Chapter 14 Questions
Chapter 14 Questions
1) Which of the following is an account that is not affected by the sales and collection cycle?
A) cash
B) accounts receivable
C) allowance for doubtful accounts
D) accounts payable
2) The auditor's objectives for the sales and cash collections activities when the client is
primarily an e-commerce business as compared to a "brick and mortar" business are
A) unchanged.
B) expanded.
C) mitigated.
D) decreased.
4) The sales and collection cycle applies to businesses that sell goods to customers or provide
services to customers.
1) Which of the following is not one of the five classes of transactions included in the sales and
collection cycle?
A) sales returns and allowances
B) write-off of uncollectible accounts
C) bad debt expense
D) interest income
5) What critical event must take place before goods can be shipped in order to assure payment
can be reasonably expected?
A) determination of correct delivery address
B) credit approval
C) matching of shipping document with sales invoice
D) receipt of sales order from the customer
7) One type of shipping document is the ________, which is a written contract between the
carrier and the seller of the receipt and shipment of goods.
A) sales order
B) bill of lading
C) sales invoice
D) customer order
8) The document used to indicate to the customer the amount of a sale and payment due date is
the
A) sales invoice.
B) bill of lading.
C) purchase order.
D) sales order.
9) Which of the following is not an important aspect of billing?
A) All shipments made have been billed.
B) No shipment has been billed more than once.
C) Each customer is billed for the proper amount.
D) Credit is approved to customers for sales on account.
11) Which of the following is not a business function within the "Sales" class of transactions?
A) processing customer orders
B) granting credit
C) processing and recording sales returns and allowances
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D) shipping goods
12) The total of the individual account balances in the accounts receivable master file should
equal the
A) total sales for the period.
B) balance of the sales account in the general ledger.
C) total sales less the total cash received for the period.
D) balance of the accounts receivable account in the general ledger.
13) In the accounts receivable master file, the length of time the account has been due can be
useful to the client and the auditor in preparing the
A) trial balance.
B) working trial balance.
C) accounts receivable trial balance.
D) aged accounts receivable trial balance.
14) A document sent to each customer showing his or her beginning accounts receivable balance
and the amount and date of each sale, cash payment received, any debit or credit memo issued,
and the ending balance is the
A) accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.
B) monthly statement.
C) remittance advice.
D) sales invoice.
16) A ________ indicates a reduction in the amount due from a customer because of returned
goods or an allowance.
A) bill of lading
B) sales invoice
C) credit memo
D) monthly statement
17) A ________ is a list prepared when cash is received by someone who has no responsibility
for recording sales, accounts receivable, or cash, and who has no access to the accounting
records.
A) prelisting of cash receipts.
B) sales invoice.
C) packing ticket.
D) vendor invoice.
18) When dealing with the processing and recording of cash receipts,
A) the most important concern is the theft of cash.
B) theft can only occur before the receipts are entered into the records.
C) cash receipts should be deposited at least monthly.
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D) the monthly statement is used to prepare the cash receipts journal.
19) Some companies have customers send payments directly to an address maintained by a bank.
This is called a(n) ________ system.
A) direct deposit
B) funds transfer
C) lockbox
D) interbank transfer
20) Which of the following is a business function related to sales returns and allowances?
A) processing customer orders
B) writing off uncollectible accounts
C) processing and recording credit memos
D) granting credit
21) For a firm that practices good internal controls in the sales and collections cycle, the function
of indicating credit approval should be recorded on which of the following documents?
A) sales order
B) sales invoice
C) customer order
D) remittance advice
22) When posting items sold on account from the sales journal
A)
Details of the journal are posted to Journal totals are posted to
The sales account The general ledger
B)
Details of the journal are posted to Journal totals are posted to
The sales account The accounts receivable subsidiary ledger
C)
Details of the journal are posted to Journal totals are posted to
The accounts receivable master file The general ledger
D)
Details of the journal are posted to Journal totals are posted to
The accounts receivable account in the The sales account in the general ledger
general ledger
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23) Which document or record is used in the write-off of uncollectible accounts classes of
transactions?
