MCQ Floyd Elex
MCQ Floyd Elex
21. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor 29. Although current is blocked in reverse bias
are A. there is some current due to majority carriers
A. holes B. there is very small current due to minority
B. conduction electrons carriers
C. valence electron C. there is an avalanche current
D. protons
30. For a silicon diode, the value of the forward-bias
22. Holes in an n-type semiconductor are voltage typically
A. minority carriers that are thermally produced A. must be greater than 0.3 V
B. majority carriers that are thermally produced B. depends on the width of the depletion region
C. minority carriers that are produced by doping C. depends on the concentration of majority carriers
D. majority carriers that are produced by doping D. must be greater than 0.7 V
37. The peak value of the input to a half-wave 47. If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-
rectifier is 10V. The approximate peak value of the wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage
output is A. is not affected B. increases
A. 10.7 V B. 9.3 V C. decreases D. has a different frequency
C. 10 V D. 3.18 V
48. Line regulation is determined by
38. For the circuit in Question in Question 3, the A. zener current and load current
diode must be able to withstand a reverse voltage of B. changes in load resistance and output voltage
A. 5 V B. 10 V C. load current
C. 20 V D. 3.18 V D. changes in output voltage and input voltage
39. The average value of a full-wave rectified voltage 49. Load regulations is determined by
with a peak value of 75 V is A. changes in zener current and load current
A. 37.5 V B. 23.9 V B. changes in load current and output voltage
C. 53 V D. 47.8 V C. changes in load current and input voltage
D. changes in load resistance and input voltage
40. When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the
input of a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is 50. A 10 V peak-to-peak sinusoidal voltage is applied
A. 60 Hz B. 120 Hz across a silicon diode and series resistor. The
C. 240 Hz D. 0 Hz maximum voltage across the diode is
A. 0.7 V D. 5 V
41. The total secondary voltage in a center-tapped B. 10 V E. 4.3 V
full-wave rectifier is 125 rms. Neglecting the diode C. 9.3 V
drop, the rms output voltage is
A. 117 V B. 100 V 51. If the input voltage to a voltage tripler has an rms
C. 62.5 V D. 125 V value of 12 V, the dc output voltage is approximately
A. 36 V B. 33.9 V
42. When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the PIV C. 32.4 V D. 50.9 V
for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is
(neglecting the diode drop) 52. If one of the diode in a bridge full-wave rectifier
A. 100 V B. 141 V opens, the output is
C. 200 V D. 50 V A. one-fourth the amplitude of the input voltage
B. 0 V
43. When the rms output voltage of a bridge full C. 120 Hz voltage
wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage across D. a half-wave rectified voltage
the diodes is (neglecting the diode drop)
A. 28.3 V B. 20 V 53. If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge
C. 40 V D. 56.6 V rectifier and observe that the output has a 60 Hz
ripple
44. The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input A. the filter capacitor is leaky
filter is equal to B. the transformer secondary is shorted
A. the average value of the rectified voltage C. there is an open diode
B. the rms value of the rectified voltage D. the circuit is working properly
C. the peak value of the rectified voltage
Chapter 3: SPECIAL – PURPOSE DIODES 62. The internal resistance of a photodiode
A. increase with light intensity when forward-biased
54. The cathode of zener diode in a voltage regulator B. decrease with light intensity when forward-
is normally biased
A. more negative than the anode C. increases with light intensity when reverse-biased
B. more positive than the anode D. decrease with light intensity when forward-biased
C. at + 0.7 V
D. grounded 63. A diode that has a negative resistance
characteristics is the
55. If a certain zener diode has a zener voltage of 3.6 A. tunnel diode
V, it operates in B. laser diode
A. avalanche breakdown C. schottky diode
B. zener breakdown D. hot-carrier diode
C. regulated breakdown
D. forward conduction 64. An infrared LED is optically coupled to a
photodiode. When the LED is turned off, the reading
56. For a certain 12 V zener diode, a 10mA change in on an ammeter is series with the reverse-biased
Zener current produces a 0.1 V change in Zener photodiode will
voltage. The zener impedance for this current ranges A. increase
is B. not change
A. 0.1 Ω B. 100 Ω C. fluctuate
C. 10 Ω D. 1 Ω D. decrease
57. The data sheet for a particular zener gives VZ = 65. In order for a system to function properly, the
10 V at IZT = 500 mA. ZZ for these conditions is various types of circuits that make up the system
A. 20 Ω B. 50 Ω must be
C. 10 Ω D. unknown A. properly biased
B. properly connected
58. A no-load condition means that C. properly interfaced
A. the load has infinite resistance D. all of the above
B. the load has zero resistance E. answer a and b
C. answer a and c
D. the output terminal are open
71. If IC is 50 times larger than IB, then βDC is 81. The maximum value of collector current in a
A. 500 B. 0.02 biased transistor is
C. 100 D. 50 A. βDCIB B. IC(sat)
C. greater than IE D. IE - IB
72. The approximate voltage across the forward-
biased base emitter junction of a silicon BJT is 82. Ideally, a dc load line is s straight line drawn on
A. 0.3 V B. 0.7 V the collector characteristics curves between
C. 0 V D. VBB A. the Q-point and saturation
B. VCE(cut off) and IC(sat)
73. The bias condition for a transistor to be used as C. the Q-point and cut-off
linear amplifier is called D. IB = 0 and IB = IC / βDC
A. reverse-reverse B. forward-reverse
C. collector bias D. forward-forward 83. If a sinusoidal voltage is applied to the base of a
biased npn transistor and the resulting sinusoidal
74. If the output of a transistor amplifier is 5 V rms collector voltage is clipped near zero volts, the
and the input is 100 mV rms, the voltage gain is transistor is
A. 50 B. 500 A. being driven into saturation
C. 5 D. 100 B. being driven into cut off
C. operating nonlinearly
75. When operated in cutoff and saturation, the D. answer a and c
transistor acts like E. answer b and c
A. a switch B. a linear amplifier
C. a variable capacitor D. a variable resistor 84. The input resistance at the base of a biased
transistor depends mainly on
76. In cutoff, VCE is A. βDC B. βDC and RE
A. 0 V B. minimum C. RB D. RE
C. maximum D. equal to VCC
E. answer a and b F. answer c and d
93. In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the 101.For a common-emitter amplifier, RC = 1.0 kΩ,
lower voltage-divider resistor (the one connected to RE = 390 Ω, and βAC = 75. Assuming the RE is
VCC) opens. completely bypassed at the operating frequency, the
A. the collector current will decrease voltage gain is
B. the transistor may be driven into saturation A. 2.56 B. 66.7
C. the transistor is not affected C. 2.47 D. 75
D. the transistor may be driven into cutoff
102. In the circuit of Question 7, if the frequency is
94. In a voltage-divider biased pnp transistor, there is reduced to the point where XC(bypass) = RE, the voltage
no base current, but the base voltage is approximately gain
correct. The most likely problem(s) is A. remains the same B. is less
