Micro-Para Answer Key-BLUE PACOP
Micro-Para Answer Key-BLUE PACOP
Micro-Para Answer Key-BLUE PACOP
1. According to the frequency of occurrence, a disease that is acquired by many in a given area in a short time
is
A. Sporadic C. Epidemic
B. Endemic D. Pandemic
2. The opaque whitish liquid secreted by mammary gland which gives infants certain degree of immunity to
some infectious diseases.
A. Colesterum C. Colostomy
B. Colostrom D. Colostrum
5. This antibody optimizes bacteria, fixes complement, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses and it is the
only bacteria that crosses the placenta.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA E. IgD
C. IgG
6. Which antibody mediates type 1 hypersensitivity and also mediates immunity to worm infections.
A. IgM D. IgE
B. IgA C. IgD
C. IgG
9. Transplant rejection that occurs months to years after transplantation and the damage is irreversible
A. Acute rejection C. Hyperacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection D. Superacute rejection
18. Molecules are present on the surface of B cells but not on T cells include
A. A receptor for sheep RBCs and another for pokeweed mitogen
B. IgM and IgD plus receptors for the C3 component of complement
C. CD4 + and CD8+
D. TCR receptor and CD28
20. Macrophages
A. First appear in the blood as immature T cells
B. Mature into plasma cells
C. Are major source of specific immunoglobulin
D. None of these
31. The ability of the immune system to deal with a tumor is influenced by the
A. Location of the tumor
B. Ability of the tumor to change its surface antigen
C. Ability of the tumor to secrete blocking factors
D. All of these
33. A 27 year old white man returning from a 2 – month active duty in Panama was hospitalized with chills and
fever, and a unilateral conjunctivitis with facial edema and regional lymphagitis. Stained thin blood smears
revealed extracellular trypomastigotes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. African trypanosoniasis
B. Babesiosis
C. Chaga’s disease
D. Malaria
E. Lymphatic filariasis
34. Opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients may include all of the following except
A. Acanthamebic keratitis D. Protracted cryptosporidiosis
B. Chronic granulomatous acanthamebic E. Reactivation
Encephalitis
C. Disseminated strongylodiasis
35. In a young child with a history of recurrent febrile illness, transient pneumonitis, hypereosinophilia, and
hepatomegaly, which of the folloing should always be included in the differential diagnosis:
A. Amebic liver disease D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Clonorchiasis E. Unilocular hydatid disease
C. Hepatic schistosomiasis
36. Progressive dyspnea resulting from the alveolocapillary blockage caused by asexually reproducing
trophozoites that fail to evoke a tissue macrophage response describe the pathogenicity of
A. Cystecercosis D. Pulmonary ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis E. Pulmonary schistosomiasis
C. Pneumocystosis
37. Enterobiasis, strongylodiasis and hymenolepiasis have which of the following in common
A. Autoinfection D. Nonpathogenic
B. Filariform larvae E. Zoonoses
C. Nematodes
38. Because of the primary exoerythrocytic cycle of schizogony cannot be repeated, I is necessary to treat
the infection with only an erythrocytic schizonticidal drug in which of the following?
A. Leishmania donovani D. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium falciparum E. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Plasmodium vivax
39. A 3-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and anemia secondary to a long
term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse. Numerous
white worms were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. The patient was
successfully treated with mebendazole without further complications. What was the diagnosis?
