PMP Sample Exam Questions

Examination (200 Questions) Time: 4 Hours
1. At a critical milestone meeting in a development project, it is determined that implementation is two months
behind schedule. The project manager is concerned that the root cause is lack of conformance to requirements in
the design of the new billing system. More extensive measurements are taken to see if this is, in fact, the problem.
Such measurements are:
A. not needed. The schedule should be compressed.

B. examples of quality control.
C. not going to show why the schedule is delayed.
D. part of integrated change control.
2. A project manager for a large international bank has a project team that has just implemented an electronic funds
project involving four large vendors. The project manager struggled through every part of the procurement process
since the bank had a weak internal contracts department. What would be the most appropriate thing to do to ensure
the problems are resolved for future projects?
A. Schedule a meeting with the head of the contract office.

B. Include an agenda item in a meeting after the project is closed.
C. Address this through contract change control.
D. Conduct a procurement audit.
3. Which of the following best describes when the risks should be identified first?
A. During the kick-off meeting.

B. After the project charter is received and before the final project schedule is created.
C. The first time there is a change to the project.
D. Before the project charter is created.
4. You evaluate your critical path and determine the project will be completed two weeks ahead of management’s
expected due date. What should you do?
A. Delay the project for two weeks.

B. Prepare a list of risks.
C. Pull resources off the critical path to work on non-critical path activities.
D. Add extra features that will enhance the project and require two more weeks to complete.
5. A contract has just been signed with a construction company to complete a remodeling project within three
months. Due to force majeure, the project will be delayed by an additional three months. However, the construction
company does not have enough resources to complete the project and has asked for an early termination of the
contract. What is the most appropriate thing to do in this situation?
A. Bring details of the situation to the legal department.

B. Complete administrative closure.
C. Complete close procurements process.
D. Issue a change order for an extension of time.
6. Your customer requested that the new railroad cars you are building for his company be constructed from heavy
grade aluminum. After reviewing the requirements, two of your experts inform you that the customer would be better
off with steel cars. You meet with the customer and discuss the issue in detail. He directs you to go ahead with the
aluminum cars. What should you do?
A. Meet with the customer again to ensure that he understands the expert opinions about using steel instead of
aluminum.
B. Find a way to cut other costs and upgrade the cars to steel.
C. Provide aluminum cars that meet the customer’s requirements.
D. Meet with your experts to find another proposal for the customer.
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7. The sponsor wants the project to begin, but needs to be sure the appropriate amount of funding is available. The
project manager wants to create the project estimate herself. Which of the following is the best rationale the project
manager can use to convince the sponsor to allow her to prepare the project estimate?
A. Such estimating provides a basis for monitoring and controlling.

B. Such estimating gives the project manager an understanding of the sponsor’s expectations.
C. Such estimating will include sunk costs.
D. Project estimate does not require the identification of work packages.
8. In the procurement, the buyer has required the seller to provide at least two PMP® certificants on the
team in addition to meeting additional evaluation criteria. The buyer creates an evaluation team that will
evaluate the sellers’ proposals using a system to minimize personal prejudice. Any major difference in the
evaluations will be negotiated. The project is using which of the following proposal evaluation techniques?
A. Independent estimates and contract negotiation.

B. A seller rating system and a screening system.
C. Screening system and a weighting system.
D. A weighting system and contract negotiation.
9. As a project manager, you know that the process of conferring with other team members to reach an agreement
or consensus is called?
A. Lose-lose.
B. Win-win.
C. Negotiation.
D. Synthesis.
10. You are the project manager on an information technology project. An information specialist on your team, after
having lunch with a low ranking customer representative working with him on a software project, learns that a
simple alteration in the display would be a great addition to the project. You and the sponsor have already approved
the scope. The information specialist installs the change with no negative effect on the project schedule and at no
additional cost. What action should be taken?
A. The information specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectation without affecting project
cost or schedule.
B. The project manager should add an activity to the project management plan with no associated time.
C. The information specialist should be told that his behavior was unacceptable, as it may have negatively affected
the overall project.
D. The project manager should create a change control form, and have the customer approve the change since the
change has already been made.
11. Two of your team members have been arguing for the past several weeks about which accounting package will
work best for the project. You are tired of listening to them. So you decide to conduct a meeting to see whether they
can reach consensus on the matter by identifying common points of agreement. Which style of conflict resolution
will you employ?
A. Smoothing.
B. Forcing.
C. Withdrawal.
D. Distraction.
12. A project manager is leading an effort to analyze waste and non-value-added activity on the project. One team
member reports that two processes in use require work he believes is unnecessary. Another team member reports
that a process is not well understood. The project manager must be leading which of the following?
A. process rather than a project.

B. human resource planning.
C. management by projects.
D. quality assurance.
13. A client has asked you to expand the scope of the project. The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.
What should you do first?
A. Do not approve the change.

B. Determine the effects of the change on the project.
C. Ask the sponsor for approval to make the change.
D. Get approval from the change control board.
14. The disorientation experienced by people who suddenly find themselves living and working in a different
environment is known as?
A. Ethno-centrism.
B. Socio-centrism.
C. Culture shock.
D. Temporal shock.
15. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her
team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager
should prefer to:
A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in important knowledge areas.
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program.
C. Wait until the functional managers take an action.
D. Hire additional resources to compensate for all of the weak areas.
16. Your company is purchasing the services of a consultant. You notice you own stock in one of the consulting
companies interested in the work. What should you do?
A. Work hard to get the consulting company selected for the project.
B. Tell the people from the consulting company that you hope they get the work.
C. Tell your manager and remove yourself from the selection committee.
D. Keep the information to yourself.
17. Who of the following would be least likely to be involved in activity definition?
A. End user.
B. Team.
C. Experts.
D. Project manager.
18. Which of the following is the best method to make reward systems most effective?
A. Pay a large salary increase to the best workers.

B. Give the team a choice of rewards.
C. Make the link between performance and reward clear.
D. Present notification of rewards within the company.
19. In a sensitive technology project, an example of a value-adding change is a change that:
A. Takes advantage of cost-reducing technology that was not available when the scope was originally defined.
B. Is caused by a new or revised government regulation.
C. Corrects omission of a required feature in the design of a system.
D. Uses a bill of materials to define the scope of the project.
20. All of the following are the reasons why conflict is unavoidable in projects except?
A. High-stress environment.
B. Multiple bosses.
C. Ambiguous roles.
D. Low uncertainty.
21. The project status meeting is not going well. Everyone is talking at the same time, there are people who are not
participating and many topics are being discussed at random. Which of the following rules for effective meetings is
not being adhered to?
A. Demonstrate courtesy.
B. Schedule meetings in advance.
C. Have a purpose for the meeting.
D. Create and publish an agenda and a set of rules for controlling the meeting.
22. An additional person joins a meeting and the number of communication channels doubles. How many channels
of communication are there now?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 10
23. Which of the following would be the most appropriate thing to do during the closing process group?
A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.

B. Collect historical information from previous projects.
C. Confirm all the requirements in the project have been met.
D. Give formal approval of the management plans.
24. You just completed a cost estimate on the project and you’re assuming there’s a 15 percent chance you will
exceed this estimate. You are:
A. below the mean.

B. above the mean.
C. above the median.
D. below the median.
25. Having to constantly push the team to perform is an example of a lack of:
A. project continuity.
B. team buy-in.
C. management support.
D. team accord.
26. To a project manager, which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of progress reports as compared to
watching what is going on in a project, asking questions and assisting team members?
A. Progress reports should include information from all the team members.
B. Progress reports require much more time for gathering information.
C. Progress reports generally show problems after they have occurred.
D. Progress reports supply information about trends only.
27. Your project is managed in a projectized organization. It has just entered closure. Under these circumstances,
which of the following should be your greatest concern?
A. Setting yourself up to take over another project.

B. The team is not focused on completing the project.
C. You will have extra pressure from the customer.
D. Making sure your manager knows the project is almost completed.
28. The greatest degree of uncertainty is generally encountered during which phase of the project life cycle?
A. Planning.
B. Concept.
C. Executing.
D. Implementation.
29. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 5 days and a pessimistic estimate of 17 days. What is the
PERT standard deviation?
A. 12 days.
B. 2 days.
C. It can’t be determined because the most likely estimate is not given.
D. 5 days.
30. Your project had a difficult time receiving formal approval of the project management plan because there were
so many stakeholders whose requirements were not approved for inclusion in the project. These stakeholders
argued and held up the project while they hold meeting after meeting about their requirements. The project was
finally approved and work began six months ago. All of the following would be good preventive actions to implement
except?
A. Keep a list of what requirements were not included (were not approved) in the project.
B. Make sure the change control process is functioning efficiently.
C. Maintain an issue log.
D. Hold meetings with the stakeholders to go over the work that will not be added to the project.
31. Which of the following best describes how a work breakdown structure can be used to determine resources?
A. It should break the project into one-person activities.

B. The small work packages that the WBS provides make it easier to determine what expertise is needed.
C. It lists the names of the resources to be used.
D. It enables management to list the resource hierarchy.
32. Why is reverse resource allocation scheduling done?
A. To ensure activities can be completed as scheduled.

B. To accommodate a finite and critical project resources.
C. To delay resource allocation.
D. To allocate the main body of resources to the project.
33. Which of the following best describes a risk response owner?
A. The person who identified a risk.

B. The department or company that is the source of the risk and most knowledgeable on the risk.
C. The department or company that will be most affected by the risk.
D. The person who will be responsible for implementing the risk response strategy.
34. General management encompasses all except:
A. Organizational behavior
B. Sales and marketing
C. Strategic planning
D. Developing a new product or service
35. What output do bidder conferences create?
A. Contract statement of work.

B. Proposals.
C. A clear and common understanding of the work required.
D. Contract.
36. A project team has completed and the customer has accepted the completed project scope. However, the
lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed. What is the status of the
project?
A. The project is incomplete because the project needs to be re-planned.

B. The project is incomplete because lessons learned is missing.
C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables.
D. The project is complete because the team members have completed their duties.
37. How does most communication occur?
A. Nonverbally
B. Verbally
C. Wittingly
D. By innuendo
38. The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phase is testing and
implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the project manager be most concerned
with before moving on to the final phase?
A. Verify scope.
B. Perform quality control.
C. Report performance.
D. Perform quality assurance.
39. Once a risk response is created which of the following statements best describes the project manager’s role
regarding risks while the project work is being completed?
A. Take actions when identified risks occur.

B. Look for unexpected impacts of implemented risk responses.
C. Perform the workaround plans.
D. Make sure that risk response owners are assigned to identify risks.
40. A team member is visiting the manufacturing plant of one of the suppliers. Which of the following is the most
important thing to be done in any telephone calls the project manager might make to the team member?
A. Ask the team member to repeat back what the project manager says.
B. Review the list of contact information for all stakeholders.
C. Ask the team member to look for change requests.
D. Review the upcoming meeting schedule.
41. During the define activities process, the team discovers that they do not know enough to define the activities for
30 percent of the work packages. What would be the best course of action?
A. Redo scope definition.

B. Review the project charter with the sponsor and the team.
C. Continue on to sequence activities process and define the activities at a later date.
D. Include this problem as part of risk identification.
42. A good friend at work tells you that when his wife was diagnosed with cancer, he stole items from work and sold
them, using the money for her treatment. He has since paid back the money taken in ways that kept his theft secret.
What should you do?
A. Advise your friend to tell his company and do nothing.

B. Report him to his manager.
C. Talk with a lawyer to see if this can be justified.
D. Attempt to gather evidence to determine whether or not the theft in fact occurred.
43. During the execution of the project, a new ISO version of a standard is issued and the project team is meeting
with the quality department to determine how the standard will apply to the project. This is part of which quality
process?
A. Plan quality.
C. Analyze quality.
44. All of the following are true statements about parametric estimating except:
A. The model is scalable.

B. Estimates must be based on input from the team.
C. The parameters used in the model are readily quantifiable.
D. Historical information can be used in the model.
45. Barriers to effective project communications include all of the following except:
A. Hostility.
B. Rapport.
C. Vagary.
D. Disbelief.
46. A project is seriously delayed. To get the project back on track, management wants to add five people to a
critical path activity currently assigned to one person. The project manager disagrees, noting that this will not
produce enough increase in speed. This is an example of:
A. law of diminishing returns.

B. fast tracking.
C. earned value.
D. RACI template.
47. A manager, the head of engineering and the other members of change control board discuss a change to a
major work package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you and tells you to complete the paperwork to make
the change. You have not attended the meeting. This is an example of:
A. WBS management.
B. Management by projects.
C. Project expediter position.
D. Virtual team.
48. The project has been going well when one of the suppliers informs you that, as they warned you during project
planning, they will deliver your equipment two days late. At the same time, you get a call from a team member
informing you that the critical path activity they are working on will take longer to complete than planned. What is the
best thing to do?
A. Use a contingency reserve for the first, and find out how much later the activity will be.
B. Ask for a change order for each.
C. Have both reviewed with the change control board.
D. Change the supplier.
49. All of the below terms denote the review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a
project phase except:
A. Phase exit.
B. Kill point.
C. Stage gate.
D. Milestone.
50. A project manager spends some time determining his company’s objectives and how the project fits into them.
This is an example of:
A. Responsibility charts.
B. Management by objectives.
C. Project’s deliverables.
D. Work breakdown structure.
51. Which one is most found in matrix organizations?
A. Power struggle
B. Inefficient communications
C. Ambiguous risk analysis
D. Lack of resources
52. Refer to the following figure:
SV
$1000
$500 1 2
Time / Weeks
- $500
According to this chart what can be the most likely cause that the schedule variance is lagging?
A. Late commitment of resources.

B. Late project start.
C. Late budget approval.
D. Issuing project charter lately.
53. A project is over budget to date. Which of the following is not a reason why this could have occurred?
A. More work than planned was accomplished.

B. There was a cost increase from the supplier.
C. Work was delayed.
D. Work was done inefficiently.
54. A cost management plan contains a description of:
A. the project costs.