C. is greater
112.For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes
103. In a certain emitter-follower circuit, the current constant when VDS exceeds
gain is 50. The power gain is approximately A. 0 V B. Vp
A. 50 AV B. 50 C. VDD D. cutoff
C. 1 D. answer a and b
113.The constant-current area of a FET lies between
104. In a darlington pair configuration, each A. pinch-off and breakdown B. 0 and IDSS
transistor has an ac beta of 125. If RE is 560 Ω, the C. cutoff and saturation D. cutoff and pinch-off
input resistance is
A. 560 Ω B. 70 Ω 114. IDSS is
C. 140 kΩ D. 8.75 MΩ A. the drain current at cutoff
B. the maximum possible drain current
105.The input resistance of a common-base amplifier C. the drain current with the source shorted
is D. the midpoint drain current
A. the same as a CC B. the same as a CE
C. very low D. very high 115. Drain current in the constant-current area
increases when
106.In a common-emitter amplifier with voltage A. the drain-to-source voltage decreases
divider bias, Rin(base) = 68 kΩ, R1 = 33 kΩ, and R2 = B. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
15 kΩ. The total input resistance is C. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
A. 22.2 kΩ B. 68 kΩ D. the drain-to-source voltage increases
C. 8.95 kΩ D. 12.3 kΩ
116. In a certain FET circuit, VGS = 0 V, VDD = 15 V,
107.A CE amplifier is driving a 10 kΩ load. If RC = IDSS = 15 mA, and RD = 470 Ω. If RD is decreased to
2.2 kΩ and r’e = 10 Ω, the voltage gain is 330 Ω, IDSS is
approximately A. 1 mA B. 10.5 mA
A. 180 B. 220 C. 19.5 mA D. 15 mA
C. 10 D. 1000
117. At cutoff, the JFET channel is
108.The overall gain found in Question 14 can be A. completely closed by the depletion region
expressed in decibels as B. at its wide points
A. 47.0 dB B. 35.6 dB C. extremely narrow
C. 94.1 dB D. 69.8 dB D. reverse-biased
126.A TMOSFET is a special type of 134.If the load resistance in Question 7 is removed,
A. JFET B. D-MOSFET the output voltage will
C. answer a and c D. E-MOSFET A. stay the same B. decrease
C. increase D. be zero
176.A 4-layer didoe turns on when the anode to 184.The SCS differs from the SCR because
cathode voltage exceeds A. it does not have a gate terminal
A. 0.7 V B. its holding current is less
B. the gate voltage C. it can handle much higher currents
C. the forward-breakover voltage D. it has two gate terminals
D. the forward-blocking voltage
185.The SCS can be turned on by
177.Once it conducting, a 4-layer diode can be turned A. an anode voltage that exceeds forward-breakover
off by voltage
A. reducing the current below a certain value B. a positive pulse on the anode gate
B. disconnecting the anode voltage C. a negative pulse on the anode gate
C. answer a and b D. either b or c
D. neither answer a nor b
186.The SCS can be turned off by
178.An SCR differs from 4-layer diode because A. a negative pulse on the cathode gate and a positive
A. it has a gate terminal pulse on the anode gate
B. it is not thyristor B. reducing the anode current to below the holding
C. it does not have four layers value
D. it cannot be turned on and off C. answer a and b
D. a positive pulse on the cathode gate and a negative
179.An SCR can be turned off by pulse on the anode gate
A. forced commutation
B. a negative pulse on the gate 187.Which of the following is not a characteristic of
C. anode current interruption the UJT?
D. answer a, b and c A. intrinsic standoff ratio
E. answer a and c B. negative resistance
C. peak-point voltage
180.In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is D. bilateral conduction
A. reverse-biases
B. in the off state 188.The PUT is
C. in the on state A. much like the UJT
D. at the point of breakdown B. not a thyristor
C. triggered on and off by the gate-to-anode
181.The specified value of holding current for an voltage
SCR means that D. not a four-layer device
A. the device will turn on when the anode current
exceeds this value 189.In a phototransistor, base current is
B. the device will turn off when the anode current A. set by bias voltage
falls below this value B. directly proportional to light
C. the device may be damaged if the anode current C. inversely proportional to light
exceeds this value D. not a factor
D. the gate current must be equal or exceeds this
value to turn the device on
Chapter 12: THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER C. 80 db D. 100,000
190.An integrated circuit (IC) op-amp has 200.A certain op-amp has a bias current of 50μA and
A. two inputs and two outputs 49.3μA. The input offset current is
B. one input and one-output A. 700 nA B. 99.3μA
C. two inputs and one output C. 49.7μA D. none of these
191.Which of the following characteristics does not 201.The output of a particular op-amp increases 8 V
necessarily apply to an op-amp? in 12 μs. The slew rate is
A. high gain B. low power A. 96 V/μs B. 0.67 V/ μs
C. high input impedance D. low output impedance C. 1.5 V/μs D. none of the above
197.If Av(d) = 3500 and Acm = 0.35, the CMRR is 207.If the feedback resistor in Question 17 is open,
A. 1225 B. 10,000 the voltage gain is
C. 80 dB D. answers b and c A. increases B. decreases
C. is not affected D. depends on Ri
198.With zero volts on both inputs, an op-amp ideally
should have an output equal to 208.A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop
A. the positive supply voltage gain of 25. The op-amp has an open-loop gain of
B. the negative supply voltage 100,000. if another op-amp with an open loop gain of
C. zero 200,000 is substituted in the configuration, the
D. the CMRR closed-loop gain
A. doubles B. drops to 12.5
199.Of the valued listed, the most realistic value for C. remains at 25 D. increases slightly
open loop gain of an op-amp is
A. 1 B. 2000
209.A voltage follower 218.If a certain op-amp has a closed-loop gain of 20
A. has a gain of 1 B. is noninverting and an upper critical frequency of 10 MHz, the gain-
C. has no feedback resistor D. has all of these bandwidth product is
A. 200 MHz B. 10 MHz
210.The bandwidth of an ac amplifier having a lower C. the unity-gain frequency D. answer a and c
critical frequency of 1 kHz and an upper critical
frequency of 10kHz is Chapter 13: BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS
A. 1 kHz B. 9 kHz
C. 10 kHz D. 11 kHz
219.In a zero-level detector, the output changes state
211.The bandwidth of a dc amplifier having an upper when the input
critical frequency of 100 kHz is A. is positive B. is negative
A. 100 kHz B. unknown C. crosses zero D. has a zero rate of change
C. infinity D. 0 kHz
220.The zero-level detector is one application of a
212.The midrange open-loop of an op amp A. comparator B. differentiator
A. extends from lower critical frequency to the upper C. summing amplifier D. diode
critical frequency
B. extends from 0 Hz to the upper critical 221.Noise on the input of a comparator can cause the
frequency output to
C. rolls off at 20 db/decade beginning at 0 Hz A. hang up in one state
D. answers a and c B. go to zero
C. change back and forth erratically between two
213.The frequency at which the open-loop gain is states
equal to 1 is called D. produce the amplified noise signal
A. the upper critical frequency
B. the cutoff frequency 222.The effect the noise can be reduced by
C. the notch frequency A. lowering the supply voltage
D. the unity-gain frequency B. using positive feedback
C. using negative feedback
