NEET Grand Test 2020 & Key @MedicalEntrance PDF

Forum for NEET
(R)
AP & TS
NEET
grand tests-2020 & Key
Part-1
Prepared by
Srigayatri
medical Academy
Sri PVRK Murthy

Chairman, Srigayatri Educational Institutions
By
K.Lalith Kumar
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SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS
INDIA
Time: 3 Hours NEET TOT GT-1 Max. Marks: 720 M

PHYSICS
1. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E.
The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is
2E 2t 2 E 2t 2 m E 2 q2t 2 Eqm
1) 2) 2
3) 4)
mq 2t 2m 2t
2. A Parallel plate capacitor with vaccum b/w its plates has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric
constant K and having the same thickness as the separation b/w the plates is introduced. So as
to fill 1/3 rd of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be
C C C C
1)  K  2  2)  K  2  3)  K  3 4)  K  3
4 3 4 3
3. Equivalent resistance b/w the points A and B  in  
1 1 1
1) 1 / 5 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
4 3 2
4. An AOB made of a conducting wire moves along its bisector through a magnetic field B as
suggested by figure. Find the emf induced between the two free ends if the magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the paper.
1) B sin  / 2  2) Bv sin  / 2  3) 2 Bv sin  / 2  4) Bv sin  / 4 

S R I G A Y A T R I E D U C A T I O N A L I N S T I T U T I O N S - AP & TS
5. In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are 70V, zero and 10V respectively. Then
1) The point D will be at a potential of 60V

2) The point D will be at a potential of 20V
3) Currents in the paths AD,DB and DC are in the ratio 1:2:3
4) Currents in the paths AD,DB and DC are in the ratio 3:2:1
6. In an ammeter 0.2 % of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of
galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be
499 1 500 1
1) G 2) G 3) G 4) G
500 500 499 499
7. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I (watt m-2) on a non-reflecting
surface is [c is the velocity of light]
1) Ic 2) Ic2 3) I / c 4) I / c2
8. A beam of electrons is accelerated through a Potential difference V. It is then passed
normally through a uniform magnetic field where it moves in a circle of radius r. It would
have moved in a circle of radius 2r if it were initially accelerated through a Potential
difference.
1) 2 V 2) 2V 3) 2 2 V 4) 4V
9. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it
through 600 . The torque required to maintain the needle in this position is
3
1) 3W 2) W 3) W 4) 2W
2
10. A thin rod of length ‘L’ and mass ‘M’ held vertically with one and fixed on the floor is
allowed to fall. The velocity of the other end when it hits the floor is
1) 3gL 2) 5gL 3) 2gL 4) gL
11. In a step-up transformer, the turns ratio of primary and secondary is 1:2 A leclanche cell of
emf 1.5 V is connected a cross the primary. The voltage developed across the secondary would
be
1) zero 2) 3.0 V 3) 1.5V 4) 0.75V
12. Choose the correct option
1) The radiation in increasing order of frequency are radio waves, micro waves, infrared, visible,
ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays.
2) The wave length of colours in increasing order violet, indigo blue, green, yellow, orange and red
3) The speed of light is maximum in vacuum .
4) All options are correct.
Page | 2 NEET MODEL TOT GT

13. A beam of light of wavelength  is incident on a metal having work function  and placed in
a magnetic field B. The most energetic electrons emitted perpendicular to the field are bent in
circular arcs of radius R. Then
mv hc 1 mR hc 1
1) B  ,Where    mv 2 2) B  , Where    mv 2
eR  2 ev  2
mv hc 1 2
3) B  ,Where    mv 4) None
eR  2
14. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to the second orbit, the emitted
radiation has wave length. (‘R’ is Rydberg’s constant).
36 5R 6 5R
1) 2) 3) 4)
5R 36 5R 6
3
15. Three-fourths of the active nuclei present in a radioactive sample decay in s . The half-life of
4
the sample is
1) 1 sec 2) ½ sec 3) ¾ sec 4) 3/8 sec
16. Find VAB
1) 10V 2) 20V 3) 30V 4) None of these

17. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45º with horizontal. The magnitude of the
angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is
mv 3 mv3
1) m 2gh 2 2) 3) 4) zero
2g 4 2g
18. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates
1) OR 2) NAND 3) AND 4) OR
19. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre at C as shown in figure. The ray
emerges from the sphere parallel to line AB. The refractive index of the sphere is
3 1
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 2
20. The focal length of a biconvex lens is 20 cm and its refractive index is 1.5. If the radii of
curvatures of two surfaces of lens are in the ratio 1:2, then the larger radius of curvature is (in
cm)
1) 10 2) 15 3) 20 4) 30

21. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2k is
2V . If the base resistance is 1k and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the
input signal voltage is.
1) 0.1V 2) 1.0V 3) 1 mV 4) 10mV
22. YDSE is completely submerged in a transparent liquid. Which of the following graphs
best represent the variation of the total number of fringes N observed on the screen with the
index of refraction of the liquid 
N N N N
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
23. When the angle of incidence on a material is 60, the reflected light is completely polarized.
The velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is  in ms 1 
 3 
1) 3 108 2)   10
8
3) 3  108 4) 0.5 108
 2
24. If I  5 A and decreasing at a rate of 103  A / sec  then VB  VA
1) 5V 2) 10V 3) 15V 4) 20V

