value of cash flow
553. Paid dividends to common stock-
holders Rs 67,600,000 and common 559. Dividend policy of a firm affects
shares outstanding 55,000,000 then both the long-time financing and
dividend per share will be wealth.
A. Rs 1.23 A. Owners
B. Rs 0.81 B. Creditors
C. Rs 2.12 C. Debtor
D. Rs 2.78 D. Shareholders
251
am
A. -Rs 1,100.00
acteristic of investments companies? B. Rs 2,700.00
A. pooled investing C. Rs 1,100.00
B. diversification D. -Rs 2,700.00
iR
C. managed portfolios
D. reduced expenses 569. The expansion of EAR is?
A. equivalent annual rate
563. The use of preference share capital B. equivalent annuity rate
hr
B. Increases DFL
570. Coupon payment of bond which is
C. Increases financial risk
D. Both a and b fixed at time of issuance
A. remains same
Ja
573. Price per share is Rs 30 and an earn- 579. Bonds issued by small companies
ing per share is Rs 3.5 then price for tend to have
earning ratio would be A. high liquidity premium
A. 8.57 times B. high inflation premium
B. 8.57% C. high default premium
C. 0.11 times D. high yield premium
D. 11.00%
580. Fixed cost per unit
574. If common shares outstanding are A. does not change with volume of
50,000,000 and book value per share production
is Rs 19.92 then total common equity B. be flexible according to the rate of
will be interest
A. Rs 996,000,000.00 C. changes according to volume of
B. Rs 995,000,000.00 production
C. Rs 992,000,000.00 D. not remains constant
D. Rs 991,000,000.00
am
581. Which of the following is not related
575. Relationship between total risk of to overall market variability?
A. Financial risk
stock, diversifiable risk and market
B. Interest rate risk
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risk is classified as
C. Purchasing power risk
A. total risk D. Market risk
B. standard deviation
C. standard alpha 582. Which of the following is a basic
hr
576. Right side of balance sheet states the A. Profitability varies inversely with
A. appreciated earnings risk
B. liabilities B. Liquidity moves together with risk
C. assets
Ja
am
cultural loans and commercial loans B. Rs 4,000.00
are called C. -Rs 1,000.00
A. residential markets D. Rs 1,000.00
iR
B. mortgage markets
592. Set of projects or set of investments
C. agriculture markets
usually maximize firm value is classi-
D. commercial markets
fied as
hr
A. the fixed portions of the issue cap- 601. The difference between the cash
ital price and the futures price on the
B. the unsubscribed part of the same asset or commodity is known
agreed portion as the
C. the agreed portion or can refuse if A. basis
D. the unfixed portions of the issue B. spread
capital C. yield spread
D. premium
596. Dollar return is divided by invested
amount which is used for calculating 602. In an option pricing, a rises in risk
the free rate results in option’s value
A. rate of return A. slight time decreases
B. return amount B. slight increases
C. investment rate C. slight decreases
D. received amount D. slight time increases
603. In balance sheet, sum of retained
597. When changes in patents and indus-
am
earnings and common stock are con-
try competition occur, required rate of
sidered as
return
A. preferred equity
A. changes B. due equity
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B. does not change C. common perpetuity
C. becomes zero D. common equity
D. becomes one
604. In capital asset pricing model, stock
hr
598. An average return of portfolio di- with high standard deviation tend to
vided by its standard deviation is clas- have
iS
D. high variation
C. Sharpe’s reward to variability ra-
tio 605. Paid dividend is Rs 20 and dividend
D. Treynor’s reward to volatility ratio yield is 40% then current price would
be
A. 60.00%
599. Treasury bills are traded in the B. Rs 60.00
A. money market C. Rs 50.00
B. capital market D. 2.00%
C. government market
D. regulated market 606. Value of free cash flows Rs55000,
operating cost and taxes Rs30000,
600. Rate on debt that increases as soon then value of sales revenues (in Rs)
market rises is classified as will be
A. rising bet rate A. Rs 25,000.00
B. floating rate debt B. Rs 85,000.00
C. market rate debt C. Rs 35,000.00
D. stable debt rate D. Rs 45,000.00
255
am
608. The dividend-payout ratio is equal B. independent projects
to C. dependent projects
A. the dividend yield plus the capital D. net value projects
gains yield
iR
614. Cash flow which starts negative then
B. dividends per share divided by
positive than again positive cash flow
earnings per share
C. dividends per share divided by par is classified as
hr
A. normal costs
value per share
B. non-normal costs
D. dividends per share divided by cur-
C. non-normal cash flow
iS
618. Gross domestic product, world econ- 624. Risk affects any firm with factors
omy strength and level of inflation are such as war, recessions, inflation and
factors which is used to determine high interest rates is classified as
A. market realized return A. diversifiable risk
B. portfolio realized return B. market risk
C. portfolio arbitrage risk C. stock risk
D. arbitrage theory of return D. portfolio risk
619. A company having easy access to 625. According to Black Scholes model,
the capital markets can follow a purchaser can borrow fraction of se-
dividend policy curity at risk free interest rate which
A. liberal is
am
B. formal A. short term
C. strict B. long term
D. Varying C. transaction cost
iR
D. no transaction cost
620. In calculation of internal rate of re-
turn, an assumption states that re- 626. Land, buildings, and factory fixed
ceived cash flow from project must equipment are classified as
hr
621. Cost of retained earnings is equal to 627. is the distribution of the profits
Ja
622. In capital asset pricing model, as- 628. uses a computer program in
sumptions must be followed includ- an attempt to imitate the brain in
ing analysing securities.