A) general journal
B) remittance advice
C) sales transaction file
D) sales order
24) Who is generally responsible for opening receipts when a company uses a lockbox to speed
the handling of cash receipts?
A) company personnel
B) temporary employees in the town where the lockbox is located
C) bank employees
D) company controller
25) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the shipment of goods?
A) The shipping document must be in paper form.
B) The shipping document is used to update the perpetual inventory records.
C) Only one copy of the shipping document is needed.
D) All of the above are correct statements.
27) Explain each of the following types of documents and indicate the class of transactions in
which they are commonly used.
1. customer order
2. shipping document
3. remittance advice
4. sales returns and allowance journal
5. uncollectible account authorization form
28) You are an audit manager for Rodgers & Co. and have recently taken on a new client,
Manufacturing Company. You are in the initial stages of planning the audit and have decided to
start gathering information about the sales/collection cycle of the business. List below the classes
of transactions that you need to gather audit evidence for in designing your audit procedures.
29) Customer billing is a critical process which auditors must understand. What are the most
important aspects of billing and what are the related objectives?
30) Discuss the four business functions that result in sales transactions in a typical sales and
collection cycle and, for each function, state the key documents and records involved.
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31) Match seven of the terms for documents and records (a-k) with the descriptions provided
below (1-7):
________ 1. A list prepared when cash is received by someone who has no responsibility for
recording sales, accounts receivable, or cash, and has no access to the accounting records. It is
used to verify whether cash received was recorded and deposited at the correct amounts and on a
timely basis.
________ 2. A document indicating a reduction in the amount due from a customer because of
returned goods or an allowance.
________ 3. A document prepared to initiate shipment of goods, indicating the description of the
merchandise, the quantity shipped, and other relevant data. It is a written contract between the
carrier and seller of the receipt and shipment of goods.
________ 4. A document for communicating the description, quantity, and related information
for goods ordered by a customer. This is frequently used to indicate credit approval and
authorization for shipment.
________ 5. A document mailed to the customer and typically returned to the seller with the cash
payment.
________ 7. A document or electronic record indicating the description and quantity of goods
sold, the price, freight charges, insurance, terms, and other relevant data.
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True false questions
32) A sales invoice is a document that usually indicates credit approval.
35) The receipt of a customer order from a customer is the starting point for the entire sales and
collection cycle.
36) The preparation of a sales invoice is the final step in the sales and collection cycle.
37) A bill of lading is a special type of sales invoice used when goods are shipped interstate.
38) The shipping point is critical because it is the first point at which company assets are released
to another party.
39) A bill of lading is a written contract between the seller and the buyer.
40) In a lockbox system, bank employees are responsible for opening cash receipts and
maintaining records of all payments made by customers at the lockbox address.
41) Sales transactions are the result of the following five functions in the sales and collection
cycle: processing customer orders, granting credit, shipping goods, billing customers, and
recording sales.
42) The prelisting of cash receipts should be prepared by the individual who has primary
responsibility for the recording of cash receipts.
43) A credit memo is a document used internally that indicates authority to write-off an account
receivable as uncollectible.
44) If a company uses a periodic inventory system, the shipping records are used to update the
inventory quantities.
45) The sales journal is generated from the sales transaction file.
46) When customers purchase goods by credit card, the issuer of the credit card uses EFT to
transfer funds into the company's bank account.
47) The theft of cash can occur before receipts are entered in the records or after they are entered
in the records.
1) When designing audit procedures, tracing of source documents to the customers subsidiary
ledger and subsequently to the general ledger is done to satisfy what assertion?
A) valuation
B) cutoff
C) completeness
D) classification
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2) When assessing risk control, the auditor must do all of the following except
A) assess control risk for each objective by evaluating the controls and deficiencies for each
objective.