25. Match the Columns
I II
A) Work, torque, energy, heat i) ML1T 2
B) Young’s modulus, bulk modulus,
Shear modulus, pressure, stress ii) ML2T 2
C) Angular momentum, Plank’s constant iii) MLT 1
D) Momentum, impulse iv) ML2T 1
A B C D
1) i ii iii iv
2) ii i iv iii
3) iv iii ii i
4) iii iv ii i
26. A particle moves a long a straight line such that its displacement s at any time t is given by
s  t 3  6t 2  3t  4 metres, t being in second. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is
1) 3m/s 2) -12m/s 3) 42m/s 4) -9m/s
27. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal surface and then rolls up and inclined
plane as shown in the figure. If the velocity of the disc is v, then height to which the disc will
rise will be
h
v
3v 2 3v 2 v2 v2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2g 4g 4g 2g
28. An object is projected with a velocity of 10m/s at an angle 450 with horizontal. The equation
of trajectory followed by the projectile is y   x   x 2 , the ratio  /  is
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
29. A ship is travelling due east at a speed of 15km/h. Find the speed of a boat heading 300 east of
north if it appears always due north from the ship.
15 3
1) 30km / h 2) km / h 3) 10 3km / h 4) 20km / h
2
30. Four identical blocks each of mass m are linked by threads as shown. If the system moves
with constant acceleration under the influence of force F, the tension T2 is
1) F 2) F / 2 3) 2F 4) F / 4
31. The friction acting on the upper block is
1) 8N 2) 2N 3) 25N 4) zero
32. A mass m moves with a velocity V and collides in elastically will another identical mass. After
V
collision, the 1st mass moves with velocity in a direction perpendicular to the initial
3
direction of motion. Find the speed of the 2nd mass after collision.
2V V
1) 2) 3) V 4) 3V
3 3
33. A uniform cube of side ‘a’ and mass ‘M’ rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force
‘F’ is applied normal to one of the faces at a point that is directly above the centre of the face
3a
at a height above the base. The minimum value of ‘F’ for which the cube begins to topple
4
about an edge is
3 2 1
1) Mg 2) Mg 3) Mg 4) Mg
2 3 2
34. A point P lies on the axis of a ring of mass M and radius a , at a distance a from its centre
c . A small particle starts from P and reaches c under gravitational attraction only. Its speed
at c will be
2GM 2GM  1  2GM
1)
a
2)
a 1 


2
3)
a
 2 1 4) zero

35. Two blocks of mass m1 and m2 are attached to the lower end of a light vertical spring of force
constant k . The upper end of the spring is fixed. When the system is in equilibrium the lower
block  m2  is removed. The other block  m1  will
1) remain undisturbed
m2 g
2) move through a distance and come to rest.
k
m1
3) undergo vertical SHM with a time period of 2
k
m1  m2
4) undergo vertical SHM with a time period of 2
k
36. The minimum phase difference b/w the two simple harmonic oscillations
1  3
y1  sin t    cos  t and y2  sin  t  cos t is
2  2 
   7
1) 2)  3) 4)
6 6 12 12
37. A tank, which is open at the top, contains a liquid up to a height H. A small hole is made in the
side of the tank at a distance y below the liquid surface. The liquid emerging from the hole
lands at a distance x from the tank. Choose incorrect option.
1) If y is increased from zero to H , x will first increase and then decrease.

H
2) x is maximum for y 
2
3) The maximum value of x is H.
4) The maximum value of x will depend on the density of liquid
38. If a metal wire is stretched a little beyond its elastic limit (or yield point), and release it will.
1) lose its elastic property completely 2) not contract
3) contract, but its final length will be greater than its initial length
4) contract only up to its length at the elastic limit

39. The ends of stretched wire of length L are fixed at x  0 and x  L , In one experiment the
x  2 x 
displacement of the wire is y1  A sin   sin t and energy is v is y2  A sin   sin 2t
 L   L 
and energy is E2 . Then
1) E2  E1 2) E2  2 E1 3) E2  4 E1 4) E2  16 E1
40. The pressure-temperature (P-T) phase diagram shown below corresponds to the
Liquid
phase
P
Solid
phase
T
1) curve of fusion of solids that expand on solidification.
2) curve of sublimation of solids that directly go over to the vapour phase
3) curve of fusion of solids that contract on solidification
4) curve of fusion of solids that do not change in volume upon solidification.
41. A whistle revolves in a circle with an angular speed of 20rad / s using a string of length 50cm .
If the frequency of sound from the whistle is 385Hz . Then what is the minimum frequency
heard by an observer, which is far away from the centre in the same plane? V  340m / s 
1) 333Hz 2) 374Hz 3) 385Hz 4) 394Hz
42. Which of the following gases has maximum rms speed at a given temperature
1) hydrogen 2) nitrogen 3) oxygen 4) carbon dioxide
43. A 5g piece of ice at 200 C is put into 10g of water at 300 C . Assuming that heat is exchanged
only b/w the ice and water. The final temperature of the mixture.
1) 100 C 2) 200 C 3) 00 C 4) 150 C
44. A carnot cycle has the reversible process in the following order.
1) Isothermal expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal compression and adiabatic compression.
2) Isothermal compression, adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion and adiabatic compression.
3) Isothermal expansion, adiabatic compression, isothermal compression and adiabatic expansion.
4) Adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion, adiabatic compression and isothermal compression.
45. A rod of thermal resistance 5 K / W is joined at the middle of a n identical rod AB as shown.
The temperature of C and heat current in CD will be
100C  0C
A B
C
D 25C
1) 350 C , 4W 2) 450 C , 4W 3) 350 C ,3W 4) 450 C ,3W

