CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

(Institutional Correction)
1. The classical theory of criminology provides that the basis of criminal liability is:
a. Individual’s thinking
b. Human facilities
c. Human free will
d. Individual’s mental state

2. There are various types of prison programs. For what purpose is the maintenance
program?
a. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills or educational achievement
b. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like laundry and janitorial
c. It employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks
d. It secures prisoners from escape or violence

3. What needs to be given emphasis in the management of jails?

a. Direction and supervision of personnel
b. Discipline of prisoners and personnel
c. Punishment of prisoners
d. Direction of prisoners

4. Immediately after apprehension and booking, what is done with the youthful offender?
a. He assigned a prison cell
b. He is interrogated by police officers
c. He undergoes thorough physical and mental examination
d. He is committed to the care of the Department of the Interior and Local Government

5. What is the core of the treatment program in the form of group therapy provided by
professional staff called?
a. Sports program
b. Livelihood programs
c. Counselling services
d. Educational services

6. Which of the following models of correctional institutions emphasizes security,

discipline and order?
a. Reintegration model
b. Rehabilitation model
c. Medicine model
d. Custodial model
7. Which of the following is absolutely prohibited in prison/jail?
a. Corporal punishment
b. Disciplinary punishment
c. Work detail
d. Smoking cigarette

8. What should be done to Edgar who got sick with severe colds and influenza while
confined at Camp Bukang Liwayway?
a. Just keep quiet and pray for his health
b. Ask the prison guard to help get NGO help
c. Write his wife to ask for medicine from the prison clinic
d. Help him secure his right for medical attention from prison

9. The jail warden shall disapprove the request of an inmate to view the remains of a
deceased relative or not favourably endorse a similar request of offender to the
appropriate court of government agency in any of the following cases, except;
a. The deceased relative is lying in state in a place that is beyond thirty-kilometre
radius from the place of confinement of the prisoner, or in any case, where prisoner
cannot return to said place during the daylight hours.
b. The detainee has two or more pending criminal cases
c. The detainee has a record of escape.
d. None

10. Inmates who demonstrate good behaviour and entitled to a 5-minute phone call to an
authorized individual every ____ days
a. 45
b. 90
c. 30
d. 60

11. Juan Tavera was sentenced in 2005 to a minimum prison term of three (3) years and one
(1) day. He applied for probation and he was granted probation. In 2011, he was
included in a fraternity rumble and was charged of serious physical injuries to which he
was sentenced to a prison term of less than 3 years. He applied for probation. Is he
qualified?
a. No, he is a second time offender
b. Yes, his prison term is less than 6 years
c. No, his prison term is less than 3 years
d. Yes, there is a 5 year gap between his second offense and the first offense

12. The primary purpose of incarcerating criminal offender is _____.

a. Making the pay their crime
b. Rehabilitating them
c. Segregating them for the family
 d. Helping them atone for their felony
13. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behaviour is caused by
biological or psychological conditions that require treatment?
a. Reform model
b. Community model
c. Medical model
d. Rehabilitation model

14. What is issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the
confinement of a prisoner?
a. Detention order
b. Probation order
c. Bail
d. Mittimus

15. Not all cases reported to the criminal justice system reach the courts. What is the
system of screening out cases for dropping or carried through the next pillar of the
criminal justice system?
a. Release on recognizance
b. Filtering process
c. Case evaluation
d. Plea bargaining

16. Which of the following rehabilitation programs in jails promotes good interpersonal
relationships and solves the offender’s problems of adjustments?
a. Medical services
b. Educational services
c. Employment services
d. Counselling services

17. What is the practice of beating, torturing, maiming or any form of causing pain to
prisoner called?
a. Medical model of punishment
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Indeterminate punishment

18. Romeo was sentenced to serve a prison term of 6 years. He did not qualify for
probation. He was brought to the Bureau of Corrections in Muntinlupa. To which place
should he be brought for processing and classification?
a. Evaluation center
b. Reception and diagnostic center
c. Processing center
d. Testing center
19. The following are considered minor offense of an inmate except:
a. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or reporting
to any officer or member of the custodial force.
b. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarters and or/
surroundings
c. Rendering service to fellow inmate
d. Willful waste of food

