Zool-604 DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY

Prepared by Ms. Sidra tu Nisa

Q.1. The concept that an egg or sperm cell contained a very small but fully developed
individual was called
A. Induction B. Pronuclei C. Preformation D. Epigenesis Ans. (C)
Q.2. The concept that an egg contains the building material that must somehow be
assembled is called
A. Induction B. Pronuclei C. Preformation D. Epigenesis Ans. (D)
Q.3. Which term is NOT related to the others?
A) gametogenesis B) oogenesis C) mitosis
D) spermatogenesis E) sexual reproduction Ans: (C )
Q.4 Meiosis leads to all of the following EXCEPT
A) gametogenesis B) oogenesis C) cloning
D) spermatogenesis E) haploid cells Ans: (C)
Q.5. Regarding oogenesis, all statements are correct, EXCEPT:
A) It starts during fetal life. B) It is completed during puberty.
C) It continues till menopause. D) Primary oocytes are formed after birth. Ans. (D)
Q.6 Regarding spermatogenesis:
A) It starts before birth.
B) Primary spermatocytes have a haploid number of chromosomes.
C) Spermiogenesis is a process by which a spermatid is transformed into a mature sperm.
D) Spermiogenesis occurs in the fallopian (uterine) tube.
E) The first meiotic division is a reduction division by which a secondary spermatocyte
divides into two spermatids. Ans. (C)
Q7. Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur?
A) ovaries B) testes C) epididymus
D) prostate gland E) seminal vesicle Ans: (B )
Q.8 Meiosis leads to all of the following EXCEPT
A) gametogenesis B) oogenesis C) cloning
D) spermatogenesis E) haploid cells Ans: (C )
Q.9. The polar body is
A) another name for an egg cell.
B) a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell.
C) a nonfunctional cell made at the same time as an egg cell.
D) the cell produced when fertilization occurs.
E) a specialized sperm cell Ans: (C )
Q.10. Why do polar bodies form?
A) They nurse the egg as it leaves the follicle.
B) This is extra chromosomal material representing the X chromosome in each female cell.
C) They orient the sperm toward the egg.
D) They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving all the food for one egg.
E) They orient the egg for penetration by the sperm. Ans: (D)
Q.11. Although the sperm and egg are both produced by the process of meiosis, they
differ in which of the following ways?
A) From a genetic point of view each gene stands an equal chance of ending up in a sperm
but has a 50% chance of being discarded in the polar body in egg production.
B) They have a different allocation of cellular food supply.
C) They differ in motility.
D) In humans, meiosis in egg cells doesn't complete unless fertilization occurs.
E) All of the choices are correct. Ans: (E)
Q.12 Which cells of the testis provide nourishment to spermatozoa?
(A) Sertoli cells (B) Leydig cells
(C) Interstital cells D) Spermatogonia Ans: (A)
Q.13. The cloning that has provoked the most public consternation and media attention
is
(A) Research cloning (B) Animal cloning
(C) Therapeutic cloning (D) Reproductive cloning Ans: (D)
Q.14. Which of the following is NOT the example of proto-oncogenes?
(A) Rb (B) Src (C) Myc (D) Abl Ans: (A)
Q.15.Spermiogenesis changes
(A) Spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
(B) Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
(C) Secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
(D) Spermatid to sperm Ans: (D)
Q.16.Sperm capacitation involves
(a) Change in shape (b) Release of mitochondria
(c) Removal of membrane fatty acids (d) Hyaluronic acid Ans (C)
Q.17.Polar bodies develop during
(a) Oogenesis (b) Spermatogenesis
(c) Spermiogenesis (d) Soamtic hybridisation Ans: (A)
Q.18 Part of sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is
(a) Tail (b) Acrosome
(c) Allosome (d) Autosome Ans: (B)
Q.19.Part of fallopian tube closest to ovary is
(a) Infundibulum (b) Cervix (c) Ampulla (d) Isthmus Ans: (a)
Q.20 Ovulation occurs under the influence of
(a) LH (b) FSH (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone Ans: (a)
Q.21 Ovulation in human female occurs at
(a) beginning of proliferative phase (b) end of proliferative phase
(c) middle of secretory phase (d) end of secretory phase Ans: (b)
Q.22.Number of eggs released in the life time of a woman is approximately
(a) 40 (b) 400 (c) 4000 (d) 20000 Ans: (b)
Q.23 Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains
(a) Nucleus (b) Vacuole (c) Mitochondria (d) Centriole Ans: (c)
Q.24 The point of fertilization occurs when
a. Sperm are deposited in the vagina
b. Sperm reach the outer jelly coating of the egg
c. The sperm contacts the vitelline envelope
d. The sperm sheds the tail
e. The sperm nucleus and egg nucleus unite to form a zygote Ans: (e)
Q.25 Before fertilization, as an egg cell matures, its nucleus increases RNA content and
it is called
a. A pronucleus b. The fertilization cone c. A cleavage furrow
d. A germinal vesicle e. A blastomere Ans: (d)
Q.26. ___________ occurs when a fertilized egg enters cell division without further
growth in volume.
a. Cleavage b. Gastrulation c. Differentiation