A. Dwarf tapeworm D. Visceral larva migrans
B. Hookworm E. Whipworm
C. Pinworm
40. The infective larval stage in fascioliasis, fasciolopsiasis, clonorchiasis and paragonimiasis that is
encysted on certain plant and animal foods is called
A. Cercaria D. Metacercaria
B. Cesticercoid E. Plerocercoid
C. Filariform
41. Rhabditiform larvae in unstained fecal smears is the usual diagnostic finding in
A. Ascariasis D. Strongyloidiasis
B. Enterobiasi E. Trichuriasis
C. Hookworm
42. Finding intraerythrocytic trophozoite, schizont and gametocyte stages in stained thin blood smears
during febrile periods is the usual means of diagnosis of
A. African trypanosomiasis D. Toxoplasmacosis
B. American trypanosomiasis E. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
44. Liquid wastes conducted from residence together with ground surface or rain water is known as
A. Garbage C. Refuse
B. Sewage D. Rubbish
46. The time interval between the infection of a susceptible person and the appearance of symptoms of the
disease
A. Prodromal period C. Period of illness
B. Incubation period D. Convalescence period
47. The simplest and most efficient method of providing specific protection against a communicable disease
A. Disinfection C. Artificial active immunization
B. Vaccination D. Passive immunization
48. A toxoid is
A. Endotoxin C. Attenuated toxin
B. Exotoxin D. Poison
49. Disease that is prevalent in the usual number in a given population and there is no increase in the
number of cases
A. Prevalent C. Pandemic
B. Endemic D. Sporadic
51. The process of all elimination of all microbes from a material by physical means
A. Sanitation C. Sterilization
B. Disinfection D. Antisepsis
56. Waste materials such as bottles, broken glass, tin cans, are called
A. Refuse D. Garbage
B. Sewage E. Night soil
C. Rubbish
57. Expressed as a percentage or the number of persons diagnosed as having a specified disease who died
as a result of that disease:
A. Mortality rate C. Morbidity rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Incidence rate
62. The phase of pre-pathogenesis in the natural history of disease starts when
A. When the disease agent enters human host
B. Agent, host, environment interact
C. When signs and symptoms appear
D. When host recover from the disease
63. Deals with the data and laws of human mortality, morbidity and natality
A. Statistics C. Biostatistics
B. Epidemiology D. Ecology
64. An insect vector which harbor part of the life cycle of the infective agent
A. Mechanical C. Biological
B. Artificial D. None
65. Restoration of the disabled to useful place in society with maximum use of his remaining capabilities
A. Public health C. Primary care
B. Rehabilitation D. Senior citizen
66. Class of antibody which is present in mucous membranes and in body secretions
A. IgA C. IgE
B. IgD D. IgG
67. Metals that have been associated with an increase incidence of lung cancer in occupationally exposed
workers include:
A. Copper C. Iron
B. Chromium D. Silver
69. Workers associated with occupational exposure to lead include all of the following except
A. Battery makers C. Coal miners
B. Painters D. Gasoline station attendant
70. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of acquiring cancers of all of the following except
A. Liver C. Esophagus
B. Larynx D. Pancreas
72. One of the most useful index to measure the risk of transfer of infection in a community is
A. Survival rate C. Cause specific death rate
B. Case fatality rate D. Secondary attack rate
82. Which of the following scientists hypothesized that a bactericidal colony arises from a single bacterial
cell?
A. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek C. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur D. Richard Petri
83. Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens?
A. Edward Jenner B. John Snow
B. Joseph Lister D. Ignaz Semmelweis
84. A cell may allow a large or charged chemical to move across the cytoplasmic membrane, down the
chemical’s electrochemical gradient, in a process called
A. Active transport C. Endocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Pinocytosis
85. Which of the following statements concerning growth and reproduction is not true?
A. Growth and reproduction may occur simultaneously in living organisms.
B. A living organism must reproduce to be considered alive.
C. Living things may stop growing and reproducing, yet still alive.
D. Normally, living organisms have the ability to grow and reproduce themselves.
89. Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gram-
negative?
A. Flagella C. Cilia
B. Cell wall D. Glycocalyx
94. Coenzymes
A. Are types of apoenzymes C. Are inorganic cofactors
B. Are proteins D. Are organic cofactors
96. Which of the following does not affect the function of enzymes?
A. Ubiquinone C. Temperature
B. Substrate concentration D. Competitive inhibitors
98. Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP
molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0
99. Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose by a bacterium allows a
net gain of how many ATP molecules?
A. 2 C. 38
B. 4 D. 0
102. Which of the following terms best describes an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen?
A. Obligate aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe
B. Facultative aerobe D. Facultative anaerobe
104. The most reactive of the four toxic forms of oxygen is the
A. Hydroxyl radical C. Superoxide radical
B. Peroxide anion D. Singlet oxygen
105. Microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of
oxygen are called
A. Aerotolerant C. Facultative anaerobes
B. Capnophiles D. Fastidious
106. Which of the following is not a growth factor for various microbes?
A. Cholesterol C. Vitamins
B. Water D. Heme
107. Organisms that may be found thriving in icy waters are described as
A. Barophiles C. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles D. Psychrophiles
108. Barophiles
A. Cannot cause diseases in humans C. Die if put under high pressure
B. Live at normal barometric pressure D. Thrive in warm air
109. This statement, “In the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop moved across the agar surface in a culture
dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals,” describes which of the following?