B. how resources are allocated.
C. cost baseline.
D. the WBS level at which earned value will be calculated.
55. What is the last thing to do in project closure?
A. Complete the lessons learned.

B. Provide the client with all pertinent documentation.
C. Update the archives.
D. Release the team.
56. Risk response owners can potentially have conflict with risk auditors because risk auditors:
A. report to the project manager.

B. investigate the effectiveness of the risk response owner.
C. measure the effectiveness of the risk thresholds.
D. report to the stakeholders.
57. While working on a project in another country, you are asked to make a “facilitating” payment so the country
officials will issue a work order. What should you do?
A. Make the payment.

B. Ask the person for proof the payment is required.
C. Seek legal advice on whether such a payment is a bribe.
D. Do not pay.
58. During the executing process group of the project, a team member identifies a new risk. What should occur in
light of this identification?
A. Include it in the risk triggers.

B. Notify the sponsor.
C. Add it to the risk management plan.
D. Assess this risk.
59. The six month project has 300 work packages and a $600,000 budget. Three months into the project, 150 work
packages are complete and $300,000 has been spent. Which of the following is correct?
A. The project is on time and on budget.

B. The project manager should reevaluate cost performance but not worry about time.
C. The project needs 50 more work packages to be completed to be on time.
D. There is not enough information to make any comment.
60. Your company wants to assign a resource to your project and asks you to bill that resource to the customer.
This concerns you because you get a bonus for maximizing billings to the customer. What is the first thing to do?
A. Maximize customer billings in any manner possible.

B. Ask for the customer’s approval before adding the resource to the project scope.
C. Ask for clarification of the intent of adding the resource.
D. Remind the appropriate members of the billing organization that monetary compensation is not worth
compromising the integrity of the individual or the organization.
61. A manufacturing project has a schedule performance index of 0.89 and a cost performance index of 0.91. What
is the most likely explanation for why this has occurred?
A. The scope was changed.

B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found.
C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.
62. During what part of the project management process is most of a project’s budget expended?
A. Project planning.
B. Project executing.
C. Project initiating.
D. Project closing.
63. Which of the following puts a resistance against scope creep?
A. Efficient workaround plans.

B. Frequent quality assurance audits.
C. A CCB which is functioning efficiently.
D. Distribution of the project charter to stakeholders.
64. The project manager for a design project is using the Define Scope process. Which BEST describes this?
A. Creating a document that lists all of the features of the product

B. Creating a plan for managing changes to the scope baseline
C. Creating a document that describes all of the work the team does to make the deliverables
D. Creating a graphical representation of how the phases or deliverables decompose into work packages
65. The risks identified for the project must be analyzed to be able to rely on them during the rest of the risk
management process. It would be most important to complete which of the following?
A. Workaround plan.
B. Data quality assessment.
C. A decision tree.
D. Analysis of trends in quantitative risk analysis.
66. The work on the foundation framework before the placement of the concrete for the foundation would be an
example of what type of dependency?
A. Discretionary.
B. Mandatory.
C. External.
D. Preferential.
67. You are taken to lunch by one of your sellers who has become a friend. He gives you a good opportunity to
participate in a new venture in association with his company, unrelated to your current employment. What should
you do?
A. Refuse to participate.
B. Participate.
C. Participate, but inform your employer of the offer.
D. Request your employer’s permission for your participation.
68. Value analysis is performed to get
A. more value from the cost analysis.

B. management to buy into the project.
C. the team to buy into the project.
D. a less costly way of doing the same work.
69. A project manager learns that corrective action was implemented by a team member but was not documented.
What should be done next?
A. Report the violation to the functional manager.

B. Clarity the reasoning behind the team member’s action.
C. Add the implemented corrective action to the historical record.
D. Find out who caused the problem.
70. What does a benefit cost ratio of 2.1 mean?
A. The costs are 2.1 times the benefits.

B. The profit is 2.1 times the costs.
C. The payback is 2.1 times the costs.
D. The cost is 2.1 times the profit.
71. Which of the following should the procurement audit include?
A. Complete list of drawings.

B. Customer’s evaluation of the work.
C. Team’s evaluation of the contract type selected.
D. Evaluations of what went right and wrong.
72. The project work has begun when the project manager notices how many times meetings and discussions are
disrupted by power outages and the lack of a warm place to meet. She turns her attention to influencing the
organization to improve the team’s working conditions. She is following the concepts of which motivational theorist?
A. Herzberg.
B. McGregor.
C. Theory Y.
D. Vroom.
73. A team is using a fishbone diagram to help determine what quality standards will be used on the project. What
part of the quality management process are they in?
A. Perform quality control.

B. Perform quality assurance.
C. Plan quality.
D. Marginal analysis.
74. The best method to control costs is to:
A. estimate at an early stage of the project and then check costs against the baseline.
B. estimate during the execution of the project and then try to manage each activity to the budget.
C. estimate during planning and then re-estimate before each activity begins.
D. estimate during the initiation of the project and have management confirm the estimates.
75. A watch list is an output of which risk management process?
A. Plan risk responses.

B. Perform quantitative risk analysis.
C. Perform qualitative risk analysis.
D. Plan risk management.
76. You have a project with four activities as follows: Activity 1 can start immediately and has an estimated duration
of one. Activity 2 can start after activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of four. Activity 3 can start
after activity 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of five. Activity 4 can start after activity 1 is completed
and must be complete when activity 3 is completed. The estimate for activity 4 is ten. What is the shortest amount
of time in which the project can be completed?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 18
D. 11
77. In negotiations, what is a fait accompli tactic?
A. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due.

B. Completing a phase of work before the other side is ready.
C. Claiming an issue has already been decided and therefore cannot be changed.
D. Pretending to accept the other side’s offer.
78. Management wants to be sure that the project is following defined quality standards. Which of the following
should they look at?
A. Cost of quality.
B. WBS.
C. Statement of work.
D. Quality audit.
79. There are two different projects with different aims to choose between: Project A with an NPV of $45,000 or
Project B with an NPV of $85,000. What is the opportunity cost of selecting project B?
A. $45,000
B. $85,000
C. $40,000
D. $130,000
80. Which of the following is the highest point in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
A. Self-esteem.
B. Physiological.
C. Self-actualization.
D. Safety.
81. A team member notifies the project manager that a quality measurement for the project cannot be met. What is
the least effective thing for the project manager do?
A. Notify management.
B. Hold a team meeting.
C. Look for alternative ways to meet the quality level.
D. Ask management to come up with options.
82. lf the probability of one event occurring does not affect the probability of another event occurring, the events are:
A. orthogonal.
B. mutually exclusive.
C. statistically independent.
D. just in time.
83. A project team is in the design stage of a new mountain bicycle prototype. The team is in the process of
identifying which type of frame and material will provide a high performance. Which of the following is the most likely
technique used to determine these variables?
A. Benefit cost analysis.

B. Ishikawa diagram.
C. Design of experiments.
D. System flowchart.
84. Theory X postulates that people:
A. are motivated by pay.

B. have expectations.
C. need to be watched every second.
D. can direct their own efforts.
85. Your project team is working a communications management plan for a large multinational project. Which of the
following is the least important factor you should take into account?
A. Time zones of the team members.

B. Cultural differences among team members.
C. Gender of the team members.
D. Salaries of team members.
86. Your project needs a major change in the equipment used on it. You know of a product that meets your needs
but you are worried because your brother owns the company that produces the product. What is the first thing to
do?
A. Negotiate a good deal for the project with your brother.

B. Let the customer know of the issue.
C. Submit the bid and allow your brother to negotiate with the contracting office.
D. Eliminate your brother from bidding.
87. All of the following are examples of benefits from risk response planning except:
A. You are in central of the project as it progresses with few surprises.

B. By managing the plan, you are able to avoid same negative risks while mitigating the effects of others.
C. The need for workaround is minimized.
D. The need for contingency reserves is minimized.
88. Which of the following best describes when additional risk responses are documented?
A. When you are in risk management planning.

B. When an unknown risk does not occur.
C. When the impact of a known risk event is more significant than expected.
D. When a risk due to happen multiple times on a project does not occur the first time it is expected.
89. The nine month project was finished successfully. The most likely reason for this success is that the project
manager put enough emphasis on the following process:
A. perform quantitative risk analysis.

B. manage stakeholder expectations.
C. perform quality assurance.
D. close project or phase.
90. You are working on a contract for a Canadian province. The contract requires you to be on site at the
government affairs office on a daily basis. You were unable to get to the office for 3 days last month because of
severe blizzard conditions. Your failure to appear at the office was excused because of a clause in the contract
entitled:
A. anticipation.
B. warranty.
C. legal capacity.
D. force majeure.
91. An example of a conflict of interest would be:
A. You and your functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate.
B. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy.
C. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.
D. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally.
92. A project manager is staying in touch with the work of project team members, monitoring their performance,
managing conflicts, and requesting changes to the project management plan. What process is she involved in?
A. Report performance.
B. Manage project team.
C. Develop human resource plan.
D. Acquire project team.
93. A company and its seller are in the middle of a long dispute over the costs of terminating the contract. The
project manager determines that the only way to resolve the problem is to have it heard and resolved by a neutral
party. To accomplish this, the project manager should use a(n):
A. functional resource manager.

B. conflict solution expert.
C. arbitrator.
D. lawyer.
94. All of the following are part of quality audits except:
A. determine whether project activities comply with organizational policies.

B. determine inefficient and ineffective policies.
C. perform defect repair.
D. confirm the implementation of approved change requests.
95. Historical information and lessons learned are part of:
A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Work performance information
96. If a project manager wants to report on the actual project results vs. planned results, he would use a:
A. trend report.
B. forecasting report.
C. status report.
D. variance report.
97. To obtain support for the project throughout the performing organization, it is best if the project manager:
A. Ensures there is a schedule management plan.

B. Correlates the need for the project to the organization’s strategic plan.
C. Connects the project to the personal objectives of the sponsor.
D. Ensures that the cost management plan is created as early in the project as possible.
98. You are approached by company A to produce certain software. During the middle of the project, a competitor
of company A asks you to produce similar software. What should you do?
A. Do not do the new project since it is a conflict of interest.

B. Do the project using some of the material created for company A.
C. Do the project with all new work.
D. Review the intellectual property clause for the first project to help determine the approach to take.
99. The customer on a project informs the project manager formally that he has run out of money to pay for the
project. What should the project manager do first?
A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule which might allow time for the customer to get the funds.
B. Enter administrative closure.
C. Update the cost baseline.
D. Release the project team.
100. Which of the following best describes the project manager’s role during project planning?
A. Creating a bar chart and make it approved by the sponsor.

B. Coordinating the creation of a document that can be used to guide the project.
C. Making a list of activities the team members are required to perform.
D. Determining what can get in the way and how to prevent it.
101. You are asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program to supplement existing
quality control activities. Which of the following would you choose?
A. Quality audits.
B. Statistical sampling.
C. Pareto charts.
D. Trend analysis.
102. The project has been challenging to manage. Everyone has been on edge to complete the project on time.
Unfortunately, the tension has grown to the point where team meetings have become shouting matches and little
work is accomplished during the meetings. One team member asks to be excused from future team meetings as all
the shouting upsets him. Meanwhile, the sponsor is attending team meetings in order to better understand how the
project is going and the issues involved in completing the project, and the customer has started discussions about
adding scope to the project. In this situation, it would be best for the project manager to:
A. ask the sponsor if the information needed by the customer could be send in a report rather than the customer
attending the meetings.
B. inform the team member who asked to be excused from the meetings of the value of communication in such
meetings.
C. create new ground rules for the meetings and introduce them to the team.
D. hold a team building exercise that involves all the team members.
103. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the 50/50 rule?
A. Grant 50 percent progress on an activity when it begins and 50 percent upon completion.
B. 50 percent of the work is done by 50 percent of the people on the project.
C. Identify 50 percent of risks before you start to develop responses.
D. The project is given credit for completing 50 percent of the work when it starts.
104. Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project environment?
A. A war room and a tight matrix promote effective communication.

B. Most project managers spend half of their time engaged in communications.
C. If a project consists of eight people, thirty six potential channels of communication exist.
D. Performance reporting is not a form of communication.
105. Which statement best explains the phrase: “Quality is planned in, not inspected in.”
A. It is more expensive to determine quality by inspection than by planning.

B. The project team should not inspect quality.
C. Quality is part of planning, not inspection.
D. Planning for quality is after the fact.
106. To help the project team function more efficiently on complex and interrelated activities, the project manager
decides to use a war room. What does this mean?
A. All the project records are kept in many locations.

B. The tools needed to accomplish the work are kept in one place with easy access by the team.
C. The entire team is not located in one area.
D. The project’s entire senior management team is located in one area.
107. While completing human resource planning for your project, you visited the functional manager of engineering
many times but he refused to supply resources for the project. First, the excuse was that his department was too
busy. The next time, the department was undergoing a re-organization. This is causing your project to stop the
schedule. The lack of which of the following is the most probable reason for his lack of support?
A. The project is more closely meeting company objectives.

B. The project does not have a project charter and the functional manager will not be involved in approving the
project management plan.
C. The project schedule network diagram was not time-phased.
D. The WBS did not include all resources needed on the project.
108. A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the same team, yet the team still shows a
lack of support for the project. The best thing the project manager can do to obtain the team’s support for the project
is to:
A. re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system in place and make it more effective.
B. talk to each team member’s boss with the team member present.
C. find someone else to be the project manager.
D. tell the team members he needs their support, and ask the team members why they do not support the project.
109. This project is chartered to determine new ways to extend the product life of one of the company’s products.
The project manager comes from the engineering department and the team comes from product management and
marketing departments. Project planning is completed when a stakeholder notifies the team that there is a better
way to complete one of the work packages. They even supply a technical review letter from their department
proving that the new way to complete the work package will actually be faster than the old way. The project
manager has had similar experiences with this department on other projects, and was expecting this to happen on
this project. What is the first thing the project manager should do?
A. Contact the department and complain again about their missing the deadline for submission of scope.
B. Look for how this schedule change will impact the cost to complete the work package and the quality of the
product of the work package.
C. See if there is a way to change from a matrix environment to a functional organization so as to eliminate all the
interference from other departments.
D. Ask the department if they have any other changes.
110. During project closure, a stakeholder complains that the project did not increase the department’s knowledge
of Java programming and therefore, the project is not complete. The customer has accepted the project. The project
manager determines that all stated requirements and deliverables have been met. He does not find evidence that
Java programming was a requirement. A review of project correspondence shows no mention of this deliverable.
The project manager should:
A. Close the project.