A. no taxes A. Decision trees
B. no transaction costs B. Program trading
C. fixed quantities of assets C. Day traders
D. all of above D. Neural networks
623. Net present value, profitability index, 629. Notes, mortgages, bonds, stocks,
payback and discounted payback are treasury bills and consumer loans are
methods to classified as
257
630. Current price is Rs 40 and dividend 636. Type of provision which allows an
paid is Rs 10 then dividend yield will orderly retirement of an issued bond
be which is classified as
A. Rs 25.00 A. whole call provision
B. 25.00% B. super fund provision
C. floating fund provision
C. Rs 4.00 D. sinking fund provision
D. 4.00%
637. Premium which is considered as dif-
631. Cost of common stock is 14% and ference of expected return on com-
bond risk premium is 9% then bond mon stock and current yield on Trea-
yield will be sury bonds is called
A. 1.56%
am
A. current risk premium
B. 5.00% B. past risk premium
C. 23.00% C. beta premium
D. 64.28% D. expected premium
iR
632. Rate of return (in percentages) is 638. An earning before interest, taxes, de-
consists of preciation and amortization average
A. capital gain yield interest yield multiple for publicly traded compa-
hr
B. depreciation multiple
C. earning multiple
633. An efficient set of portfolios repre- D. amortization multiple
sented through graph is classified as
Ja
am
B. short term assets B. investment bank
C. long terms and short terms assets C. saving house
D. saving bank
D. fixed assets
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650. After-the-fact rate of return often
644. If interest rates rose, you would ex-
consider as realized or actual can be
pect to also rise.