214.Phase shift through an op-amp is caused by D. using hysteresis
A. the internal RC circuits E. answer b and d
B. the external RC circuits
C. the gain roll-off 223.A comparator with hysteresis
D. negative feedback A. has one trigger point
B. has two trigger points
215.Each RC circuit in an op-amp C. has a variable trigger point
A. causes the gain to roll off at – 6 dB/octave D. is like a magnetic circuit
B. causes the gain to roll off at – 20 db/octave
C. reduces the midrange gain by 3 dB 224.In a comparator with hysteresis
D. answer a and b A. a bias voltage is applied between the two inputs
B. only one supply voltage is used
216.When negative feedback is used, the gain- C. a portion of the output is feedback to the inverting
bandwidth product of an op-amp input
A. increases B. decreases D. a portion of the output is feedback to the
C. stays the same D. fluctuates noninverting input
217.If a certain op-amp has a midrange open-loop 225.Using the output bounding in a comparator
gain of 200,000 and a unity gain frequency of 5 MHz, A. makes faster
the gain bandwidth product is B. keeps the output positive
A. 200,000 Hz C. limits the output levels
B. 1 x 1012 Hz D. stabilizes the output
C. 5,000,000 Hz
D. not determinable from the information 226.A summing amplifier can have
A. only one input
B. only two inputs
C. any number of inputs Chapter 14: SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP
CIRCUITS
227.If the voltage gain for each input of a summing
amplifier with a 4.7 kΩ feedback resistor is unity, the
input resistor must have a value of 236.To make a basic instrumentation amplifier, it
A. 4.7 kΩ takes
B. 4.7 kΩ divided by number of inputs A. one op-amp with a certain feedback arrangement
C. 4.7 kΩ times the number of inputs B. two op-amps and seven resistors
C. three op-amps and seven capacitors
228.An average amplifier has five inputs. The ratio D. three op-amps and seven resistors
Rf|Ri must be
A. 5 B. 0.2 237.Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has an
C. 1 external resistor used for
A. establishing the input impedance
229.In a scaling adder, the input resistors are B. setting the voltage gain
A. all the same value C. setting the current gain
B. all of different values D. interfacing with an instrument
C. each proportional to the weight of its input
D. related by a factor of two 238.Instrumentation amplifiers are used primarily in
A. high-noise environments
230.In an integrator, the feedback element is a B. medical equipment
A. resistor B. capacitor C. test instruments
C. zener diode D. voltage divider D. filter circuits
231.For a step input, the output of an integrator is 239.Isolation amplifiers are used primarily in remote,
A. a pulse B. a triangular waveform isolated locations systems that isolate a single signal
C. a spike D. a ramp from many different signals
A. applications where there are high voltages and
232.The rate of change of an integrator’s output sensitive
voltage in response to a step input is set by B. equipment
A. the RC time constant C. applications where human safety is a concern
B. the amplitude of the step input D. answer c and d
C. the current through the capacitor
D. all of these 240.The three parts of a basic isolation amplifier are
A. amplifier, filter, and power
233.In a differentiator, the feedback element is B. input, output, and coupling
A. resistor B. capacitor C. input, output, and power
C. zener diode D. voltage divider D. gain, attenuation, and offset
234.The output of a differentiator is proportional to 241.The stage of most isolation amplifiers are
A. the RC time constant connected by
B. the rate at which the input is changing A. copper strips B. transformers
C. the amplitude of the input C. microwave links D. current loops
D. answer a and b
242.The characteristics that allows an isolation
235.When you apply a triangular waveform to the amplifier to amplify small signal voltages in the
input of a differentiator, the output is presence of much greater noise voltages is its
A. a dc level A. CMRR
B. an inverted triangular waveform B. high gain
C. a square waveform C. high input impedance
D. the first harmonic of the triangular waveform D. magnetic coupling between input and output
262.When filters are cascaded, the roll-off rate 269.A second condition for oscillation is
A. increases B. decreases A. no gain around the feedback loop
C. does not change B. a gain of 1 around the feedback loop
C. the attenuation of the feedback circuit must be one
third
263.When the low-pass and a high-pass filter are D. the feedback circuit must be capacitive
cascaded to get a band-pass filter, the critical
frequency of the lowpass filter must be
A. equal to the critical frequency of the high-pass 270.In a certain oscillator, AV = 50. The attenuation
filter of the feedback circuit must be
B. less than the critical frequency of the high-pass A. 1 B. 0.01
filter C. 10 D. 0.02
C. greater than critical frequency of the high-pass
filter
271.For an oscillator to properly start, the gain
around the feedback loop must initially be
264.A state-variable filter consist of A. 1 B. less than 1
A. one op-amp with multiple-feedback paths C. greater than 1 D. equal to B
B. a summing amplifier and two integrators
C. a summing amplifier and two differentiators
D. three butterworth stages 272.In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistance in
the positive
A. feedback circuit are decreased, the frequency
265.When the gain of a filter is minimum at its center B. decreases
frequency, it is C. increases
A. a band-pass filter D. remains the same
B. a band-stop filter
C. a notch filter
D. answer b and c 273.The Wien-bridge oscillator’s positive feedback
circuit is
A. an RL circuit B. an LC circuit
Chapter 16: OSCILLATORS C. a voltage divider D. a lead-lag circuit
266.An oscillator differs from an amplifier because 274.A phase-shift oscillator has
A. it has more gain A. three RC circuits B. three LC circuits
B. it requires no input signal C. a T-type circuit D. a π-type circuits
C. it requires no dc supply
D. it always has the same output
275.Colpitts, Clapp, and Hartley are names refer to
A. types of RC oscillation
267.Wien-bridge oscillators are based on B. inventors of the transistor
A. positive feedback C. types of LC oscillators
B. negative feedback D. types of filters
C. the piezoelectric effect
D. high gain
276.An oscillator whose frequency is charged by a
variable dc voltage is known as
268.One condition for oscillation is A. a crystal oscillator B. a VCO
A. a phase shift around the feedback loop of 180˚ C. an Armstrong oscillator D. a piezoelectric device
B. a gain around the feedback loop of one-third
C. a phase shift around the feedback loop of 0˚
277.The main feature of a crystal oscillator is D. maintains a constant IF amplitude
A. economy B. reliability
C. stability D. high frequency
285.In order to handle all combinations of input
voltage polarities, a multiplier must have
278.The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based A. four-quadrant capability
on B. three-quadrant capability
A. the charging and discharging of a capacitor C. four inputs
B. a highly selective resonant circuit D. dual-supply voltages
C. a very stable supply voltage
D. low power consumption
286.The internal attenuation of a multiplier is called
the
279.Which of the following is not an input or output A. transconductance B. scalefactor