B. Re-plan the project to include the new objective.
C. Meet with the team to discuss the issue and find a resolution.
D. Get the project stakeholders involved to help resolve the issue.
111. An obstacle to team building in a matrix organization is that the:
A. team organization is technically focused.

B. team members are borrowed resources and can be hard to motivate.
C. teams are too centralized.
D. teams are too large and therefore very hard to handle.
112. Senior management asks the project manager how the project would be affected if two resources were
removed from the project. To calculate a response, the project manager should complete:
A. resource leveling.
B. what-if scenario analysis.
C. schedule compression.
D. critical chain method.
113. The sponsor is excited to be receiving the product of the project. In which of the following stage must the
project be involved?
A. Execution
B. Integrated change control
C. Project management plan approval
D. Kick-off meeting
114. Which of the following is the best tool for showing the team the project schedule status during project
executing?
A. Milestone chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
115. Which of the following is not an objective of a risk audit?
A. Confirming that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled.
B. Confirming that risk management has been practiced throughout the project life cycle.
C. Ensuring that each risk identified has a computed, numerical expected value.
D. Helping to identify the deterioration of the project’s value potential in its early stages because of risks.
116. A project manager is managing his second project. It started one month after the first and both are ongoing.
Though his first project is small, this one seems to be growing in size every day. As each day passes, the project
manager is beginning to feel more and more in need of help. The project manager has recently heard that there
was another project in the company last year that is similar to his second project. What should he do?
A. Contact the project sponsors for his projects.

B. Obtain lessons learned and guidance from the PMO.
C. Wait to see if the project is impacted by the growth in scope.
D. Make sure the scope for the second project is agreed to by the sponsor.
117. Your project team has been informally meeting with sellers to discuss the sellers’ “best practices” relative to
upcoming potential work from your company. During one of these sessions, a seller offers to give you tickets to a
sporting event if you will tell him the names of other companies you have been meeting with. What is the best
response?
A. Ignore the question.

B. Answer the question, but respectfully refuse the offer.
C. Ask him why he needs to know.
D. Refuse to answer the question and remove the company from consideration for future work.
118. During the conceptual phase of a pipeline project, the project engineer estimates the following: The cost of the
materials is most likely $100,000, optimistically $90,000 and pessimistically $120,000. The cost for labor is most
likely $80,000, optimistically $70,000 and pessimistically $100,000. The cost for equipment is most likely $60,000,
optimistically $50,000 and pessimistically $70,000. The cost for construction management fees is most likely
$30,000, optimistically $20,000 and pessimistically $40,000. What is the probability of the project coming in under
$270,000?
A. Exactly 75 percent.
B. Less than 50 percent.
C. Exactly 50 percent.
D. Over 50 percent.
119. What is present value?
A. Value of assets that a company owns

B. Today’s value of future cash flow
C. Future value of money on hand today
D. Current value of today’s assets adjusted for inflation
120. A project team budgeted $3,000 for the work performed and has spent $4,000 to date. If they budgeted $5,000
for the work scheduled, what is the cost variance?
A. ($1,000)
B. $2,000
C. $1,000
D. ($2,000)
121. What would be the best explanation for the following: Both the cost variance and schedule variance are
negative but the magnitude of the cost variance is lower than the magnitude of the schedule variance.
A. The project is underspent because all work was not completed but overspent for work that was done.
B. The project is overspent due to increased costs and yet completed some activities faster.
C. The project’s activities took longer than expected but costs were lower.
D. The project is underspent because costs were lower than planned and activities were easier to complete than
planned.
122. You have decided to terminate a contract because you no longer need the work from the seller. What is the
best way to communicate this to the seller?
A. Call the seller.

B. Send the seller a notification by e-mail.
C. Send the seller a stop work order by overnight mail.
D. Hold a meeting with the seller.
123. A large project is under way when one of the team members reviews the project status report. He sees that the
project is currently running late. As he looks at the report further, he notices that the delay will cause one of his
activities to be scheduled during a time he will be out of the country and cannot work on the activity. This is of great
concern because he is very committed to the project being successful and he does not want to be the cause of the
project being further delayed. What is the best thing to do?
A. Contact the project sponsor.

B. Include the information on his next report.
C. Request that the issue be added to the project issue log.
D. Recommend corrective action.
124. You are a project coordinator leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix environment. None of
your project team members report to you functionally and you do not have the ability to directly reward their
performance. The project is difficult, involving tight date constraints and challenging quality standards. Which of the
following types of project management power will likely be the most effective in this circumstance?
A. Reward
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Formal
125. Which response strategy reduces EMV?
A. Transfer
B. Mitigate
C. Acceptance
D. Deflect
126. Which of the following methods is used to provide a standard to measure performance?
A. Benchmarking.
B. Sampling.
C. Estimating.
D. Leveling.
127. You are responsible for a new email application project within your company that has multiple internal and
external users. You have just begun preparing a project management plan. Because many people in your
organization are interested in this system and its progress, you decide to prepare a communications management
plan. Your first step in preparing this plan is to do which of the following?
A. Describe in detail the information you plan to distribute.

B. Conduct a stakeholder analysis to assess information needs.
C. Determine an exact schedule that shows when each type of communication will be produced.
D. Set up a repository for all project documents so that they will be easily accessible.
128. Which one refers to a yes/no decision?
A. Attribute sampling
B. Variable sampling
C. Probabilistic sampling
D. Random sampling
129. The project manager is working on a high profile project where there is a huge demand to complete the project
within budget. The project manager is new and is excited to see that the project is spending less than budgeted. As
a result, the project manager was planning to take a holiday when a more senior project manager warned him that
he has some important work to do on the project. Why would the senior project manager give such a warning on
this project?
A. Under budget could mean that work that was scheduled to be done has not been completed. The project
manager should look at how the cost performance compares to the schedule performance.
B. The project manager needs to create a project control system to make sure there are no problems in the future.
C. A project that is under budget may also have contracts that need to be managed.
D. Team meetings should be scheduled every week and a holiday would mean that one team meeting would have
to be cancelled.
130. Near the end of your last project, additional requirements were demanded by a group of stakeholders when
they learned they would be affected by your project. This became a problem because you had not included the time
or cost in the project management plan to perform these requirements. What is the best thing you can do to prevent
such a problem on future projects?
A. Review the WBS dictionary more thoroughly, looking for incomplete descriptions.
B. Review the charter more thoroughly, examining the business case for "holes".
C. Pay more attention to stakeholder management.
D. Do a more thorough job of solicitation planning.
131. The project manager has noticed that there have been a lot of changes on the project. This has not been
considered to be a problem until one day he discovers that he cannot determine how many scope changes are
currently being reviewed. This problem would be an error in which of the following?
A. Change control system and scope management plan.

B. Plan procurements and requirements gathering.
C. Lack of a change control board and constrained optimization.
D. Poor change configuration system and benefit analysis.
132. You receive 25 new computers from the seller, but were expecting only 20. In looking at the contract, you see
that it says “seller to provide twenty computers.” What should you do first?
A. Issue a change order through the contract manager.

B. Return the five extra computers.
C. Make payment for the 25 computers.
D. Have a meeting with the seller and ask for clarification.
133. The statement of work is completed on a project. However, the customer is not happy because they want
additional work to be completed. In light of this, what should be done?
A. Begin closure on the contract and sign a new one for the additional work.
B. Change to a cost reimbursable contract.
C. Tell the customer it is too late to make a change.
D. Proceed with additional work after obtaining management’s agreement.
134. In a cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract, how can the fee change?
A. It cannot change.
B. It can change if change orders are issued.
C. It can only be increased by 10 percent it there is an unexpected cost overrun.
D. It can be decreased by 10 percent.
135. A contract has a requirement that the seller submit monthly acceptance tests to the project manager. lf the
seller does not submit such acceptance tests, the seller is:
A. not following the scope management plan.

B. waiving his rights to submit the reports.
C. using his right of intellectual property.
D. in breach of contract.
136. Being told to complete the project in three months using only four resources is an example of:
A. Constraints.
B. Earned value analysis components.
C. Benefit cost ratios.
D. Law of diminishing returns.
137. A project manager for the seller is told by her management that the project should do whatever possible to be
awarded incentive money. The primary objective of incentive clauses in a contract is to:
A. reduce costs for the buyer.

B. help the seller centralize costs.
C. synchronize objectives.
D. reduce risk for the buyer.
138. All of the following are examples for the types of communication channels, except:
A. Upward.
B. Lateral.
C. Throughput.
D. Downward.
139. Which of the following is not correct about why to measure variances from the baseline?
A. To catch deviations early.

B. To allow early corrective action.
C. To determine if there are any wild fluctuations.
D. To create a project control system.
140. You are a project manager for a major telecommunications network upgrade with a net present value of
$10,000,000. You are heavily dependent on a third party vendor for your project and your contract office informs
you that there is a 30 percent chance that the vendor will go out of business at the end of the quarter. If that occurs,
your project will incur a $3,000,000 cost overrun due to rework. There is also a 30 percent chance that a new
legislation will pass that will decrease government oversight of your team’s work. If this legislation passes, you
estimate that your project will save $1,600,000 in time delays. Lastly, your technical lead indicates that there is 20
percent chance that a new software package will be available by month end that could save $1,800,000 in testing
time. If available, the software will cost $500,000 to procure, install and train. What is the total expected monetary
value of these three risk events?
A. $60,000
B. $1,640,000
C. $5,900,000
D. $160,000
141. The software development project is not going well. There are over 30 stakeholders, and no one can agree on
the project objectives. One stakeholder believes the project can achieve a 30% improvement while another believes
a 50% improvement is possible. The project manager thinks a 10% improvement is more practical. What is the best
course of action?
A. Average the numbers and use that as the goal.

B. Ask the sponsor to make the final decision.
C. Move forward with the project and hope more information becomes available later to settle the issue.
D. Perform a feasibility study.
142. For communication to occur, there must be which of the following?
A. Telecommunications connection.
B. Agreement on the meaning of the message.
C. The transmitting of information.
D. Many people involved.
143. Which of the following best describes progressive elaboration?
A. Process of developing in steps and continuing by increments.

B. Process of starting a new task prior to the completion of current project tasks.
C. Process of soliciting proposals from prospective vendors and sellers.
D. Process of adding on new features to the product at a point in time which is close to the end of the project.
144. The Java development of a project is outsourced to India (overseas). The project schedule is starting to slip.
What is the least likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers.

B. Cultural influences.
C. Internationalization.
D. Communications.
145. You are finishing the prototype that was planned as a risk mitigation strategy when you find out that the return
of investment has been improved and the project cost performance index is 1.03. The standard deviation of the
project time estimate has decreased and you discover that the prototype, already almost finished, can fulfill the
needs of another project requirement as well. What should you do first?
A. Look for ways to help get the prototype accepted faster and thus cut cost.
B. Review the benefits of the project with the customer and determine if the prototype will improve the benefits.
C. Compress the project time line to get it completed faster using the prototype.
D. Look for the risk impacts of fulfilling another requirement with the prototype.
146. Which type of organization is best for managing complex projects involving cross-disciplinary efforts?
A. Projectized
B. Functional
C. Line
D. Matrix
147. During a voice conference, a team member suggests that a more experienced person be used on the project.
Another talks about using a person with more training. Which of the following best describes what is being done?

B. Level resources.
C. Define activities.
D. Develop project team.
148. A project manager is working on his first project with outside sellers. He is familiar with project control systems
but not contract control systems. In explaining how a contract control system differs from a project control system, it
is best to point out that a contract control system:
A. includes procedures.
B. includes trend analysis.
C. requires more signoffs.
D. requires risk analysis.
149. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project management process
group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
150. All the following are not examples of quality assurance except:
A. Inspection.
B. Process analysis.
C. Pareto chart.
D. Fishbone diagram.
151. A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do next?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
152. While completing work, a project team member tells you that a work package has been forgotten in the WBS.
What is the best thing to do?
A. Wait for a change request to be processed.

B. Include it in the WBS.
C. Include it only in the network diagram.
D. Include it in the estimate, but not the activity list.
153. Your best programmer is an independent contractor. Recently, you learned that he is working on a project in
the evening for one of your competitors. Your best course of action is to:
A. replace him.
B. get him to sign a non-disclosure agreement.
C. inform him that you plan to replace him.
D. limit his access to all sensitive or confidential data.
154. What does “resource leveling” mean in project management?
A. Shortening the time it takes to complete the project.

B. Making the most efficient use of the available resources.
C. Hiring contractors to fill in during “peak” times on the project schedule.
D. Reducing the project costs.
155. You are beginning a new project that has been attempted, but unsuccessful, several times in the past few
years. Previous projects were cancelled because of “politics” (differing views and directions by key stakeholders on
the project). This is an example of:
A. Stakeholder analysis.
B. Scope management.
C. Historical information.
D. Risk identification.
156. Your company is in competition to win a major project for the government of a country. Your informal contacts
in that country inform you that you must make a large payment to the foreign minister to be considered for the
project. What should you do?
A. Inform your management and ask for direction.

B. Do not make the payment.
C. Have the local contact make the payment.
D. Make the payment.
157. Management wants to look at how a project is doing, as compared to past projects. To make a valid judgment,
management should compare this project to:
A. benchmarks.
B. flowcharts.
C. histogram charts.
D. trend charts.
158. A plan for establishing the criteria for developing and controlling the project schedule is best described as:
A. schedule management plan.

