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Fiitjee Question Paper Solutions
Fiitjee Question Paper Solutions
Solutions to JEE(Main)-2019
Test Date: 12th January 2019 (First Shift)
2. This Test Paper consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct
response.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response 1 mark i.e. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the Answer Box.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.3 for correct response of each
question. One mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction
from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer box.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Marked up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marked up for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-2
PART –A (PHYSICS)
1. An ideal gas occupies a volume of 2 m3 at a pressure of 3 × 106 Pa. The energy of the
gas is:
(A) 9 × 106J (B) 6 × 104J
8
(C) 10 J (D) 3 × 102J
3. An ideal battery of 4 V and resistance R are connected in series in the primary circuit of
a potentiometer of length 1 m and resistance 5 . The value of R, to give a difference of
5 mV across 10 cm of potentiometer wire, is:
(A) 490 (B) 480
(C) 395 (D) 495
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6. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and (100 W, 220 V), are connected in series
across a 220 V voltage source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers P1 and P2
respectively, then:
(A) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 4 W (B) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 9 W
(C) P1 = 9 W, P2 = 16 W (D) P1 = 4 W, P2 = 16 W
10. A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. If 4% of light gets
reflected and the amplitude of the electric field of the incident light is 30 V/m, then the
amplitude of the electric field for the wave propagating in the glass medium will be:
(A) 30 V/m (B) 10 V/m
(C) 24 V/m (D) 6 V/m
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16. A simple pendulum, made of a string of length l and a bob of mass m, is released from a
small angle 0. It strikes a block of mass M, kept on a horizontal surface at its lowest
point of oscillations, elastically. It bounces back and goes up to an angle 1. Then M is
given by:
m 1 1
(A) 0 (B) m 0
2 0 1 0 1
1 m 0 1
(C) m 0 (D)
0 1 2 0 1
17. A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal.
What is the modulation index?
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.4
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18. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer
radius 2R. The thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of
the outer cylinder is K2. Assuming no loss of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of
the system for heat flowing along the length of the cylinder is:
K K2
(A) 1 (B) K1 K 2
2
2K1 3K 2 K 3K 2
(C) (D) 1
5 4
19. The least count of the main scale of a screw gauge is 1 mm. The minimum number of
divisions on its circular scale required to measure 5 m diameter of a wire is:
(A) 50 (B) 200
(C) 100 (D) 500
20. The output of the given logic circuit is:
(A) AB AB
(B) AB AB
(C) AB
(D) AB
21. As shown in the figure, two infinitely long, identical wires are bent by
90° and placed in such a way that the segments LP and QM are
along the x-axis, while segments PS and QN are parallel to the
y-axis. If OP = OQ = 4 cm, and the magnitude of the magnetic field at
O is 104 T, and the two wires carry equal current (see figure), the
magnitude of the current in each wire and the direction of the
magnetic field at O will be (0 = 4 × 107 NA2):
(A) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page (B) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page
(C) 20 A, perpendicular into the page (D) 40 A, perpendicular into the page
1 2
22. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) kr . If
2
Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbits and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as:
1
(A) rn n, En n (B) rn n, En
n
1
(C) rn n, En n (D) rn n2 , En 2
n
23. A proton and an -particle (with their masses in the ratio of 1 : 4 and charges in the ratio
of 1:2 are accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. If a uniform magnetic
field (B) is set up perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the radii rp : r of the
circular paths described by them will be:
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 1: 3
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24. Let the moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of length 30 cm (inner radius 10 cm and
outer radius 20 cm), about its axis be I. The radius of a thin cylinder of the same mass
such that its moment of inertia about its axis is also I, is:
(A) 12 cm (B) 16 cm
(C) 14 cm (D) 18 cm
25. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with
resistance R = 5 and an inductance with L = 2 mH. An ideal
battery of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will be the current
through the battery long after the switch is closed?
(A) 5.5 A (B) 7.5 A
(C) 3 A (D) 6 A
26. In the figure shown, after the switch ‘S’ is turned from
position ‘A’ to position ‘B’, the energy dissipated in the circuit
in terms of capacitance ‘C’ and total charge ‘Q’ is:
1 Q2 3 Q2
(A) (B)
8 C 8 C
2
5Q 3 Q2
(C) (D)
8 C 4 C
27. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of radius R about the centre of the earth.