d. Morphogenesis e. Embryology Ans: (a)
Q.27. Fertilizins are emitted by
(a) Immature eggs (b) Mature eggs
(c) Sperms (d) Polar bodies Ans: (b)
Q.28. Fertilization of ovum occurs in
(a) Fimbriac of oviduct (b) Isthmus of oviduct
(c) Ampulla of oviduct (d) None of the above Ans: (c)
Q.29. Fertilization is
(a) Union of diploid spermatozoon with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(b) Union of haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form haploid zygote
(c) Union of haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(d) Union of diploid sperm with haploid ovum to form triploid zygote Ans: (c)
Q.30. During cleavage
(a) size of resulting cells decreases (b) Size of resulting cells increases
(c) Size of early embryo increases (d) Size of early embryo decreases Ans: (a)
Q.31. Cleavage on the surface of the yolk of the chicken egg is partial because cleavage
furrows cannot cut through; this is called
a. Meroblastic b. Holoblastic c. Isolecithal
d. Indirect development e. Indeterminant Ans: (a)
Q.32. In animals, indirect development
a. Occurs only in mammals
b. Lacks a larval stage
c. Involves a larval stage
d. Occurs only when eggs develop without being fertilized
e. Involves continued nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic cleavage Ans: (c)
Q.33. Radial cleavage is found in
a. Birds b. Mammals c. Most protostomes
d. Sea stars e. None of the choices are correct Ans: (d)
Q.34. Spiral cleavage is found in
a. Amphibians b. Mammals c. Annelid worms
d. Sea stars e. Birds Ans: (c)
Q.35. A characteristic of development of Deuterostomia is
a. Spiral cleavage
b. Mosaic development
c. The mesoderm developing from a special blastomere called the 4d cell
d. Radial cleavage Ans: (d)
Q.36. Rotational cleavage is unique to
a. Amphibians b. Mammals c. Protostomes showing spiral cleavage
d. Sea stars e. Lophotrochozoa Ans: (b)
Q.37. Cleavage in mammals
a. Is faster than most other groups
b. Does not begin, like most other animals, with a first cleavage plane through the animal-
vegetal axis
c. Is only on the surface, with many rounds of nuclear division before cytoplasmic division
d. Is asynchronous, meaning that all blastomeres do not divide at the same time
e. Is very loose, with cells drifting about in a loose amorphous, bubble-like mass Ans: (d)
Q.38. A solid ball of cells with a hollow cavity inside is the
a. Animal pole b. Blastula c. Blastocoel
d. Gastrula e. Neurula Ans: (b)
Q.39.The correct sequence of process of development after fertilization and cleavage is
(A) Gastrulation-Organogenesis-Growth
(B) Organogenesis-Gastrulation-Growth
(C) Gastrulation-Blastulation-Growth
(D) Organogenesis-Morulation-Blastulation Ans. (A)
Q:40: During development of chick the fertilized egg is laid __________ hours after the
fertilization.
(A) 24 (B)36 (C) 40 D) 45 Ans. (A)
Q.41 The process by which developing cells achieve their functional, mature identity as
liver, or muscle, or nerve is called:
a) Cleavage division b) pattern formation
c) morphogenesis d) differentiation Ans. (D)
Q.41 During gastrulation size of embryo remains constant but metabolic rate
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) is unchanged (d) none of the above Ans: (a)
Q.42 Mosaic development in animals is a type in which each of the fate of
a). blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells
b). Is synonymous with regulative development
c). Is a type in which each of the early blastomeres lacks the potential of developing into a
complete organism and removing a blastomere eliminates a future body part
d). Occurs in most deuterostomes but usually does not occur in protostomes
e). None of the choices are correct Ans: (c)
Q.43 Regulative development in animals
a. Is a type in which the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells
b. Is a type in which removing a blastomere causes the remaining blastomeres to "fill in" for
the lost cell
c. Usually does not occur in protostomes
d. All of the choices are correct
e. Occurs in most (but not all) deuterostomes Ans: (e)
Q.44. Neighboring cells influence the development of each other, either by direct
contact or by production of chemical signals, in
a. Neurulation b. Gastrulation c. Induction
d. Maternal determinants e. Homeotic pattern formation Ans: (c)
Q. 45. large amounts of yolk.
(A) Meroblastic cleavage (B) Discoidal cleavage
(C) Holoblastic cleavage (D) Both A and B Ans. (D)
Q:46: The egg of Hen is
(A) Alecithal (B) Meolecithal
(C) Mesolecithal (D) Polylecithal Ans. (D)
Q.47. In Hen the egg is released from the ovary as
(A) Primary oocyte (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Ootid (D) None of these Ans. (A)
Q:48: Animals begin their lives as a single, diploid cell called
(A) Zygote (B) Embryo
(C) Gastrula (D) All A, B and C Ans. (A)
Q.49: Increase in size of organs to attain maturity is called
(A) Differentiation (B) Localization
 (C) Growth (D) Both B and C Ans. (C)
Q.50 After ______days of incubation, the chick finally begins its escape from the shell.
(A) 16 (B)19 (C) 20 (D) 21 Ans. (D)