B. schedule model.
C. activity attributes.
D. schedule network analysis.
159. What is the purpose of decision trees?
A. They demonstrate the path of activities in a project.

B. They calculate the probabilities of outcomes.
C. They determine what events will take place.
D. They take into account future events for today’s choices.
160. A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful change to
the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her to write a report
describing the benefits of the change. What is the most appropriate advice for the situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare them to other
possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the project
sponsor to make the change.
161. The final deliverables have been sent to the client and have been formally accepted. All of the closure activities
have been completed. After that a procurement audit identifies a failure. The project is considered to be:
A. incomplete until the problem is resolved.

B. complete.
C. still to be in closure until the problem is resolved.
D. incomplete until formal acceptance is accomplished.
162. You are a public executive working on your fourth project to order new buses for a transportation route
between two cities. You include a government official as a stakeholder and plan to include meetings with him in the
WBS. Your manager objects to such activities as unnecessary. The best response is to inform your manager that:
A. The government official can negatively impact the project.

B. The government official knows the end-users better than either of us.
C. The government official is a stakeholder since the buses will be used in his city.
D. The government official is a stakeholder because he will be using the buses.
163. From the seller’s point of view, the contract is considered closed when:
A. lessons learned is complete.

B. final payment is made.
C. the archives are completed.
D. five years have passed after the final payment.
164. At a critical design review meeting for a large project, several important issues surfaced. After hearing about a
major technical problem, one of the subcontractor’s engineers mentions that he experienced a similar situation on
another project; he has some ideas on how to solve the current problem. What type of power is the engineer using?
A. Manipulative.
B. Experience.
C. Expert.
D. Referent.
165. You are assigned to a project that senior management has already decided to outsource. As a project
manager, you need to work with the contracts department to select the vendor and then oversee the vendor through
project completion. Company policy requires that a project of this size go through a formal bid process. A vice
president in your company tells you that his friend owns one of the companies that will bid on the project, and would
be an excellent choice as a vendor. This vice president has a reputation for making or breaking careers. What is
generally the best course of action?
A. Follow the bid process and show the vice president why the favored vendor is or is not the best choice.
B. Obtain written permission to bypass the formal bid process.
C. Let the evaluation team know that management has a favorite vendor.
D. Let the contracts department handle the situation.
166. Which of the following does not assess the value a project brings to an organization?

B. Net present value.
C. Value analysis.
D. Needs assessment.
167. A trend report was given to the project manager, who reacted to the report by investigating what activity or
activities had not been done, but should have been done, to date. What did the report show possibly?
A. Actual cost was below planned and schedule progress was less than planned.
B. The cost performance index (CPI) was 0.8 and the schedule performance index (SPI) was 1.2.
C. The budget at completion (BAC) was higher than planned.
D. The schedule performance index (SPI) was 1.3 and the estimate at completion (EAC) was greater than planned.
168. A client has told you that his company is in extreme financial difficulties but tells you to keep it under your hat.
You decide to tell your coworker. You are in violation of the responsibility to:
A. Protect intellectual property of others.

B. Respect confidentiality of sensitive information.
C. Provide accurate information.
D. Disclose conflict of interest.
169. All of the following statements concerning bid documentation are incorrect except:
A. Well-designed bid documents can simplify comparison of responses.

B. Bid documentation must be rigorous with no flexibility to allow consideration of seller suggestions.
C. Bid documents should not include evaluation criteria.
D. Well-designed bid documents do not include a contract statement of work.
170. During project executing, your project team member delivers a project deliverable to the buyer. However, the
buyer refuses the deliverable, stating that it does not meet the requirement on page 300 of the technical
specifications. You review the document and find that you agree. What is the first thing to do?
A. Explain that the contract is wrong and should be changed.

B. Consult change control board.
C. Review the requirements and meet with the responsible team members to review the WBS dictionary.
D. Call a meeting of the project team to review the requirement on page 300.
171. You have a project with the following activities: Activity 1 can start immediately and has an estimated duration
of 4. Activity 2 can start after Activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 8. Activity 3 can start after
Activity 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of 5. Activity 4 can start after Activity 1 is completed and has
an estimated duration of 8. Activity 5 has an estimated duration of 3 and must take place concurrently with Activity
3. It can start after Activities 4 and 2. What is the duration of the critical path of this project?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 12
172. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project, you discover that one
cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should:
A. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional finding as a reserve.
B. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project.
C. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure that it has been properly prepared.
D. Question another functional manager for information about this estimate.
173. A team member wants to make a technical change to her activity that will add time to the activity’s estimate.
What is the first thing the project manager should do?
A. See if there is any time available from another activity.

B. Do not allow the change.
C. Send a change request to the change control board.
D. Determine if the activity is on the critical path.
174. Two days ago, you joined a consulting company as project manager to lead an existing project for a client.
Today, a major change is requested. What should be done first?
A. Quickly develop a change control board to approve or disapprove changes.

B. Approve the change if your sponsor approved it, otherwise suggest a review by the project team.
C. Hire an outside consultant to develop and manage overall change control.
D. Find out if a change control system is in place for this project.
175. Which of the following is not included in a schedule change control system?
A. Approval levels necessary for authorizing changes.

B. Tracking systems.
C. Paperwork necessary for making changes.
D. Limitations on the scope of changes.
176. The project manager on a large software installation project is working with her team on a critical set of
activities. They are working late on Saturday night. Circumstances create the situation wherein the project manager
must decide to change the schedule that will push the end date of the project out two weeks. What has most likely
happened?
A. An emergency project change has taken place.

B. Scope creep has occurred.
C. Status change to the implementation has taken place.
D. Risk assessment failure has taken place.
177. A project manager, working for a construction company, works closely with a design firm. Part of his
responsibility is to negotiate and approve bid documents with the design firm. The design firm offers the project
manager a job with the firm, which he accepts. When the project manager gives his two weeks notice to the
construction company, he is not asked nor does he mention that the design firm will employ him. For the next two
weeks the project manager continues to negotiate and approve bids and designs submitted by the design firm. In
this situation:
A. The departure of the project manager provides both companies with benefits by allowing the companies to
strengthen their relationship and enhance communications. So there is no problem to worry.
B. The construction company did not ask and the project manager is not obligated to inform it of his new job
position.
C. There is a conflict of interest.
D. The project manager is required to inform the construction company in his departure interview.
178. You are the project manager on a project that has a total project float of negative 20 days. What should you do
first?
A. Use less experienced team members.

B. Level resources.
C. Acquire more resources for critical path activities.
D. Fast track the project if overall project risk is already too high.
179. All of the following are examples of bilateral contracts except:
A. Invitation for bid.

B. Request for proposal.
C. Request for quotation.
D. Procurement audit report.
180. The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule variance. Based upon this report,
you tell the client that the project is on time. However, your team members know that a major milestone is missed
and the project will not meet its deadline. This is an indication of poor:
A. communications planning.
B. scope planning.
C. team trust.
D. schedule planning.
181. During project executing, you find that the customer has requested a change to the scope of work even though
it was previously approved. There are no objections to the cost of the change. What should you do first?
A. Follow the change control process.

B. Discuss the change with the customer.
C. Meet with the team and plan alternatives.
D. Evaluate and document the risks that might result from this change.
182. You are currently working on a project and you have just completed a review of cost performance data.
Different responses will be required depending on the degree of variance from the baseline. For example, a
variance of 10 percent might not require immediate action, whereas a variance of 80 percent will require
investigation. A description of how you plan to manage cost variances should be included in the:
A. scope management plan.

B. variance management plan.
C. performance measurement plan.
D. cost management plan.
183. Important aspects of a product include the on-going operations and maintenance. Which of the following best
describes how operations and maintenance activities impact a project?
A. They should be included as activities in the project WBS.

B. Work involved in turning over the product of the project should be included as part of the project.
C. They should be undertaken as separate projects under a mutual program.
D. They should be included as separate phases in the project life cycle.
184. Your organization is having a difficult time managing all of its projects. You have been asked to help senior
management get a better understanding of the problems. What do you do first?
A. Meet with individual project managers to get a better sense of what is happening.
B. Send a formal memo to all project managers requesting their project management plans.
C. Meet with senior managers to help them develop a new tracking system for managing projects.
D. Review the project charters and bar charts of all projects.
185. The project budget is proving to be inaccurate. The SPI is 1.1. The team did not have a deviation from the
activity attributes. The sponsor is in the change control board. What is the best thing for the project manager to do?
A. Try to encourage the sponsor to remove himself from the change control board.
B. Re-compute the project schedule.
C. Re-estimate the activity attributes.
D. Calculate the cost performance index.
186. A project has a payback period of nine months. What does this mean?
A. It will take the project nine months to start incurring costs.

B. The project will be complete in nine months.
C. The first nine months of the project will provide profit to the company.
D. It will take the project nine months to cover the investment and start generating revenue.
187. A control chart indicates the last 12 weights produced were outside the upper control limit. What should the
project manager do first?
A. Stop production.
B. Work to better meet ISO standards.
C. Look for the random causes for the variations.
D. Remember the 7 Run Rule and plan to rework the last 6 weights.
188. Design of experiments:
A. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome.

B. identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome.
C. determines what a quality outcome is.
D. determines the methods to be used for research and development.
189. Receivers in the communication model filter all their information through all of the following except:
A. Culture.
B. Language.
C. Knowledge of the subject.
D. Conflict.
190. A seller has failed to make delivery on a major item for your project. What is the least effective thing to do?
A. Terminate the contract.

B. Work with the seller to correct the problem.
C. Negotiate an extension of time.
D. Hire another seller to work side by side with the original seller.
191. You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should provide
guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct.

B. The project charter.
C. The project scope statement.
D. The stakeholder register.
192. As a result of your analysis of the risks on the project, you have decided to remove a team member from the
project team in order to decrease the overall project risk. What is this an example of?
A. Transference.
B. Resource analysis.
C. Avoidance.
D. Acceptance.
193. The acceptable range of variation in a control chart is called:
A. mean.
B. upper and lower specification limits.
C. rule of seven.
D. upper and lower control limits.
194. Which of the following statements best describes why stakeholders are necessary on a project?
A. They determine the project schedule baseline.

B. They supply the resources and resource constraints on the project.
C. They help provide the procurement management plan.
D. They help to determine the project constraints and project deliverables.
195. A project manager is finalizing the resources for the project team. All of the following will help the project
manager complete this work except:
A. Staffing pool description.

B. Work breakdown structure.
C. Staffing management plan.
D. Reward and recognition systems.
196. Which of the following statements regarding the project champion is not true?
A. The project champion is typically someone well-versed in the technical areas of the project or who has strong
industry knowledge regarding the project.
B. The project champion is often called on to make technical decisions and typically has final authority over project
issues concerning technical expertise or industry knowledge.
C. The project champion can lend credibility to the viability of the project due to technical expertise.
D. The project champion is a strong project supporter who tends to focus attention on the project from a technical
perspective.
197. Activity J is preceding activity K and has a FS relationship with a 1 day lag. Activity J is also preceding another
activity L and has a SS relationship with a 5 day lag. Assume that Activity J has no other immediate succeeding
relationships. Given the following:
Activity K: Late Start is Day 11; Late Finish is Day 15.

Activity L: Late Start is Day 11; Late Finish is Day 15.
Activity J: Duration is 5 days.
Calculate Activity J’s Late Start and Finish dates.
A. Late Start is Day 6; Late Finish is Day 11.

B. Late Start is Day 4; Late Finish is Day 9.
C. Late Start is Day 5; Late Finish is Day 10.
D. Late Start is Day 3; Late Finish is Day 8.
198. Bidder conferences can have a negative effect on the project if the project manager does not remember to
make sure:
A. all questions are put in writing and sent to all sellers.

B. all sellers get answers to their questions only.
C. to hold separate meetings with each bidder.
D. there is room in the meeting for all sellers.
199. A parking lot fencing project was bid at $11 per foot and one company is doing all the work. The parking lot
has four equal sides of 125 feet and requires the installation of a six-foot diameter culvert on one side. Fencing
should be installed at a rate of 100 feet per day. The culvert installation will cost $500 and take one day to
complete. The culvert must be installed before work can begin on that side of the fence. After three days of work,
one side is complete, another has 75 feet installed, and the culvert is completely installed. The current status is:
A. The budget is neutral with a cost variance of $0.

B. It is over budget with a cost variance of - $1100.
C. It is under budget with a cost variance of $500 due to the completion of the culvert installation.
D. It is over budget with a cost variance of - $125.
200. You are assigned as a project manager to lead a new quality improvement project. Management is asking for a
project management plan. Which of the following should you create first?
A. Stakeholder register.
B. Quality management plan.
C. Risk management plan.
D. Project scope statement.
Answers Examination (200 Questions) Time: 4 Hours
1. At a critical milestone in a development project, it is determined that implementation is two months

behind schedule. The project manager is concerned that the root cause is lack of conformance to
requirements in the design of the new billing system. More extensive measurements are taken to see
if this is, in fact, the problem. Such measurements are:
A. not needed. The schedule should be compressed.

B. examples of quality control.
C. not going to show why the schedule is delayed.
D. part of integrated change control.
2. A project manager for a large international bank has a project team that has just implemented an
electronic funds project involving four large vendors. The project manager struggled through every part
of the procurement process since the bank had a weak internal contracts department. What would be
the most appropriate thing to do to ensure the problems are resolved for future projects?
A. Schedule a meeting with the head of the contract office.

B. Include an agenda item in a meeting after the project is closed.
C. Address this through contract change control.
D. Conduct a procurement audit.
3. Which of the following best describes when the risks should be identified first?
A. During the kick-off meeting.

B. After the project charter is received and before the final project schedule is created.
C. The first time there is a change to the project.
D. Before the project charter is created.
4. You evaluate your critical path and determine the project will be completed two weeks ahead of
management’s expected due date. What should you do?
A. Delay the project for two weeks.