A meteorite of the same mass, falling towards the earth collides with the satellite
completely inelastically. The speeds of the satellite and the meteorite are the same, just
before the collision. The subsequent motion of the combined body will be:
(A) such that it escapes to infinity (B) in an elliptical orbit
(C) in the same circular orbit of radius R (D) in a circular orbit of a different radius
29. A particle A of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V.
Another particle B of mass ‘4 m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a potential difference of
2500 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength A is close to:
B
(A) 10.00 (B) 0.07
(C) 14.14 (D) 4.47
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30. There is a uniform spherically symmetric surface charge density at a distance Ro from
the origin. The charge distribution is initially at rest and starts expanding because of
mutual repulsion. The figure that represents best the speed V(R(t)) of the distribution as
a function of its instantaneous radius R(t) is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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PART –B (CHEMISTRY)
31. In the Hall-heroult process, aluminium is formed at the cathode. The cathode is made
out of
(A) Pure Aluminium (B) Carbon
(C) Copper (D) Platinum
33.
In a chemical reaction A 2B
K
2C D , the initial concentration of B was 1.5 times
of A but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B were found to be equal. The
equilibrium, constant(K) for the aforesaid chemical reaction is
(A) 4 (B) 16
(C) 1/4 (D) 1
34. Given
Gas: H2 CH4 CO2 SO2
Critical: 33 190 304 630
Temp/K
On the basis of data given, predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption
on a definite amount of charcoal
(A) SO2 (B) CH4
(C) CO2 (D) H2
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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37. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X, X upon hydrolysis with water yields H2O2
and O2 along with another product. The metal is:
(A) Na (B) Rb
(C) Mg (D) Li
38. The molecules that has minimum/no role in the formation of photochemical smog is:
(A) N2 (B) CH2 = O
(C) O3 (D) NO
39. The pair of metal ions that can give a spin-only magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the
complex [M(H2O)6]Cl2 is
(A) V2+ and Co2+ (B) V2+ and Fe2+
2+ 2+
(C) Co and Fe (D) Cr2+ and Mn2+
40. For a disatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the following plots does not
correctly describe the relation between various thermodynamic quantities?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. The increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards reaction with alkyl
halide directly is:
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(A) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d) (B) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(C) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c) (D) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)
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(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. The volume of gas A has is twice than that of gas B. The compressibility factor of
gas A is thrice that that of gas B at same temperature. The pressure of gases for
equal per moles are
(A) 3PA = 2PB (B) 2PA = 3PB
(C) PA = 3 PB (D) PA = 2PB
46. The hardness of water sample (in terms of equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10–3 M
CaSO4 i s
(molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol–1)
(A) 10 ppm (B) 50 ppm
(C) 90 ppm (D) 100 ppm
47.
48. Freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of X is equal to freezing point of 12% aqueous
solution of Y. If molecular weight of X is A then molecular weight of Y is
(A) 3A (B) 2A
(C) A (D) 4A
49. The metal d-orbital that can directly facing the ligands in K3[Co(CN)6] are
(A) d xy and dx2 y2 (B) dx2 y2 and dz2
(C) dxz ,dyz and dz2 (D) dxy, dxz and dyz
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50. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant for 0.05 g/year. How many years are
required for the decomposition of 5 g of X into 2.5 g?
(A) 50 (B) 25
(C) 20 (D) 40
dE
dT
51. The standard electrode potential E– and its temperature coefficient for a cell are
2 V and -5 10–4 VK–1 at 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is :
Zn s Cu2 aq 2
Zn aq Cu s
Standard reaction enthalpy (rH–)……..
(A) -412.8 (B) -384.0
(C) 1920 (D) 206.4 kJ
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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(A) (B)
(C) (D)
o
57. What is the work function of the metal if the light of wavelength 4000 A generates
photoelectrons of velocity 6 105 ms–1 from it?