of the 555 timer? C. reduction factor
A. threshold B. control voltage
C. clock D. trigger
E. discharged F. reset 287.When the two inputs of a multiplier are
connected together, the device operates as a
A. voltage doubler B. square root circuit
Chapter 17: VOLTAGE REGULATORS C. squaring circuit D. averaging circuit
18. In some batteries, chemical energy can be 5. A piece of wire has a conductance of 20 siemens.
replenished by: Its resistance is:
A. Connecting it to a light bulb. A. 20 Ω.
B. Charging it. B. 0.5 Ω.
C. Discharging it. C. 0.05 Ω.
D. No means known; when a battery is dead, you D. 0.02 Ω.
have to throw it away.
6. A resistor has a value of 300 ohms. Its conductance
19. A changing magnetic field: is:
A. Produces an electric current in an insulator. A. 3.33 millisiemens.
B. Magnetizes the earth. B. 33.3 millisiemens.
C. Produces a fluctuating electric field. C. 333 microsiemens.
D. Results from a steady electric current. D. 0.333 siemens.
20. Light is converted into electricity: 7. A mile of wire has a conductance of 0.6 siemens.
A. In a dry cell. Then three miles of
B. In a wet cell. the same wire has a conductance of:
C. In an incandescent bulb. A. 1.8 siemens.
D. In a photovoltaic cell. B. 1.8 Ω.
C. 0.2 siemens.
D. Not enough information has been given to answer 14. In the output of a half-wave rectifier:
this. A. Half of the wave is inverted.
B. The effective value is less than that of the
original ac wave.
8. A 2-kW generator will deliver approximately how C. The effective value is the same as that of the
much current, reliably, original ac wave.
at 117 V? D. The effective value is more than that of the
A. 17 mA. original ac wave.
B. 234 mA.
C. 17 A.
D. 234 A. 15. In the output of a full-wave rectifier:
A. The whole wave is inverted.
B. The effective value is less than that of the original
9. A circuit breaker is rated for 15 A at 117 V. This ac wave.
represents approximately how many kilowatts? C. The effective value is the same as that of the
A. 1.76. original ac wave.
B. 1760. D. The effective value is more than that of the
C. 7.8. original ac wave.
D. 0.0078.
6. One advantage of an electromagnet meter over a 12. The main advantage of a FETVM over a
permanent-magnet meter is that: conventional voltmeter is the fact that the FETVM:
A. The electromagnet meter costs much less. A. Can measure lower voltages.
B. Draws less current from the circuit under test. 19. An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate:
C. Can withstand higher voltages safely. A. Frequency.
D. Is sensitive to ac as well as to dc. B. Wave shape.
C. Energy.
D. Peak signal voltage.
13. Which of the following is not a function of a
fuse?
A. To be sure there is enough current available for 20. The display in Fig. 3-18 could be caused by a
an appliance to work right. voltage of:
B. To make it impossible to use appliances that are A. 6.0 V.
too large for a given circuit. B. 6.6 V.
C. To limit the amount of power that a circuit can C. 7. 0V.
deliver. D. No way to tell; the meter is malfunctioning.
D. To make sure the current is within safe limits.
10. Three resistors are in parallel in the same 16. Refer to Fig. 5-6. Let the resistances each be 3.3
configuration and with the same values as in problem KΩ 12 V. If the plus terminal of a dc voltmeter is
4 (Fig. 5-10). What is the power dissipated by the placed between R1 and R2 (with voltages E1 and E2),
whole set? and the minus terminal of the voltmeter is placed
A. 5.4 W. between R3 and R4 (with voltages E3 and E4), what
B. 5.4 uW. will the meter register?
C. 650 W. A. 0 V.
D. 650 mW. B. 3 V.
C. 6 V.
D. 12 V.
11. In Fig. 5-10, the power dissipated by R1 is:
A. 32 mW.
B. 480 mW. 17. In a voltage divider network, the total resistance:
C. 2.1 W. A. Should be large to minimize current drain.
D. 31 W. B. Should be as small as the power supply will
allow.
C. Is not important.
12. Fill in the blank in the following sentence. In D. Should be such that the current is kept to 100 mA.
either series or a parallel circuit, the sum of the s in
each component is equal to the total provided by the
supply. 18. The maximum voltage output from a voltage
A. Current. divider:
B. Voltage. A. Is a fraction of the power supply voltage.
C. Wattage. B. Depends on the total resistance.
D. Resistance. C. Is equal to the supply voltage.
13. Refer to Fig. 5-5A. Suppose the resistors each D. Depends on the ratio of resistances.
have values of 33 Ω. The battery provides 24 V. The
current I1 is:
A. 1.1 A. 19. Refer to Fig. 5-7. The battery E is 18.0 V.
B. 730 mA. Suppose there are four resistors in the network: R1 =
C. 360 mA. 100 Ω, R2 = 22.0 Ω, R3 = 33.0 Ω, R4 = 47.0 Ω. The
D. Not determinable from the information given. voltage E3 at P3 is:
A. 4.19 V.
B. 13.8 V.
14. Refer to Fig. 5-5B. Let each resistor have a value C. 1.61 V.
of 820 Ω. Suppose the top three resistors all lead to D. 2.94 V.
light bulbs of the exact same wattage. If I1 = 50 mA
and I2 = 70 mA, what is the power dissipated in the
resistor carrying current I4? 20. Refer to Fig. 5-7. The battery is 12 V; you want
A. 33 W. intermediate voltages of 3.0, 6.0 and 9.0 V. Suppose
B. 40 mW. that a maximum of 200 mA is allowed
C. 1.3 W. hrough the network. What values should the
D. It can’t be found using the information given. resistors, R1, R2, R3, and R4 have, respectively?
A. 15 Ω, 30 Ω, 45 Ω, 60 Ω.
B. 60 Ω, 45 Ω, 30 Ω, 15 Ω.
15. Refer to Fig. 5-6. Suppose the resistances R1, R2, C. 15 Ω, 15 Ω, 15 Ω, 15 Ω.
R3, and R4 are in the ratio 1:2:4:8 from left to right,
D. There isn’t enough information to design the 7. A meter-sensitivity control in a test instrument
circuit. would probably be:
A. A set of switchable, fixed resistors.
B. A linear-taper potentiometer.
Chapter 6: RESISTORS C. A logarithmic-taper potentiometer.