A. Broth culture C. Streak plate
B. Pour plate D. Dilution plate
111. Which of the following methods is best for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety
of the water for drinking?
A. Dry weight C. Viable plate counts
B. Turbidity D. Membrane filtration
116. Which of the following substances or processes kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces?
A. Antiseptics C. Degermers
B. Disinfectants D. Paseurization
117. Which of the following terms best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates?
A. Pasteurization C. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis D. Sanitization
119. Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?
A. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage
B. An antimicrobial agent is fast acting
C. Ideal microbial agents do not exist
D. All of the above
121. The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization?
A. Bacillus staerothermophilus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus
122. Which of the following substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes in a deep wound?
A. Phenol C. Isopropanol
B. Hexachlorophene D. Hydrogen peroxide
123. Which of the following adjectives best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial
contaminants?
A. Disinfected C. Degermed
B. Sanitized D. Aseptic
124. A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been
destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event?
A. Thermal death point C. Decimal reduction time
B. Thermal death time D. None of the above
125. In Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing
antimicrobial agents indicates
A. That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents
B. That the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents
C. The smallest amount of the agent that will inhibit the growth of the microbe
D. The minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question
127. Which of the following is most closely associated with a B-lactam ring?
A. Penicillin C. Bacitracin
B. Vancomycin D. Isoniazid
129. The type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade of cells is called
A. Pleomorphic division C. Snapping division
B. Endospore formation D. Binary fission
130. The thick-walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments are called
A. Akinetes C. Metachromatic granules
B. Terminal enospores D. Myxospores
131. Which of the following terms best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cell?
A. Cocci C. Spirilla
B. Bacilli D. Spirochetes
132. Endospores
A. Can remain alive for decades
B. Can remain alive in boiling water
C. Live in a state of suspended animation
D. All of the above
134. Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis?
A. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
C. Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
135. Multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called
A. Myoses C. Haustoria
B. Coenocytes D. Pseudohypa
136. Branched, tubular filaments with crosswalls found in large fungi are
A. Septate hyphae C. Aseptate haustoria
B. Aseptate hyphae D. Dimorphic mycelia
141. In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?
A. Mutualism C. Commensalism
B. Parasitism D. Pathogenesis
145. When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they
A. Become virulent C. Absorb endotoxin
B. Produce endotoxin D. Increase in virulence
146. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases?
A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
B. Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence
C. Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence
D. Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline
147. A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is
termed a(n)
A. Subacute disease C. Chronic disease
B. Acute disease D. Latent disease
148. Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease?
A. It normally occurs in a given geographic area
B. It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical
area/group/population
C. It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population
D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time
149. Consider the ff. case, an animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated
with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector?
A. Animal C. Mosquito
B. Virus D. Person
150. A patient contracted athlete’s foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the
malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Iatrogenic infections
B. Exogenous infection D. Endogenous infections
154. Interferons
A. Do not protect the cell that secretes them
B. Stimulate the activity of neutrophils
C. Cause muscle aches, chills and fever
D. All of the above
155. An autoantigen is
A. An antigen from bacteria D. Any carbohydrate antigen
B. A normal body component E. A nucleic acid
C. An artificial agent
156. Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant?