CHEMISTRY
46. The number of electrons present on the oil drop which has the static electric charge of
3.02044 10 19 C is
1) 2 2) 5 3) 7 4) 8
47. Electrons are emitted with zero velocity from a metal surface when it is exposed to radiation
of wavelength 4000 A0 . The threshold frequency is
1) 5  1034 sec 1 2) 7.5  1014 sec 1 3) 9.2  1014 sec 1 4) 7.5  1034 sec 1
48. An element Z=120 has not yet been discovered. In which group would you place this element
1) IV A 2) VII A 3) II A 4) V A
49. The correct matching is
1) IE1 : Rb  K  Na 2) Radius : I   I  I 
3) E.N : F  Cl  Br 4) EA : S  Se  O
50. In a molecule of type  AB2 L3  , the central atom (A) contains two bond pairs (B) and three
lone pairs(L) . Then the shape of that molecule is
1) T-shape 2) See saw 3) V-shape 4) Linear
51. At a given temperature, the ratio of Kinetic energy of 3 gram of hydrogen and 4 gram of
oxygen is
1) 1:12 2) 12:1 3) 5:6 4) 3:4
52. The prefix “pico” represents the multiple of
1) 109 2) 1012 3) 1018 4) 1021
 w
53. The specific gravity of 84%   H 2 SO4 is 1.752. The normality of solution is
 w
1) 30.03 N 2) 2.05N 3) 39.5N 4) 4.5N
2
54. The Oxidation State of Fe in  Fe  H 2O 5 NO  (Brown ring) is
1) +1 2) +2 3) +3 4) +6
55. In which of the following H  E
 2 HI
1) H 2  I 2   2 NH 3
2) N 2  3H 2 
g g g g g g
 PCl3  Cl2

3) PCl5   2 SO3
4) 2 SO2  O 
g g g g
g 2 g
56. Identify the salt whose aqueous solution is basic
1) NH 4 Cl 2) CuSO4 3) Al2  SO4 3 4) KCN
57. The P H of the water that comes out from cation exchange resin in synthetic resin method is
1) <7 2) >7 3) 7 4) 10
58. The cation which shows high conductivity in aqueous solution is
   
1) Li 2) K 3) Rb 4) Cs
 aq   aq   aq   aq 
59. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to Alumina should be between
1) 1 to 2 2) 2.5 to 4 3) 5 to 7 4) 4.5 to 7.5
0
120 C
60. B2 H 6  2 NH 3   A where ‘A’ is formulated as
   
1)  BH 4   BH 2  NH 3  2  2)  BH 2  NH 3  2   BH 4 
   
3)  BH 3  NH 3    BH 4  NH 3   4)  BH 4  NH 3  2   BH 2 
61. The basic unit of pyrosilicate is
2 n 2 n
1) SiO44 2)  SiO3  n 3) Si2 O76 4)  Si2O5  n

62. The pollutant that causes methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome) is
1) Pb2 2) SO42 3) NO3 4) AsO33
63. The IUPAC name of
CH3
CH3-CH2-C-CH2-CH3
CHO
1) 3 – Formyl – 3 – methyl Pentane 2) 2 – ethyl 2 – methyl butanal
3) 2 – ethyl – 2 formylbutane 4) 2,2 – Diethyl propanal
64. CH 2  CH  CH 2OH and CH 2  CH  O  CH 3 are
1) Chain isomers 2) Position isomers 3) functional group isomers 4) metamers
H2 H2
65. A 
Pd / BaSO4
 R  C  C  R 
Na / NH 3
 B . Where A and B are respectively
2000 C
1) Trans alkene, cis alkene 2) cis alkene, Trans alkene
3) cis alkene, cis alkene 4) Trans alkene, Trans alkene
66.
1) A=chlorobenzene B=Chlorobenzene 2) A=Lindane B=Chlorobenzene