ZOOL-605 EVOLUTION AND PRINCIPLES OF SYSTEMATICS

Sr.
No. Question A B C D
1 Which of the following did not Lyell's principles comparisons of the Mendel's paper
influence Darwin as he of geology on fossils with living biogeographic describing the
synthesized the theory of gradual geologic organisms distribution of laws of
evolution by natural selection? changes organisms inheritance
around the world
2 Microorganisms can adapt to they are so small their populations they multiply their
changes in the environment by in size are very isolated so rapidly populations are
means of mutation alone from one another so large
because
3 The ultimate source of all natural selection genetic drift environment mutation
genetic variation is
4 If a certain flower blooms directional diversifying bottleneck effect genetic drift
earlier due to climate change selection selection
this would be an example of
5 Which of the following is an Which of the Two species of hybrid pollen of one
example of a postzygotic following is an leopard frogs that offspring of two species of
reproductive barrier? example of a have different species of tobacco cannot
postzygotic mating calls jimsonweeds fertilize a
reproductive always die different species
barrier? before of tobacco
reproducing
6 Biologists have found more polyploidy adaptive radiation temporal sympatric
than 500 species of fruit flies isolation speciation
on the Hawaiian islands, all
descended from a single
ancestor species. This is an
example of
7 Which of the following would a population gene flow between different The separated
not contribute to allopatric becomes the two mutations begin population is
speciation? geographically populations to distinguish the small and
isolated from the continues to occur gene pools of the genetic drift
parent separated occurs
population populations
8 According to the biological look different cannot interbreed are live in different
species concept, two animals geographically habitats
are considered different isolated
species if they
9 Bacteriologists usually use the bacteria often bacteria are so bacteria bacteria
morphological species concept hybridize small reproduce reproduce
to define bacterium because asexually sexually
10 A new species can arise in a through in a very large if allopatric because of
single generation geographic population that is speciation occurs hybrid
isolation spread over a large breakdown
area
11 Which of the following can sympatric allopatric polyploid natural selection
happen the fastest? speciation speciation speciation
12 Two species of lilies in the temporal gametic isolation mechanical ecological
same pond but don't interbreed isolation isolation isolation
because one blooms at night
the other during the day. This
is an example of
13 Which of the following is an one species of two fruit flies of the sperm of a two pheasant
example of a postzygotic frog mating in different species marine worm species
reproductive barrier? April and that produces only penetrate performing
another mates in offsprings that are eggs of the same different
may sterile species courtship dances
14 Adaptive radiations may be mass extinctions colonization of an a gradual a novel
promoted by all of the that result in isolated region with change in adaptation
following except for vacant ecological few competitors climate
niches
15 Large scale changes in the macroevolution adaptation exaptation microevolution
history of life such as mass
extinctions, the development
of walking legs from fins, etc.
are termed as
16 The ideal taxonomic grouping all known an outgroup and an species that do an ancestor
includes species with ingroup not share any species and all
shared ancestral derived its descendants
characters characters
17 Both Darwin's and Lamarck's the giraffe's long the main acquired the interaction
ideas regarding evolution neck is the result mechanism of physical of organisms
suggest which of the of artificial evolution is natural characteristics with their
following? selection selection can be inherited environment is
important to
the
evolutionary
process.
18 natural selection is based on all variation exists the fittest individuals there is
of the following except within individuals tend to must adapt to differential
populations leave the most their reproductive
offspring environment success within
populations
19 To observe natural selectionʹs One must The population A and B only None
effects on a population, which observe more must contain
of these must be true? than one genetic variation.
generation of the
population.
20 Which of the following an individual often only a individuals unequal
statements is not an inference organism fraction of whose inherited reproductive
of natural selection? undergoes offspring survive, characteristics success among
evolution over because there is a best for them to its members
the course of its struggle for limited the environment leads a
lifetime resources should leave population to
more offspring adapt over time
21 What would be the best examining the comparison of DNA or RNA comparative
technique for determining the fossil record homologous analysis embryology
evolutionary relationships structures
depicted by an evolutionary
tree?
22 Which definition of evolution change in gene descent with the gradual the appearance
would have been most foreign frequency in modification change of a of new varieties
to Charles Darwin during his gene pools populationʹs and new species
lifetime? heritable traits with the passage
over generations of time
23 Which of the following an increasing random mating large population no migration
is not a requirement for mutation rate size
 maintenance of Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium?
24 In a large, sexually the allele is the allele mutates there is no the allele
reproducing population, the neutral readily sexual selection reduces fitness
frequency of an allele changes
from 0.6 to 0.2. From this
change, one can most logically
assume that, in this
environment
25 The following important mutation. the bottleneck the founder natural
concepts of population effect. effect. selection
genetics are due to random
events or chance except
26 Natural selection is most gene flow genetic drift differential nonrandom
nearly the same as reproductive mating
success
27 Through time, the movement nonrandom geographic mutations gene flow
of people on Earth has steadily reproduction isolation
increased. This has altered the
course of human evolution by
increasing
28 When we say that an lives longer than mates more utilizes resources leaves more
individual organism has a others of its frequently than more efficiently viable offspring
greater fitness than another species others of its species than other than others of
individual, we specifically species its species
mean that the organism occupying
similar niches
29 Which of the following it is goal- it represents the it is synonymous it is the
statements best summarizes directed result of selection with the process differential
evolution as it is viewed for acquired of gene flow survival and
today? characteristics reproduction of
the most fit
phenotypes
30 The allele that causes heterozygote stabilizing selection diploidy balancing
phenylketonuria (PKU) is advantage selection
harmful, except when an
infant's diet lacks the amino
acid, phenylalanine. What
maintains the presence of this
harmful allele in a population's
gene pool?
31 Which of the following must prezygotic postzygotic ecological reproductive
occur during a period of barriers barriers isolation isolation
geographic isolation in order
for two sibling species to
remain genetically distinct
following their geographic
reunion in the same home
range?
32 The Hawaiian Islands are a ecological adaptive radiation allopolyploidy cross-specific
great showcase of evolution isolation and and allopatric and sympatric mating and
because of intense sympatric speciation speciation reinforcement
speciation
33 cross-specific mating and Carolus Charles Darwin Theodar schewan
reinforcement Linnaeus
34 Which theory of geologic Special creation Uniformitarianism lamarkism None
change is accepted by today's
scientists?
35 What term describes a feature adaptation Physical fitness Mental health None
that allows an organism to
 better survive in its
environment?
36 What did the variations in the the animals' the animals' the animals' diet None
Galapagos finches seem to be environment environment
well-suited to? and diet
37 Which of the following might webbed feet a long, pointed a strong, thick None
be an adaptation for picking beak beak
insects out of tree bark?
38 If an organism's diploid is 12, 2 4 6 8
then its haploid number is...
39 At the end of meiosis, there are 2 4 6 8
how many daughter cells?
40 When you flip a coin, what is 1/2 1/3 1/4 1/5
the probability that it will
come up tails?
41 Who of the following Darwin Lamarck Levonhook Thomas
scientists would postulate that
giraffes have long necks
because they wanted to eat the
leaves of tall trees?
42 Which of the following Darwin Lamarck Levonhook Thomas
scientists hypothesized that
organisms can pass down traits
acquired during their lifetimes
43 Which of the following is the A variation of a The dominant or Copy of gene None
most accurate definition of an given gene recessive form of a
allele? gene
44 The sum of all genetic alleles Gene stock Gene reservoir Gene pool Gene bank
in a population is the
45 Mutation, gene flow, Evolution mutations Genetic drift Segregation
nonrandom mating, and
natural selection combine to
cause which of the following?
45 A key evolutionary event that the evolution of the evolution of the evolution of the evolution of
allowed the evolution of the an antero- mesoderm the mesenteric the
bilaterally symmetric posterior axis artery. mesonephridia
triploblasts from the common
ancestor of the triploblasts and
the diploblasts would have
been
46 Does a mutation in a body cell No Yes sometimes Altered
change the genetic variation in
the gene pool?
47 Why are chemical scents Scents are Scents are signals Scents lead to Scents lead to
called behavioral barriers? signals that lead that lead to physiological chemical
to mating emotional behavior behavior. behavior.
behavior
48 A process in which chance Genetic drift Bottle necks Natural selection None
events are likely to change
allele frequencies in a small
population is known as
49 Systema naturae written 4000 species of 4000 species of 2000 species of 4200 species of
byLinnaeus contains a list of plants animals plants animals
50 Classical taxonomy is also systematics Descriptive Experimental None
termed taxonomy taxonomy
 Zool-606 ECONOMIC ZOOLOGY
1) Sericulture is native of
A) Japan B) China C) Korea D) Pakistan
2) Mulberry muga , oak and tussar all the four varieties of silk are present in a single
country.
A) China B) Pakistan C) Japan D) Korea