B) perform the detailed test of balances.
C) identify the key internal controls and deficiencies.
D) associate the key controls and deficiencies with the objectives.
3) When sales invoices are automatically calculated and posted by a computer, the auditor may
be able to reduce substantive tests of transactions for which, if any, assertion?
A) accuracy
B) existence
C) completeness
D) none of the above
4) In many audits, no substantive tests of transactions are made for the ________ assertion on the
grounds that understatement of sales is not a concern.
A) accuracy
B) existence
C) completeness
D) none of the above
5) Which one the following procedures performed for the billing function provides evidence for
the completeness assertion?
A) making sure that all shipments have been billed
B) making sure that no shipment has been billed more than twice
C) making sure that each shipment is billed at the correct amount
D) making sure that each shipment is billed to the proper customer
8) Which of the following is not a key control for sales and cash receipts?
A) active board of directors
B) adequate separation of duties
C) internal verification procedures
D) adequate documents and records
9) Which one of the following statements is true? In deciding on substantive tests of transactions
A) some procedures are commonly employed on every audit regardless of the circumstances.
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B) all procedures are dependent on the adequacy of the controls and the results of the tests of
controls.
C) results obtained in the prior year's audit will not affect the procedures used this year.
D) the materiality of the item will not influence the choice of procedures used.
10) To test for recorded sales for which there were no actual shipments, the auditor vouches from
the
A) bill of lading to the sales journal.
B) sales journal to the shipping documents.
C) sales journal to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.
D) bill of lading to the supporting customer order and sales order.
11) An effective procedure to test for unfilled shipments is to trace from the
A) sales journal to the shipping documents.
B) shipping documents to the sales journal.
C) sales journal to the accounts receivable ledger.
D) sales journal to the general ledger sales account.
12) The auditor traces items from the source documents to the journals in order to accumulate
audit evidence that will satisfy the
A) existence objective.
B) completeness objective.
C) ownership objective.
D) valuation objective.
13) In many audits of sales transactions substantive tests of transactions can be reduced in
determining the completeness objective because
A) understatements of assets and income are a greater concern than overstatements.
B) overstatements of assets and income are a greater concern than understatements.
C) it doesn't matter if income is understated because the savings on income tax offsets the
reduced revenue and net income is correct.
D) the unrecorded sales cause a reduction of accounts receivable; therefore, the ratios of the two
financial statements will not be misleading.
14) To determine that sales are accurately recorded, the unit prices on the duplicate sales invoices
are normally compared with
A) the original invoices.
B) an approved master price list.
C) the amounts recorded in the sales journal for that transaction.
D) the amounts posted to the customer's account in the accounts receivable master file.
B)
Prevent the failure to bill or Prevent duplicate billings or
record sales recordings of sales
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No No
C)
Prevent the failure to bill or Prevent duplicate billings or
record sales recordings of sales
Yes No
D)
Prevent the failure to bill or Prevent duplicate billings or
record sales recordings of sales
No Yes
20) An auditor needs to determine whether all customers of an electric utility company are being
billed. The auditor should test from the
A) sales register to the accounts receivable ledger.
B) sales register to the meter department records.
C) accounts receivable ledger to the sales register.
D) meter department records to the sales register.
21) Which one of the following would the auditor consider to be an incompatible operation if the
cashier receives remittances from the mail room?
A) The cashier prepares the daily deposit.
B) The cashier makes the daily deposit at a local bank.
C) The cashier posts the receipts to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger cards.
D) The cashier endorses the checks.
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22) Which of the following is the appropriate point at which the auditor deems authorization to
be critical?
A)
Credit granting Price authorization Shipment of goods
Yes Yes Yes
B)
Credit granting Price authorization Shipment of goods
Yes No Yes
C)
Credit granting Price authorization Shipment of goods
No Yes No
D)
Credit granting Price authorization Shipment of goods
Yes No No
23) Which of the following would least concern an auditor regarding the lack of a specific
authorization to conduct the sales transaction?