(Mass of electron = 9 10–31 kg
Velocity of light = 3 108 ms–1
Planck’s constant = 6.626 10–34 Js
Charge of electron = 1.6 10–19 JeV–1)
(A) 0.9 eV (B) 3.1 eV
(C) 2.1 eV (D) 4.0 eV
58. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield along with other products. The oxidation
state of iodine in Y is
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 3 (D) 1
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PART–C (MATHEMATICS)
61. An ordered pair (, ) for which the system of linear equations
(1 + )x + y + z = 2
x + (1 + )y + z = 3
x + y + 2z = 2
has a unique solution, is:
(A) (2, 4) (B) (3, 1)
(C) (4, 2) (D) (1, 3)
62. The product of three consecutive terms of a G.P. is 512. If 4 is added to each of the first
and the second of these terms, the three terms now form an A.P. Then the sum of the
original three terms of the given G.P. is:
(A) 36 (B) 32
(C) 24 (D) 28
64. Consider three boxes, each containing 10 balls labelled 1, 2, ….., 10. Suppose one ball
is randomly drawn from each of the boxes. Denote by ni, the label of the ball drawn from
the ith box, (i = 1, 2, 3). Then, the number of ways in which the balls can be chosen such
that n1 < n2 < n3 is:
(A) 120 (B) 82
(C) 240 (D) 164
65. A tetrahedron has vertices P(1, 2, 1), Q(2, 1, 3), R(1, 1, 2) and O(0, 0, 0). The angle
between the faces OPQ and PQR is:
17 19
(A) cos1 (B) cos1
31 35
9 7
(C) cos1 (D) cos1
35 31
66. The maximum area (in sq. units) of a rectangle having its base on the x-axis and its
other two vertices on the parabola, y = 12 – x2 such that the rectangle lies inside the
parabola, is:
(A) 36 (B) 20 2
(C) 32 (D) 18 3
67. If the straight line, 2x – 3y + 17 = 0 is perpendicular to the line passing through the
points (7, 17) and (15, ), then equals:
35
(A) (B) 5
3
35
(C) (D) 5
3
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68. The sum of the distinct real values of , for which the vectors,
ˆi ˆj k,
ˆ ˆi ˆj k,
ˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ are co-planar, is:
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2
69. Let P(4, 4) and Q(9, 6) be two points on the parabola, y2 = 4x and let X be any point on
the arc POQ of this parabola, where O is the vertex of this parabola, such that the area
of PXQ is maximum. Then this maximum Area (in sq. units) is:
75 125
(A) (B)
2 4
625 125
(C) (D)
4 2
1 0 0
70. Let P 3 1 0 and Q = [qij] be two 3 × 3 matrices such that Q – P5 = I3. Then
9 3 1
q21 q31
is equal to:
q32
(A) 10 (B) 135
(C) 15 (D) 9
dy
71. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation, x y x loge x,(x 1). If 2y(2)
dx
= loge 4 – 1, then y(e) is equal to:
e e2
(A) (B)
2 2
e e2
(C) (D)
4 4
72. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the parabola, y = x2 + 2 and the lines, y
= x + 1, x = 0 and x = 3, is:
15 21
(A) (B)
4 2
17 15
(C) (D)
4 2
73. In a random experiment, a fair die is rolled until two fours are obtained in succession.
The probability that the experiment will end in the fifth throw of the die is equal to:
200 150
(A) 5 (B) 5
6 6
225 175
(C) 5 (D) 5
6 6
74. Let C1 and C2 be the centres of the circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 2 = 0 and x2 + y2–6x–
6y+14 =0 respectively. If P and Q are the points of intersection of these circles, then the
area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral PC1QC2 is:
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 4
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75. The maximum value of 3 cos 5 sin for any real value of is:
6
79
(A) 19 (B)
2
(C) 34 (D) 31
76. Considering only the principal values of inverse functions, the set
A x 0 : tan 1 2x tan1 3x
4
(A) contains two elements (B) contains more than two elements
(C) is a singleton (D) is an empty set
77. If be the ratio of the roots of the quadratic equation in x, 3m2x2 + m(m – 4)x + 2 = 0,
1
then the least value of m for which 1, is:
(A) 2 3 (B) 4 3 2
(C) 2 2 (D) 4 2 3
2 dy
79. For x > 1, if (2x)2y = 4e2x – 2y, then 1 loge 2x is equal to:
dx
x loge 2x loge 2
(A) (B) loge 2x
x
x loge 2x loge 2
(C) (D) x loge 2x
x
80. The integral cos loge x dx is equal to: (where C is a constant of integration)
x
(A) sin loge x cos loge x C (B) x cos loge x sin loge x C
2
x
(C) cos loge x sin loge x C (D) x cos loge x sin loge x C
2
81. A ratio of the 5th term from the beginning to the 5th term from the end in the binomial
1 1
expansion of 2 3 1
is:
2 3 3
1 1
(A) 1: 2 6 3 (B) 1: 4 16 3
1 1
(C) 4 36 3 : 1 (D) 2 36 3 : 1
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1 2 3 ..... k 5
82. Let Sk . If S12 S 22 ..... S10
2
A, then A equal to:
k 12
(A) 283 (B) 301
(C) 303 (D) 156
83. The perpendicular distance from the origin to the plane containing the two lines,
x2 y2 z5 x 1 y 4 z 4
and , is:
3 5 7 1 4 7
(A) 11 6 (B) 11
6
(C) 11 (D) 6 11
84. If the sum of the deviations of 50 observations from 30 is 50, then the mean of these
observations is:
(A) 30 (B) 51
(C) 50 (D) 31
85. Let S be the set of all points in (, ) at which the function, f(x) = min {sinx, cosx} is
non-differentiable. Then S is a subset of which of the following?