3) A=BHC B=BHC 4) A=Chlorobenzene B=Lindane
67. Glycerol is purified by
1) Crystallisation 2) Fractional distillation
3) Vacuum distillation 4) sublimation
68. The charge heated in the blast furnace contains ore, coke and limestone in the ratio by weight
of
1) 1:2:3 2) 1:4:8 3) 8:4:1 4) 2:2:2
69. The outer electronic configuration of the element with Z=42 is
1) 5s 2 4d 4 2) 5s1 4d 5 3) 5s 2 5 p 4 4) 4s 2 3d 4
70. The catalyst used in the preparation of High density polythene (HDP) is
1) R3 Al  TiCl4 2) SnCl4 3) Ni 4) Pt
71. The complex Fe  CO  x follows the EAN rule. Then the value of ' x ' is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
72. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal ‘M’ in the complex
 M  en  2  C2O4   Cl is
1) 6 2) 7 3) 8 4) 9
73. The IUPAC name of the wilkinsons catalyst  RhCl  PPh3 3  is
1) Chlorotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (I)
2) Chlorotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (IV)
3) Chlorotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (O)
4) Chlorotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (VI)
74. Which of the following is 100 times sweeter than sugar
1) sucralose 2) saccharin 3) Aspartame 4) Alitame
75. Which of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation
1) (+) sucrose 2) (+) Lactose 3) (+) Maltose 4) (-) Fructose
76. Which of the following varies from species to species
AT
1) A=T 2) C=G 3) A+G=C+T 4) ratio
GC
77. Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer
1) PVC 2) Thiokol 3) Teflon 4) Neoprene
78. Which of the following can undergo both aldol condensation and haloform reaction?
1) CH 3  CH 2  CHO 2) CH3-CO-CH3 3) Cl3C  CHO 4) C6 H 5CHO
79. Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished by which of the following
methods?
1) Oxidation method 2) Lucas test
3) Victor meyer’s method 4) All of the above
80.  CH 3 3 C  O  CH 3 reacts with dil.HI gives
1)  CH 3 3 I  CH 3OH 2)  CH 3 3 COH  CH 3 I
3)  CH 3  2 CHOH  CH 3 I 4)  CH 3 3 I  CH 3 I
81.
In these reactions A and B are

1) C6 H 5COOH and C6 H 5COOH 2) C6 H 5COOH and C6 H 5OH
3) C6 H 5COOH and C6 H 5CH 2 CHO 4) C6 H 5COOH and C6 H 5CH 2CH 2CHO
82. Which of the following would not react with benzene sulphonyl chloride in aq.NaOH ?
1) Aniline 2) Methylamine
3) N,N-Dimethylaniline 4) N-Methyl ethanamine
2
83. Atoms of element ‘B’ form hcp lattice and those of the element ‘A’ occupy rd of tetrahedral
3
voids. What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements A and B.
1) AB 2) A2 B 3) A2 B3 4) A4 B3
84. The molar conductivity of 0.025mol.lit 1 methanoic acid is 46.1 s.cm 2 .mole 1 . The degree of
dissociation is?   0H   349.6 s.cm 2 .mole 1 and  0HCOO  54.6 s.cm 2 .mile 1 
     
1) 0.114 2) 21.3 3) 3.66 4) 0.35
85. A first order reaction is 50% complete in 23min. The time required to complete 90% of the
reaction is
1) 23min 2) 56min 3) 76.5min 4) 92min
4
86. Among  Fe(CN )6  , PO4 , SO4 and Cl , which coagulates positive sol readily
3 2 
4
1)  Fe(CN )6  2) PO43 3) SO42 4) Cl 
87. Identify the correct matching
1) Thermal Stability - NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3
2) Reducing Power - NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3
3) Basic Character - NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3
4) Volatile nature - PH 3  AsH 3  NH 3  SbH 3
88. Identify acidic oxide
1) Cl2O7 2) CO2 3) N 2O5 4) All the above
89. Among the following which one has the highest oxidizing power
1) HOCl 2) HClO2 3) HClO3 4) HClO4
90. The hybridization and number of lone pairs present around ' Xe ' atom in XeF4 is
1) sp 3 d , 3 2) sp 3 d 2 , 2 3) sp 3 d 3 ,1 4) sp 3 ,1
BIOLOGY
91. Which of the following taxonomic categories includes all the other categories?
1) order 2) kingdom 3) species 4) family
92. Muscles which regulate the diameter of pupil are
1) Ectodermal striated 2) Mesodermal striated
3) Ectodermal unstriated 4) Mesodermal unstriated
93. Which of the following is not related to Rock weed
1) It is a Rhodophyceae member 2) It contains chl.a and chl.c
3) Diplontic life cycle is present 4) Two unequal lateral flagella are present
94. The following are associated with nerve fibres in Peripheral Nervous System
A) Axolemma B) Neurilemma C) Endoneurium D) Myelin sheath
E) Axoplasm
The correct sequence of the above from inside to outside w.r.to the nerve fibre is
1) E,A,B,D,C 2) E,A,D,C,B 3) E,A,C,B,D 4) E,A,D,B,C
95. How many sentences are correct related to Terror of Bengal
i) Vegetative propagation takes place through offset
ii) It is free floating hydrophyte
iii) Pulvinus petiole is present
iv) It drains CO2 from the water
1) All are correct 2) Three are correct 3) Two are correct 4) one is correct
96. Identify the correct statements
A) Thyroxine can decrease rate of heart beat and cardiac output
B) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac
output
C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac output
D) Parasympathetic neural signals can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac output
1) A,B 2) B,C 3) C,D 4) A,D
97. Mismatch is
1) Lycopsida – Selaginella 2) Sphenopsida – Lycopodium
3) Pteropsida – Adiantum 4) Psilopsida– (psilotum)
98. Choose the incorrect combinations from the following
A) R.C.Dagar – Polyblend
B) Kyoto protocol – Depletion of O3
C) Amrita Devi – Conservation of wildlife in urban areas
D) Burning of plastics – Polychlorinated biphenyls
1) all the above 2) A,B 3) C,D 4) A,B,C
99. Ascospores and Basidiospores produced in the following manner
1) Endogenously, Endogenously 2) Exogenously, Endogenously
3) Endogenously, Exogenously 4) Exogenously, Exogenously
100. Defects in ADH receptors or inability to secrete ADH cause
1) Diabetes mellitus 2) Diabetes insipidus 3) Uremia 4) Renal Calculi
101. Pneumatophores are present in
1) Rhizopus 2) Rhizobium 3) Vanda 4) Rhizophora