3) Silk contains a protein known as

A) Fibroin B) Casein C) Sericin D) a and c both

4) The silk fibres are held together in cocoon by a substance known as

A) Sericin B) Cement C) Glue D) None of the above

5) Life span of adult 'Bombyx mori' is

A) 2 days B) 6 days C) 8 days D) 3-4 days

6) In an egg laying of 'Bombyx mori', the number of eggs are

A) 200 to 300 B) 300 to 500 C) 400 to 600 D) 500 to 700

7) Silk is

A) Secretory substance of insects B) Secretory substance of plants

C) Artificial chemicals D) All of the above

8) Domestication of silk worm is called

A) Sericulture B) Pisciculture C) Apiculture D) Horticulture

9) Which set is of beneficial insects to man

A) Honey bee, lac insect, cochineal insect B) Silk worm, honey bee, wasp
C) Honey bee, silk worm, cockroach D) Sand fly, butterfly, honey bee

10)The silkworm larva ceases to eat and starts spinning silk around its body

A) At random B) From inside to outside

C) From outside to inside D) All of these

11) Which species produces superior quality of silk

A) Attacus ricini B) Bombyx mori

 C) Antheraea assamensis D) Attacus atlas

12) What is apiculture

A) Culture of aqueous animals B) Culture of lac insect

C) Culture of honey bee D) Culture of prawn

13) At a time queen of honey bees lays about

A) 2,000 eggs B) 20,000 eggs C) 200 eggs D) 20,000-25,000 egg

14) When honey is stored in the honey sac, it is mixed with the
A) Enzymes for the production of fructose and glucose
B) Saliva for increasing the quantity
C) Preservative to keep honey for long time
D) Water to make the nector less viscous

15) If a honey bee is conveying an information, by round dance then the distance of
source will be about

A) 1000 meters B) 50 meters C) 2000 meters D) 150 meters

16) The stimuli through which a dancing scout bee communicates the location of a
food source to other worker bees in a hive are

A) Visual B) Acoustic C) Contact D) Contact and visual

17) Which organ prevents the nectar collected, being passed through into the bee’s digestive
system in order that it can be regurgitated back at the hive?
A) Honey bladder B) Gut C) Proventriculus valve D) Gulle
18) How long does the development of a worker bee take from laying of egg to emerging as a
fully formed adult?
A) 16 days B) 19 days C) 21 days D)24 days
19) What is the name given to a colony of bees
A) A Supergrass B) A Superorganism C) A Collective D) A Family
20) What is the maximum life of a queen?
A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 3 years D) 5 years

21) The pearl bed which produces best quality is known as

A) Lingha pearl B) Muktaphal C) Kusum D) None of the above

22) Pearl is secreted by
 A) Nacreous layer B) Prismatic layer
C) Mantle layer D) Both a and b

23) The composition of pearl is very much similar to that of

A) Mantle layer B) Nacreous layer only

C) Prismatic layer only D) Both b and c
24) Who stands first in the world for pearl production
A) India B) China C) Korea D) Japan

25) Which one of the following molluscan groups is primarily used in the pearl
formation

A) Monopalacophorans B) Cephalopods C) Gastropods D) Pelecypods

26) The most valuable kind of pearl comes from marine pearl oyster of Eastern Asia,
it is

A) Melegrina B) Ostrea virginiana C) Pinctada D) Mytilus

27) Whose secretion forms the pearl

A) Prismatic layer B) Columnar epithelial cells of mantle

C) Ciliated epithelial cells of mantle D) Connective tissue of mantle

28) Shells of molluscs are used for preparing ointments because they are rich in

A) Zinc B) Iodine C) Sodium D) a and b both

29) Who is referred to as father of pearl industry?' [MP PMT 1998]

A) Inovsky B) Louis Pasteur C) Kokichi Mikimoto D) Harvey

30) Which one of the following mollusc is cultured in fresh water for producing pearls

A) Pinctada B) Haliotis C) Anodonta D) Mytilus

31) Which of the following is not used to define egg shell soundness?