A. business risk denoted
hr
A. s hat r
B. financial risk
B. r bar s
C. liquidity risk
C. r hat s
D. inflation risk
iS
D. s bar r
645. An information uses by investors 651. Firms that specialize in helping com-
for expecting future earnings is all panies raise capital by selling securi-
Ja
654. Projects which are mutually exclu- 660. A formula such as an original invest-
sive but different on scale of produc- ment plus an expected capital gain is
tion or time of completion then the used to calculate
A. external return method A. final stock
B. net present value of method B. expected stock
C. net future value method C. expected final stock price
D. internal return method D. final stock price
655. Positive minimum risk portfolio of 661. For any or lower degree of risk, high-
any security shows that market secu- est or any expected return are con-
rity sold cepts use in
A. equal to original price A. risky portfolios
am
B. equal to sum of stocks B. behavior portfolios
C. less than original price C. inefficient portfolios
D. greater than original price D. efficient portfolios
iR
656. Standard deviation is 18% and coeffi- 662. In weighted average cost of capital,
cient of variation is 1.5% an expected a company can affect its capital cost
rate of return will be through
hr
657. Bonus share are not permitted un- 663. An expected final stock price is Rs
Ja
658. Cash inflows are revenues of project 664. An official entity that represents
and are represented by bondholders and ensures stated rules
A. hurdle number in indenture is classified as
B. relative number A. trustee
C. negative numbers B. trust
D. positive numbers C. stated entity
D. owner entity
659. Second step in determining efficient
portfolios is to consider efficient sub- 665. Range of probability distribution
set from set of with 68.26% lies within
260 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
are considered as 673. Which of the following is not nor-
A. experienced mally one of the reasons for a change
B. inexperienced in an investor’s circumstances?
A. Change in market conditions
iR
C. pessimistic
D. optimistic B. Change in legal considerations
C. Change in time horizon
668. rate which is divided by compound- D. Change in tax circumstances
hr
ing periods to calculate periodic rate 674. Relevant cash flow which company
must be expects when its will implement
iS
A. annuity return
project is classified as
B. deferred annuity return A. irrelevant cash flow
C. nominal rate B. relevant cash flow
Ja
677. Type of bond in which payments are 683. An additional desired compensation
made on basis of inflation index is by investors for assuming an addi-
classified as tional risk on investment is classified
A. borrowed bond as
B. purchasing power bond A. risk premium
C. surplus bond B. investor premium
D. deficit bond C. additional premium
D. assumed premium
678. In capital asset pricing model, in-
vestors assume that buying and selling 684. A company sells its stock shares for
activity will raising more equity capital is classi-
A. affect stock prices fied as
B. not affect stock prices A. dealer communication offering
C. have high taxes B. seasoned equity offering
D. high transaction cost C. electronic equity offering
D. electronic order offering
679. Net investment in operating capital
am
is subtracted from net operating profit 685. Second mortgages pledged against
after taxes to calculate bond’s security are referred as
A. relevant inflows A. loan mortgages
B. medium mortgages
iR
B. free cash flow
C. relevant outflows C. senior mortgages
D. cash outlay D. junior mortgages
hr
680. Excess working capital results in 686. Risk per unit of return or stand alone
risk is represented by
A. Block of cash A. coefficient of standard
iS
682. An uncovered cost at start of year is 688. A techniques uses to identify finan-
Rs 200, full cash flow during recovery cial statements trends are included
A. common size analysis
year is Rs 400 and prior years to full B. percent change analysis
recovery is 3 then payback would be C. returning ratios analysis
A. 5 years D. Both A and B
B. 3.5 years
C. 4 years 689. If stock market price is higher than
D. 4.5 years strike price so call option
262 Chapter 6. Financial management
691. The relevant risk for a well- 697. Student loans, mortgages and car
am
diversified portfolio is loans are examples of
A. interest rate risk A. lump sum amount
B. inflation risk B. deferred annuity
C. annuity due
iR
C. business risk
D. market risk D. payment fixed series
692. All assets are perfectly divisible and 698. Rate denoted as r* is best classified
hr
liquid in as
A. tax free pricing model A. real risk-free interest rate
B. cost free pricing model B. real-risk free nominal rate
iS
am
B. financial risk
C. both risks
709. Value generally promises to pay at
D. production risk
maturity date and a firm borrows is
iR
704. Retained earnings are? considered as bonds
A. an indication of a company’s liq- A. bond value
uidity B. per value
hr
712. The overall capitalization rate and 718. In capital budgeting, cost of capital
the cost of debt remain constant for is used as discount rate and is based
all degrees of leverage. This is pro- on pre-determines
nounced by A. cost of inflation
A. Traditional approach B. cost of debt and equity
B. Net operating income approach C. cost of opportunity
C. Net income approach D. cost of transaction
D. MM approach 719. Dividend expected on stock during
coming year is classified as
713. Stocks which has high book for mar- A. current dividend yield
ket ratio are considered as B. expected dividend yield
A. more risky C. yearly dividend
B. less risky D. past yield
C. pessimistic
D. optimistic 720. The largest single institutional
owner of common stocks is
am
714. Wages and salaries of employees A. mutual funds
which company owns in this accounts B. insurance companies
are called C. pension funds
D. commercial banks
iR
A. accrued expenses
B. accruals accounts 721. The focal point of financial manage-
C. Both A and B ment in a firm is
D. zero liabilities A. the number and types of products
hr
724. In expected rate of return for con- 730. are financial assets.
stant growth, an expected total rate of A. Bonds
return must be B. Machines
A. less than expected yield on divi- C. Stocks
dend D. A and C
B. greater than expected yield on div- 731. A project whose cash flows are more
idend than capital invested for rate of return
C. equal to expected yield on divi- then net present value will be
dend A. positive
D. equal to one B. independent
C. negative
725. Mostly in financials, risk of portfolio D. zero
is smaller than that of assets
A. mean 732. Markets in which corporations raise
B. weighted average capital for creating market transaction
C. mean correlation which are classified as
am
D. negative correlation A. commercial markets
B. residential markets
726. Graph which is plotted for projected C. primary markets
net present value and capital rates is D. consumer credit loans
iR
called
A. net loss profile 733. Long-term solvency is indicated by
B. net gain profile A. Liquidity ratio
C. net future value profile B. Debt-equity ratio
hr
737. An amount invested is Rs 2000 and 743. Method uses for an estimation of
return is Rs 200 then rate of return cost of equity is classified as
would be A. market cash flow
A. 0.10% B. future cash flow method
B. 10.00% C. discounted cash flow method
C. Rs 1,800.00 D. present cash flow method
D. Rs 2,200.00 744. If coupon rate is equal to going rate
of interest then bond will be sold
738. Relationship between risk free asset A. at par value
and a single risky asset are always B. below its par value
A. linear C. more than its par value
B. non-linear D. seasoned par value
C. efficient
D. effective 745. An inexpensive and easy business
formation and few government regu-
739. While calculating weighted average lations are advantages of
am
cost of capital A. Private Corporation
A. Preference shares are given more B. personal ownership
weight age C. proprietorship
B. Cost of issue is considered D. personal business
iR
C. Tax factor is ignored 746. A regulatory body which licenses
D. Risk factor is ignored brokers and oversees traders is classi-
fied as
hr
740. Greater value of option, larger span A. international firm of auction sys-
of time value is usually results in tem
iS
749. Type of bonds that pays no coupon 755. Free cash flow is Rs 15000, operat-
payment but provides little apprecia- ing cash flow is Rs 3000, investment
tion are classified as outlay cash flow is Rs 5000 then sal-
A. depreciated bond vage cash flow will be
B. interest bond A. Rs 17,000.00
C. zero coupon bond B. -Rs 17,000.00
D. appreciation bond C. Rs 7,000.00
D. -Rs 7,000.00
750. According to capital asset pricing
model assumptions, variances, ex- 756. Markets which bring closer institu-