102. Match the following:
Column I Column II
A) J.G. Cells i) Vasodilator
B) Hypothalamus ii) Vasoconstrictor
C) Angiotensin II iii) Vasopressin
D) Atrial Natriuretic Factor iv) Renin
A B C D
1) iv iii ii i
2) ii i iv iii
3) iii ii i iv
4) ii i iii iv
103. Correct match is
1) Pinnately compound leaf – Silk cotton 2) Alternate phyllotaxy – Mustard
3) Opposite phyllotaxy – China rose 4) Whorled phyllotaxy – Calotropis
104. Identify the correct sequence of “Systemic Circulation” Pathway

1) Left atrium  left ventricle  pulmonary aorta  tissues  right atrium
2) Left ventricle  aorta  arteries  tissues  veins  right atrium
3) Right ventricle  pulmonaryaorta  tissues  pulmonary veins  left atrium
4) Right atrium  left ventricle  aorta  tissues  veins  left atrium
105. In mitochondria cytochrome c attached to
1) Outer surface of the inner membrane 2) Outer surface of the outer membrane
3) Inner surface of the inner membrane 4) Inner surface of the outer membrane
106. Study the following:
S1 : Vaccines may not guarantee total protection from a disease
S 2 : Adjuvant is an agent to enhance immune response
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
1) Both S1 & S 2 2) Only S1 3) Only S 2 4) None
107. The abundant enzyme which is present in the universe is having
a) Dual nature b) Useful for CO2 fixation
c) Can also react with O2 in excess O2 concentration in C3 plants
1) Only a correct 2) Only a & b correct
3) Only a & c are correct 4) All are correct
108. During recovery from vigorous physical exercise, deeper breathing continues as extra O2 is
required for
A) regeneration of oxyhemoglobin
B) oxidation of accumulated lactic acid
C) restoration of creatine phosphate
Choose the correct statements from the above
1) A,B 2) A,C 3) B,C 4) all the above
109. How many of the plants having axile placentation
a) Pisum b) Brassica c) Solanum d) Allium
e) Ruscus f) Butea monosperma
1 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
110. Identify the mismatch:
1) Insulin Shock – lack of insulin
2) Tetany – hyposecretion of Parathormones
3) Cretinism – congenital hypothyroidism
4) Pituitary dwarf – Sexually & intellectually normal

111. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table
1) Trichoderma Bacteria Immunosuppersive agent
polysporum
2) Streptococcus Bacteria Clot buster streptokinase
3) Monoascus Fungi Blood cholesterol lowering agent
purpureus
4) Yeast Fungi Ethanol Production
112. Choose the incorrect combination w.r.to ‘homology’
Male Reproductive System Female Reproductive System
1. Cowper’s glands --------------------- Bartholin’s glands
2. Prostate gland --------------------- Skene’s gland
3. Scrotum --------------------- Labia majora
4. Glans Penis --------------------- Clitoris
113. The experiment Semiconservative replication of DNA was discovered plant by Taylor and
colleagues is not having following character.
1) Nodular roots 2) Descendingly imbricate aestivation
3) Parietal placentation 3) Non-endoseprmic seeds
114. Identify the incorrect Statement about Intra-uterine Devices (IUDs)
1) They inhibit menstruation & Ovulation
2) Promote phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus
3) Suppress the motility of spermatozoa
4) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
115. Correct match is
A B
15
i) NH 4 Cl a) Ruben
ii) Ribosomes b) Calvin
18
iii) H2O c) Meselson & stahl
14
iv) CO2 d) George Palade
1) i – b ii – d iii – a iv – c
2) i – c ii – d iii – a iv – b
3) i – d ii – a iii – b iv – c
4) i – a ii – c iii – d iv – b
116. Match the following
A) World Ozone Day i) September 16
B) World Population Day ii) March 21
C) World Biodiversity Day iii) May 22
D) World Forestry Day iv) July 11
v) June 5
A B C D
1) ii i v iii
2) i iii iv ii
3) iii ii i v
4) i iv iii ii
117. The first animal for which a linkage map was constructed was
1) Drosophila 2) Rat 3) Neurospora 4) Pisum stativum
118. Study the following:
a) lactiferous duct b) mammary tubules c) mammary ducts d) ampulla
e) alveoli f) nipple
Select the correct sequence form the above w.r. to milk ejection in mammary glands in human
females
1) e a b c d f 2) d c a b e f 3) e b c d a f 4) e c b a d f

119. Study the following table
Crop Variety Resistant

1.Brassica Pusa swarnim White rust
II. Okra Pusa sawani Shoot and stem borer
III. Chilli Pusa Komal Tobacco Mosaic Virus
IV. Flat bean Pusa Gaurav Bacterial blight
Identify correct pair
1) I &III 2) III & IV 3) II & III 4) I & II
120. Study the following statements
S1 : Capacitation of sperms occur in the male reproductive system
S 2 : Capacitation prepare the sperms for acrosomal reaction
Choose the correct statement(s) from the above
1) both S1 & S 2 2) Only S1 3) Only S 2 4) None
121. Identify the mismatch
1) Zn 2 - Activates Carboxylases 2) Mo- Participate Nitrogen metabolism