A. Attenuated vaccine D. An immunoglobulin
B. A modified live vaccine E. An agglutinating antigen
C. A chemically killed vaccine
163. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from carbon dioxide using energy
from the sun is a
A. Photoautotroph C. Chemoautotroph
B. Photoheterotroph D. Chemoheterotroph
171. The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the
A. Exponential growth rate C. Generation time
B. Growth curve D. Lag period
172. Bacterial growth is expressed mathematically as ______, and this is a reflection of their growth by
________.
A. Linear/budding C. Exponential fusion
B. Linear/binary fission D. Exponential/binary fission
173. The part of the bacterial growth curve that reflects an adjustment to the media and a replenishment of
the pools of metabolic intermediates is the:
A. Stationary phase D. Death phase
B. Exponential phase E. Interphase
C. Lag phase
175. The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is
called:
A. Autoclaving C. Membrane-filter method
B. Fractional sterilization D. Any of the above
177. A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial
population by heating at a certain temperature is known as:
A. Tyndallization C. Dry-heat sterilization
B. Pasteurization D. Moist-heat sterilization
190. When a patient’s immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of:
A. Superinfection C. Allergy
B. Drug resistance D. Toxicity
192. Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?
A. Interrupting ribosomal function C. Preventing cell wall synthesis
B. Dissolving the cell membrane D. Inhibiting DNA replication
193. In a broth dilution method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the tube with the lowest concentration of
antimicrobial in which there is no visible growth is the minimal:
A. Antimicrobial concentration C. Inhibitory concentration
B. Bactericidal concentration D. Lethal concentration
194. The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe
A. Largest concentration C. Smallest concentration
B. Standard dose D. Lowest dilution
199. Infectious diseases acquired during a hospital stay are known as:
A. Nosocomial infections C. Superficial infections
B. Systemic infections D. Any of the above
201. The systemic infection associated with microrganisms multiplying in circulating blood is:
A. Bacteremia C.Septicemia
B. Viremia D. None of the above
203. The ___ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.
A. Prodronium C. Period of convalescence
B. Period of invasion D. Period of incubation
209. An acquired resistance to an infectious agent due to prior contact with that agent is known as :
A. Vaccination C. Immunity
B. Immunization D. Any of the above
210. A large protein molecules evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen is
called:
A. An antitoxin C. An antibody
B. An antiserum D. Any of the above
216. The differential stain which provides for grouping of all true bacteria as either stain-positive or stain-
negative;
A. Simple stain C. Gram-stain
B. Acid-fast stain D. Any of the above
218. Eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that range in size from unicellular to multicellular.
A. Bacteria C. Algae
B. Fungi D. Virus
226. Fungi that causes superficial mycoses of the skin, hair and nails:
A. Dermatophytes C. Prions
B. Conidia D. Virions
227. Tinea infection are also known as:
A. Ringworm C. Filariasis
B. Threadworm D. Whipworm
229. A functional unit of heredity that occupies a specific space on the chromosomes:
A. Gene C. DNA
B. Genome D. RNA
234. An infectious agent consisting of atleast one protein, but no demonstrable nucleic acids
A. Prion C. Phage
B. Virion D. Virus
241. A synthetic purine nucleoside derivative with antiviral activity against the herpes simplex virus
A. Acyclovir C. Acetaminophen
B. Amantadine D. Adenovirus
247. The use of biological processes to remedy problems, particularly those caused by pollution:
A. Bioremediation C. Biotechnology
B. Biotransformation D. Biomagnifications
248. A fungal infection, also known as tinea nigra, that forms hard black nodules on the hairs of the scalp
A. Black piedra C. Tinea corporis
B. Tinea capitis D. Black nodules
249. A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction
A. Budding C. Hypha
B. Spore D. Conidium
250. Refers to the number of phages released by a host cell during the lytic life cycle;
A. Burst size C. Translation
B. Generation time D. Transduction
253. A recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA, which is used as a cloning vector in genetic engineering:
A. Chimera C. Camera
B. Chitin D. Chameleon
254. The bodies that have most or all of the cell’s DNA and contain most of its genetic information
A. Chromosomes C. Nuclei
B. Genes D. None of the above
255. A group of genetically identical cells or organisms derived by asexual reproduction from a single parent
A. Clone C. Chromosomes
B. Gene D. DNA
256. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during
translation;
A. Codon C. Chitin