pected returns and covariance of all tions needing funds and with surplus
assets are funds are classified as
A. identical A. financial markets
B. not identical B. corporate institutions
C. fixed C. hedge firms
D. variable D. retirement planners
am
751. Nominal rate which is quoted to con- 757. values of assets purchased or liabil-
sumers on loans is considered as ities recorded as recorded by book-
A. annual percentage rate
iR
keepers are considered as
B. annual rate of return
A. appreciated values
C. loan rate of return
B. depreciated values
D. local rate of return
C. market values
hr
A. number of payment periods 758. Markets which deal with buying and
B. number of investment selling of bonds, mortgages, notes and
C. number of instalments stocks are considered as
Ja
am
C. Production to the changes in sales 769. Bonds issued to individuals by cor-
D. None of the above
porations are classified as
763. In expected rate of return for con- A. municipal bonds
iR
stant growth, dividends are expected B. corporate bonds
to grow but with the C. U.S treasury bonds
A. constant rate D. mortgages
hr
B. variable rate
C. yielding rate 770. Future value of interest if it is calcu-
D. returning yield lated two times a year can be a classi-
iS
fied as
764. In capital market line, risk of effi-
A. semi-annual discounting
cient portfolio is measured by its
B. annual discounting
Ja
A. standard deviation
B. variance C. annual compounding
C. aggregate risk D. semi-annual compounding
D. ineffective risk
771. Political stability is the major factor
765. An unsystematic risk which can be concerning
eliminated but market risk is the A. exchange risk
A. aggregate risk B. systematic risk
B. remaining risk C. non-systematic risk
C. effective risk D. country risk
D. ineffective risk
766. For each component of capital, a re- 772. Companies that help to set bench-
quired rate of return is considered as marks are classified as
A. component cost A. competitive companies
B. evaluating cost B. benchmark companies
C. asset cost C. analytical companies
D. asset depreciation value D. return companies
269
am
most situations is classified as stock is listed
A. historical betas C. the president of the company
B. adjusted betas D. individuals buying and selling the
C. standard betas stock
iR
D. varied betas
782. Probability distribution is classified
776. Bonds having zero default risk are as normal if expected return lies be-
hr
classified as tween
A. U.S bonds A. ( + 1 and-1)
B. return security B. ( + 2 and-2)
iS
786. Right held with corporations to call 792. In capital asset pricing model, an
issued bonds for redemption is con- amount of risk that stock contributes
sidered as to portfolio of market is classified as
A. artificial provision A. stand-alone coefficient
B. call provision B. relevant coefficient
C. redeem provision C. alpha coefficient
D. original provision D. beta coefficient
787. Stock in large companies and own 793. In binomial approach of option pric-
by people who are not active in man- ing model, value of stock is subtracted
agement is classified as from call option obligation value to
am
A. self-held stock calculate
B. privately held stock A. current value of portfolio
C. publicly held stock B. future value of portfolio
D. enactive held stock C. put option value
iR
D. call option value
788. The expansion of CAPM is
A. Capital amount pricing model. 794. Risk of fall in income due to fall in
B. Capital asset pricing model.
hr
C. reinvestment risk
789. Which of the following factors does D. mature risk
not affect the capital structure of a
Ja
791. In situation of bankruptcy, stock 797. Value of stock is Rs 1200 and pre-
which is recorded above common ferred dividend is Rs 120 then re-
stock and below debt account is quired rate of return would be
271
am
C. municipal bonds D. past growth rate
D. corporate bonds
806. An interest rate which is quoted by
800. An expected dividend yield is 7.5% brokers, banks and other financial in-
iR
and an expected rate of return is stitutions is classified as
15.5% then constant growth rate will A. annuity rate
be B. perpetuity rate
C. nominal rate
hr
A. 22.00%
B. 8.00% D. external rate of return
C. 23.00%
iS
am
A. yield to earning D. Capitalization rate
B. yield to investors
C. yield to maturity 818. Sum of discounted cash flows is best
iR
D. yield to return defined as
A. technical equity
813. Which of the following is the as- B. defined future value
sumption of the MM model on div- C. project net present value
hr
am
824. An annuity with an extended life is
B. price value
classified as
C. put price
A. extended life
D. call price
B. perpetuity
iR
C. deferred perpetuity 831. Total assets divided common equity
D. due perpetuity is a formula uses for calculating
A. equity multiplier
hr
C. semi-annually
D. yearly 832. Operating incomes and the discount
rate of a particular risk class are the 2
Ja
828. Dividend yield is 25% and current 834. Call options situation in which strike
price is Rs 40 then dividend yield will price is greater than current price of
be stock is classified as
274 Chapter 6. Financial management
836. Preferred dividend is Rs 60 and re- 841. are a way U. S. investors can
quired rate of return is 20% then value invest in foreign companies.
of preferred stock will be A. ADRs
am
A. Rs 40.00 B. IRAs
B. Rs 120.00 C. SDRs
C. Rs 12.00 D. GNMAs
iR
D. Rs 300.00
842. Situation in which company replaces
837. Input call parity relationship, present existing assets with new assets is clas-
value of exercise price is added to call sified as
hr
am
than coupon rate, this yield is classi-
and are represented by fied as
A. negative numbers A. yield to maturity
B. positive numbers B. yield to call
iR
C. hurdle number C. yield to earning
D. relative number D. yield to investors
848. Sum of market risk and diversifiable 854. Net present value is a popular
hr
method
A. Sharpe’s alpha B. With in discount cash flow method
B. standard alphas C. Equal With in non-discount cash
C. alpha’s variance flow method
Ja
849. is concerned with the maxi- 855. Risk free rate is subtracted from ex-
mization of a firm’s stock price. pected market return is considered as
A. Shareholder wealth maximization A. country risk
B. diversifiable risk
B. Profit maximization C. equity risk premium
C. Stakeholder welfare maximization D. market risk premium
D. EPS maximization
856. Working capital management is man-
850. Corporations that buy financial in- aging
struments with money accepted from A. short term assets and liabilities
savers are classified as B. long term assets
C. long terms liabilities
A. debit funds
D. only short term assets
B. credit funds
C. mutual funds 857. The value of a derivative security
D. insurance funds
276 Chapter 6. Financial management
A. depends on the value of the related 863. Project whose cash flows are less
primitive security than capital invested for required rate
B. can only cause increased risk of return then net present value will
C. is unrelated to the value of the re- be
lated primitive security A. negative
D. is worthless today B. zero
C. positive
858. Price per ratio is divided by cash D. independent
flow per share ratio which is used for
calculating 864. Pre-emptive right of common stock-
A. dividend to stock ratio holders are necessarily included in
B. sales to growth ratio company
C. cash flow to price ratio A. laws
D. price to cash flow ratio B. purchase chart
C. corporate charter
859. A company purchases goods but D. selling charter
am
does not pay payments to suppliers
865. In capital budgeting, a technique
immediately and record them as
A. account payable which is based upon discounted cash
B. account receivable flow is classified as
iR
C. current liabilities A. net present value method
D. accumulated liabilities B. net future value method
C. net capital budgeting method
860. In expected rate of return for con- D. net equity budgeting method
hr
stant growth, stock price must grow 866. The last step in fundamental analysis
according to an expected rate and is
iS
862. An interest rate which is paid by firm 868. Capital market line reflects an atti-
as soon as it issues debt is classified tude of investors towards risk which
as pre-tax is considered as an/a
A. term structure A. non-aggregate
B. market premium B. effective
C. risk premium C. ineffective
D. cost of debt D. aggregate
277
am
A. no par stock C. purchase right
B. at par stock D. selling right
C. equal stock
876. In retention growth model, percent
iR
D. debt equity stock
of net income firms usually pay out as
872. The rational expectations model of shareholders dividends is classified as
dividend policy says that A. payout ratio
hr
B. payback ratio
A. Since the expectations of the in-
C. growth retention ratio
vestors are always rational, there will