B. Prepare a list of risks.
C. Pull resources off the critical path to work on non-critical path activities.
D. Add extra features that will enhance the project and require two more weeks to complete.
5. A contract has just been signed with a construction company to complete a remodeling project
within three months. Due to force majeure, the project will be delayed by an additional three months.
However, the construction company does not have enough resources to complete the project and has
asked for an early termination of the contract. What is the most appropriate thing to do in this
situation?
A. Bring details of the situation to the legal department.

B. Complete administrative closure.
C. Complete close procurements process.
D. Issue a change order for an extension of time.
6. Your customer requested that the new railroad cars you are building for his company be constructed
from heavy grade aluminum. After reviewing the requirements, two of your experts inform you that the
customer would be better off with steel cars. You meet with the customer and discuss the issue in
detail. He directs you to go ahead with the aluminum cars. What should you do?
A. Meet with the customer again to ensure that he understands the expert opinions about using steel
instead of aluminum.
B. Find a way to cut other costs and upgrade the cars to steel.
C. Provide aluminum cars that meet the customer’s requirements.
D. Meet with your experts to find another proposal for the customer.
7. The sponsor wants the project to begin, but needs to be sure the appropriate amount of funding is
available. The project manager wants to create the project estimate herself. Which of the following is
the best rationale the project manager can use to convince the sponsor to allow her to prepare the
project estimate?
A. Such estimating provides a basis for monitoring and controlling.

B. Such estimating gives the project manager an understanding of the sponsor’s expectations.
C. Such estimating will include sunk costs.
D. Project estimate does not require the identification of work packages.
8. In the procurement, the buyer has required the seller to provide at least two PMPs on the team in
addition to meeting additional evaluation criteria. The buyer creates an evaluation team that will
evaluate the sellers’ proposals using a system to minimize personal prejudice. Any major difference in
the evaluations will be negotiated. The project is using which of the following proposal evaluation
techniques?
A. Independent estimates and contract negotiation.

B. A seller rating system and a screening system.
C. Screening system and a weighting system.
D. A weighting system and contract negotiation.
9. As a project manager, you know that the process of conferring with other team members to reach
an agreement or consensus is called?
A. Lose-lose.
B. Win-win.
C. Negotiation.
D. Synthesis.
10. You are the project manager on an information technology project. An information specialist on
your team, after having lunch with a low ranking customer representative working with him on a
software project, learns that a simple alteration in the display would be a great addition to the project.
You and the sponsor have already approved the scope. The information specialist installs the change
with no negative effect on the project schedule and at no additional cost. What action should be
taken?
A. The information specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectation without
affecting project cost or schedule.
B. The project manager should add an activity to the project management plan with no associated
time.
C. The information specialist should be told that his behavior was unacceptable, as it may have
negatively affected the overall project.
D. The project manager should create a change control form, and have the customer approve the
change since the change has already been made.
11. Two of your team members have been arguing for the past several weeks about which accounting
package will work best for the project. You are tired of listening to them. So you decide to conduct a
meeting to see whether they can reach consensus on the matter by identifying common points of
agreement. Which style of conflict resolution will you employ?
A. Smoothing.
B. Forcing.
C. Withdrawal.
D. Distraction.
12. A project manager is leading an effort to analyze waste and non-value-added activity on the
project. One team member reports that two processes in use require work he believes is unnecessary.
Another team member reports that a process is not well understood. The project manager must be
leading which of the following?
A. process rather than a project.

B. human resource planning.
C. management by projects.
D. quality assurance.
13. A client has asked you to expand the scope of the project. The project is under budget and ahead
of schedule. What should you do first?
A. Do not approve the change.

B. Determine the effects of the change on the project.
C. Ask the sponsor for approval to make the change.
D. Get approval from the change control board.
14. The disorientation experienced by people who suddenly find themselves living and working in a
different environment is known as?
A. Ethno-centrism.
B. Socio-centrism.
C. Culture shock.
D. Temporal shock.
15. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies
of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
identified. The project manager should prefer to:
A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in important knowledge areas.
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program.
C. Wait until the functional managers take an action.
D. Hire additional resources to compensate for all of the weak areas.
16. Your company is purchasing the services of a consultant. You notice you own stock in one of the
consulting companies interested in the work. What should you do?
A. Work hard to get the consulting company selected for the project.
B. Tell the people from the consulting company that you hope they get the work.
C. Tell your manager and remove yourself from the selection committee.
D. Keep the information to yourself.
17. Who of the following would be least likely to be involved in activity definition?
A. End user.
B. Team.
C. Experts.
D. Project manager.
18. Which of the following is the best method to make reward systems most effective?
A. Pay a large salary increase to the best workers.

B. Give the team a choice of rewards.
C. Make the link between performance and reward clear.
D. Present notification of rewards within the company.
19. In a sensitive technology project, an example of a value-adding change is a change that:
A. Takes advantage of cost-reducing technology that was not available when the scope was originally
defined.
B. Is caused by a new or revised government regulation.
C. Corrects omission of a required feature in the design of a system.
D. Uses a bill of materials to define the scope of the project.
20. All of the following are the reasons why conflict is unavoidable on projects except?
A. High-stress environment.
B. Multiple bosses.
C. Ambiguous roles.
D. Low uncertainty.
21. The project status meeting is not going well. Everyone is talking at the same time, there are people
who are not participating and many topics are being discussed at random. Which of the following rules
for effective meetings is not being adhered to?
A. Demonstrate courtesy.
B. Schedule meetings in advance.
C. Have a purpose for the meeting.
D. Create and publish an agenda and a set of rules for controlling the meeting.
22. An additional person joins a meeting and the number of communication channels doubles. How
many channels of communication are there now?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 10
23. Which of the following would be the most appropriate thing to do during the closing process
group?
A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.

B. Collect historical information from previous projects.
C. Confirm all the requirements in the project have been met.
D. Give formal approval of the management plans.
24. You just completed a cost estimate on the project and you’re assuming there’s a 15 percent
chance you will exceed this estimate. You are:
A. below the mean.

B. above the mean.
C. above the median.
D. below the median.
25. Having to constantly push the team to perform is an example of a lack of:
A. project continuity.
B. team buy-in.
C. management support.
D. team accord.
26. To a project manager, which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of progress reports as
compared to watching what is going on in a project, asking questions and assisting team members?
A. Progress reports should include information from all the team members.
B. Progress reports require much more time for gathering information.
C. Progress reports generally show problems after they have occurred.
D. Progress reports supply information about trends only.
27. Your project is managed in a projectized organization. It has just entered closure. Under these
circumstances, which of the following should be your greatest concern?
A. Setting yourself up to take over another project.

B. The team is not focused on completing the project.
C. You will have extra pressure from the customer.
D. Making sure your manager knows the project is almost completed.
28. The greatest degree of uncertainty is generally encountered during which phase of the project life
cycle?
A. Planning.
B. Concept.
C. Executing.
D. Implementation.
29. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 5 days and a pessimistic estimate of 17 days.
What is the PERT standard deviation?
A. 12 days.
B. 2 days.
C. It can’t be determined because the most likely estimate is not given.
D. 5 days.
30. Your project had a difficult time receiving formal approval of the project management plan because
there were so many stakeholders whose requirements were not approved for inclusion in the project.
These stakeholders argued and held up the project while they hold meeting after meeting about their
requirements. The project was finally approved and work began six months ago. All of the following
would be good preventive actions to implement except?
A. Keep a list of what requirements were not included (were not approved) in the project.
B. Make sure the change control process is functioning efficiently.
C. Maintain an issue log.
D. Hold meetings with the stakeholders to go over the work that will not be added to the project.
31. Which of the following best describes how a work breakdown structure can be used to determine
resources?
A. It should break the project into one-person activities.

B. The small work packages that the WBS provides make it easier to determine what expertise is
needed.
C. It lists the names of the resources to be used.
D. It enables management to list the resource hierarchy.
32. Why is reverse resource allocation scheduling done?
A. To ensure activities can be completed as scheduled.

B. To accommodate a finite and critical project resources.
C. To delay resource allocation.
D. To allocate the main body of resources to the project.
33. Which of the following best describes a risk response owner?
A. The person who identified a risk.

B. The department or company that is the source of the risk and most knowledgeable on the risk.
C. The department or company that will be most affected by the risk.
D. The person who will be responsible for implementing the risk response strategy.
34. General management encompasses all except:
A. Organizational behavior
B. Sales and marketing
C. Strategic planning
D. Developing a new product or service
35. What output do bidder conferences create?
A. Contract statement of work.

B. Proposals.
C. A clear and common understanding of the work required.
D. Contract.
36. A project team has completed and the customer has accepted the completed project scope.
However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed.
What is the status of the project?
A. The project is incomplete because the project needs to be re-planned.

B. The project is incomplete because lessons learned is missing.
C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables.
D. The project is complete because the team members have completed their duties.
37. How does most communication occur?
A. Nonverbally
B. Verbally
C. Wittingly
D. By innuendo
38. The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phase is testing
and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the project manager be
most concerned with before moving on to the final phase?
A. Verify scope.
C. Report performance.
39. Once a risk response is created which of the following statements best describes the project
manager’s role regarding risks while the project work is being completed?
A. Take actions when identified risks occur.

B. Look for unexpected impacts of implemented risk responses.
C. Perform the workaround plans.
D. Make sure that risk response owners are assigned to identify risks.
40. A team member is visiting the manufacturing plant of one of the suppliers. Which of the following is
the most important thing to be done in any telephone calls the project manager might make to the
team member?
A. Ask the team member to repeat back what the project manager says.
B. Review the list of contact information for all stakeholders.
C. Ask the team member to look for change requests.
D. Review the upcoming meeting schedule.
41. During the define activities process, the team discovers that they do not know enough to define the
activities for 30 percent of the work packages. What would be the best course of action?
A. Redo scope definition.

B. Review the project charter with the sponsor and the team.
C. Continue on to sequence activities process and define the activities at a later date.
D. Include this problem as part of risk identification.
42. A good friend at work tells you that when his wife was diagnosed with cancer, he stole items from
work and sold them, using the money for her treatment. He has since paid back the money taken in
ways that kept his theft secret. What should you do?
A. Advise your friend to tell his company and do nothing.

B. Report him to his manager.
C. Talk with a lawyer to see if this can be justified.
D. Attempt to gather evidence to determine whether or not the theft in fact occurred.
43. During the execution of the project, a new ISO version of a standard is issued and the project team
is meeting with the quality department to determine how the standard will apply to the project. This is
part of which quality process?
A. Plan quality.
C. Analyze quality.
44. All of the following are true statements about parametric estimating except:
A. The model is scalable.

B. Estimates must be based on input from the team.
C. The parameters used in the model are readily quantifiable.
D. Historical information can be used in the model.
45. Barriers to effective project communications include all of the following except:
A. Hostility.
B. Rapport.
C. Vagary.
D. Disbelief.
46. A project is seriously delayed. To get the project back on track, management wants to add five
people to a critical path activity currently assigned to one person. The project manager disagrees,
noting that this will not produce enough increase in speed. This is an example of:
A. law of diminishing returns.

B. fast tracking.
C. earned value.
D. RACI template.
47. A manager, the head of engineering and the other members of change control board discuss a
change to a major work package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you and tells you to
complete the paperwork to make the change. You have not attended the meeting. This is an example
of:
A. WBS management.
B. Management by projects.
C. Project expediter position.
D. Virtual team.
48. The project has been going well when one of the suppliers informs you that, as they warned you
during project planning, they will deliver your equipment two days late. At the same time, you get a call
from a team member informing you that the critical path activity they are working on will take longer to
complete than planned. What is the best thing to do?
A. Use a contingency reserve for the first, and find out how much later the activity will be.
B. Ask for a change order for each.
C. Have both reviewed with the change control board.
D. Change the supplier.
49. All of the below terms denote the review of key deliverables and project performance at the
conclusion of a project phase except:
A. Phase exit.
B. Kill point.
C. Stage gate.
D. Milestone.
50. A project manager spends some time determining his company’s objectives and how the project
fits into them. This is an example of:
A. Responsibility charts.
B. Management by objectives.
C. Project’s deliverables.
D. Work breakdown structure.
51. Which one is most found in matrix organizations?
A. Power struggle
B. Inefficient communications
C. Ambiguous risk analysis
D. Lack of resources
52. Refer to the following figure:
SV
$1000
$500 1 2
Time / Weeks
- $500
According to this chart what can be the most likely cause that the schedule variance is lagging?
A. Late commitment of resources.

B. Late project start.
C. Late budget approval.
D. Issuing project charter lately.
53. A project is over budget to date. Which of the following is not a reason why this could have
occurred?
A. More work than planned was accomplished.

B. There was a cost increase from the supplier.
C. Work was delayed.
D. Work was done inefficiently.
54. A cost management plan contains a description of:
A. the project costs.

B. how resources are allocated.
C. cost baseline.
D. the WBS level at which earned value will be calculated.
55. What is the last thing to do in project closure?
A. Complete the lessons learned.

B. Provide the client with all pertinent documentation.
C. Update the archives.
D. Release the team.
56. Risk response owners can potentially have conflict with risk auditors because risk auditors:
A. report to the project manager.

B. investigate the effectiveness of the risk response owner.
C. measure the effectiveness of the risk thresholds.
D. report to the stakeholders.
57. While working on a project in another country, you are asked to make a “facilitating” payment so
the country officials will issue a work order. What should you do?
A. Make the payment.

B. Ask the person for proof the payment is required.
C. Seek legal advice on whether such a payment is a bribe.
D. Do not pay.
58. During the executing process group of the project, a team member identifies a new risk. What
should occur in light of this identification?
A. Include it in the risk triggers.

B. Notify the sponsor.
C. Add it to the risk management plan.
D. Assess this risk.
59. The six month project has 300 work packages and a $600,000 budget. Three months into the
project, 150 work packages are complete and $300,000 has been spent. Which of the following is
correct?
A. The project is on time and on budget.