B. Apoenzyme D. Antigen
258. An acute, self-limiting, and highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that produces
inflammation, profuse discharge, and other symptoms:
A. Common cold C. None of the above
B. Coryza D. Any of the above
262. An antibiotic from a species of Penicillium given orally to treat chronic dermatophyte infections of skin
and nail:
A. Griseofulvin C. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin D. Ampicillin
263. The process of deliberate modification of an organism’s genetic information by directly changing its
nucleic acid genome:
A. Genetic engineering C. Biotechnology
B. Biomagnifications D. None of the above
266. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by the measles virus that are characterized by bluish white speck in
the center of each:
A. Koplik’s spots C. Chancre
B. Pustules D. Pox
268. An acute generalized viral infection occurring in school-age children manifested by swelling of the
parotid salivary glands:
A. Mumps C. Colds
B. Measles D. Influenza
269. A mass of viruses or unassembled viral subunit found within the brain neurons of rabies-infected
animals:
A. Negri bodies C. Chancre
B. Koplik’s spots D. Pox
270. A polyene antibiotic from Streptomyces noursei that is used un the treatment of candida infections of the
skin, vagina, and alimentary tract:
A. Nystatin C. Chloramphenicol
B. Cephalosporin D. Griseofulvin
271. A natural soil aggregate, formed partly through bacterial and fungal growth in the soil:
A. Ped C. Peplomer
B. Pseudopodium D. Peptidoglycan
272. A group of antibiotics containing a beta-lactam ring, which are active against gram-positive bacteria:
A. Penicillins C. Griseofulvins
B. Cephalosporins D. Chloramphenicol
273. An acute, contagious viral disease that destroys the nerve cells that control the muscles, and sometimes
causing paralysis:
A. Poliomyelitis C. Polio
B. Infantile paralysis D. All of the above
C.
274. An in vitro technique used to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small
amounts of DNA:
A. PCR C. HPLC
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. A or B
276. Refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time in a given population regardless of
when the disease began:
A. Prevalence rate C. Epidemiologic rate
B. Incidence rate D. Dominance rate
277. An acute, viral, infectious disease of the CNS, which affects all warm-blooded animals, including
humans:
A. Rabies C. Any of the above
B. Hydrophobia D. None of the above
279. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving
as template:
A. Replication C. Transduction
B. Translation D. Conjugation
280. A site, alternative host, or carrier that normally harbors pathogenic organisms and serves asa source
from which other individuals can be infected:
A. Reservoir C. Passive
B. Intermediate D. Secondary
281. A group of viruses with RNA genomes that carry the enzyme reverse transcriptase and from a DNA copy
of their genome during their reproductive cycle:
A. Retroviruses C. Arboviruses
B. Adenoviruses D. None of the above
283. The use of physical and biological processes to remove particulate and dissolved material from sewage:
A. Sewage treatment C. Bioremediation
B. Flocculation D. Effluent treatment
285. A highly contagious, often fatal disease caused by a povirus, manifested by the appearance of blisters
and postules on the skin:
A. Smallpox C. Varicella
B. Variola D. Varicella
286. An inoculum, consisting of a mixture of carefully selected microorganisms, used to start a commercial
fermentation
A. Starter culture C. Pour plate
B. Spread plate D. Pour plate
287. A strand of DNA or RNA that specifies the base sequence of a newly synthesized complementary
strand of DNA or RNA:
A. Template C. Any of the above
B. Temperate D. None of the above
288. A sequence that marks the end of a gene and stops transcription;
A. Terminator C. Scavenger
B. Predator D. Carnivore
289. A type of body that is devoid of root, stem or leaf, characteristic of some algae, many fungi and lichens:
A. Thallus C. Spore
B. Hypha D. Mycelium
294. A fungal infection caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur, that forms brownish-red scales on the skin of
the trunk, neck, face and arms:
A. Tinea versicolor C. Tinea manuum
B. Tinea cruris D. Tinea pedis
295. Referred to an animal that has gained new genetic information from the insertion of foreign DNA
A. Transgenic C. Transduced
B. Transient D. Transformed
296. A raised epidermal lesion with horny surface caused by an infection by a human papilloma virus
A. Verruca C. Variola
B. Wart D. A or B
297. Small membrane-bound bodies which are swollen areas in the colonizing hyphae:
A. Vesicles C. Verruca
B. Wart D. Rashes
299. A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or
sexually through spore formation:
A. Yeast C. Mushroom
B. Mold D. None of the above
300. A fungal alkaloid that have been associated with witchcraft and lycanthrophy:
A. Ergot C. Penicillin
B. Aflatoxin D. Saxitoxin