D. present value of ratio
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880. Type of options in which buyer of 886. An average return of portfolio di-
options has call on 200 shares in stock vided by its coefficient of beta is clas-
is classified as sified as
A. call option A. Sharpe’s reward to variability ra-
B. stated option tio
C. unstated option B. treynor’s reward to volatility ratio
D. contractual option C. Jensen’s alpha
D. treynor’s variance to volatility ra-
881. Companies take savings as premium, tio
invest in bonds and make payments to 887. Third step in binomial approach of
beneficiaries are classified as option pricing is to
A. debit unions
am
A. equalize beginning price
B. life insurance companies B. equalize range of payoffs
C. credit unions C. equalize domain of payoff
D. auto purchases D. equalize ending price
iR
882. A group of mutual funds with a com- 888. Redemption option which protects
mon management are known as investors against rise in interest rate
A. fund syndicates is considered as
hr
D. redeemable at finding
883. A premium which reflects possibility
of issuer who does not pay principal 889. The sustainable growth rate of a firm
Ja
am
B. dividend multiple analysis as
C. market multiple analysis A. partnership
D. stock and multiple analysis B. joint business
C. joint profit
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894. A tighter probability distribution D. corporate business
shows the 900. Portfolio risk is best measured by
A. higher risk the
hr
risk
895. Degree of total leverage can be ap- D. standard deviation
plied in measuring change in
Ja
am
A. accumulation classified as
B. consolidation A. loan rate of return
C. spending B. local rate of return
D. gifting C. annual percentage rate
iR
D. annual rate of return
906. The arbitrary process is the behav-
912. Life that maximizes net present
ioral foundation for the
value of an asset is classified as
hr
A. MM approach
A. minimum life
B. XX approach B. present value life
C. Gorder approach C. economic life
iS
916. Financial leverage is also known as. 922. If profit margin = 4.5% and total as-
A. Trading on equity sets turnover = 1.8% then return on
B. Trading on debt assets DuPont equation would be
C. Interest on equity A. 2.50%
B. 8.10%
D. Interest on debt
C. 0.40%
917. The company’s cost of capital is D. 4.00%
called 923. Financial security in which there is
A. Leverage no default risk and issues by U.S gov-
B. Hurdle rate ernments is classified as
C. Risk rate A. U.S treasury bonds
am
D. Return rate B. mortgages
C. municipal bonds
918. A theory which states that assets are D. corporate bonds
traded at price equal to its intrinsic
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value is classified as 924. Situation in which one project is ac-
A. efficient money hypothesis cepted while rejecting another project
B. efficient market hypothesis in comparison is classified as
hr
927. Range of probability distribution 933. Rate of return which considers risk-
with 99.74% lies within iness and an available returns on in-
A. (+ 3σ and-3σ ) vestments is classified as
B. (+ 4σ and-4σ ) A. constant dividend
C. (+ 1σ and-1σ ) B. constant rate
D. (+ 2σ and-2σ ) C. maximum rate of return
D. minimum acceptable rate of return
928. An uncovered cost at start of year is
divided by full cash flow during re-
934. If risk can be eliminated with help
covery year then added in prior years
of diversification, then relevant risk is
to full recovery for calculating A. smaller than stand-alone risk
A. original period B. larger than stand-alone risk
B. investment period C. smaller than diverse risk
C. payback period D. larger than diverse risk
D. forecasted period
935. In an individual stock, relevant risk
am
929. Cost of new debt or marginal debt is is classified as
also classified as A. alpha coefficient
A. historical rate B. beta coefficient
B. embedded rate C. stand-alone coefficient
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C. marginal rate D. relevant coefficient
D. Both A and B 936. Coefficient of variation is used to
identify an effect of
hr
939. An amount invested is Rs 4000 and 945. Present value of future cash flows is
return is Rs 300 then rate of return divided by an initial cost of project to
will be calculate
A. 4.30% A. negative index
B. 3.70% B. exchange index
C. 7.50% C. project index
D. 0.08% D. profitability index
940. In capital budgeting, a negative net 946. The cash management refers to man-
present value results in agement of
A. zero economic value added A. cash only
B. percent economic value added B. cash and bank balances
C. cash and near cash assets
C. negative economic value added
D. fixed assets
D. positive economic value added
947. Future value of interest if it is calcu-
941. Reinvestment risk of bonds is usu- lated once a year is classified as
am
ally higher on A. One time compounding
A. income bonds B. annual compounding
B. callable bonds C. semi-annual compounding
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C. premium bonds D. monthly compounding
D. default free bonds
948. Type of interest rates consist of
942. A markets which deals with long- A. nominal rates
hr
A. liquid markets
B. short-term markets
949. Coupon rate of bond is also called
C. capital markets
A. nominal rate
Ja
D. money markets
B. premium rate
943. Maturity date decides at time of is- C. quoted rate
D. both a and c
suance of bond and legally permissi-
ble is classified as 950. The amount of the temporary work-
A. original maturity ing capital
B. permanent maturity A. keeps on fluctuating from time to
C. artificial maturity time
D. valued maturity B. remains constant for all times
C. financed through long term ser-
944. During planning period, a marginal vices
cost for raising a new debt is classified D. none of the above.
as
A. debt cost 951. Stock market theory which states
B. relevant cost that stocks are in equilibrium and im-
C. borrowing cost possible for investors to beat market
D. embedded cost is classified as an
284 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
porations 958. Growth rate which is predicted by
B. the use of debt financing by corpo- marginal investors for dividends is
rations classified as
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C. Equity investments held by corpo- A. expected growth rate
rations B. annual growth rate
D. Debt investments held by corpora- C. past growth rate
tions. D. unexpected growth rate
hr
962. Finance company providing loans at 968. Capital gain expected by stockhold-
3% with five compounding periods ers and dividends are included in
per year, nominal annual rate is clas- A. debt rate
sified as B. investment return
A. 15.00% C. interest rate
B. 0.60% D. cost of equity
C. 10.00% 969. External factors such as expiration
D. 1.67%
of basic patents and industry competi-
963. An inflation free rate of return and in- tion effect
flation premium are two components A. patents premium
B. competition premium
of
C. company’s beta
A. quoted rate D. expiry premium
B. unquoted rate
C. steeper rate 970. Investors seeking to avoid actively
D. portfolio rate managing their portfolios will prefer
am
which of the following assets?
964. Cash flows that should be considered A. Common stock
for decision in hand are classified as B. Commercial bank deposits
A. relevant cash flows C. Financial futures
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B. irrelevant cash flows D. Real estate
C. marginal cash flows
D. transaction cash flows 971. Tendency of moving together of two
hr
variables is classified as
965. In corporation characteristics, an A. correlation
easy transferring and division of stock B. move tendency
iS
C. shared division
D. deceased division risk and investment held by busi-
nesses is classified as
966. Corporations such as Citigroup, A. treasury bills
American Express and Fidelity are B. commercial paper
classified as C. negotiable certificate of deposit
A. financial services corporations D. money market mutual funds
B. common service corporations 973. Double declining balance method
C. preferred service corporations and sum of years digits are included
D. commercial service corporations
in
967. An expected dividend yield is added A. yearly method
B. single methods
into expected growth rate to calculate
C. double methods
A. dividend return D. accelerated methods
B. expected rate of return
C. expected capital 974. Which of the following would not be
D. invested capita considered as capital market security?
286 Chapter 6. Financial management
am
A. current yield turn
B. maturity yield C. Book value weights fluctuate vio-
C. return yield lently
D. Market value weights are fairly
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D. earning yield
consistent over a period of time.