A) granting of credit
B) shipment of goods
C) determination of discounts
D) selling of goods for cash
24) As a test of control, the auditor examines sales invoices for supporting documents. The
relevant transaction-related audit objective is
A) accuracy.
B) occurrence.
C) classification.
D) timing.
25) The accurate recording of sales transactions concerns all of the following except for
A) proper credit authorization.
B) shipping the amount of goods ordered.
C) accurately billing for the amount of goods shipped.
D) accurately recording the amount billed in the accounting records.
26) In designing substantive audit procedures for tests of transactions for sales, the auditor needs
to test for evidence of misstatements due to errors or fraud. Describe two potential errors
(unintentional) and one intentional (fraud).
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27) For each of the following potential misstatements, provide one potential audit test that could
be used to detect the misstatement.
• sales included in the journals for which there was no shipment
• sale recorded more than once
• shipments made to nonexistent customers and recorded as sales
28) The auditor is concerned about authorization at three key points. What are the key points?
30) Tracing from source documents to the journal is useful for testing the existence objective.
31) The extent of tests of controls in audits of nonpublic companies depends on the effectiveness
of the controls and the extent to which the auditor believes they can be relied on to reduce
control risk.
32) For each key control, one or more tests of controls must be designed to verify its
effectiveness.
33) Misstatements involving the completeness objective for sales lead to overstatements of assets
and income.
34) Violations of the occurrence/existence objective for sales are of greater concern to the auditor
than violations of the completeness objective.
35) An effective procedure to test the occurrence/existence objective for sales is to vouch sales
journal entries to copies of sales orders, shipping documents, and sales invoices.
36) For each significant internal control deficiency identified by the auditor, he or she should
design one or more tests of controls to assess the extent of the deficiency and its effect on the
financial statements.
37) The appropriate tests of controls for separation of duties are ordinarily restricted to the
auditor's observations of activities and discussions with personnel.
38) Auditing standard indicate that if the auditor identifies a significant risk at the assertion level,
the auditor is not required to perform substantive procedures.
1) Except for two key differences, the transaction-related audit objectives are essentially the
same for the processing of credit memos as they are for sales. Which of the following are the two
key differences?
A) risk and emphasis on the completeness objective
B) materiality and emphasis on the accuracy objective
C) risk and emphasis on the classification objective
D) materiality and emphasis on the occurrence objective
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2) Smith Manufacturing Company's accounts receivable clerk has a friend who is also a customer
of Smith Manufacturing. The accounts receivable clerk has issued fictitious credit memos to his
friend for goods supposedly returned. The most effective procedure for preventing this activity is
to
A) prenumber and account for all credit memorandums.
B) require receiving reports that provide evidence of returned inventory items to support all
credit memorandums before they are approved.
C) have independent sales and accounts receivable departments.
D) mail monthly statements to customers.
3) The transaction-related audit objectives and the client's methods of controlling misstatements
are essentially the same for credit memos as for sales with the exception of two differences.
What are the two differences from the auditor's perspective?
5) Sales returns and allowances are often ignored by auditors because they are often immaterial.
6) When auditing sales returns and allowances, the emphasis is normally on testing the
completeness objective.
1) When an employee who is authorized to make customer entries in the accounts receivable
subsidiary ledger purposefully enters cash received into the wrong customer's account that
employee may be suspected of
A) kiting.
B) lapping.
C) floating.
D) shorting.
2) An audit procedure that compares the name, amount, and dates shown on remittance advices
with cash receipts journal entries and with related duplicate deposit slips would be effective in
detecting
A) kiting.
B) lapping.
C) unauthorized write-offs of customers as uncollectible accounts.
D) sales without proper credit authorization.
3) Which of the following tests of controls is useful to test the transaction-related audit objective
of posting and summarization?