A. Check b. Dented Check C. Defeat D. Leaker

32) The temperature of a freshly laid egg is:

A. 105 degrees °F B. 110 degrees °F C. 98 degrees °F D. 90 degrees °F

33) In these operations parent birds of breeder male and breeder females are raised
to produce fertile hatching eggs:

A. Broiler grow out operations B. Egg breeder operations

C. Broiler processing D. Grow out operation

34) An example of a purebred chicken is:

A) Benton Rhode Island Red B) Yellow Cockrels

C) White Sebrights D) Small Fowl

35) The Rhode Island Red, Plymouth Rock and New Hampshire are all breeds of this
class of chickens:

A. American B. Asiatic C. Continental D. English

36.Insects are thought to be so very successful because of

A. Their small size B. Ecological diversity

C. Reproductive potential D. All of the above

37.For their size, insects are much stronger than man because

A. Their muscles are naturally stronger B. They have giant nerve fibers
C. Of physical properties related to their small size D. None of the above

38.Insects are considered to be beneficial because they are

A. Effective pollinators B. Make useful products

C. Are a potential protein source D. All of above

39. Any organism which harms or causes damage to man directly or indirectly is
called

A) Insect pest B) Agricultural pest C) Pest D) None

40. Brown-banded cockroaches are primarily active during the

A) Day B) Summer C) Spring D) Night

41. Cabbage butterfly caterpillars mostly cause damage to

A) field crops B) garden vegetables C) turfgrass D) flowers

42. The most important pest of quarantine in mango is

 A) Fruit fly B) Stem borer C) Mealy bug D) Leaf hopper
43. the larvae of Rice weevil is called ______
A) nymphs B) instars C) grubs D) none
44. adult and nymphal stages of _____both cause damage
A) cockroach B) house fly C) mosquitoes D) sand flies
45. _______ number of nymphs comes out of each ootheca of cockroach
A) 16 B) 17 C) 18 D) 19
46. Larvae of house fly
A) caterpillars B) grubs C) nymphs D) maggots
47. The life span of house fly is ____days
A) 20-23 B) 20-33 C) 20-43 D) 20-53
48.They feed on fruits and damage the honey comb
A) wasps B) centipedes C) rice weevils D) root borror
49. The life span of adult lice______ month/months
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
50. how many of generations of bed bug occur in a year
A) 1 B) 2 C)3 D) 4

Zool-607 Ichthyology
Sr. Question A B C D
No.
1 In which one of the following Man Frog Lizard Fish
single type of blood circulation is
found?
2 In fish the heart receives orelimbs fins gills hindlimbs
deoxygenerated blood from all
over the body except
3 The blood of fishes is similar to amphioxus vertebrate invertebrate animal
that of any other
4 The_____ is liquid portion and plasma Serum Protein none
consists of water.
5 ______acts as the solvent for a plasma Serum Protein none
variety of solutes
6 Lymph is the part of plasma that veins capillaries arteries none
perfuse out of the ______
7 urea, uric acid, creatine, creatinine, Non-protein protein nitrogen Organic salts none
ammonium salts nitrogen
8 serum has lost the clotting factors fibrine prothrombin Antifibrine none
____and fibrinogen
9 glycoprotein Antifreezing Freezing agent Anticoagulant coagulant
agent
10 The total plasma protein in fish 2 to 8g dl-1 2 to 9 g dl-1 2 to 10 g dl-1 2 to 5 g dl-1
ranges from
11 Formed Elements of the Blood in Leucocytes Macrophages Erythrocytes All of above
Fishes
12 The cytoplasm of RBC is coppery teleosts elasmobranchs actinoptergii none
purplish, coppery pinkish or light
bluish in freshwater_____
13 The RBC size is ___in smaller larger Very large Very small
elasmobranchs in comparison to
teleosts.
14 poikilocytes Normal RBC Abnormal WBC Abnormal RBC NormalWBC
15 They are most numerous types of Agranulocytes Lymphocytes Granulocytes thrombocytes
leucocytes
16 spleen, bone marrow and liver play RBC WBC Platelets macrophages
a role in phagocytosis of______
17 In fish these are round, oval or Platelets Prothrombin Thrombin thrombocytes
spindle shaped cells, hence
called______
18 The formation of cells and fluid of Haemopoiesis Homeostasis Haemoprocess Heamocyanin
the blood is known as
19 wall of yolk sac Blood sac Blood island Blood loss none
20 Both RBCs and WBCs are haemocytoplasm haemonucleoplast Haemocytoblast none
originated from lymphoid_______
21 vertebral column, jaw, ribs, skeletal system Muscular system Bone system None
cranium and intramuscular bones.
22 In ----- intestine produces several Chondrichthyes Teleosts Elasmobranchs Actinoptergii
white blood cell types
23 Cranium protects the brain Emotional stress Mechanical Chemical stress Biochemical
from_____ stress stress
24 There are three pairs of bones that Gill bones Gill management Gill arches None
aid gills called
25 Osteichthyes have_____ hinged jaws Vital jaws Retractable jaw No jaw
26 Paired fins take up the role of Vertical steering Horizontal None
steering propulsion propulsion
27 Resting membrane potential 70 mV 700mV 7000 mV None
28 A thin walled internal sac found Swim tube Gallbladder Swim bladder None
just below the backbone in most
bony fishes
29 What is the gas filled sac the Swim tube Gallbladder Swim bladder None
controls buoyancy
30 A fish is characterised by the Dermal scales Paired fins Pharyngeal gills All of the
presence of above
31 Which one of the following is an Scoliodon Coelacanth Labeo Protopterus
example of a lung-fish
32 Which one of the following is Salmo trutta Labeo Cypris Dephnia
exotic fish
33 Elasmobranchs are exclusively Fresh water Marine water Brackish water None
forms forms forms
34 Heart of fishes is____chambered One Two Three Four
35 buoyancy is controlled by Size shape speed none
changing ___of gas bladder
36 Physostomous gas bladder Modern lung Modern sac Primitive sac Sac
37 gas enters into gas bladder via Gulping Engulfing Phagocytosis None
__and/or diffusion from gas gland
38 Physoclistous gas bladder Pneumatic duct No pneumatic Gas gland None
present duct
39 looping bundle of arterial & Rete mirabillin Veneosus Superior Rete mirabil
venous capillaries venacava
40 In which one of the following man frog fish lizard
single type of blood circulation is
found?
41 hemoglobin dumps O2 quickly in Root effect Bohar’s effect pH effect None
acidic environment but rebinds O2
when the pH increases
42 hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen is Root effect Bohar’s effect pH effect None
inversely related to acidity and
CO2 concentration
43 ------haave high levels of low Pelagic Neritic Profundal None
density lipids in their livers elasmobranchs elasmobranchs
44 Hypertonic environment results in
Die Wilt Shrink turgid
loss of water and ultimately cell
45 Osmoregulators excrete salts
fins gills bladder scale
through
46 Hypotonic environment leads to wilting shrinking
Concentration Turgidity
cell towards
47 The body fluids of an Hyperosmotic Isotonic Hyperosmotic isoosmotic;
osmoconformer would be ___ its _ freshwater freshwater saltwater saltwater
48 Which feature of osmoregulation loss of water gain of salt gain of water loss of water
is found in both marine and through the gills through the gills through food in the urine
freshwater bony fish?
49 A freshwater fish was accidentally Loss of water Salt diffused into The kidneys were he gills
placed in salt water. After several by osmosis in all the fishʹs cells not able to keep up became
minutes in this saline cells in vital causing them to with the water encrusted with
water, it died. What is the most organs resulting swell and, in removal necessary salt, resulting
in this
logical explanation for its death? in cell death some cases, lyse. hyperosmotic
in inadequate
and eventually environment gas exchange
organ failure. creating an
irrevocable loss of
homeostasis
50 Where and from what liver from NH3 liver from kidneys from bladder from
compound(s) is urea produced? and CO2 glycogen glucose uric acid and
H2O