977. For investors, steeper slope of indif-
ference curve shows more 980. Formula Sales revenue minus oper-
hr
Answers
102. A 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. C 108. C 109. B 110. B 111. B
112. B 113. B 114. A 115. C 116. D 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. C 121. A
122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. D 127. D 128. A 129. C 130. D 131. C
132. B 133. A 134. A 135. C 136. C 137. D 138. C 139. D 140. B 141. C
142. D 143. D 144. C 145. A 146. A 147. A 148. C 149. A 150. A 151. B
152. C 153. A 154. A 155. B 156. D 157. D 158. A 159. A 160. C 161. D
162. B 163. B 164. B 165. C 166. A 167. C 168. A 169. D 170. D 171. B
172. B 173. D 174. A 175. A 176. A 177. A 178. A 179. B 180. B 181. A
182. A 183. C 184. B 185. A 186. A 187. D 188. A 189. B 190. C 191. D
192. A 193. D 194. A 195. B 196. C 197. D 198. D 199. C 200. A 201. B
202. A 203. B 204. A 205. A 206. D 207. C 208. C 209. A 210. A 211. A
212. C 213. B 214. A 215. A 216. D 217. B 218. C 219. C 220. D 221. D
222. A 223. D 224. C 225. A 226. B 227. D 228. D 229. C 230. B 231. B
232. D 233. A 234. A 235. A 236. A 237. B 238. B 239. B 240. A 241. C
242. A 243. D 244. A 245. D 246. A 247. A 248. B 249. D 250. A 251. D
am
252. A 253. A 254. C 255. C 256. D 257. B 258. C 259. C 260. D 261. A
262. D 263. B 264. B 265. C 266. D 267. B 268. D 269. A 270. D 271. B
272. A 273. B 274. D 275. B 276. A 277. D 278. C 279. D 280. C 281. D
282. C 283. D 284. C 285. A 286. D 287. C 288. B 289. A 290. A 291. A
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292. B 293. C 294. B 295. A 296. B 297. D 298. A 299. A 300. D 301. B
302. A 303. D 304. B 305. A 306. B 307. A 308. B 309. B 310. B 311. D
312. C 313. D 314. D 315. B 316. A 317. A 318. A 319. B 320. A 321. B
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322. A 323. A 324. A 325. A 326. C 327. B 328. A 329. D 330. B 331. C
332. B 333. C 334. A 335. D 336. C 337. A 338. D 339. B 340. B 341. B
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342. B 343. B 344. C 345. B 346. D 347. D 348. A 349. D 350. C 351. A
352. C 353. D 354. B 355. E 356. B 357. A 358. C 359. D 360. D 361. A
362. B 363. A 364. C 365. D 366. A 367. A 368. A 369. D 370. E 371. B
Ja
372. B 373. A 374. B 375. B 376. A 377. C 378. D 379. B 380. D 381. D
382. A 383. A 384. A 385. D 386. D 387. A 388. A 389. B 390. D 391. C
392. C 393. C 394. D 395. C 396. B 397. D 398. D 399. A 400. B 401. B
402. A 403. D 404. A 405. A 406. B 407. A 408. C 409. A 410. C 411. C
412. B 413. C 414. D 415. A 416. B 417. D 418. B 419. B 420. B 421. C
422. B 423. B 424. A 425. B 426. A 427. B 428. B 429. C 430. C 431. A
432. D 433. B 434. A 435. D 436. A 437. D 438. D 439. B 440. A 441. A
442. B 443. D 444. C 445. C 446. A 447. A 448. A 449. D 450. A 451. D
452. A 453. A 454. A 455. A 456. D 457. D 458. C 459. B 460. C 461. A
462. A 463. A 464. A 465. D 466. C 467. C 468. C 469. D 470. C 471. B
472. D 473. A 474. C 475. B 476. A 477. D 478. A 479. A 480. A 481. D
482. A 483. D 484. D 485. C 486. B 487. D 488. B 489. D 490. B 491. C
492. B 493. D 494. D 495. B 496. C 497. A 498. A 499. D 500. C 501. B
502. D 503. A 504. C 505. C 506. D 507. D 508. A 509. A 510. B 511. C
512. C 513. A 514. B 515. C 516. A 517. D 518. A 519. E 520. D 521. A
522. A 523. B 524. C 525. C 526. B 527. A 528. C 529. B 530. B 531. D
288 Chapter 6. Financial management
532. C 533. D 534. A 535. B 536. B 537. B 538. C 539. B 540. D 541. B
542. A 543. D 544. C 545. C 546. B 547. B 548. C 549. C 550. B 551. B
552. B 553. A 554. B 555. B 556. A 557. D 558. C 559. D 560. B 561. D
562. D 563. A 564. A 565. B 566. A 567. D 568. C 569. A 570. A 571. A
572. C 573. A 574. A 575. A 576. C 577. B 578. B 579. A 580. A 581. A
582. C 583. A 584. B 585. C 586. B 587. B 588. D 589. B 590. A 591. C
592. A 593. D 594. D 595. B 596. A 597. B 598. C 599. A 600. B 601. A
602. B 603. D 604. B 605. C 606. B 607. D 608. B 609. C 610. B 611. A
612. C 613. B 614. C 615. A 616. A 617. A 618. A 619. A 620. A 621. A
622. D 623. B 624. B 625. A 626. A 627. C 628. D 629. A 630. B 631. B
632. A 633. B 634. C 635. B 636. D 637. A 638. A 639. A 640. D 641. A
642. D 643. A 644. C 645. B 646. B 647. A 648. B 649. A 650. B 651. B
652. B 653. A 654. B 655. D 656. C 657. A 658. D 659. A 660. C 661. D
662. D 663. D 664. A 665. C 666. D 667. D 668. C 669. C 670. D 671. A
672. B 673. B 674. C 675. A 676. A 677. B 678. B 679. B 680. A 681. A
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682. B 683. A 684. B 685. D 686. C 687. B 688. D 689. C 690. C 691. D
692. C 693. A 694. D 695. A 696. B 697. B 698. A 699. A 700. D 701. B
702. C 703. A 704. D 705. A 706. D 707. A 708. A 709. D 710. A 711. D
712. C 713. A 714. C 715. C 716. B 717. D 718. B 719. B 720. A 721. C
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722. B 723. B 724. C 725. B 726. D 727. C 728. A 729. B 730. D 731. A
732. C 733. B 734. C 735. D 736. D 737. B 738. A 739. B 740. B 741. D
742. A 743. C 744. A 745. C 746. D 747. A 748. C 749. C 750. A 751. A
hr
752. A 753. A 754. C 755. C 756. A 757. D 758. B 759. A 760. D 761. A
762. A 763. A 764. A 765. B 766. A 767. A 768. A 769. B 770. D 771. D
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772. B 773. C 774. A 775. A 776. D 777. A 778. A 779. B 780. B 781. D