20. Which of the following contributes to prison violence?

a. Work furlough which allows prisoners to go out and work
b. Prison industry which gives opportunity for prisoners to earn
c. Conjugal visits which allows private moments between prisoner and partner
d. Inhumane prison conditions, including overcrowding, depersonalization and threats
of homosexual rapes

21. Which of the following prisoners maybe excused for hard work?
a. “C” who is 18 years old
b. “A” who is 62 years old
c. “B” who is 56 years old
d. “D” who is 50 years old

22. What is the process by which prisoners are assigned to types of custody and treatment
appropriate to their individual needs?
a. Classification
b. Diversion
c. Segregation
d. Incarceration

23. What is the security classification of inmate with one record of escape but have served
five years since recommitment?
a. Minimum security
b. Medium security
c. Optimum security
d. Maximum Security

24. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than other
inmates. Which of the following should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
b. Ensure that the inmate comply with his prescribed diet
c. Prescribe the medicines to the heart patient-inmate
d. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate

25. While prisoners are not allowed to have disciplinary authority over their co-prisoners,
technically skilled prisoners may:
 a. Run the whole show for livelihood program
b. Provide direction to livelihood program
c. Be requested to assist other prisoners
d. Supervise prison labor

26. Counselling services is usually the core treatment in ______

a. Educational program
b. Vocational program
c. Group therapy
d. Physical therapy

27. Julia Roberts confiscated white crystalline substance rolled in a transparent sachet and
she suspected it to be “shabu”. What should she do first?
a. Properly preserve the evidence
b. Bring the substance to NBI
c. Record the incident in the logbook
d. Properly identify the evidence

28. Jail security includes in the following EXCEPT

a. Conduct frequent inspection of all jail facilities
b. Maintain 24-hour supervision of inmates
c. Maintain strict control of firearms
d. Censor inmate mails

29. Force can only be used by officers in correctional institutions while

a. Cases of attempted escape of prisoners
b. Only in performing assignments
c. Enforcing discipline
d. Exacting respect

30. In case of death of a relative within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity, what
document is necessary before an inmate is allowed to view the remains of the
deceased?
a. Marriage contract
b. Written request of the inmate
c. Birth certificate of the deceased
d. Clearance from the court

31. The vocational rehabilitation of a handicapped person is best done by _____.

a. Seeing to it that he understands his limitations
b. Stressing what he can do rather that what he can’t do
c. Setting standard beyond his reach so that he will do the utmost.
d. Teaching him a number of vocations at the same time so that he has sense of
versatility
32. Whenever the transfer of inmates to another jail is effected, the following rules shall be
observed, except:
a. A prisoner must be handcuffed and secured to a part of the vehicle during transit to
abort any escape plan or self-destruction
b. Before any transfer, all offenders shall be inspected and searched for the dangerous
weapons or objects
c. When two or more prisoners are transported, each must be secured to the other
d. Notorious/disastrous prisoners being moved shall be handcuffed

33. There are 2 inmates arguing over loss of some items in their cell. You are the guard on
duty. What will you do?
a. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated discussion
b. Invite both of them to the office and investigate the matter
c. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
d. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
34. What concept is referred to when a prison completely encapsulates the lives of the
people who work and live there?
a. Voluntary institution
b. Therapeutic community
c. Total institutions
d. Hal-way house

35. How are inmates who have served at least ½ their minimum sentence or 1/3 of their
maximum sentence excluding Good Conduct and Time Allowance classified in terms of
security?
a. Minimum Security
b. Maximum Security
c. Optimum Security
d. Minimum Security

36. What should be done with inmates found to be drug dependents/addicts?

a. They should be placed in comfortable quarters
b. They should be given sedatives/stimulants regularly
c. They should be sent back to their parents for supervision
d. They should be segregated from other inmates especially during withdrawal period.