3) K - Structural element 4) Mn - Splitting of water molecule
122. select the mismatch from the following:
A) Hormone releasing IUD – Multiload 375
B) Copper releasing IUD – LNG-20
C) Steroidal oral contraceptive pill – Saheli
D) Semen isn’t produced – Vasectomy
1) A,B,C 2) B,D 3) A,D 4) all the above
123. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to
1)Discovery of genes 2)Principles of linkage
3)Chromosome theory of heredity 4)Rediscovery of mendelism
124. Study the following periods of geological time scale, and arrange them in correct sequence
A) Carboniferous B) Cambrian C) Silurian D) Devonian
E) Permian F) Ordovician
1) c d e a f b 2) e b d a f c 3) b f c d a e 4) b c f a d e
125. List I List II
A. Trypsin i. Hormone
B. Insulin ii. Ricin
C. Toxin iii. Enzyme
D. Alkaloids iv. Codeine
Correct match is
1) A-III B-I C-II D-IV 2) A-IV B-I C-III D-I
3) A-II B-III C-I D-IV 4) A-I B-III C-II D-IV
126. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed which stage of human evolution?
1) Homo habilis 2) Homo erectus
3) Homo neanderthalensis 4) Ramapithecus
127. Common Nucleotides (nitrogen bases) which are present in both DNA and RNA
1) A C U 2) A G C 3) A T C 4) G C U
128. Which of the following exhibit adaptive radiation?
1) Placental mammals in Australia 2) Darwin Finches
3) Australian Marsupials 4) all the above
129. Some aminoacids are coded by more than one codon. This properity of genetic code is called
1) Unambiguous 2) Universal 3) Degenerate 4) Specific

S1 : Insulin isn’t taken orally, for it is a protein and is broken down before it is absorbed
S 2 : Genetically engineered E.coli is used to produce humulin
Select the correct statement(s) from the above
131. Casparian bands containing layer is absent in
1) Monocot stem 2) dicot root 3) Monocot root 4) Dicot stem
132. Polymerase Chain Reaction:
1) Can detect HIV
2) Can detect very low amounts of DNA
3) Can detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients
4) All the above
133. Hydrophily is absent in
1) Vallisnera 2) Hydrilla 3) Water lily 4) Zostera
134. ‘Hisardale’ is an example of:
1) Out – Crossing 2) Cross – Breeding
3) Out – Breeding 4) Inter – Specific hybridization
135. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in
production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Mycoplasmas 3) Chemoautotroph 4) Heterotrophic bacteria
136. In Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer method, fertilized eggs at which stage are transferred
to surrogate mothers?
1) 4 -16 cells 2) 8 – 32 cells 3) 6 – 8 cells 4) 18 – 32 cells
137. Which statement is wrong for viruses
1) They contain either RNA or DNA 2) All are obligate parasites
3) They can synthesize nucleic acid and proteins 4) All of them have helical symmetry
Column I Column II
A. Ig G i) Present in milk
B. Ig A ii) Present on surface of B-Cells
C. Ig D iii) Acts as a mediator in allergic reactions
D. Ig E iv) Crosses placenta & provides natural passive immunity
A B C D
1) ii i iv iii
2) iv i ii iii
3) iv ii i iii
4) ii iii i iv
139. Which of the biological function is not yet known
1) Protein synthesis 2) Photorespiration 3) Photosynthesis 4) Respiration
140. Trachea contains -------- epithelium
1) Ciliated Columnar 2) Non-Ciliated Columnar
3) Ciliated pseudo – stratified 4) Non- ciliated pseudo – stratified
141. Upward flow of water through the Xylem in plants can acheive fairly high rates upto
1) 15cms/hour 2) 15mm/hour 3) 15 meters/hour 4) 25 meters /hour

142.
From the diagram given above A,B,C,D are respectively, occupied by

1) Duodenum, Duct from gall bladder, Pancreas, Gall bladder.
2) Duodenum, Gall bladder, Pancreas, Duct from gall bladder.
3) Pancreas, Duct from gall bladder, Duodenum, Gall bladder.
4) Pancreas, Hepato – Pancreatic duct, Duodenum, Gall bladder.
143. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to its end
1) Acrocentric 2) Telocentric 3) Metacentric 4) Submetacentric
144. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. Identify it
1) Bronchitis 2) Asthma 3) Emphysema 4) None of the above
145. Which of the following hormone shows respiratory climatic
1) ABA 2) GA 3) Ethylene 4) cytokinins
146. Identify the wrong statement(s)
A) Since the origin of life on earth, there were six episodes of mass extinction of species
B) The current species extinction rates are many time faster than in the pre-human times
C) Ecologists warn that if the present trends of extinction were to be continued, about half of
all the species on earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years.
D) Biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by about 30 percent
1) A,B 2) C,D 3) Only A 4) Only D
147. Cell A with  = -15 bars P =9bars, Cell B with  = -10 bars P =8. bars The movement of water
is from
1) Both direction 2) A  B 3) B  A 4) Nomovement
148. Fallowing diagram refers to the relative contribution of Greenhouse gases to global warming.
Study the diagram and answer.
A, B, C, D in the diagram are respectively, occupied by