782. A 783. D 784. A 785. B 786. B 787. C 788. B 789. B 790. A 791. B
792. D 793. A 794. C 795. A 796. B 797. B 798. A 799. C 800. B 801. A
Ja
802. B 803. B 804. D 805. B 806. C 807. D 808. A 809. D 810. A 811. B
812. C 813. C 814. D 815. A 816. B 817. C 818. C 819. B 820. C 821. B
822. B 823. B 824. B 825. D 826. A 827. C 828. B 829. B 830. D 831. A
832. D 833. D 834. D 835. C 836. D 837. A 838. C 839. D 840. D 841. A
842. A 843. A 844. C 845. B 846. D 847. A 848. D 849. A 850. C 851. A
852. D 853. B 854. B 855. C 856. A 857. A 858. D 859. A 860. A 861. D
862. D 863. A 864. C 865. A 866. D 867. A 868. D 869. D 870. B 871. A
872. D 873. B 874. D 875. B 876. A 877. B 878. B 879. C 880. A 881. B
882. C 883. C 884. B 885. A 886. B 887. B 888. B 889. C 890. D 891. D
892. A 893. C 894. B 895. C 896. B 897. D 898. B 899. A 900. C 901. C
902. B 903. C 904. B 905. B 906. A 907. B 908. A 909. B 910. A 911. C
912. C 913. B 914. A 915. A 916. A 917. B 918. B 919. B 920. B 921. B
922. B 923. A 924. B 925. C 926. C 927. A 928. C 929. D 930. B 931. D
932. D 933. D 934. A 935. B 936. D 937. D 938. B 939. C 940. C 941. B
942. C 943. A 944. B 945. D 946. B 947. B 948. D 949. D 950. A 951. B
952. B 953. B 954. C 955. D 956. A 957. D 958. A 959. C 960. B 961. A
289
962. A 963. A 964. A 965. A 966. A 967. B 968. D 969. C 970. B 971. A
972. D 973. D 974. C 975. B 976. A 977. A 978. A 979. A 980. C
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hr
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Ja
Ja
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hr
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am
7. GST
A. Payment of Interest
2. How a person can apply for registra- B. Payment of penalty
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7. Maximum rate prescribed under UT- 13. What is date of receipt of payment?
GST/SGST? A. Date of entry in the books
A. 14% B. Date of payment credited into
B. 20% bank account
C. 28% C. Earlier of (a) and (b)
D. 30% D. Date of filing of return
8. Which of the following requires 14. What is the rate applicable under
amendment in the registration certifi- CGST to a registered person being
cate? a hotelier opting to pay taxes under
A. Change of name of the registered
composition scheme?
person A. 1%
B. Change in constitution of the reg-
B. 0.5%
istered person C. 2.5%
C. Switching over form composition
D. None of the above
scheme to normal scheme or vice
versa.
am
15. Who is the chairman of GST council?
D. All of the above A. President of India
B. Prime Minister
9. SAC Code Stands for
A. Services Accounting Code C. Finance Minister
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B. Software Accounting Code D. RBI Governor
C. System Accounting Code
D. Service Application Code 16. What are the taxes levied on an Intra-
State Supply?
hr
19. What is location of supply in case of 25. Balance in electronic credit ledger un-
importation of goods? der IGST can be used against which
A. Customs port where the goods are liability?
cleared A. IGST Liability only
B. Location of the importer B. IGST and CGST liability
C. Place where the goods are deliv- C. IGST, CGST and SGST liability
ered after clearance from customs D. None of them
port
26. Indian GST model has rate
D. Owner of the goods
structure.
20. Which of the following tax is not sub- A. 3
B. 4
sumed in GST
C. 5
A. VAT
D. 6
B. Stamp Duty
C. Entry Tax 27. GST threshold limit of Normal States
D. Entertainment Tax is lakh
am
A. 12
21. When can a registered person avail B. 15
credit on inputs? C. 20
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A. on receipt of goods D. 25
B. on receipt of documents
C. Both 28. Banking company or Financial Insti-
D. None of the above tution have an option of claiming ITC:
hr
C. 102
the second highest tax slab?
D. 103
A. Australia
23. What is the validity of the registration B. Netherland
C. Argentina
certificate?
D. Ireland
A. Five years
B. Ten years 30. Whether credit on capital goods can
C. No validity be taken immediately on receipt of the
D. Valid till it is cancelled goods?
A. Yes
24. Which of the following country has B. After usage of such capital goods
the maximum GST tax slab? C. After capitalizing in books of Ac-
A. Greece counts
B. China D. None of the above
C. USA
D. Australia 31. What is the due date for payment of
E. India tax?
294 Chapter 7. GST
am
33. is the first state to ratify GST
bill. 39. In India GST was first proposed in
A. Andhra Pradesh
A. 1993
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B. Assam
C. Arunachal Pradesh B. 1996
D. Bihar C. 1999
D. 2000
hr
37. The time limit to pay the value of sup- 42. For capital goods, proportionate
ply with taxes credit is allowed
295
A. for business and non-business pur- 48. A person is entitled to take credit of
pose input tax as self-assessed in the re-
B. for business or non-business pur- turn and credited to Electronic credit
pose ledger on
C. both of the above A. Final basis
D. none of the above B. Provisional basis
C. Partly Provisional and partly final
43. Is definition of Inputs includes capital basis
D. None of the above
goods
A. Yes 49. In India GST came effective from
B. No July 1st, 2017 India has chosen
model of dual-GST.