Zool-610 CONSERVATION BIOLOGY

1. Biodiversity is considered important because of:

a. the direct economic benefits to humans, such as medicines and food

b. the symbiotic value that elements of the natural world can provide
c. the aesthetic value it holds
d. all of the above are correct

2. Biodiversity hotspots are defined by which two criteria?

a. species richness and ecosystem integrity b. size and distance from nearest
alternative hotspot
c. species endemism and degree of threat d. species richness and size

3.Madagascar is unusually important to conservation because it:

a. has more species per unit area than any other place on earth
b. is the fourth largest island in the world
c. is home to more endangered species than any other country
d. has a higher percentage of endemic plants and animals than any comparably sized
area on earth

4.A habitat with ______________ disturbance is suspected to have the greatest species
richness.

a. a great deal of b. an intermediate amount of

c. predictable d. very little

5.What bird, once the most abundant in North America, was hunted to extinction by shooting
and trapping during the 1800's?

a. California condor b. blue-footed booby

c. dodo d. passenger pigeon

6.How many species do biologists estimate to be currently existing on earth?

a. fewer than 1 million b. between 3 million and 5 million

c. more than 1 billion d. between 5 million and 100 million

7.Which of the following is currently the leading cause of extinction?

a. pollution b. habitat loss

c. disease d. none

8.Currently, the major threat to most large land mammals is:

a. invasive species b. loss of genetic variation

c. overexploitation d. habitat loss

9.Exotic species can disrupt ecosystems because:

a. they frequently have no predators in their new habitat and grow unchecked
b. they are favored by ectotourists
c. they have no natural prey items and so must rely on humans for their survival
d. they have better dispersal capability than endemic species

10.Even though there is a carbon cycle, carbon dioxide levels around the world seems to be
rising. Which of the following best explains why this is so?

a. animals give off carbon dioxide during their normal metabolism

b. as the atmosphere heats up, it can contain more carbon dioxide
c. the destruction of coral reefs leads to increased levels of carbon dioxide
d. the burning of fossil fuels releases more carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

11.Increased exposure to short-wavelength ultraviolet radiation resulting from depletion of

stratospheric ozone:
a. increases the acidification of lakes and streams
b. reduces the rate of photosynthesis by plants
c. has lowered the average daily temperature on the earth's surface by 4% per decade
d. increases the rate of photosynthesis by plants

12. A charismatic species that can engender significant public support for conservation of
other species and the ecosystem they all inhabit is called:

a. an indicator species b. a keystone species

c. a flagship species d. a phylogenetic species

13.In conservation biology, what does the term "corridor" refer to?

a. a section of habitat that organisms use to travel between two or more otherwise
isolated patches of habitat
b. the edge of a given patch of habitat
c. the minimum range required by a keystone species in any habitat
d. the path a conservation biologist takes through a habitat to minimize any negative effects
on the habitat's biodiversity

14.What percentage of the species that once lived on Earth have become
extinct?
A) 50 B) 90 C) 20 D) <1

15.Which of the following statements is not correct?

A) An extinct organism could be related in some way to a living organism

B) Human intervention (either directly or indirectly) has become the leading cause of species
extinction
C) An extinct animal can make a comeback
D) Mass extinction events have occurred periodically in Earth's history.

16.According to the text, what is the most important factor that leads to extinction?

A) environment B) increased human population

C) hunting D) overharvesting

17. What statement describes most accurately an aspect of natural selection

A) Trait distributions in a population evolve randomly with respect to the environment

B) Genetic drift is strong in large populations and natural selection is strong in small
populations
C) Differential reproduction or survivorship are necessary but not sufficient for natural
selection to occur
D) Natural selection is responsible for all levels of genetic variability in natural populations

18. In very large populations

A) There is less variability than in small populations

B) There is a greater chance of fixation for neutral alleles
C) Heterozygosity declines more rapidly than in small populations
D) Average heterozygosity remains constant under mutation-drift equilibrium

19. Adaptation for R. A. Fisher

A) Requires a single step to occur

B) Can be driven by genetic drift
C) Proceeds through coarse tuning, and then fine tuning of the phenotype
D) Proceeds gradually and with many and very small mutational effects

20.Selection against deleterious recessive mutations

A) Can be offset by recurrent mutation, leading to mutation-selection equilibrium

B) Is the only information necessary for understanding the selectionist-neutralist debate
C) Produce allelic frequencies in HW equilibrium
D) Is consistent with the fitness scheme AA: 1, Aa: 1-s; aa: 1