1) CH 4 , CO2 , CFCs, N 2O 2) CO2 , CH 4 , CFCs, N 2 O
3) CH 4 , CO2 , N 2O, CFCs 4) CFCs, CO2 , N 2 O, CH 4
149. Suppressed cotyledon present in maize is called
1) Scutellum 2) Epiblast 3) Plumule 4) Coleoptile

150. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration includes:
1) Inspiratory Reserve volume + Residual volume
2) Expiratory Reserve volume + Residual volume
3) Vital capacity + Residual volume
4) Expiratory Reserve volume + Tidal volume
151. Which of the would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks
1) Mosses 2) Lichens 3) Liver worts 4) Green algal
152. The disorder caused by decreased levels of Oestrogen in post-menopause women is
1) Osteoarthritis 2) Tetany 3) Osteoporosis 4) Myaesthenia gravis
153. Dual Function containing codon identifies the following aminoacid
1) Methionine 2) Glycine 3) serine 4) proline
154. Following diagram refers to the sectional view of cochlea, go through it carefully.
From the diagram A, B, C, D are, respectively, occupied by

1) Organ of corti, Basilar membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.
2) Organ of corti, Reissner’s membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.
3) Reissner’s membrane, Tectorial membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.
4) Organ of corti, tectorial membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.
155. Which of the following is correct match
1) Sonalika – Rice 2) Jaya – Wheat 3) Himgiri – Wheat 4) Atlas66 – maize
156. Read the following statements
S1 :Fovea is a thinned out – portion of retina where only rods are densely packed
S 2 :Fovea is a point of greatest visual acuity
Select the correct statement(s)
157. Maize leads to presistance to maize stem borers due to
1) Low aspartic, acid, Low nitrogen and sugar content
2) High aspartic, high nitrogen and sugar
3) High aspartic low nitrogen and sugar
4) High aspartic, low nitrogen and high sugar
158. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II, and select correct option given
below
Column I Column II
a. Ophrys i. Cardiac glycoside
b. Calotropis ii. Poisonous weed
c. Monarch butterfly iii. Sexual deceit
d. Warblers iv. Resource Partitioning
a b c d
1) iii i ii iv
2) i iii iv ii
3) ii i iii iv
4) iv iii ii i

159. Number of characters related to xerophyte adaptations containing Opuntia
a. Stomata opened during day time b. CAM Pathway
c. Leaves are absent – modified in to spines d. flattened stems
1) abc correct 2) all are correct 3) acd correct 4) bcd are correct
160. Read the following statements carefully
A) Heroin commonly called crack is chemically diacetylmorphine
B) Heroin is obtained form latex of poppy plant
C) The drug which is obtained from Erythroxylem coca interferes with neuro – transmitter
dopamine
D) Cannabinoids effect cardio – vascular system of the human body
Select the correct combinations from the above
1) All the above 2) A,B,C 3) B,D 4) B,C,D
161. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of
1) ABA 2) 1AA 3) Cytotoknin 4) GA3
162. Vector control Research Centre
1) New Delhi 2) Lucknow
3) Puducherry 4) Mumbai
163. S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species has
1) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
2) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount DNA
3) Twice the number of chromosomes and Twice the amount of DNA
4) Four times the number of chromosomes and Twice the amount of DNA
164. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
A) ZW – ZZ type i) Grass hoppers
B) ZO – ZZ type ii) Drosophila
C) XX – XY type iii) Fumea Moths
D) XX – XO type iv) Birds
A B C D
1) iv iii ii i
2) iii iv ii i
3) ii iii iv i
4) i iv iii ii
165. The term ecosystem was coined by
1) E. Warming 2) Odum 3) Misra 4) A.G & Tansley
166. In the Chart, mutant trait is shaded black.
The Gene responsible for the trait is:

1) dominant, sex linked 2) recessive, autosomal
3) dominant, autosomal 4) recessive, sex limited
167. Which of the following is not included in periderm.
1) Phellem 2) Late wood
3) phelloderm 4) cork cambium

168. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
1) Relative proportions of purines & pyrimidines in DNA
2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
3) Relative amount of DNA in the ridges & grooves of fingerprints
4) All the above
169. Endosperm is n and 3n respectively in
1) Dicots, Monocots 2) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
3) Gymnosperms, Dicots 4) Pteridophytes, Gymonosperms
170. The region of biosphere reserve where limited human activity is allowed for research,
education and resource use strategies
1) Core Zone 2) Transition Zone 3) Buffer Zone 4) Restoration Zone
171. Which of the following RNA’s should be most abundant in animal cell
1) SnRNA 2) mRNA 3) collagen 4) Rrna
172. Identify the animal which isn’t a homeotherm:
1) Ornithorhyncus 2) Aptenodytes 3) Ichthyophis 4) Neophron
173. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 Amino acids and the base
at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many
codons will be altered
1) 333 2) 666 3) 11 4) 33
174. Which of the following animal possess file-like rasping organ in its mouth?
1) Pleurobranchia 2) Alplysia 3) Pentaceros 4) Lepisma
175. What is the criteria for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel eletrophorosis
1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
2) Negatively charged fragments do not move
3) The larger the fragment the farther it moves
4) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
176. Study the following statements, carefully
S1 : Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms, especially the large
animals
S 2 : Small animals have a smaller surface area of body relative to their body volume
Select the correct statement(s) from the above
177. Observe the sigmoid curve given below and identify the phases A,B and C:
1) A= Initial slow growth, B= Rapid growth, C=Phase of growth during limited nutrient supply
2) A= Rapid growth, B= Initial slow growth, C=Phase of growth during limited nutrient supply
3) A=Lag Phase, B=Stationary phase, C= Exponential phase
4) A= Exponential phase, B=Stationary phase, C=Lag phase