3 3
(A) ,0, (B) , , ,
4 4 4 4 4 4
3 3
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
2 4 4 2 4 2 2 4
86. Let f and g be continuous functions on [0, a] such that f(x) = f(a – x) and g(x) + g(a – x) =
a
4, then f(x)g(x)dx is equal to:
0
a a
(A) 4 f(x)dx (B) f(x)dx
0 0
a a
(C) 2 f(x)dx (D) 3 f(x)dx
0 0
cot3 x tan x
87. lim is:
x
4 cos x
4
(A) 4 (B) 4 2
(C) 8 2 (D) 8
z
88. If ( R) is a purely imaginary number and |z| = 2, then a value of is:
z
(A) 2 (B) 1
1
(C) (D) 2
2
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89. Let S = {1, 2, 3, ….., 100}. The number of non-empty subsets A of S such that the
product of elements in A is even is:
(A) 2100 – 1 (B) 250 (250 – 1)
(C) 250 – 1 (D) 250 + 1
90. If the vertices of a hyperbola be at (2, 0) and (2, 0) and one of its foci be at (3, 0), then
which one of the following points does not lie on this hyperbola?
(A) 6,2 10 (B) 2 6,5
(C) 4, 15 (D) 6,5 2
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PART B – CHEMISTRY
PART C – MATHEMATICS
61. A 62. D 63. C 64. A
65. B 66. C 67. D 68. A
69. B 70. A 71. C 72. D
73. D 74. D 75. A 76. C
77. B 78. C 79. A 80. C
81. C 82. C 83. B 84. D
85. B 86. C 87. D 88. A
89. B 90. D
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6. V2
Resistance, R R1 R2
P
(220)2
R1 1936 i
25
220 V
(220)2
R2 484
100
220 1
i A
R1 R 2 11
Power dissipated through R1 = P1 = i2R1 = 16 W
Power dissipated through R2 = P2 = i2R2 = 4 W
7. x=a L
x=0
x dx
1 1
= G A BL
a aL
So, force = mE
1 1
= Gm A BL
a aL
8. Image by convex lens:
1 1 1 1 1 1
;
v u f v 20 5
20
v cm
3
Image by concave lens:
20 14
u 2 cm
3 3
1 1 1 1 3 1
;
v u f v 14 5
v = 70 cm
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9. d d
d h = d d = 3d.
2 2
d/2
d S h
L L
d/2
1
10. I 0E02C …(i)
2
1
0.96 I = E02 V …(ii)
2
2
E v
0.96 0
E0 0 C
2
E 1
0.96 0
E0 0 1.5
2
E 1
0.96 0 r …(iii)
E0 1.5
1 C
and v ; v
o o r r r r
C
; r 1.5
r r ; r 1 for transparent medium.