44. Provisional Input tax credit can be uti- A. USA
lized against B. UK
A. Any Tax liability C. Canadian
D. China
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B. Self Assessed output Tax liability
C. Interest and Penalty 50. Can all the records be maintained in
D. Fine an electronic form?
A. Yes
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45. Place of supply in case of installation B. Only if authenticated by digital
of elevator is signature
A. Where the movement of elevator C. Few records
hr
D. No
commences from the supplier’s place.
B. Where the delivery of elevator is 51. The registered recipient must issue an
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of goods
55. GST Stands for
A. Goods and Supply Tax 60. The details of outward supplies of
B. Government Sales Tax goods or services shall be submitted
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C. Goods and Services Tax by
D. General Sales Tax A. 10th of the succeeding month
B. 18th of the succeeding month
56. GST comes under which amendment C. 15th of the succeeding month
hr
A. Monthly return filed by the sup- 68. Balance in electronic credit ledger can
plier be utilized against which liability?
B. Outward supply filed by the sup- A. Output tax payable
plier B. Interest payable
C. Invoices maintained by the sup- C. Penalty
plier D. All of above
D. None of the above
64. Who is considered as an e-commerce 69. Under GST, Insurance is taxed
operator, who digital or elec- percent.
tronic facility or platform for elec- A. 0%
tronic commerce B. 5%
A. Owns C. 12%
B. Operates D. 18%
C. Manages
D. Any of the above 70. First announcement to introduce GST
am
65. Payment made through challan by 2010, is made in Year
will be credited to which register- A. 2000
s/ledgers? B. 2004
C. 2006
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A. Electronic Tax liability register
B. Electronic Credit ledger D. 2008
C. Electronic Cash ledger
D. All of them 71. When an e-commerce operator is re-
hr
at source u/s 52
his 5 business different units having
same Permanent Account Number? B. When his aggregate turnover ex-
A. Yes ceeds the threshold limit
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73. Mr. A obtains new registration, vol- 78. How will the goods and services be
untary registration, change of scheme classified under GST regime?
from composition to regular scheme A. SAC/HSN Code
and from exempted goods/services to B. HSN Code
taxable goods/services. He can avail C. SAC Code
credit on inputs lying in stock. What D. GST Code
is the time limit for taking said credit 79. When can the transaction value be re-
A. 1 year from the date of invoice
jected for computation of value of sup-
B. 3 year from the date of invoice
ply
C. 5 year from the date of invoice
A. When the buyer and seller are not
D. None of the above
related and price is not the sole con-
74. Balance in electronic credit ledger un- sideration
der CGST can be used against which B. When the buyer and seller are re-
liability? lated or price is not the sole consider-
A. CGST Liability only ation
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B. CGST and IGST liability C. It can never be rejected
C. CGST, IGST and SGST liability D. When the goods are sold at very
D. None of them low margins
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80. Can a registered person under Compo-
75. The Central Board of Excise and Cus-
sition Scheme claim input tax credit?
toms (CBEC) announced that every
A. Yes
year will be considered as GST
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B. No
Day. C. Input tax credit on inward supply
A. 1st April of goods only can be claimed
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83. Accounts are required to be main- 88. In case supplier has deposited the
tained in taxes but the receiver has not received
A. Manual form the goods, is receiver entitled to avail
B. Electronic form credit?
C. Manual and electronic form A. Yes, it will be automatically show
D. Manual or electronic form in recipient monthly returns.
B. No, as one of the conditions of
84. PAN issued under the Income Tax Act section 16(2) is not fulfilled.
C. Yes if the receiver can prove later
is mandatory for grant of registration.
that goods are received subsequently
A. It is one of the document listed.
D. None of the above
B. Yes, but non-resident taxable per-
son may be granted registration on the 89. The tax IGST charged by
basis of any other document. Government.
C. No, for persons who are required A. Central
to deduct tax at source u/s 51 shall B. State
C. Concerned department
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have TAN in lieu of PAN. D. Both a and b
D. Both (b) and (c)
90. What does “I” stands for in IGST?
85. Is the principal entitled for credit of A. International
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goods though he has not received the B. Internal
goods and has been sent to job worker C. Integrated
D. Intra
directly by vendor
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86. The time limit beyond which if goods 92. Every registered taxable person shall
are not returned, the capital goods be entitled to take credit of input tax
sent for job work shall be treated as in his return and such input tax credit
supply shall be credited to
A. One year A. Personal Ledger Account
B. Three Years B. Refund account
C. Six months C. Electronic Cash Ledger
D. Electronic Credit Ledger
D. Five years
93. First Return filed under GST is
87. Which form is to be used for registra- A. GSTR-1
tion? B. GSTR-3A
A. Form GSTR-1A C. GSTR-2
D. GSTR-3B
B. Form GSTR-2
C. Form GST REG-01 94. is GST Finance Ministers First
D. Form GST REG Panel Chairman.
300 Chapter 7. GST
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D. when the recipient accepts the pur and place of supply of goods SEZ
goods or three months from the date located in Mumbai
of supply whichever is earlier. B. Supplier of goods located in
Kolkata and place of supply of goods
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96. The headquarters of GST council is
in Bangalore
C. Supplier of goods located in Goa
A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi and place of supply of goods in Goa
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A. 2 A. One year
B. 3 B. Three years
C. 4
D. 5 C. Six months
D. Five years
98. GST council formation based on Arti-
cle number 104. Smart Phones will be taxed at
A. 279A under GST.
B. 289A A. 0%
C. 266A B. 5%
D. 255A C. 12%
99. The maximum rate prescribed under D. 18%
IGST now is
A. 5% 105. If there is Mis-match of supplier’s
B. 12% outward supply and recipient’s claim
C. 18% for Input Tax credit on the same trans-
D. 28% action
301
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in a financial year tioned in the Certificate of Registra-
C. Not required for an agriculturist
tion
or person exclusively engaged in sup- D. Any of the above
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plying exempt goods or services
D. No, only if specified threshold ex- 110. Who will notify the rate of tax to be
ceeds in a financial year then only levied under CGST?
need to obtain A. GST Council suo moto
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cial Institution withdraw the option D. Central Government as per the rec-
of availing actual credit or 50% credit ommendations of the GST Council
anytime in the financial year?
Ja
Answers