D. A wirewound resistor.
3. A material that can be permanently magnetized is 10. If a wire coil has 10 turns and carries 500 mA of
generally said to be: current, what is the magnetomotive force in ampere-
A. Magnetic. turns?
B. Electromagnetic. A. 5000.
C. Permanently magnetic. B. 50.
D. Ferromagnetic. C. 5.0.
D. 0.02.
4. The force between a magnet and a piece of
ferromagnetic metal that has not been magnetized: 11. If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.30 A of
A. Can be either repulsive or attractive. current, what is the magnetomotive force in gilberts?
B. Is never repulsive. A. 130.
C. Gets smaller as the magnet gets closer to the B. 76.9.
metal. C. 164.
D. Depends on the geomagnetic field. D. 61.0.
5. Magnetic flux can always be attributed to: 12. Which of the following is not generally possible
A. Ferromagnetic materials. in a geomagnetic storm?
B. Aligned atoms. A. Charged particles streaming out from the sun.
C. Motion of charged particles. B. Fluctuations in the earth’s magnetic field.
D. The geomagnetic field. C. Disruption of electrical power transmission.
D. Disruption of microwave radio links.
6. Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate:
A. In atoms of ferromagnetic materials.
13. An ac electromagnet: B. Data can be stored and retrieved more quickly
A. Will attract only other magnetized objects. with disks than
B. Will attract pure, unmagnetized iron. with tapes.
C. Will repel other magnetized objects. C. Disks look better.
D. Will either attract or repel permanent magnets, D. Disks are less susceptible to magnetic fields.
depending on the
polarity.
20. A bubble memory is best suited for:
A. A large computer.
14. An advantage of an electromagnet over a B. A home video entertainment system.
permanent magnet is that: C. A portable cassette player.
A. An electromagnet can be switched on and off. D. A magnetic disk.
B. An electromagnet does not have specific polarity.
C. An electromagnet requires no power source.
D. Permanent magnets must always be cylindrical. TEST: PART ONE
5. Which of the following is a good use, or place, for 11. A loudness meter in a hi-fi system is generally
a wirewound resistor? calibrated in:
A. To dissipate a large amount of dc power. A. Volts.
B. In the input of a radio-frequency amplifier. B. Amperes.
C. In the output of a radio-frequency amplifier. C. Decibels.
D. In an antenna, to limit the transmitter power. D. Watt hours.
E. Between ground and the chassis of a power E. Ohms.
supply. 12. A charged atom is known as:
A. A molecule.
B. An isotope.
6. The number of protons in the nucleus of an C. An ion.
element is the: D. An electron.
A. Electron number. E. A fundamental particle.
B. Atomic number.
C. Valence number.
D. Charge number. 13. A battery delivers 12 V to a bulb. The current in
E. Proton number. the bulb is 3 A. What is the resistance of the bulb?
A. 36 Ω.
B. 4 Ω.
7. A hot-wire ammeter: C. 0.25 Ω.
A. Can measure ac as well as dc. D. 108 Ω.
B. Registers current changes very fast. E. 0.75 Ω.
C. Can indicate very low voltages.
D. Measures electrical energy.
E. Works only when current flows in one direction. 14. Peak values are always:
A. Greater than average values.
B. Less than average values.
8. Which of the following units indicates the rate at C. Greater than or equal to average values.
which energy is expended? D. Less than or equal to average values.
A. The volt. E. Fluctuating.
B. The ampere.
C. The coulomb.
D. The ampere hour. 15. A resistor has a value of 680 ohms, and a
E. The watt. tolerance of plus or minus 5 percent. Which of the
following values indicates a reject?
A. 648 Ω.
9. Which of the following correctly states Ohm’s B. 712 Ω.
Law? C. 699 Ω.
A. Volts equal amperes divided by ohms. D. 636 Ω.
B. Ohms equal amperes divided by volts. E. 707 Ω.
C. Amperes equal ohms divided by volts.
D. Amperes equal ohms times volts.
E. Ohms equal volts divided by amperes. 16. A primitive device for indicating the presence of
an electric current is:
A. An electrometer.
10. The current going into a point in a dc circuit is B. A galvanometer.
always equal to the current: C. A voltmeter.
D. A coulometer. 22. A watt hour meter measures:
E. A wattmeter. A. Voltage.
B. Current.
C. Power.
17. A disadvantage of mercury cells is that they: D. Energy.
A. Pollute the environment when discarded. E. Charge.
B. Supply less voltage than other cells.
C. Can reverse polarity unexpectedly.
D. Must be physically large. 23. Every chemical element has its own unique type
E. Must be kept right-side-up. of particle, called its:
A. Molecule.
B. Electron.
18. A battery supplies 6.0 V to a bulb rated at 12 W. C. Proton.
How much current D. Atom.
does the bulb draw? E. Isotope.
A. 2.0 A. 24. An advantage of a magnetic disk over magnetic
B. 0.5 A. tape for data storage is that:
C. 72 A. A. Data is too closely packed on the tape.
D. 40 mA. B. The disk is immune to the effects of magnetic
E. 72 mA. fields.
C. Data storage and retrieval is faster on disk.
19. Of the following, which is not a common use of a D. Disks store computer data in analog form.
resistor? E. Tapes cannot be used to store digital data.
A. Biasing for a transistor.
B. Voltage division. 25. A 6-V battery is connected across a series
C. Current limiting. combination of resistors. The resistance values are 1,
D. Use as a “dummy” antenna. 2, and 3 Ω. What is the current through the 2- Ω
E. Increasing the charge in a capacitor. A. 1 A.
B. 3 A.
20. When a charge builds up without a flow of C. 12 A.
current, the charge is said to be: D. 24 A.
A. Ionizing. E. 72 A.
B. Atomic.
C. Molecular. 26. A material that has extremely high electrical
D. Electronic. resistance is known as:
E. Static. A. A semiconductor.
B. A paraconductor.
21. The sum of the voltages, going around a dc C. An insulator.
circuit, but not including the power supply, has: D. A resistor.