v
From equation (iii)
2
E 1
0.96 o (1.5)2 1.5
Eo
Eo 24 V /m
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-22
2m
(L. L)
m L
2L, 2
X
m 5L
2 , 0
2m r1 m r2 m r3
rcm
4m
ˆ m 2L ˆi L ˆj m 5L ˆi
2m(L ˆi Lj)
2 2
rcm
4m
13 ˆ 5 ˆ
L i Lj
= 2 2
4
13 ˆ 5 ˆ
= Li Lj
8 8
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-23
Mm v1 M m
And v1 v ;
M m v Mm
1 cos 1 M m
1 cos o M m
Sin ( 1 / 2) M m
1 cos 2 2 sin2
Sin (0 / 2) M m
1 M m
o M m
M1 + m1 = Mo – mo
o
M m 1
o 1
17. AC = 100
AC + Am = 160
AC – Am = 40
AC = 100, Am = 60
A
m 0.6
AC
Pitch
19. Least count =
No. of divisions on circular scale
103
5 10 6
N
N = 200
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-24
i
21. B 2 o (cos 1 cos 2 )
4nd
B = 10–4 1 = 90°
–7
o = 4 × 10 2 = 180°
d = 4 × 10–2
i = 20 A (into the page)
1 2
22. U kr
2
dU
Force, F kr
dr
mv 2
For circular motion kr …(i)
r
nh
And mvr …(ii)
2
nh
r2
2 km
r n
Total energy, E = k + U
1 1
= mv 2 kr 2
2 2
1 2 1 2
= kr kr [From equation (i)]
2 2
2
E = kr
En
23. mP = m qp = q kp = qV = k
m = 4 m q = 2q k = 2qV = 2k
Radius of circular path,
mv 2km
r
qB qB
rP 1
r 2
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-25
2 4 4
= (R r )
4
m
= 2 2
(R4 – r4)
(R r ) 2
m 2 2
I = (R r ) …(i)
2
Moment of inertia of thin cylinder of same mass,
I = mro2 …(ii)
m 2 2
mro2 (R r )
2
ro2 = 250 ; ro 16 cm.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-26
Energy stored,
1 E C
Ui CE2
2
and charge stored,
Q = CE
After switch is shifted:
N
C 4C
3C
Q CE E
VM VN
4C 4C 4
2
1 E 1
Energy stored, Uf (4C) CE 2
2 4 8
3
Energy dissipated = Ui – Uf = CE2
8
27. v vy
v After
m m 2m
Collision vx
2mvx = mv
v
vx
2
v
vy
2
v
v net v x 2 v y 2
2
So, path will be elliptical.
KVL 5
220 iR
iR i i
25 5 220 5 R V iR i 25
25 5
G
i/5
iR i i R
25 5 220 5 R i(220 R) From eq. (i)
V
R = 22
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-27
h
29.
2mqV
P 4 1 2500
10 2 14.14
1 1 50
30. Ui + Ki = Uf + Kf
kQ 2 kQ 2 1
O mv 2
2R0 2R 2
kQ2 1 1
V
m R0 R
PART B – CHEMISTRY
31. Cathode is made up of carbon.
33.
A 2 B
2C D
Initially conc. a 1.5a
at eq. a–x 1.5(a–2x) 2x x
at equilibrium a–x = 1.5a – 2x
0.5a = x
a = 2x
2
2x x 4x 2 .x
kC 2
2
4
a x 1.5a 2x x x
34. Amount of gas adsorbed TC
35. Organometalic compound contains at least one chemical bond between carbon and a
metal.
36. CN CHO
O OH
i DBAL H E Cb
O
1
ii H3 O CHO
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-28
38. Photochemical smog is produced when ultraviolet light from sun reacts with oxides of
nitrogen in atmosphere.
39. H2O is weak field ligand and magnetic moment = Moment n n 2 BM
Solving for ‘n’ we get it as 3; i.e., no. of unpaired electron = 3
Fe2+ = t2g4eg2
Co2+ = t2g5eg2
V2+ = t2g3eg0
M is V, Co
40. CP does not changes with change in pressure
42. Lone pair over nitrogen will act as the reacting centre. So, more nucleophilic nitrogen will
be more reactive towards alkyl halide.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-29
49. Given K3[Co(CN)6] is inner orbital complex with hybridization d2sp3 and octahedral
geometry. Ligands are approaching metal along the axes. Hence, dx2 y2 , dz2 orbitals are
directly in front of the ligands.
50. According to unit of rate constant it is a zero order reaction then half life of reaction will
be
C 5g
t1/2 0 = 50 years
2k 2 0.05g / year
52. Cl
H3 CO H3 CO
2Cl / CCl
4
Cl
Cl
Anhyd. AlCl H3 CO
3
H3 CO
Cl
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-30
1
54. Rate
Steric Crowding
55.
A s
B g C g k P1 x atm2
P1 P1 P2
D s
C g E g k P2 y atm2
P1 P2 P2
k P1 P1 P1 P2
k P2 P2 P1 P2
2
kP1 kP2 P1 P2
x + y (P1 + P2)2
P1 P2 x y
2 P1 P2 x y
PTotal PB PC PE = 2 P1 P2 2 x y
56.
57.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-31
60. Clean water has BOD value of less than 5 ppm and highly polluted water has a BOD
value of 17 ppm or more.