37. Pedro de la Cuesta was sentenced to a prison term of 6 months and 1 day to 3 years.
How is he classified?
a. Municipal prisoner
b. Provincial prisoner
c. Maximum prisoner
d. Insular prisoner
38. One of the most important ways to help an inmate reform is through individual
counseling. Who is in a best position o perform this function?
a. Psychologist
b. Prison guard
c. Prison administrator
d. Trustee

39. Which of the following is considered a less grave offense of jail inmates
a. Exchange uniform or wearing clothes other than those issued to him for purpose of
circumventing jail rules?
b. Flagrant disregard of discipline and instructions
c. Inflicting harm upon himself or other inmates
d. Littering in his quarters and/or surroundings

40. Can Romeo, an inmate who is suffering from asthma and having difficulty in breathing,
be brought to the hospital?
a. No, it is against prison rules
b. Yes, the permission from the court
c. No, let the prison nurse give them medication
d. Yes, if the prison health officer says it is necessary

41. The principle of ______ provides that punishment of a convict prevents others from
performing similar actions for fear that they will be punished similarly.
a. Retribution
b. Reformation
c. Deterrence
d. Rehabilitation

42. Which of the following punishments IS NOT imposable by jail disciplinary boards?
a. Reprimand, cancellation of visiting privileges
b. Forfeiture of good conduct time allowance
c. Solitary confinement for the 10 days
d. Extra-fatigue duty

43. Which of the following are the objectives of a correctional facility?

1. To confine inmates safely
2. To provide rehabilitative programs that negate criminal tendencies
3. To restore their values and make them law abiding citizens
4. To professionalize the inmates
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 3,4 and 1
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 4,1 and 2
44. What is called the practice of placing a convict alone inside one (1) cell and without
anybody to talk or to be seen with?
a. Individual confinement
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Solitary confinement

45. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?

a. Mutilation
b. Lethal injection
c. Stoning
d. Branding

46. What prison term is served by national prisoners?

a. 3 years and 1 day and up
b. 3 years and up
c. Below 3 years
d. 6 years and up

47. What conducting routinary custodial guarding in jails, what is the ratio of guard to
inmates?
a. 1:7
b. 1:20
c. 1:15
d. 1:10

48. Which of the following correctional programs enables an individual to enhance his
employability, develop his intellectual faculties and graduates to a free existence in
community living all at the same time?
a. Livelihood program
b. Religious program
c. Educational partnership
d. Guidance counselling

49. Edgardo Batobato was sentenced by Judge Robert Delimna on June 5, 2004, on july 25,
2004, judge Delimna died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the service of
Edgardo’s sentence?
a. Antonio continues to serve his sentence
b. Antonio’s sentence will be suspended
c. Antonio’s sentence will be increased
d. Antonio’s sentence will be reduced

50. What is the standard ratio of escorting a prisoner while in transit for court appearance?
a. 1:1 per prisoner
 b. 1:2 per prisoner
c. 1:1 + 1 per prisoner
d. 1:2 +1 per prisoner

NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
51. The approval of the application for probation is done by the judge through the
A. Issuance of clearance certificate
B. Issuance of probation clearance
C. Issuance of probation order
D. Issuance of citation

52 What is the age qualification for an offender to qualify for probation?

A. 18 year old and above
B.9 years old and above
C. 25year old and above
D, 21 years old and above

53. Juanita was convicted and sentence for the crime of serious physical injuries to a prison
term of prison correctional. Based on this, is he qualified for probation?
A. no, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day
B. NO, his sentence is more than 6years and 1 day
C. yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
D. yes, his sentence 3 years and 1 day

54. Which of the following is not included post- sentence investigation report?
A. Circumstance surrounding the crime for which he was convicted and sentenced
b. Result of drug, psychological and clinical tests, if any
C. Personal circumstances of his co-workers
D. details of other criminal records, if any

55. When can an offender for probation?

A. Anytime during court trial
B .After his conviction
C. Before his conviction
D. Upon being charged

56. What happens if a prisoner is granted absolute pardon?

A. His criminal liability is conditionally extinguished
B. His criminal liability is partially extinguished
C. his criminal liability is totally extinguished
d. his criminal liability continues to exist