B. The project manager should reevaluate cost performance but not worry about time.
C. The project needs 50 more work packages to be completed to be on time.
D. There is not enough information to make any comment.
60. Your company wants to assign a resource to your project and asks you to bill that resource to the
customer. This concerns you because you get a bonus for maximizing billings to the customer. What is
the first thing to do?
A. Maximize customer billings in any manner possible.

B. Ask for the customer’s approval before adding the resource to the project scope.
C. Ask for clarification of the intent of adding the resource.
D. Remind the appropriate members of the billing organization that monetary compensation is not
worth compromising the integrity of the individual or the organization.
61. A manufacturing project has a schedule performance index of 0.89 and a cost performance index
of 0.91. What is the most likely explanation for why this has occurred?
A. The scope was changed.

B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found.
C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.
62. During what part of the project management process is most of a project’s budget expended?
A. Project planning.
B. Project executing.
C. Project initiating.
D. Project closing.
63. Which of the following puts a resistance against scope creep?
A. Efficient workaround plans.

B. Frequent quality assurance audits.
C. A CCB which is functioning efficiently.
D. Distribution of the project charter to stakeholders.
64. The project manager for a design project is using the Define Scope process. Which BEST
describes this?
A. Creating a document that lists all of the features of the product

B. Creating a plan for managing changes to the scope baseline
C. Creating a document that describes all of the work the team does to make the deliverables
D. Creating a graphical representation of how the phases or deliverables decompose into work
packages
65. The risks identified for the project must be analyzed to be able to rely on them during the rest of
the risk management process. It would be most important to complete which of the following?
A. Workaround plan.
B. Data quality assessment.
C. A decision tree.
D. Analysis of trends in quantitative risk analysis.
66. The work on the foundation framework before the placement of the concrete for the foundation
would be an example of what type of dependency?
A. Discretionary.
B. Mandatory.
C. External.
D. Preferential.
67. You are taken to lunch by one of your sellers who has become a friend. He gives you a good
opportunity to participate in a new venture in association with his company, unrelated to your current
employment. What should you do?
A. Refuse to participate.
B. Participate.
C. Participate, but inform your employer of the offer.
D. Request your employer’s permission for your participation.
68. Value analysis is performed to get
A. more value from the cost analysis.

B. management to buy into the project.
C. the team to buy into the project.
D. a less costly way of doing the same work.
69. A project manager learns that corrective action was implemented by a team member but was not
documented. What should be done next?
A. Report the violation to the functional manager.

B. Clarity the reasoning behind the team member’s action.
C. Add the implemented corrective action to the historical record.
D. Find out who caused the problem.
70. What does a benefit cost ratio of 2.1 mean?
A. The costs are 2.1 times the benefits.

B. The profit is 2.1 times the costs.
C. The payback is 2.l times the costs.
D. The cost is 2.1 times the profit.
71. Which of the following should the procurement audit include?
A. Complete list of drawings.

B. Customer’s evaluation of the work.
C. Team’s evaluation of the contract type selected.
D. Evaluations of what went right and wrong.
72. The project work has begun when the project manager notices how many times meetings and
discussions are disrupted by power outages and the lack of a warm place to meet. She turns her
attention to influencing the organization to improve the team’s working conditions. She is following the
concepts of which motivational theorist?
A. Herzberg.
B. McGregor.
C. Theory Y.
D. Vroom.
73. A team is using a fishbone diagram to help determine what quality standards will be used on the
project. What part of the quality management process are they in?
A. Perform quality control.

B. Perform quality assurance.
C. Plan quality.
D. Marginal analysis.
74. The best method to control costs is to:
A. estimate at an early stage of the project and then check costs against the baseline.
B. estimate during the execution of the project and then try to manage each activity to the budget.
C. estimate during planning and then re-estimate before each activity begins.
D. estimate during the initiation of the project and have management confirm the estimates.
75. A watch list is an output of which risk management process?

B. Perform quantitative risk analysis.
C. Perform qualitative risk analysis.
D. Plan risk management.
76. You have a project with four activities as follows: Activity 1 can start immediately and has an
estimated duration of one. Activity 2 can start after activity 1 is completed and has an estimated
duration of four. Activity 3 can start after activity 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of five.
Activity 4 can start after activity 1 is completed and must be complete when activity 3 is completed.
The estimate for activity 4 is ten. What is the shortest amount of time in which the project can be
completed?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 18
D. 11
77. In negotiations, what is a fait accompli tactic?
A. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due.

B. Completing a phase of work before the other side is ready.
C. Claiming an issue has already been decided and therefore cannot be changed.
D. Pretending to accept the other side’s offer.
78. Management wants to be sure that the project is following defined quality standards. Which of the
following should they look at?
A. Cost of quality.
B. WBS.
C. Statement of work.
D. Quality audit.
79. There are two different projects with different aims to choose between: Project A with an NPV of
$45,000 or Project B with an NPV of $85,000. What is the opportunity cost of selecting project B?
A. $45,000
B. $85,000
C. $40,000
D. $130,000
80. Which of the following is the highest point in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
A. Self-esteem.
B. Physiological.
C. Self-actualization.
D. Safety.
81. A team member notifies the project manager that a quality measurement for the project cannot be
met. What is the least effective thing for the project manager do?
A. Notify management.
B. Hold a team meeting.
C. Look for alternative ways to meet the quality level.
D. Ask management to come up with options.
82. lf the probability of one event occurring does not affect the probability of another event occurring,
the events are:
A. orthogonal.
B. mutually exclusive.
C. statistically independent.
D. just in time.
83. A project team is in the design stage of a new mountain bicycle prototype. The team is in the
process of identifying which type of frame and material will provide a high performance. Which of the
following is the most likely technique used to determine these variables?

B. Ishikawa diagram.
C. Design of experiments.
D. System flowchart.
84. Theory X postulates that people:
A. are motivated by pay.

B. have expectations.
C. need to be watched every second.
D. can direct their own efforts.
85. Your project team is working a communications management plan for a large multinational project.
Which of the following is the least important factor you should take into account?
A. Time zones of the team members.

B. Cultural differences among team members.
C. Gender of the team members.
D. Salaries of team members.
86. Your project needs a major change in the equipment used on it. You know of a product that meets
your needs but you are worried because your brother owns the company that produces the product.
What is the first thing to do?
A. Negotiate a good deal for the project with your brother.

B. Let the customer know of the issue.
C. Submit the bid and allow your brother to negotiate with the contracting office.
D. Eliminate your brother from bidding.
87. All of the following are examples of benefits from risk response planning except:
A. You are in central of the project as it progresses with few surprises.

B. By managing the plan, you are able to avoid same negative risks while mitigating the effects of
others.
C. The need for workaround is minimized.
D. The need for contingency reserves is minimized.
88. Which of the following best describes when additional risk responses are documented?
A. When you are in risk management planning.

B. When an unknown risk does not occur.
C. When the impact of a known risk event is more significant than expected.
D. When a risk due to happen multiple times on a project does not occur the first time it is expected.
89. The nine month project was finished successfully. The most likely reason for this success is that
the project manager put enough emphasis on the following process:
A. perform quantitative risk analysis.

B. manage stakeholder expectations.
C. perform quality assurance.
D. close project or phase.
90. You are working on a contract for a Canadian province. The contract requires you to be on site at
the government affairs office on a daily basis. You were unable to get to the office for 3 days last
month because of severe blizzard conditions. Your failure to appear at the office was excused
because of a clause in the contract entitled:
A. anticipation.
B. warranty.
C. legal capacity.
D. force majeure.
91. An example of a conflict of interest would be:
A. You and your functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate.
B. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy.
C. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.
D. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally.
92. A project manager is staying in touch with the work of project team members, monitoring their
performance, managing conflicts, and requesting changes to the project management plan. What
process is she involved in?
A. Report performance.
B. Manage project team.
C. Develop human resource plan.
D. Acquire project team.
93. A company and its seller are in the middle of a long dispute over the costs of terminating the
contract. The project manager determines that the only way to resolve the problem is to have it heard
and resolved by a neutral party. To accomplish this, the project manager should use a(n):
A. functional resource manager.

B. conflict solution expert.
C. arbitrator.
D. lawyer.
94. All of the following are part of quality audits except:
A. determine whether project activities comply with organizational policies.

B. determine inefficient and ineffective policies.
C. perform defect repair.
D. confirm the implementation of approved change requests.
95. Historical information and lessons learned are part of:
A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Work performance information
96. If a project manager wants to report on the actual project results vs. planned results, he would use
a:
A. trend report.
B. forecasting report.
C. status report.
D. variance report.
97. To obtain support for the project throughout the performing organization, it is best if the project
manager:
A. Ensures there is a schedule management plan.

B. Correlates the need for the project to the organization’s strategic plan.
C. Connects the project to the personal objectives of the sponsor.
D. Ensures that the cost management plan is created as early in the project as possible.
98. You are approached by company A to produce certain software. During the middle of the project, a
competitor of company A asks you to produce similar software. What should you do?
A. Do not do the new project since it is a conflict of interest.

B. Do the project using some of the material created for company A.
C. Do the project with all new work.
D. Review the intellectual property clause for the first project to help determine the approach to take.
99. The customer on a project informs the project manager formally that he has run out of money to
pay for the project. What should the project manager do first?
A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule which might allow time for the customer to get the
funds.
B. Enter administrative closure.
C. Update the cost baseline.
D. Release the project team.
100. Which of the following best describes the project manager’s role during project planning?
A. Creating a bar chart and make it approved by the sponsor.

B. Coordinating the creation of a document that can be used to guide the project.
C. Making a list of activities the team members are required to perform.
D. Determining what can get in the way and how to prevent it.
101. You are asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program to
supplement existing quality control activities. Which of the following would you choose?
A. Quality audits.
B. Statistical sampling.
C. Pareto charts.
D. Trend analysis.
102. The project has been challenging to manage. Everyone has been on edge to complete the
project on time. Unfortunately, the tension has grown to the point where team meetings have become
shouting matches and little work is accomplished during the meetings. One team member asks to be
excused from future team meetings as all the shouting upsets him. Meanwhile, the sponsor is
attending team meetings in order to better understand how the project is going and the issues involved
in completing the project, and the customer has started discussions about adding scope to the project.
In this situation, it would be best for the project manager to:
A. ask the sponsor if the information needed by the customer could be send in a report rather than the
customer attending the meetings.
B. inform the team member who asked to be excused from the meetings of the value of
communication in such meetings.
C. create new ground rules for the meetings and introduce them to the team.
D. hold a team building exercise that involves all the team members.
103. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the 50/50 rule?
A. Grant 50 percent progress on an activity when it begins and 50 percent upon completion.
B. 50 percent of the work is done by 50 percent of the people on the project.
C. Identify 50 percent of risks before you start to develop responses.
D. The project is given credit for completing 50 percent of the work when it starts.
104. Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project environment?
A. A war room and a tight matrix promote effective communication.

B. Most project managers spend half of their time engaged in communications.
C. If a project consists of eight people, thirty six potential channels of communication exist.
D. Performance reporting is not a form of communication.
105. Which statement best explains the phrase: “Quality is planned in, not inspected in.”
A. It is more expensive to determine quality by inspection than by planning.

B. The project team should not inspect quality.
C. Quality is part of planning, not inspection.
D. Planning for quality is after the fact.
106. To help the project team function more efficiently on complex and interrelated activities, the
project manager decides to use a war room. What does this mean?
A. All the project records are kept in many locations.

B. The tools needed to accomplish the work are kept in one place with easy access by the team.
C. The entire team is not located in one area.
D. The project’s entire senior management team is located in one area.
107. While completing human resource planning for your project, you visited the functional manager of
engineering many times but he refused to supply resources for the project. First, the excuse was that
his department was too busy. The next time, the department was undergoing a re-organization. This is
causing your project to stop the schedule. The lack of which of the following is the most probable
reason for his lack of support?
A. The project is more closely meeting company objectives.

B. The project does not have a project charter and the functional manager will not be involved in
approving the project management plan.
C. The project schedule network diagram was not time-phased.
D. The WBS did not include all resources needed on the project.
108. A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the same team, yet the
team still shows a lack of support for the project. The best thing the project manager can do to obtain
the team’s support for the project is to:
A. re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system in place and make it more effective.
B. talk to each team member’s boss with the team member present.
C. find someone else to be the project manager.
D. tell the team members he needs their support, and ask the team members why they do not support
the project.
109. This project is chartered to determine new ways to extend the product life of one of the
company’s products. The project manager comes from the engineering department and the team
comes from product management and marketing departments. Project planning is completed when a
stakeholder notifies the team that there is a better way to complete one of the work packages. They
even supply a technical review letter from their department proving that the new way to complete the
work package will actually be faster than the old way. The project manager has had similar
experiences with this department on other projects, and was expecting this to happen on this project.
What is the first thing the project manager should do?
A. Contact the department and complain again about their missing the deadline for submission of
scope.
B. Look for how this schedule change will impact the cost to complete the work package and the
quality of the product of the work package.
C. See if there is a way to change from a matrix environment to a functional organization so as to
eliminate all the interference from other departments.
D. Ask the department if they have any other changes.
110. During project closure, a stakeholder complains that the project did not increase the department’s
knowledge of Java programming and therefore, the project is not complete. The customer has
accepted the project. The project manager determines that all stated requirements and deliverables
have been met. He does not find evidence that Java programming was a requirement. A review of
project correspondence shows no mention of this deliverable. The project manager should:
A. Close the project.

B. Re-plan the project to include the new objective.
C. Meet with the team to discuss the issue and find a resolution.
D. Get the project stakeholders involved to help resolve the issue.
111. An obstacle to team building in a matrix organization is that the:
A. team organization is technically focused.