PART C – MATHEMATICS
61. 1 x y z 0
x 1 y z 0
x y 2z 0
1 1
D 1 1
2
C1 C1 C2 C3
1 1
D 2 1 1 1
1 2
R2 R 2 R1, R 3 R3 R1
1 1
D 2 0 1 0 2
0 0 1
For unique solution 2 0 2
a
62. Let the numbers be ,a,ar
r
3
Given a 512 a 8
8
Now given 4, 12,8r are in A.P.
r
2
2r 5r 2 0
1
r or 2
2
Numbers are 4, 8, 16 or 16, 8, 4
Sum of numbers = 4 + 8 + 16 = 28
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-32
66.
A 2 12 2 (0, 12)
dA
d
0 2 12 3 2 0 2 ,12 2
,12 2
A 4 12 4 32
,0 ,0
1 1 1 1 1
68. D 1 1 , R1 R2 R3 2 1 1 ,
1 1 1 1
1 0 0
2
C3 C3 C1 and C2 C2 C1, 2 1 1 0 2 1 0
1 0 1
Hence sum of distinct value of 2 1 1
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-33
m 64 Q (9, 6)
69. PQ 2 X
94
1 1
2yy ' 4 2y 2 4 y 1, x , X , 1
4 4
(Coordinates of points X for maximum area)
125
area sq. units.
4 P (4, –4)
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0
70. P 6 1 0 P 9 1 0 . P5
2 3
15 1 0
27 6 1 54 9 1 135 15 1
1 0 0 1 0 0 2 0 0
Q 15 1 0 0 1 0 15
2 0
135 15 1 0 0 1 135 15 2
q q31 15 135
So 21 10
q32 15
dy 1
71. y log x
dx x
dx
I.F. e x x
yx xn x dx
x2 x
xy nx dx
2 2
2 2
x x
xy n C
2 4
Putting x 2
n 4 1 1 c
n2
2 2 2
c 0
x x
y n x
2 4
e e e
y e
2 4 4
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-34
(0, 2)
(0, 1)
(0, 0) (3, 0)
73. P _ _ _ 44
P 4 _ _ 44 P not4 _ _ 44
1 5 5 1 1 5 5 1 1 25 25 175
1 5 4 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
75. 5 sin 3cos
6
5 sin cos cos sin 3 cos
6 6
5 3 1
sin cos
2 2
2
5 3 1 2 76
Maximum value is 19
2 2 4
76. tan1 2x tan1 3x
4
2x 3x
Taking tangent on both side, we get 1
1 6x 2
6x 2 5x 1 0 x 1 6x 1 0
1
x {–1 is rejected as it does not satisfies the given equation}
6
Hence number of element in S is one.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-35
2
2
2
m m 4 2
2 3.
2
3m 3m
m2 8m 2 0
m 43 2
So least value of m 4 3 2
78. 3x 4y 0
7 31 0 (since centres lie opposite side)
7,31 ……………(1)
7 31
1 and 2
5 5
7 5 and 31 10
2 or 12 …………….(2)
and 21 or 41 …………….(3)
1 2 3
12, 21
80. By parts
x
I x cos log x sin log x dx
x
I x cos log x sin log x dx
I x cos log x x sin log x cos log x dx c
x
I
2
cos log x sin log x c
4
1
10
C4 26/3
5 th term frombegining 2 31/3
81.
5 th term from end
6
10 4/3 1
C4 2
2
31/3
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-36
k 1
82. Sk
2
10 2
k 1 5
k 1 2
12
A
5A
22 32 .......112
3
11 12 23 5A
1
6 3
3
505 A
5
A = 303
x i 30 50 50
x i
31
50
a a
86. I f x g x dx f a x g a x dx
0 0
b b
f x dx f a b x dx
a a
a a a
f x 4 g x dx I 4 f x dx I I 2 f x dx
0 0 0
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (12th Jan-First Shift)-PCM-37
im
3cot 2 x cos ec 2 x sec 2 x
8
x
4 sin x
4
z z
88.
z z
zz z z 2 zz z z 2
2
2 z
2
x2 y2
90. Equation of hyperbola is 1 and ae = 3
4 b2
We know that a 2e 2 a2 b 2
9 4 b2 b 2 5
x2 y2 (-3, 0) (-2, 0)
Hence equation of hyperbola is 1
4 5
x2 y2
Hence 6, 5 2 does not lie on
4
5
1
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