A) Observe whether monthly statements are sent.
B) Observe unrecorded cash at a point in time.
C) Observe whether the accountant reconciles the bank account.
D) Observe endorsement of incoming checks.
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4) The audit procedure referred to as proof of cash receipts is particularly useful to test
A) time lags in making deposits.
B) whether all recorded cash receipts have been deposited in the bank.
C) whether there are cash receipts that have not been recorded in the journals.
D) the client's reconciliation between cash receipts and bank deposits.
5) Which of the following test of controls is useful to test the completeness objective for cash
receipts?
A) Compare shipping documents with sales records.
B) Observe endorsement of incoming checks.
C) Examine evidence that the receivable master file is reconciled to the general ledger.
D) Observe if the client reconciles the bank account.
6) When designing tests of controls and substantive tests of transactions for cash receipts, it is
important to remember that
A) the test of controls are designed to test for monetary misstatements.
B) auditors use the same methodology for designing tests of controls and substantive tests of
transactions for cash receipts as they use for sales.
C) the tests of controls are not dependent on the controls the auditor identifies.
D) the tests of controls is not dependent on whether the company being audited is publicly
traded.
7) Cash receipts from sales on account have been misappropriated. Which of the following acts
would conceal this fraud and be least likely to be detected by an auditor?
A) understating the sales journal by not recording cash sales
B) overstating the accounts receivable control account by intentionally misstating prices charged
for goods sold
C) overstating the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger by not recording payments made by
customers
D) understating the cash receipts journal by purposely recording incorrect amounts
8) Which of the following would offer the best protection for a company that wishes to prevent a
reoccurrence of a previously detected "lapping" problem with trade accounts receivable?
A) Separate duties so that the bookkeeper in charge of the general ledger has no access to
incoming mail.
B) Separate duties so that no employee has access to both checks from customers and currency
from daily cash receipts.
C) Have a mandatory vacation policy for employees who both handle cash and enter cash
receipts into the system.
D) Request that customer's payment checks be made payable to the company and addressed to
the treasurer.
9) The most difficult type of cash embezzlement for auditors to detect is when it occurs
A) after the merchandise has been shipped.
B) before the merchandise has been shipped.
C) before the cash is recorded in the cash receipts journal or other cash listing.
D) after the cash is recorded in the cash receipts journal or other cash listing.
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10) The completeness transaction-related audit objective must be considered when determining
key controls for sales. List three of the key controls that must be considered when cash received
is recorded in the cash receipts journal.
11) Explain what lapping means, and discuss the internal control deficiency that allows it to
occur. Also discuss the procedures the auditor can perform to detect lapping.
12) You are part of the audit team that is auditing Hillsburg Hardware Co. and you have been
assigned to the sales and collection cycle. You are testing whether the cash receipts are deposited
and recorded at the amounts received (accuracy objective). List two tests of controls and one test
of transactions that you would do to satisfy yourself regarding the accuracy objective.
13) In planning the audit, an auditor takes three basic steps in determining the audit procedures
to be performed for any business cycle or class of transactions in order to gather audit evidence
concerning possible misstatement due to error or fraud. List those three basic steps below.
1) The auditor's primary concern in performing audit procedures of the write-off of uncollectible
accounts relates to the risk that the client writes off customer accounts that have already been
collected. The primary control for preventing this fraud is
A) examining authorized credit memos.
B) examining the uncollectible account authorization form.
C) examining debit memos.
D) examining the vouchers payable register.
1) The most significant effect of the results of the tests of controls and substantive tests of
transactions in the sales and collection cycle is on
A) bad debt expense.
B) the analytical tests to be performed.
C) the confirmation of accounts receivable.
D) the impact of processing cash receipts.
2) At the completion of the tests of controls and substantive tests of transactions, auditors must
analyze each exception to determine its cause and the implication of the exception on assessed
control risk.
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