B. team members are borrowed resources and can be hard to motivate.
C. teams are too centralized.
D. teams are too large and therefore very hard to handle.
112. Senior management asks the project manager how the project would be affected if two resources
were removed from the project. To calculate a response, the project manager should complete:
A. resource leveling.
B. what-if scenario analysis.
C. schedule compression.
D. critical chain method.
113. The sponsor is excited to be receiving the product of the project. In which of the following stage
must the project be involved?
A. Execution
B. Integrated change control
C. Project management plan approval
D. Kick-off meeting
114. Which of the following is the best tool for showing the team the project schedule status during
project executing?
A. Milestone chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
115. Which of the following is not an objective of a risk audit?
A. Confirming that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled.
B. Confirming that risk management has been practiced throughout the project life cycle.
C. Ensuring that each risk identified has a computed, numerical expected value.
D. Helping to identify the deterioration of the project’s value potential in its early stages because of
risks.
116. A project manager is managing his second project. It started one month after the first and both
are ongoing. Though his first project is small, this one seems to be growing in size every day. As each
day passes, the project manager is beginning to feel more and more in need of help. The project
manager has recently heard that there was another project in the company last year that is similar to
his second project. What should he do?
A. Contact the project sponsors for his projects.

B. Obtain lessons learned and guidance from the PMO.
C. Wait to see if the project is impacted by the growth in scope.
D. Make sure the scope for the second project is agreed to by the sponsor.
117. Your project team has been informally meeting with sellers to discuss the sellers’ “best practices”
relative to upcoming potential work from your company. During one of these sessions, a seller offers to
give you tickets to a sporting event if you will tell him the names of other companies you have been
meeting with. What is the best response?
A. Ignore the question.

B. Answer the question, but respectfully refuse the offer.
C. Ask him why he needs to know.
D. Refuse to answer the question and remove the company from consideration for future work.
118. During the conceptual phase of a pipeline project, the project engineer estimates the following:
The cost of the materials is most likely $100,000, optimistically $90,000 and pessimistically $120,000.
The cost for labor is most likely $80,000, optimistically $70,000 and pessimistically $100,000. The cost
for equipment is most likely $60,000, optimistically $50,000 and pessimistically $70,000. The cost for
construction management fees is most likely $30,000, optimistically $20,000 and pessimistically
$40,000. What is the probability of the project coming in under $270,000?
A. Exactly 75 percent.
B. Less than 50 percent.
C. Exactly 50 percent.
D. Over 50 percent.
119. What is present value?
A. Value of assets that a company owns

B. Today’s value of future cash flow
C. Future value of money on hand today
D. Current value of today’s assets adjusted for inflation
120. A project team budgeted $3,000 for the work performed and has spent $4,000 to date. If they
budgeted $5,000 for the work scheduled, what is the cost variance?
A. ($1,000)
B. $2,000
C. $1,000
D. ($2,000)
121. What would be the best explanation for the following: Both the cost variance and schedule
variance are negative but the magnitude of the cost variance is lower than the magnitude of the
schedule variance.
A. The project is underspent because all work was not completed but overspent for work that was
done.
B. The project is overspent due to increased costs and yet completed some activities faster.
C. The project’s activities took longer than expected but costs were lower.
D. The project is underspent because costs were lower than planned and activities were easier to
complete than planned.
122. You have decided to terminate a contract because you no longer need the work from the seller.
What is the best way to communicate this to the seller?
A. Call the seller.

B. Send the seller a notification by e-mail.
C. Send the seller a stop work order by overnight mail.
D. Hold a meeting with the seller.
123. A large project is under way when one of the team members reviews the project status report. He
sees that the project is currently running late. As he looks at the report further, he notices that the
delay will cause one of his activities to be scheduled during a time he will be out of the country and
cannot work on the activity. This is of great concern because he is very committed to the project being
successful and he does not want to be the cause of the project being further delayed. What is the best
thing to do?
A. Contact the project sponsor.

B. Include the information on his next report.
C. Request that the issue be added to the project issue log.
D. Recommend corrective action.
124. You are a project coordinator leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix
environment. None of your project team members report to you functionally and you do not have the
ability to directly reward their performance. The project is difficult, involving tight date constraints and
challenging quality standards. Which of the following types of project management power will likely be
the most effective in this circumstance?
A. Reward
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Formal
125. Which response strategy reduces EMV?
A. Transfer
B. Mitigate
C. Acceptance
D. Deflect
126. Which of the following methods is used to provide a standard to measure performance?
A. Benchmarking.
B. Sampling.
C. Estimating.
D. Leveling.
127. You are responsible for a new email application project within your company that has multiple
internal and external users. You have just begun preparing a project management plan. Because
many people in your organization are interested in this system and its progress, you decide to prepare
a communications management plan. Your first step in preparing this plan is to do which of the
following?
A. Describe in detail the information you plan to distribute.

B. Conduct a stakeholder analysis to assess information needs.
C. Determine an exact schedule that shows when each type of communication will be produced.
D. Set up a repository for all project documents so that they will be easily accessible.
128. Which one refers to a yes/no decision?
A. Attribute sampling
B. Variable sampling
C. Probabilistic sampling
D. Random sampling
129. The project manager is working on a high profile project where there is a huge demand to
complete the project within budget. The project manager is new and is excited to see that the project is
spending less than budgeted. As a result, the project manager was planning to take a holiday when a
more senior project manager warned him that he has some important work to do on the project. Why
would the senior project manager give such a warning on this project?
A. Under budget could mean that work that was scheduled to be done has not been completed. The
project manager should look at how the cost performance compares to the schedule performance.
B. The project manager needs to create a project control system to make sure there are no problems
in the future.
C. A project that is under budget may also have contracts that need to be managed.
D. Team meetings should be scheduled every week and a holiday would mean that one team meeting
would have to be cancelled.
130. Near the end of your last project, additional requirements were demanded by a group of
stakeholders when they learned they would be affected by your project. This became a problem
because you had not included the time or cost in the project management plan to perform these
requirements. What is the best thing you can do to prevent such a problem on future projects?
A. Review the WBS dictionary more thoroughly, looking for incomplete descriptions.
B. Review the charter more thoroughly, examining the business case for "holes".
C. Pay more attention to stakeholder management.
D. Do a more thorough job of solicitation planning.
131. The project manager has noticed that there have been a lot of changes on the project. This has
not been considered to be a problem until one day he discovers that he cannot determine how many
scope changes are currently being reviewed. This problem would be an error in which of the following?
A. Change control system and scope management plan.

B. Plan procurements and requirements gathering.
C. Lack of a change control board and constrained optimization.
D. Poor change configuration system and benefit analysis.
132. You receive 25 new computers from the seller, but were expecting only 20. In looking at the
contract, you see that it says “seller to provide twenty computers.” What should you do first?
A. Issue a change order through the contract manager.

B. Return the five extra computers.
C. Make payment for the 25 computers.
D. Have a meeting with the seller and ask for clarification.
133. The statement of work is completed on a project. However, the customer is not happy because
they want additional work to be completed. In light of this, what should be done?
A. Begin closure on the contract and sign a new one for the additional work.
B. Change to a cost reimbursable contract.
C. Tell the customer it is too late to make a change.
D. Proceed with additional work after obtaining management’s agreement.
134. In a cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract, how can the fee change?
A. It cannot change.
B. It can change if change orders are issued.
C. It can only be increased by 10 percent it there is an unexpected cost overrun.
D. It can be decreased by 10 percent.
135. A contract has a requirement that the seller submit monthly acceptance tests to the project
manager. lf the seller does not submit such acceptance tests, the seller is:
A. not following the scope management plan.

B. waiving his rights to submit the reports.
C. using his right of intellectual property.
D. in breach of contract.
136. Being told to complete the project in three months using only four resources is an example of:
A. Constraints.
B. Earned value analysis components.
C. Benefit cost ratios.
D. Law of diminishing returns.
137. A project manager for the seller is told by her management that the project should do whatever
possible to be awarded incentive money. The primary objective of incentive clauses in a contract is to:
A. reduce costs for the buyer.

B. help the seller centralize costs.
C. synchronize objectives.
D. reduce risk for the buyer.
138. All of the following are examples for the types of communication channels, except:
A. Upward.
B. Lateral.
C. Throughput.
D. Downward.
139. Which of the following is not correct about why to measure variances from the baseline?
A. To catch deviations early.

B. To allow early corrective action.
C. To determine if there are any wild fluctuations.
D. To create a project control system.
140. You are a project manager for a major telecommunications network upgrade with a net present
value of $10,000,000. You are heavily dependent on a third party vendor for your project and your
contract office informs you that there is a 30 percent chance that the vendor will go out of business at
the end of the quarter. If that occurs, your project will incur a $3,000,000 cost overrun due to rework.
There is also a 30 percent chance that a new legislation will pass that will decrease government
oversight of your team’s work. If this legislation passes, you estimate that your project will save
$1,600,000 in time delays. Lastly, your technical lead indicates that there is 20 percent chance that a
new software package will be available by month end that could save $1,800,000 in testing time. If
available, the software will cost $500,000 to procure, install and train. What is the total expected
monetary value of these three risk events?
A. $60,000
B. $1,640,000
C. $5,900,000
D. $160,000
141. The software development project is not going well. There are over 30 stakeholders, and no one
can agree on the project objectives. One stakeholder believes the project can achieve a 30%
improvement while another believes a 50% improvement is possible. The project manager thinks a
10% improvement is more practical. What is the best course of action?
A. Average the numbers and use that as the goal.

B. Ask the sponsor to make the final decision.
C. Move forward with the project and hope more information becomes available later to settle the
issue.
D. Perform a feasibility study.
142. For communication to occur, there must be which of the following?
A. Telecommunications connection.
B. Agreement on the meaning of the message.
C. The transmitting of information.
D. Many people involved.
143. Which of the following best describes progressive elaboration?
A. Process of developing in steps and continuing by increments.

B. Process of starting a new task prior to the completion of current project tasks.
C. Process of soliciting proposals from prospective vendors and sellers.
D. Process of adding on new features to the product at a point in time which is close to the end of the
project.
144. The Java development of a project is outsourced to India (overseas). The project schedule is
starting to slip. What is the least likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers.

B. Cultural influences.
C. Internationalization.
D. Communications.
145. You are finishing the prototype that was planned as a risk mitigation strategy when you find out
that the return of investment has been improved and the project cost performance index is 1.03. The
standard deviation of the project time estimate has decreased and you discover that the prototype,
already almost finished, can fulfill the needs of another project requirement as well. What should you
do first?
A. Look for ways to help get the prototype accepted faster and thus cut cost.
B. Review the benefits of the project with the customer and determine if the prototype will improve the
benefits.
C. Compress the project time line to get it completed faster using the prototype.
D. Look for the risk impacts of fulfilling another requirement with the prototype.
146. Which type of organization is best for managing complex projects involving cross-disciplinary
efforts?
A. Projectized
B. Functional
C. Line
D. Matrix
147. During a voice conference, a team member suggests that a more experienced person be used on
the project. Another talks about using a person with more training. Which of the following best
describes what is being done?

B. Level resources.
C. Define activities.
D. Develop project team.
148. A project manager is working on his first project with outside sellers. He is familiar with project
control systems but not contract control systems. In explaining how a contract control system differs
from a project control system, it is best to point out that a contract control system:
A. includes procedures.
B. includes trend analysis.
C. requires more signoffs.
D. requires risk analysis.
149. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project
management process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
150. All the following are not examples of quality assurance except:
A. Inspection.
B. Process analysis.
C. Pareto chart.
D. Fishbone diagram.
151. A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do next?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
152. While completing work, a project team member tells you that a work package has been forgotten
in the WBS. What is the best thing to do?
A. Wait for a change request to be processed.

B. Include it in the WBS.
C. Include it only in the network diagram.
D. Include it in the estimate, but not the activity list.
153. Your best programmer is an independent contractor. Recently, you learned that he is working on
a project in the evening for one of your competitors. Your best course of action is to:
A. replace him.
B. get him to sign a non-disclosure agreement.
C. inform him that you plan to replace him.
D. limit his access to all sensitive or confidential data.
154. What does “resource leveling” mean in project management?
A. Shortening the time it takes to complete the project.

B. Making the most efficient use of the available resources.
C. Hiring contractors to fill in during “peak” times on the project schedule.
D. Reducing the project costs.
155. You are beginning a new project that has been attempted, but unsuccessful, several times in the
past few years. Previous projects were cancelled because of “politics” (differing views and directions
by key stakeholders on the project). This is an example of:
A. Stakeholder analysis.
B. Scope management.
C. Historical information.
D. Risk identification.
156. Your company is in competition to win a major project for the government of a country. Your
informal contacts in that country inform you that you must make a large payment to the foreign
minister to be considered for the project. What should you do?
A. Inform your management and ask for direction.

B. Do not make the payment.
C. Have the local contact make the payment.
D. Make the payment.
157. Management wants to look at how a project is doing, as compared to past projects. To make a
valid judgment, management should compare this project to:
A. benchmarks.
B. flowcharts.
C. histogram charts.
D. trend charts.
158. A plan for establishing the criteria for developing and controlling the project schedule is best
described as:
A. schedule management plan.

B. schedule model.
C. activity attributes.
D. schedule network analysis.
159. What is the purpose of decision trees?
A. They demonstrate the path of activities in a project.

B. They calculate the probabilities of outcomes.
C. They determine what events will take place.
D. They take into account future events for today’s choices.
160. A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a
useful change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager
asked her to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the most appropriate advice
for the situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
161. The final deliverables have been sent to the client and have been formally accepted. All of the
closure activities have been completed. After that a procurement audit identifies a failure. The project
is considered to be:
A. incomplete until the problem is resolved.

B. complete.
C. still to be in closure until the problem is resolved.
D. incomplete until formal acceptance is accomplished.
162. You are a public executive working on your fourth project to order new buses for a transportation
route between two cities. You include a government official as a stakeholder and plan to include
meetings with him in the WBS. Your manager objects to such activities as unnecessary. The best
response is to inform your manager that:
A. The government official can negatively impact the project.

B. The government official knows the end-users better than either of us.
C. The government official is a stakeholder since the buses will be used in his city.
D. The government official is a stakeholder because he will be using the buses.
163. From the seller’s point of view, the contract is considered closed when:
A. lessons learned is complete.