A. Equal value, and the same polarity, as the supply. E. A diamagnetic substance.
B. A value that depends on the ratio of the
resistances. 27. Primary cells:
C. Different value from, but the same polarity as, the A. Can be used over and over.
supply. B. Have higher voltage than other types of cells.
D. Equal value as, but opposite polarity from, the C. All have exactly 1.500 V.
supply. D. Cannot be recharged.
E. Different value, and opposite polarity, from the E. Are made of zinc and carbon.
supply.
28. A rheostat:
A. Is used in high-voltage and/or high-power dc
circuits. E. The ampere per square meter.
B. Is ideal for tuning a radio receiver.
C. Is often used as a bleeder resistor.
D. Is better than a potentiometer for low-power 35. A 24-V battery is connected across a set of four
audio. resistors in parallel. Each resistor has a value of 32
E. Offers the advantage of having no inductance. ohms. What is the total power dissipated by the
resistors?
A. 0.19 W. B. 3 W.
29. A voltage typical of a dry cell is: C. 192 W. D. 0.33 W.
A. 12 V. E. 72 W.
B. 6 V.
C. 1.5 V.
D. 117 V. 36. The main difference between a “lantern” battery
E. 0.15 V. and a “transistor” battery is:
A. The lantern battery has higher voltage.
B. The lantern battery has more energy capacity.
30. A geomagnetic storm: C. Lantern batteries cannot be used with electronic
A. Causes solar wind. devices such as
B. Causes charged particles to bombard the earth. transistor radios.
C. Can disrupt the earth’s magnetic field. D. Lantern batteries can be recharged, but transistor
D. Ruins microwave communications. batteries cannot.
E. Has no effect near the earth’s poles. E. The lantern battery is more compact.
31. An advantage of an alkaline cell over a zinc- 37. NICAD batteries are most extensively used:
carbon cell is that: A. In disposable flashlights.
A. The alkaline cell provides more voltage. B. In large lanterns.
B. The alkaline cell can be recharged. C. As car batteries.
C. An alkaline cell works at lower temperatures. D. In handheld radio transceivers.
D. The alkaline cell is far less bulky for the same E. In remote garage-door-opener control boxes.
amount of energy capacity.
E. There is no advantage of alkaline over zinc-carbon
cells. 38. A voltmeter should have:
A. Very low internal resistance.
B. Electrostatic plates.
32. A battery delivers 12 V across a set of six 4- Ω C. A sensitive amplifier.
voltage dividing combination. This provides six D. High internal resistance.
different voltages, differing by an increment of: E. The highest possible full-scale value.
A. 1/4 V. B. 1/3 V.
C. 1 V. D. 2 V.
E. 3 V. 39. The purpose of a bleeder resistor is to:
A. Provide bias for a transistor.
B. Serve as a voltage divider.
33. A unit of electrical charge quantity is the: C. Protect people against the danger of electric
A. Volt. B. Ampere. shock.
C. Watt. D. Tesla. D. Reduce the current in a power supply.
E. Coulomb. E. Smooth out the ac ripple in a power supply.
42. A 12-V battery is connected to a set of three 49. A 6.00-V battery is connected to a parallel
resistors in series. The resistance values are 1,2, and 3 combination of two resistors, whose values are 8.00
ohms. What is the voltage across the 3- Ω Ω Ω. What is the power dissipated in the 8- Ω
A. 1 V. B. 2 V. A. 0.300 W.
C. 4 V. D. 6 V. B. 0.750 W.
43. Nine 90-ohm resistors are connected in a 3x - C. 1.25 W.
parallel network. The total resistance is: D. 1.80 W.
A. 10 Ω. B. 30 Ω. E. 4.50 W.
C. 90 Ω. D. 270 Ω.
E. 810 Ω.
50. The main problem with a bar-graph meter is that:
A. Is isn’t very sensitive.
44. A device commonly used for remote switching of B. It isn’t stable.
wire communications signals is: C. It can’t give a very precise reading.
A. A solenoid. D. You need special training to read it.
B. An electromagnet. E. It shows only peak values.
C. A potentiometer.
D. A photovoltaic cell.
E. A relay. Chapter 9: ALTERNATING CURRENT BASICS
4. The period of an ac wave is: 11. If two waves have the same frequency and the
A. The same as the frequency. same amplitude, but opposite phase, the composite
B. Not related to the frequency. wave is:
C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency. A. Twice the amplitude of either wave alone.
D. Equal to the amplitude divided by the frequency. B. Half the amplitude of either wave alone.
C. A complex waveform, but with the same
frequency as the originals.
5. The sixth harmonic of an ac wave whose period is D. Zero.
0.001 second has a frequency of
A. 0.006 Hz.
B. 167 Hz. 12. If two waves have the same frequency and the
C. 7 kHz. same phase, the composite wave:
D. 6 kHz. A. Has a magnitude equal to the difference between
the two originals.
B. Has a magnitude equal to the sum of the two
6. A degree of phase represents: originals.
A. 6.28 cycles. C. Is complex, with the same frequency as the
B. 57.3 cycles. originals.
C. 1/6.28 cycle. D. Is zero.
D. 1/360 cycle.
2. Which of the following does not affect the 9. Suppose the three inductors mentioned above are
inductance of a coil? connected in parallel without mutual inductance. The
A. The diameter of the wire. net inductance will be close to:
B. The number of turns. A. 4 nH. B. 140 μH.
C. The type of core material. C. 5 H. D. None of these.
D. The length of the coil. 10. Two inductors, each of 100 μH, are in series. The
coefficient of coupling is 0.40. The net inductance, if
the coil fields reinforce each other, is:
A. 50 μH. B. 120 μH.
C. 200 μH. D. 280 μH. B. Has high permeability.
C. Allows large inductance in a small volume.
D. Has permeability that can vary over a wide range.
11. If the coil fields oppose in the foregoing series-
connected arrangement, the net inductance is:
A. 50 μH. B. 120 μH. 18. At a frequency of 400 Hz, the most likely form
C. 200 μH. D. 280 μH. for an inductor would be:
A. Air-core. B. Solenoidal.
C. Toroidal. D. Transmission-line.
12. Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88
mH, are connected in series with a coefficient of
coupling equal to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual 19. At a frequency of 95 MHz, the best form for an
inductance). If their fields reinforce, the net inductor would be:
inductance (to two significant digits) is: A. Air-core. B. Pot core.
A. 7.5 mH. B. 132 mH. C. Either of the above. D. Neither of the above.
C. 190 mH. D. 260 mH.
6. A capacitance of 0.033 μF is the same as: 15. A paper capacitor might have a value of:
A. 33 pF. B. 330 pF. A. 0.001 pF. B. 0.01 μF.
C. 3300 pF. D. 33,000 pF. C. 100 μF. D. 3300 μF.
7. Five 0.050-μF capacitors are connected in parallel. 16. An air-variable capacitor might have a range of:
The total capacitance is: A. 0.01 μF to 1 μF.