21. 10. Polymorphism

A) Is directional selection
B) Is only found in introns
C) Occurs when an allele in a locus is in at least 10 % of the population
D) Is related to levels of heterozygosity in the population

22. Genetic drift

A) Results from natural selection

B) Is weak in small populations
C) Results from Mendelian segregation, particularly in small populations
D) Results from Mendelian segregation, particularly in infinite populations

23. Reductions in heterozygosity

A) Can occur with non-random mating

B) Can occur with random mating
C) Do not occur when populations are very small
D) Do not occur during mutation-drift equilibrium

24. The molecular source of variation that underlies the process of evolution is:

A) Mutation B) Genetic drift

C) Artificial selection D) Migration

25. Which of the following is most effective at fixing the recessive allele in a population?

A) Selection for a recessive allele B) Selection against a recessive

allele
C) Selection against homozygous recessive individuals D) Selection against heterozygotes
26.Genetic drift always occurs, but its effect on allele frequencies in very large populations is
much less pronounced than in small populations. T/F True

27. Genetic Variation is:

A) Evolution B) Caused by morphological variation

C) Rare in biological populations D) Having many alleles of a particular gene in a
population

28. What is Natural Selection?

A) Descent with modification B) A change in allege frequency in a population across

generations
C) The formation of new alleles D) Differential reproduction of heritable phenotypes

29. Inbreeding increases frequency of

A. homozygous B. heterozygous C. genetic diversity D. genetic linkage

30. Mating between relatives is called

A. exbreeding B. breeding C. inbreeding D. Marriages other

than family

31. In what year did the Stockholm Convention issue a worldwide ban on DDT?

A. 1962 B. 1978 C. 1970 D. 1972

32. What is NOT a health problem linked to DDT exposure?

A. Breast cancer B. Lung cancer C. Nervous system delays D. Miscarriages

33. Which U.S senator introduced the legislation to ban DDT?

a. Gaylord Nelson b. Richard B. Russell c. Carl Curtis d. Robert Kennedy

34. What is a critical habitat designation?

a. A geographic area that has certain distinctive attributes that are essential for survival
of an endangered species and this habitat may require special care and management
b. The natural environment that a native animal, plant, or any organism resides in
c. A group of living organisms, typically of the same species, residing in the same place
d. The place an organism occupies in an ecosystem relative to other organisms

35. What does the Endangered Species Act promote?

a. Funding for protecting species

b. Critical habitat designation
c. Recovery plan development for endangered species
d. Protect endangered species and threatened species
e. All of the above

36. What is an opposition(s) to the Endangered Species Act?

a. Loss of jobs
b. ESA violates private property rights
c. ESA stifles economic growth and hinders business profits
d. All of the above

37. How much of the original bluefin tuna population is left?

A) 10% B) 25% C) 1% D) < 3%

38. Which 2 ethnic groups had the highest sushi consumption and mercury content?

A) White B) Black C) Asian D) Both A and B E) Both A and C

39. Which of the following is a sustainable fish to eat?

A) Shark B) Sardines C) Swordfish D) Eel

40. If you were to take a count of the diversity of species in your town, what would you be
measuring?

a. Genetic diversity b. Habitat diversity c. Biodiversity d. Species richness

41. Why do regions of high geographic relief often also have higher biodiversity than flat
areas?

a. There are more places to hide.

b. They are better for growing crops.
c. They often comprise more than one type of habitat
d. They get more sunlight.

42. What is the pattern whereby a greater number of species is present closer to the equator,
and fewer present away from it?

a. Latitudinal gradient b. Temperate zone density

c. Equatorial gradient d. Pole scarcity

43. Which hypothesis says the number of species declines away from the equator because the
climate gets colder, harsher, more variable, and less predictable?

a. The productivity hypothesis b. The stability hypothesis

c. The climate hypothesis d. None of these

44. Which of the following scenarios does the theory of island biogeography apply to?

a. An island in the middle of the ocean

b. A grove of trees surrounding by roadways and pavement
c. A marsh in the middle of a housing development
d. All of these

45. If a species is found on one island, and nowhere else in the world, what is that species
said to be to that island?

a. Native b. Rare c. Endemic d. Exclusive

46. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?

a) Rio de Janeiro Convention b) Bonn Convention

c) Basel Convention d) Aarhus Convention

47. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?

a) Vienna Convention b) Basel Convention

c) Montreal Protocol d) Stockholm Convention

48. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?

a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas b) Increase of greenhouse gas

c) Increase of temperature d) Stabilization of oxygen

49. For the convention on Biological Diversity which protocol was adopted?

a) Kyoto b) Montreal
c) The Nagoya Protocol d) The Cartagena protocol

50. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on____

a) Wetlands b) drylands c) both a and b (d none

Zool-612 Animal Ecology

1-A single bacterium in the soil interacts with

(A) The water (B) Air (C) Particles of soil around it (D) All of the above Answer (D)

2-The region of earth, where life exists is known as

(A) Atmosphere (B) Biosphere (C) Lithosphere (D) Hydrosphere Answer (B)

3-In the biosphere energy is received from

(A) The Sun (B) The interior of the earth (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Work Answer (C)

4-The Biosphere consists of the following

(A) Lakes (B) Soils (C) Solid sediments (D) All of the above Answer (D)

5-In which of the following form(s), the waster products are discharged into the biosphere?
(A) Gaseous (B) Liquid (C) Solid (D) All of the above Answer (D)

6-Ecosystem is smallest unit of

(A) Ionospher (B) Lithosphere (C) Biosphere (D) Mesosphere Answer (C)

7-Energy _____ in an Ecosystem.