57. Which of the following factors are special considerations in the grant of parole or
conditional pardon?
 1. Old age, provide prisoner was not yet sixty (60) years of age at the time of commission
of crime
2. Physical disability such as when prisoner is bed-ridden, a deaf-mute, a leper, a cripple or
blind
3. Serious illness duly certified by a government physician
4. Similar circumstances which show that continued imprisonment will be inhuman or
pose a serious danger to the prisoner’s life
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3, 4 and 1
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
58. Pablo was convicted for a crime and was sentenced to a prison term of arresto mayor. Is he
qualified for probation based on his sentenced?
A. Yes, his sentence is below six (6) years and one (1) day
B. Yes, his sentence is only six (6) months
C. No, his sentence is eight (8) years
D. No, his sentence is 12 years
59. Within 72 hours from receipt of the probation order of the court, the probationer reports to
the______.
A. Judge sala
B. Fiscal’s office
C. Police station
D. Probation office
60. Joseph is 58 years old when he was convicted for the crime of treason. Is he qualified for
probation?
A. No, treason is a crime against the security of the state
B. No, he is not yet 60 years old
C. No, he can apply for parole
D. Yes, he committed a crime
61. During the period of probation, the probationer is required to report to the Probation
Officer.
A. At least once a month
B. At least twice a week
C. At least be-monthly
D. At least twice a month
62. What is referred to as the suspension of sentence after which the convict is released upon
serving the minimum sentence imposed by law and subject to his good behaviour and positive
reaction to rehabilitation programs?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole
63. Which is a pre-trial diversion?
A. Probation
 B. Pardon
C. Imposition of fine
D. Parole
64. May a parolee or pardonee transfer from the place of residence designated in his release
document?
A. Yes, with prior approval of the Board of Pardon and Parole
B. Yes, with prior approval of the secretary of justice
C. Yes, he can go to any place he wants
D. Yes, anything he wants to transfer
65. What happens to a probationer when the court withdraws his privilege of probation?
A. He is returned to prison and he serves his sentence
B. He is placed under policy custody
C. He is released to the community
D. He is placed under parole
66. As to age qualification, who among the following can qualify for probation under PD 968, as
amended?
A. John who is 15 years old
B. Sandy who is 16 years old
C. Joel who is 20 years old
D. Ramon who is 27 years old
67. Which among these forms of executive clemency can alter death to life imprisonment?
A. Commutation of sentence
B. Amnesty
C. Pardon
D. Reprieve
68. Which of the following is done to a probationer who violated his probation?
A. The court releases the probationer
B. The court orders him to continue his probation
C. The courts revoke his probation and he serves his original sentence
D. The court orders the probationer to file a new application for probation.
69. Which of these terms is the withdrawal of the privilege of probation or parole so that the
offender is sent back to prison?
A. Commitment
B. Segregation
C. Revocation
D. Reclassification
70. Can Santiago who is 25 years old and convicted for a crime of subversion avail of probation?
A. No, Santiago is already convicted
B. Yes, Santiago is only 25 years old
C. Yes, provided Santiago applied for probation
D. No, subversion is a non-probationable offense
71. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his/her probation conditions?
A. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
B. Court directs probationer to re-apply for probation
 C. Court releases the probationer to the community
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
72. Larry Bantog was granted probation but he did not report for interview within the
prescribed period. How is he classified?
A. Transient probationer
B. Abscond probationer
C. Mayor probationer
D. Transferred probationer
73. When is a post-sentence investigation report and recommendation prepared by a probation
officer submitted to the court?
A. Within 150 days from receipt of order
B. Within 120 days from receipt of order
C. Within 30 days from receipt of order
D. Within 60 days from receipt of order
74. When is probation required to report to the Probation Officer?
A. Within 96 hours from receipt of probation order
B. Within 72 hours from receipt of probation order
C. Within 48 hours from receipt of probation order
D. Within 24 hours from receipt of probation order
75. How much time has the Probation Officer for the preparation of his investigation report?
A. 60 days
B. 45 days
C. 30 days
D. 120 days
76. Edgardo was meted out a sentence of eight (8) years and one (1) day. Can he apply for
probation?
A. He will serve ½ of his sentence
A. He will be pardoned
B. No
C. Yes
77. The court ordered a probationer to pay certain amounts to his victims as parts of his civil
liability. To whom shall the probationer remit his payments?
A. Cashier of the probation Office
B. Clerk of court of the trial court
C. Municipal treasurer
D. Cashier of the trial court
78. What should the court do if it finds that probation will depreciate the seriousness of offense
committed?
A. Dismiss the case
B. Approve the application
C. Reduce the penalty
D. Deny the application
79. What agency of the government is responsible to administer Presidential Decree 968, or the
Probation Law?
 A. Board of pardon and parole
B. Probation and Parole Administration
C. Department of Justice