A. 0.010 μF. B. 0.25 μF. B. 1 μF to 100 μF.
C. 0.50 μF. D. 0.025 μF. C. 1 pF to 100 pF.
D. 0.001 pF to 0.1 pF.
6. You can add or subtract a certain number of 12. Two sine waves are in phase opposition. Wave X
degrees of phase to or from a sine wave, and end up has a peak amplitude of 4 V and wave Y has a peak
with an inverted (upside-down) representation of the amplitude of 8 V. The resultant has a peak amplitude
original. This number is: of:
A. 90. A. 4 V, in phase with the composites.
B. 180. B. 4 V, out of phase with the composites.
C. 270. C. 4 V, in phase with wave X.
D. 360. D. 4 V, in phase with wave Y.
7. A wave has a frequency of 300 kHz. One complete 13. If wave X leads wave Y by 45 degrees of phase,
cycle takes: then:
A. 1⁄300 second. A. Wave Y is 1⁄4 cycle ahead of wave X.
B. 0.00333 second. B. Wave Y is 1⁄4 cycle behind wave X.
C. 1⁄3,000 second. C. Wave Y is 1⁄8 cycle behind wave X.
D. 0.00000333 second. D. Wave Y is 1⁄16 cycle ahead of wave X.
8. If a wave has a frequency of 440 Hz, how long 14. If wave X lags wave Y by 1⁄3 cycle, then:
does it take for 10 A. Y is 120 degrees earlier than X.
degrees of phase? B. Y is 90 degrees earlier than X.
A. 0.00273 second. C. Y is 60 degrees earlier than X.
D. Y is 30 degrees earlier than X. C. Decrease to near zero.
D. Be stored in the core material.
19. In vector diagrams such as those of Fig. 12-13, 6. A coil has an inductance of 400 μH. Its reactance is
the distance from the center of the graph represents: 33 Ω. What is the frequency?
A. Average amplitude. A. 13 kHz. B. 0.013 kHz.
B. Frequency. C. 83 kHz. D. 83 MHz.
C. Phase difference.
D. Peak amplitude.
7. An inductor has XL = 555 Ω f = 132 kHz. What is
L?
A. 670 mH. B. 670 μH.
C. 460 mH. D. 460 μH.
20. In diagrams like those of Fig. 12-13, the
progression of time is sometimes depicted as:
A. Movement to the right. 8. A coil has L = 689 μH at f =990 kHz. What is XL?
B. Movement to the left. A. 682 Ω. B. 4.28 Ω.
C. Rotation counterclockwise. C. 4.28 K Ω. D. 4.28 M Ω.
D. Rotation clockwise.
15. In a purely reactive circuit, the phase angle is: 2. If the dielectric material between the plates of a
A. Increasing. capacitor is changed, all other things being equal:
B. Decreasing. A. The value of XC increases negatively.
C. 0 degrees. B. The value of XC decreases negatively.
D. 90 degrees. C. The value of XC does not change.
D. You can’t say what happens to XC without
16. If the inductive reactance is the same as the more data.
resistance in an RL circuit, the phase angle is:
A. 0 degrees. 3. As the frequency of a wave gets lower, all other
B. 45 degrees. things being equal, the value of XC for a capacitor:
C. 90 degrees. A. Increases negatively.
B. Decreases negatively. D. Always point straight down.
C. Does not change.
D. Depends on the current.
12. If the resistance R increases in an RC circuit, but
the capacitance and the frequency are nonzero and
4. A capacitor has a value of 330 pF. What is its constant, then the vector in the RC plane will:
capacitive reactance at a frequency of 800 kHz? A. Get longer and rotate clockwise.
A. -1.66 Ω. B. -0.00166 Ω. B. Get longer and rotate counterclockwise.
C. -603 Ω. D. -603 K Ω. C. Get shorter and rotate clockwise.
D. Get shorter and rotate counterclockwise.
5. What is the product (-4 - j7) (6 - j2)? 13. A capacitor has a value of 0.050 μF at 665 kHz.
A. 24 - j14. B. -38 - j34. What is the capacitive susceptance?
C. -24 - j14. D. -24 + j14. A. j4.79. B. -j4.79.
C. j0. 209. D. -j0. 209.
6. What is the magnitude of the vector 18 - j24?
A. 42. B. -42. 14. An inductor has a value of 44 mH at 60 Hz. What
C. 30. D. -30. is the inductive susceptance?
A.. -j0.060. B. j0.060.
7. The impedance vector 5 + j0 represents: C. -j17. D. j17.
A. A pure resistance.
B. A pure inductance. 15. Susceptance and conductance add to form:
C. A pure capacitance. A. Impedance. B. Inductance.
C. Reactance. D. Admittance. the impedance vector:
A. Always points straight up.
B. Always points straight down.
16. Absolute-value impedance is equal to the square C. Always points straight towards the right.
root of: D. None of the above.
A. G2 + B2 B. R2 + X2.
C. Zo. D. Y.
4. A resistor of 150 Ω, a coil with reactance 100 Ω
reactance -200 Ω impedance R + jX?
17. Inductive susceptance is measured in: A. 150 + j100.
A. Ohms. B. Henrys. B. 150 - j200.
C. Farads. D. Siemens. C. 100 - j200.
D. 150 - j100.
18. Capacitive susceptance is:
A. Positive and real valued. 5. A resistor of 330 Ω, a coil of 1.00 μH and a
B. Negative and real valued. capacitor of 200 pF are in series. What is R + jX at
C. Positive and imaginary. 10.0 MHz?
D. Negative and imaginary. A. 330 - j199. B. 300 + j201.
C. 300 + j142. D. 330 - j16.8.
19. Which of the following is false?
A. BC = 1/XC. 6. A coil has an inductance of 3.00 μH and a
B. Complex impedance can be depicted as a vector. resistance of 10.0 Ω winding. A capacitor of 100 pF
C. Characteristic impedance is complex. is in series with this coil. What is R + jX at 10.0
D. G = 1/R. MHz?
A. 10 + j3.00. B. 10 + j29.2.
20. In general, the greater the absolute value of the C. 10 - j97. D. 10 + j348.
impedance in a circuit:
A. The greater the flow of alternating current. 7. A coil has a reactance of 4.00 Ω. What is the
B. The less the flow of alternating current. admittance vector, G + jB, assuming nothing else is
C. The larger the reactance. in the circuit?
D. The larger the resistance. A. 0 + j0.25.
B. 0 + j4.00.
Chapter 16: RLC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS C. 0 – j0.25.