(A) is released (B) is absorbed (C) flows (D) None of the above Answer (C)

8-The set of ecosystems is called a

(A) Biome (B) Climate (C) Subsystem (D) Structure Answer (A)

9-The following is an example of Terrestrial Biome

(A) Tropical rain forest (B) Rivers (C) Streams (D) All of the above Answer (A)

10-Terrestrial biomes has a rapid exchange of

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Water (D) All of the above Answer (D)

11. The collection of individuals which belongs to the same species when live together in a region is
known as ____________
a) Keystone species b) Community c) Guild d) Population Answer (d)

12. The size of the population is represented by the property called density.
a) True b) False Answer: a

13. Name the term which defines the study of the characteristics and parameters of the population.
a) Demography b) Population ecology c) Population density d) Mortality Answer: a

14. Which of the following term defines the ability of the individual in the population to produce new
individuals?
a) Dispersion b) Mortality c) Natality d) Population dispersal Answer: c

15. Which of the following survivorship curve is suitable for the organisms who breeds several times
during the course of their life span?
a) Type IV b) Type III c) Type II d) Type I Answer: d

16. Name those organisms who can breed only once in their lifetime?
a) Dispersed b) Clumped c) Iteroparous d) Semelparous Answer: d

17. Which of the following structure can be seen in the diminishing population?
a) Upright b) Inverted c) Bell shaped d) Urn-shaped Answer: d

18. A group of people coexist within space and time and interact with each other is known as
a) Keystone species b) Community c) Guild d) Population Answer: b
19. Community refers to living and non-living components of the ecosystem.
a) True b) False Answer: b
20. Which of the following defines the separation of two different communities?
a) Ecotone b) Edge effect c) Ecade d) Resistance Answer: a

21-The following type of ecosystem is of utmost importance from human point of view

(A) Unsubsidized Natural Solar powered ecosystems

(B) Naturally Subsidized Solar powered ecosystems
(C) Man Subsidized Solar powered ecosystems
(D) Fuel powered ecosystems Answer (A)

22-In which of the following ecosystems large volumes of air are purified?

(A) Unsubsidized Natural Solar powered ecosystems

(B) Naturally Subsidized Solar powered ecosystems
(C) Man Subsidized Solar powered ecosystems
(D) Fuel powered ecosystems Answer (A)

23-Every Ecosystem has ___ major component(s).

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Answer (B)

24-The following is (are) Abiotic components of the ecosystem.

(A) Soil (B) Carbon (C) Protein (D) All of the above Answer (D)

25. When do greenhouse gases cause global warming?

a) When their concentration is enhanced

b) When their concentration is decreased
c) When there are no greenhouse gases
d) When greenhouse gas released in balance way Answer: a

26. How much percent of energy is absorbs from the Sun to Earth?

a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100% Answer: b

27. What is called for the phenomenon when the radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is re-radiated
towards the surface of the Earth?
a) Smog b) Newton effect c) Darwin effect d) Greenhouse effect Answer: d

28. Which of the following result obtain due to cutting down of trees?
a) Providing more fresh oxygen b) Providing more pure water
c) Cause greenhouse effect d) Cause increase in the rain Answer: c

29. Which is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Water vapor
c) Methane d) Nitrous oxide Answer: b
30. Population growth indirectly contributes for greenhouse effect.
a) True b) False Answer: a

31. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a) Water vapor b) Carbon dioxide c) Methane d) Ethane Answer: d
32. When did greenhouse effect discovered?
a) 1814 b) 1824 c) 1854 d) 1884 Answer: c

33. Why the temperature inside the car is much warmer than the outside temperature when the car that
has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours?
a) Due to air pollution b) Due to smog
c) Due to sudden climate change d) Due to greenhouse effect Answer: d

34. Taking the example of a car parked in the sun for a few hours, which of the following action takes
place?
a) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into heat
b) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into electricity
c) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is completely absorbed by the car
d) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into wind energy Answer: a

35. For greenhouse effect greenhouse gases interacts with which one of the following options?
a) Wind’s energy b) Sun’s energy
c) Atmosphere pressure d) Pollution in the atmosphere Answer: b

36. Which is the main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect?

a) Water vapor b) Carbon dioxide c) Methane d) Nitrous oxide Answer: a

37. The following is(are) micro-consumers

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi (C) Flagellates (D) All of the above Answer (D)

38. Heterotropic components are

(A) Producers (B) Consumers (C) Decomposers (D) None of the above Answer (B)

39. The Great Smog in 1952 caused in which city?

a) Delhi b) Lahore c) London d) New York Answer: c

40. In which forest we can see deforestation to large extent?

a) Atlantic forest b) Amazon forest c) Borneo forest d) Sumatra forest Answer: b

41. Of the solar radiation that does reach the earth’s surface (incident energy), about ____ % is
ultraviolet.

(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 Answer (A)

42-The following is the correct grazing food chain

(A) Grass – Grasshopper – Frog – Snake – Hawk

(B) Grass – Frog – Grasshopper– Snake – Hawk
(C) Grass – Grasshopper – Frog – Hawk – Snake
(D) Grass – Grasshopper – Snake – Frog – Hawk Answer (A)

44-Which of the following is not a type of Ecological pyramid?

(A) The Pyramid of Numbers (B) The Pyramid of Biomass

(C) The Pyramid of Energy (D) The Pyramid of Food Answer (D)

45-The Pyramid of Biomass is based on

(A) The total dry weight (B) Calorific value

(C) Total amount of living material (D) All of the above Answer (D)

46-An estuary

(A) is rich in nutrients (B) usually support an abundance of fish

(C) is area where river join the sea/ocean (D) all of the above Answer (D)

47. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

a) SPM b) PAN c) SO 2 d) NO2 Answer: (b)

48. The size of the population is represented by the property called density.
a)True b)False Answer: (a)

49. Name the term which defines the study of the characteristics and parameters of the population.
a) Demography b) Population ecology c) Population density d) Mortality Answer: (a)
50. Which of the following survivorship curve is suitable for the organisms who breeds several times
during the course of their life span?
a) Type IV b) Type III c) Type II d) Type I Answer: (d)