D. Bureau of Correction
80. Mr. Omar was convicted and sentenced for violation of the custom law or other laws within
the jurisdiction of the bureau of customs. Is Mr. Omar qualified for parole?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. None of these
81. Is a form of executive clemency that is authorize by the Chief Executive? It is an act of grace
and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.\
A. Conditional pardon
B. Absolute pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
82. Which of the following is the primary purpose of adult probation law?
A. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with
personalized, community based program
B. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the
probation order
C. Coordinated the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice system
D. Place the offender outside the police power of the state
83. Joey was convicted to a prison term of prison correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
A. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
B. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
C. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one(1) day
D. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one(1) day
84. Which of the following is a form of executive clemency, which changes or modifies the
punishment to which a person has been sentenced to a less severe one?
A. Absolute pardon
B. Reprieve
C. Conditional pardon
D. Commutation of sentence
85. Who among the following is responsible to investigate for the court a referral for probation
supervision?
A. NBI agent
B. Parole Officer
C. Probation officer
D. Police officer
86. The probationer may be authorized to travel outside the PO’s area of operational
jurisdiction for a period of-
A. More than 30 days but not more than 6 months
B. Not allowed because it is outside of jurisdiction
 C. More than 30 days but not exceeding 60 days
D. More than 10 days but not exceeding 30 days
87. A program specifically designed for the prisoner in order to give him an opportunity to
adapt from life in prison to the life in the community.
A. Probation
B. Amnesty
C. Pre-release
D. Parole
88. Mr. A was convicted by a court and meted a sentence of 3 years imprisonment, which of the
following Mr. A must undertake in order that his intention for probation is entertained?
A. Apply for probation within the period of perfecting an appeal
B. Apply an appeal to modify the decision of final judgement
C. The application be filed with the trial court
D. Petition congress for amnesty
89. How long the Probation Officer’s Final Report shall be submitted by the city and Provincial
Parole and Probation Office to the trial court?
A. 30 days before the expiration of the period
B. 30 days after the expiration of the period
C. 15 days after expiration of the period
D. 10 days after expiration of the period
90. A defendant had applied an appeal from the judgement or conviction of his case. What will
be the implication for his application for probation?
A. Eligible for probation
B. Denial of probation
C. Application for probation be entertained
D. Approval of probation
91. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when it becomes a
matter of right?
A. When no appeal was undertaken
B. After the submission of the PSIR probation
C. When his probation is approved
D. When the convict files a petition for probation
92. How many days that a trial court must resolved application for probation from the date of
receipt of the investigation report from the probation officer?
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
93. The central goal of the Probation Administration is to enhance the safety of the community
by reducing the incidence of criminal acts by person’s___________.
A. To be convicted
B. Not yet convicted
C. Under preventive discipline
D. Previously convicted
94. A probationer is mandated to present himself to the Probation Officer for the supervision
within –
A. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 12 hours
95. A probationer who violates probation condition, once arrested shall be—
A. Immediately brought to the trial court for hearing
B. Revocation of probation and imprisonment
C. Detained in city/municipal jail
D. Detained in a police station
96. Which of the following probationers may be recommended for the early termination of
probation?
A. Probationers convicted for offences involving moral turpitude
B. Cooperative and participative probationer in the programs
C. Those recommended for further supervision
D. Those physical and mentally fit for travel
97. The probation order may also require the probationer in appropriate cases to the following
EXCEPT-
A. Undergo medical or psychological exam when required
B. Comply with a program of payment of civil liability
C. Deny himself to a specific employment
D. Meet his family representative
98. The power to grant amnesty is president discretion, which must be with congressional
concurrence. It is usually granted to:
A. Political offenders
B. Convicted offenders
C. Suspected offenders
D. Offender under appeal
99. Is serious illness always considered a special factor in the grant of parole or conditional
pardon?
A. Yes, if duly certified by a government physician
B. Yes, if the other inmates want him out of prison
C. Yes, when the petitioner is a woman convict
D. Yes, if the illness is a contagious disease
100. Ramon who is 20 years old was sentenced for the crime of treason. Can he avail of
probation?
A. No, Ramon’s crime is treason which is a crime against the state
B. No, since Ramon is only 20 years old
C. Yes, since Ramon is 20 years old
D. Yes, since Ramon is convicted