B. final payment is made.
C. the archives are completed.
D. five years have passed after the final payment.
164. At a critical design review meeting for a large project, several important issues surfaced. After
hearing about a major technical problem, one of the subcontractor’s engineers mentions that he
experienced a similar situation on another project; he has some ideas on how to solve the current
problem. What type of power is the engineer using?
A. Manipulative.
B. Experience.
C. Expert.
D. Referent.
165. You are assigned to a project that senior management has already decided to outsource. As a
project manager, you need to work with the contracts department to select the vendor and then
oversee the vendor through project completion. Company policy requires that a project of this size go
through a formal bid process. A vice president in your company tells you that his friend owns one of
the companies that will bid on the project, and would be an excellent choice as a vendor. This vice
president has a reputation for making or breaking careers. What is generally the best course of action?
A. Follow the bid process and show the vice president why the favored vendor is or is not the best
choice.
B. Obtain written permission to bypass the formal bid process.
C. Let the evaluation team know that management has a favorite vendor.
D. Let the contracts department handle the situation.
166. Which of the following does not assess the value a project brings to an organization?

B. Net present value.
C. Value analysis.
D. Needs assessment.
167. A trend report was given to the project manager, who reacted to the report by investigating what
activity or activities had not been done, but should have been done, to date. What did the report show
possibly?
A. Actual cost was below planned and schedule progress was less than planned.
B. The cost performance index (CPI) was 0.8 and the schedule performance index (SPI) was 1.2.
C. The budget at completion (BAC) was higher than planned.
D. The schedule performance index (SPI) was 1.3 and the estimate at completion (EAC) was greater
than planned.
168. A client has told you that his company is in extreme financial difficulties but tells you to keep it
under your hat. You decide to tell your coworker. You are in violation of the responsibility to:
A. Protect intellectual property of others.

B. Respect confidentiality of sensitive information.
C. Provide accurate information.
D. Disclose conflict of interest.
169. All of the following statements concerning bid documentation are incorrect except:
A. Well-designed bid documents can simplify comparison of responses.

B. Bid documentation must be rigorous with no flexibility to allow consideration of seller suggestions.
C. Bid documents should not include evaluation criteria.
D. Well-designed bid documents do not include a contract statement of work.
170. During project executing, your project team member delivers a project deliverable to the buyer.
However, the buyer refuses the deliverable, stating that it does not meet the requirement on page 300
of the technical specifications. You review the document and find that you agree. What is the first thing
to do?
A. Explain that the contract is wrong and should be changed.

B. Consult change control board.
C. Review the requirements and meet with the responsible team members to review the WBS
dictionary.
D. Call a meeting of the project team to review the requirement on page 300.
171. You have a project with the following activities: Activity 1 can start immediately and has an
estimated duration of 4. Activity 2 can start after Activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration
of 8. Activity 3 can start after Activity 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of 5. Activity 4 can
start after Activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 8. Activity 5 has an estimated
duration of 3 and must take place concurrently with Activity 3. It can start after Activities 4 and 2. What
is the duration of the critical path of this project?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 12
172. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project, you
discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You
should:
A. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional finding as a reserve.
B. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project.
C. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure that it has been properly prepared.
D. Question another functional manager for information about this estimate.
173. A team member wants to make a technical change to her activity that will add time to the
activity’s estimate. What is the first thing the project manager should do?
A. See if there is any time available from another activity.

B. Do not allow the change.
C. Send a change request to the change control board.
D. Determine if the activity is on the critical path.
174. Two days ago, you joined a consulting company as project manager to lead an existing project
for a client. Today, a major change is requested. What should be done first?
A. Quickly develop a change control board to approve or disapprove changes.

B. Approve the change if your sponsor approved it, otherwise suggest a review by the project team.
C. Hire an outside consultant to develop and manage overall change control.
D. Find out if a change control system is in place for this project.
175. Which of the following is not included in a schedule change control system?
A. Approval levels necessary for authorizing changes.

B. Tracking systems.
C. Paperwork necessary for making changes.
D. Limitations on the scope of changes.
176. The project manager on a large software installation project is working with her team on a critical
set of activities. They are working late on Saturday night. Circumstances create the situation wherein
the project manager must decide to change the schedule that will push the end date of the project out
two weeks. What has most likely happened?
A. An emergency project change has taken place.

B. Scope creep has occurred.
C. Status change to the implementation has taken place.
D. Risk assessment failure has taken place.
177. A project manager, working for a construction company, works closely with a design firm. Part of
his responsibility is to negotiate and approve bid documents with the design firm. The design firm
offers the project manager a job with the firm, which he accepts. When the project manager gives his
two weeks notice to the construction company, he is not asked nor does he mention that the design
firm will employ him. For the next two weeks the project manager continues to negotiate and approve
bids and designs submitted by the design firm. In this situation:
A. The departure of the project manager provides both companies with benefits by allowing the
companies to strengthen their relationship and enhance communications. So there is no problem to
worry.
B. The construction company did not ask and the project manager is not obligated to inform it of his
new job position.
C. There is a conflict of interest.
D. The project manager is required to inform the construction company in his departure interview.
178. You are the project manager on a project that has a total project float of negative 20 days. What
should you do first?
A. Use less experienced team members.

B. Level resources.
C. Acquire more resources for critical path activities.
D. Fast track the project if overall project risk is already too high.
179. All of the following are examples of bilateral contracts except:
A. Invitation for bid.

B. Request for proposal.
C. Request for quotation.
D. Procurement audit report.
180. The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule variance. Based upon
this report, you tell the client that the project is on time. However, your team members know that a
major milestone is missed and the project will not meet its deadline. This is an indication of poor:
A. communications planning.
B. scope planning.
C. team trust.
D. schedule planning.
181. During project executing, you find that the customer has requested a change to the scope of work
even though it was previously approved. There are no objections to the cost of the change. What
should you do first?
A. Follow the change control process.

B. Discuss the change with the customer.
C. Meet with the team and plan alternatives.
D. Evaluate and document the risks that might result from this change.
182. You are currently working on a project and you have just completed a review of cost performance
data. Different responses will be required depending on the degree of variance from the baseline. For
example, a variance of 10 percent might not require immediate action, whereas a variance of 80
percent will require investigation. A description of how you plan to manage cost variances should be
included in the:
A. scope management plan.

B. variance management plan.
C. performance measurement plan.
D. cost management plan.
183. Important aspects of a product include the on-going operations and maintenance. Which of the
following best describes how operations and maintenance activities impact a project?
A. They should be included as activities in the project WBS.

B. Work involved in turning over the product of the project should be included as part of the project.
C. They should be undertaken as separate projects under a mutual program.
D. They should be included as separate phases in the project life cycle.
184. Your organization is having a difficult time managing all of its projects. You have been asked to
help senior management get a better understanding of the problems. What do you do first?
A. Meet with individual project managers to get a better sense of what is happening.
B. Send a formal memo to all project managers requesting their project management plans.
C. Meet with senior managers to help them develop a new tracking system for managing projects.
D. Review the project charters and bar charts of all projects.
185. The project budget is proving to be inaccurate. The SPI is 1.1. The team did not have a deviation
from the activity attributes. The sponsor is in the change control board. What is the best thing for the
project manager to do?
A. Try to encourage the sponsor to remove himself from the change control board.
B. Re-compute the project schedule.
C. Re-estimate the activity attributes.
D. Calculate the cost performance index.
186. A project has a payback period of nine months. What does this mean?
A. It will take the project nine months to start incurring costs.

B. The project will be complete in nine months.
C. The first nine months of the project will provide profit to the company.
D. It will take the project nine months to cover the investment and start generating revenue.
187. A control chart indicates the last 12 weights produced were outside the upper control limit. What
should the project manager do first?
A. Stop production.
B. Work to better meet ISO standards.
C. Look for the random causes for the variations.
D. Remember the 7 Run Rule and plan to rework the last 6 weights.
188. Design of experiments:
A. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome.

B. identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome.
C. determines what a quality outcome is.
D. determines the methods to be used for research and development.
189. Receivers in the communication model filter all their information through all of the following
except:
A. Culture.
B. Language.
C. Knowledge of the subject.
D. Conflict.
190. A seller has failed to make delivery on a major item for your project. What the least effective thing
to do?
A. Terminate the contract.

B. Work with the seller to correct the problem.
C. Negotiate an extension of time.
D. Hire another seller to work side by side with the original seller.
191. You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following
should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct.

B. The project charter.
C. The project scope statement.
D. The stakeholder register.
192. As a result of your analysis of the risks on the project, you have decided to remove a team
member from the project team in order to decrease the overall project risk. What is this an example
of?
A. Transference.
B. Resource analysis.
C. Avoidance.
D. Acceptance.
193. The acceptable range of variation in a control chart is called:
A. mean.
B. upper and lower specification limits.
C. rule of seven.
D. upper and lower control limits.
194. Which of the following statements best describes why stakeholders are necessary on a project?
A. They determine the project schedule baseline.

B. They supply the resources and resource constraints on the project.
C. They help provide the procurement management plan.
D. They help to determine the project constraints and project deliverables.
195. A project manager is finalizing the resources for the project team. All of the following will help the
project manager complete this work except:
A. Staffing pool description.

B. Work breakdown structure.
C. Staffing management plan.
D. Reward and recognition systems.
196. Which of the following statements regarding the project champion is not true?
A. The project champion is typically someone well-versed in the technical areas of the project or who
has strong industry knowledge regarding the project.
B. The project champion is often called on to make technical decisions and typically has final authority
over project issues concerning technical expertise or industry knowledge.
C. The project champion can lend credibility to the viability of the project due to technical expertise.
D. The project champion is a strong project supporter who tends to focus attention on the project from
a technical perspective.
197. Activity J is preceding activity K and has a FS relationship with a 1 day lag. Activity J is also
preceding another activity L and has a SS relationship with a 5 day lag. Assume that Activity J has no
other immediate succeeding relationships. Given the following:
o Activity K: Late Start is Day 11; Late Finish is Day 15.

o Activity L: Late Start is Day 11; Late Finish is Day 15.
o Activity J: Duration is 5 days.
Calculate Activity J’s Late Start and Finish dates.
A. Late Start is Day 6; Late Finish is Day 11.

B. Late Start is Day 4; Late Finish is Day 9.
C. Late Start is Day 5; Late Finish is Day 10.
D. Late Start is Day 3; Late Finish is Day 8.
198. Bidder conferences can have a negative effect on the project if the project manager does not
remember to make sure:
A. all questions are put in writing and sent to all sellers.

B. all sellers get answers to their questions only.
C. to hold separate meetings with each bidder.
D. there is room in the meeting for all sellers.
199. A parking lot fencing project was bid at $11 per foot and one company is doing all the work. The
parking lot has four equal sides of 125 feet and requires the installation of a six-foot diameter culvert
on one side. Fencing should be installed at a rate of 100 feet per day. The culvert installation will cost
$500 and take one day to complete. The culvert must be installed before work can begin on that side
of the fence. After three days of work, one side is complete, another has 75 feet installed, and the
culvert is completely installed. The current status is:
A. The budget is neutral with a cost variance of $0.

B. It is over budget with a cost variance of - $1100.
C. It is under budget with a cost variance of $500 due to the completion of the culvert installation.
D. It is over budget with a cost variance of - $125.
200. You are assigned as a project manager to lead a new quality improvement project. Management
is asking for a project management plan. Which of the following should you create first?
A. Stakeholder register.
B. Quality management plan.
C. Risk management plan.
D. Project scope statement.
PLEASE REPORT YOUR RESULT TO [email protected]

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Examination (200 Questions) Time: 4 Hours

A. not needed. The schedule should be compressed.

A. Schedule a meeting with the head of the contract office.

A. During the kick-off meeting.

A. Delay the project for two weeks.

A. Bring details of the situation to the legal department.

A. Such estimating provides a basis for monitoring and controlling.

A. Independent estimates and contract negotiation.

A. process rather than a project.

A. Do not approve the change.

A. Pay a large salary increase to the best workers.

19. In a sensitive technology project, an example of a value-adding change is a change that:

A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.

A. below the mean.

A. Setting yourself up to take over another project.

A. It should break the project into one-person activities.

32. Why is reverse resource allocation scheduling done?

A. To ensure activities can be completed as scheduled.

33. Which of the following best describes a risk response owner?

A. The person who identified a risk.

34. General management encompasses all except:

35. What output do bidder conferences create?

A. Contract statement of work.

A. The project is incomplete because the project needs to be re-planned.

A. Take actions when identified risks occur.

A. Redo scope definition.

A. Advise your friend to tell his company and do nothing.

A. The model is scalable.

A. law of diminishing returns.

51. Which one is most found in matrix organizations?

A. Late commitment of resources.

A. More work than planned was accomplished.

54. A cost management plan contains a description of:

A. the project costs.

55. What is the last thing to do in project closure?

A. Complete the lessons learned.

A. report to the project manager.

A. Make the payment.

A. Include it in the risk triggers.

A. The project is on time and on budget.

A. Maximize customer billings in any manner possible.

A. The scope was changed.

63. Which of the following puts a resistance against scope creep?

A. Efficient workaround plans.

A. Creating a document that lists all of the features of the product

68. Value analysis is performed to get

A. more value from the cost analysis.

A. Report the violation to the functional manager.

70. What does a benefit cost ratio of 2.1 mean?

A. The costs are 2.1 times the benefits.

71. Which of the following should the procurement audit include?

A. Complete list of drawings.

A. Perform quality control.

74. The best method to control costs is to:

A. Plan risk responses.

77. In negotiations, what is a fait accompli tactic?

A. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due.

A. Benefit cost analysis.

84. Theory X postulates that people:

A. are motivated by pay.

A. Time zones of the team members.

A. Negotiate a good deal for the project with your brother.

A. You are in central of the project as it progresses with few surprises.

A. When you are in risk management planning.