D. 0 + j4.00.
1. A coil and capacitor are connected in series. The
inductive reactance is 250 Ω, and the capacitive
reactance is -300 Ω. What is the net impedance 8. What will happen to the susceptance of a capacitor
vector, R + jX? if the frequency is doubled, all other things being
A. 0 + j550. B. 0 - j50. equal?
C. 250 - j300 D. -300 - j250. A. It will decrease to half its former value.
B. It will not change.
C. It will double.
2. A coil of 25.0 μH and capacitor of 100 pF are D. It will quadruple.
connected in series. The frequency is 5.00 MHz.
What is the impedance vector, R + jX?
A 0 + j467. B. 25 + j100. 9. A coil and capacitor are in parallel, with jBL = -
C. 0 - j467. D. 25 - j100. j0.05 and jBC = j0.03. What is the admittance vector,
assuming that nothing is in series or
parallel with these components?
3. When R = 0 in a series RLC circuit, but the net A. 0 - j0.02. B. 0 - j0.07.
reactance is not zero,
C. 0 + j0.02. D. -0.05 - j0.03. 17. A series circuit has 99.0 Ω Ω reactance. An ac
rms voltage of 117 V is applied to this series
network. What is the current?
10. A coil, resistor, and capacitor are in parallel. The A. 1.18 A. B. 1.13 A.
resistance is 1 Ω the capacitive susceptance is 1.0 C. 0.886 A. D. 0.846 A.
siemens; the inductive susceptance is - 1.0 siemens.
Then the frequency is cut to half its former value.
What will be the admittance vector, G + jB, at the 18. What is the voltage across the reactance in the
new frequency? above example?
A. 1 + j0. B. 1 + jl.5. A. 78.0 V.
C. 1 - jl.5. D. 1 – j2. B. 55.1 V.
C. 99.4 V.
D. 74.4 V.
11. A coil of 3.50 μH and a capacitor of 47.0 pF are
in parallel. The frequency is 9.55 MHz. There is
nothing else in series or parallel with these 19. A parallel circuit has 10 ohms of resistance and
components. What is the admittance vector? 15 Ω of reactance. An ac rms voltage of 20 V is
A. 0 + j0.00282. B. 0 – j0.00194. applied across it. What is the total current?
C. 0 + j0.00194. D. 0 – j0.00758. A. 2.00 A. B. 2.40 A.
C. 1.33 A. D. 0.800 A.
8. Phase angle is equal to: 15. A coil and capacitor are in parallel, with L = 10.0
A. Arctan Z/R. B. Arctan R/Z. μH and C = 10 pF. What is fo?
C. Arctan R/X. D. Arctan X/R. A. 15.9 kHz. B. 5.04 MHz.
C. 15.9 MHz. D. 50.4 MHz.
10. A wattmeter shows 57 watts of VA power in a 17. A parallel-resonant circuit is to be made for 21.3
circuit. The resistance is known to be 50 Ω, and the MHz. A capacitor of 22.0 pF is available. What size
true power is known to be 40 watts. What is the coil is needed?
absolute-value impedance? A. 2.54 mH. B. 254 μH.
A. 50 Ω C. 25.4 μH. D. 2.54 μH.
B. 57 Ω
C. 71 Ω
D. It can’t be calculated from this data. 18. A 1/4-wave line section is made for 21.1 MHz,
using cable with a velocity factor of 0.800. How
many meters long is it?
11. Which of the following is the most important A. 11.1 m. B. 3.55 m.
consideration in a transmission line? C. 8.87 m. D. 2.84 m.
A. The characteristic impedance.
19. The fourth harmonic of 800 kHz is: 6. Which of the following is false, concerning air
A. 200 kHz. B. 400 kHz. cores versus ferromagnetic cores?
C. 3.20 MHz. D. 4.00 MHz. A. Air concentrates the magnetic lines of flux.
B. Air works at higher frequencies than
ferromagnetics.
20. How long is a 1/2-wave dipole for 3.60 MHz? C. Ferromagnetics are lossier than air.
A. 130 feet. B. 1680 feet. D. A ferromagnetic-core unit needs fewer turns of
C. 39.7 feet. D. 515 feet. wire than an equivalent air-core unit.
13. In a household circuit, the 234-V power has: 20. If there is reactance at the output of an impedance
A. One phase. B. Two phases. transformer:
C. Three phases. D. Four phases. A. The circuit will not work.
B. There will be an impedance mismatch, no
matter what the turns ratio of the transformer.
14. In a transformer, a center tap would probably be C. A center tap must be used at the secondary.
found in: D. The turns ratio must be changed to obtain a match.
A. The primary winding.
B. The secondary winding.
C. The unbalanced winding. TEST: PART TWO
D. The balanced winding. 1. A series circuit has a resistance of 100 Ω and a
capacitive reactance of -200 Ω. The complex
impedance is:
15. An autotransformer: A. -200 + j100. B. 100 + j200.
A. Works automatically. C. 200 - j100. D. 200 + j100.
B. Has a center-tapped secondary. E. 100 - j200.
C. Has one tapped winding.
D. Is useful only for impedance matching.
2. Mutual inductance causes the net value of a set of
coils to:
16. A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns A. Cancel out, resulting in zero inductance.
ratio of 2.00:1. The input impedance is 300 Ω B. Be greater than what it would be with no mutual
resistive. What is the output impedance? coupling.
A. 75 Ω C. Be less than what it would be with no mutual
B. 150 Ω coupling.
C. 600 Ω D. Double.
D. 1200 Ω E. Vary, depending on the extent and phase of
mutual coupling.
17. A resistive input impedance of 50 Ω must be
matched to a resistive output impedance of 450 Ω. 3. Refer to Fig. TEST 2-1. Wave A is:
The primary-to-secondary turns ratio of the A. Leading wave B by 90 degrees.
transformer must be: B. Lagging wave B by 90 degrees.
A. 9.00:1. C. Leading wave B by 180 degrees.
B. 3.00:1. D. Lagging wave B by 135 degrees.
C. 1:3.00. E. Lagging wave B by 45 degrees.
D. 1:9.00.
43. A series circuit has a resistance of 50 Ω and a 50. An inductor shows 100 Ω of reactance at 30.0
capacitive reactance of -37 Ω. The phase angle is: MHz. What is its inductance?
A. 37 degrees. B. 53 degrees. A. 0.531 μH. B. 18.8 mH.
C. -37 degrees. D. -53 degrees. C. 531 μH. D. 18.8 μH.
E. Not determinable from the data given. E. It can’t be found from the data given.