178. Select the correct statements about Nutrient Cycles
A) The amount of nutrients, present in the soil at any given time is called ‘Standing Crop’
B) The function of the ‘reservoir’ (of different nutrient cycles) is to meet with the deficit which
occurs due to imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux.
c) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are equal to carbon inputs
D) Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible
1) B,D 2) C,D 3) A,B 4) A,C
179. Identify the enzyme X and Y?
1) X= RNA – ligase,Y= DNA ligase 2) X= Bam HI, Y=RNA-ligase

3) X= Eco RI,Y=DNA-ligase 4) X  Hind III , Y= RNA – ligase
180. Study the following statements about Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act,
and identify the correct statement(s) .
1) It was amended by the Government of India in 2017
2) According to this Act, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain grounds within the first 12
Weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
3) According to this Act, if the pregnancy has lasted between 12 weeks to 24 weeks, the opinion of
two registered medical practitioners must be sought for the termination of pregnancy on certain
grounds.
4) All the above.


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
NEET TOT GT-1 Max. Marks: 720 M
KEY
PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 3 5) 4 6) 2 7) 3 8) 4 9) 1 10) 1
11) 1 12) 4 13) 1 14) 1 15) 4 16) 1 17) 3 18) 3 19) 2 20) 4
21) 4 22) 3 23) 3 24) 3 25) 2 26) 4 27) 2 28) 2 29) 1 30) 2
31) 4 32) 1 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3 36) 3 37) 4 38) 3 39) 3 40) 3
41) 2 42) 1 43) 3 44) 1 45) 2
CHEMISTRY
46) 1 47) 2 48) 3 49) 4 50) 4 51) 2 52) 2 53) 1 54) 1 55) 3
56) 4 57) 1 58) 4 59) 2 60) 2 61) 3 62) 3 63) 2 64) 3 65) 2
66) 4 67) 3 68) 3 69) 2 70) 1 71) 3 72) 4 73) 1 74) 3 75) 1
76) 4 77) 3 78) 2 79) 4 80) 1 81) 1 82) 3 83) 4 84) 1 85) 3
86) 1 87) 4 88) 4 89) 1 90) 2
BIOLOGY
91) 2 92) 3 93) 1 94) 4 95) 3 96) 2 97) 2 98) 4 99) 3 100) 2
101) 4 102) 1 103) 2 104) 2 105) 1 106) 1 107) 4 108) 4 109) 4 110) 1
111) 1 112) 4 113) 3 114) 1 115) 2 116) 4 117) 1 118) 3 119) 4 120) 3
121) 3 122) 4 123) 4 124) 3 125) 1 126) 2 127) 2 128) 4 129) 3 130) 1
131) 1 132) 4 133) 3 134) 2 135) 4 136) 2 137) 4 138) 2 139) 2 140) 3
141) 3 142) 1 143) 1 144) 3 145) 3 146) 3 147) 3 148) 3 149) 2 150) 2
151) 2 152) 3 153) 1 154) 2 155) 3 156) 3 157) 3 158) 1 159) 4 160) 4
161) 2 162) 3 163) 2 164) 1 165) 4 166) 2 167) 2 168) 2 169) 3 170) 3
171) 4 172) 3 173) 4 174) 2 175) 1 176) 4 177) 1 178) 1 179) 3 180) 4


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
a 3b 2
1. A physical quantity ‘A’ is related to four observations a, b, c and d as follows, A  . The
cd 5
percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1% , 3%, 2 % and 2% respectively .
What is the percentage error in the quantity A?
1) 14 % 2) 20 % 3) 16 % 4) 18 %
2. The X and Y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x  10t  6t 2 and y = 8t,
where x and y are in meter and t in seconds. The acceleration of particle at t = 5s is
1) 16 ms 2) 10ms 2 3) 12ms 2 4) 16ms 2
3. A body is projected with velocity u such that is horizontal range and maximum vertical
heights are same: The horizontal range is
8u 2 16u 2 4u 2 14u 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 g 17 g 17 g 16 g
4. A ball of mass ‘m’ moving with a speed u undergoes a head –on elastic collision with a ball of
mass ‘nm’ initially at rest. The fraction of the initial kinetic energy transferred to the heavier
ball is
4n 4n 4n 4n
1) 2
2) 2
3) 2
4) 2
 2  3n  1  n  3  n 5  n
5. A body of mass 4 kg is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What will be the difference
in its kinetic energy at the top and bottom of the circle?
( g  10ms 2 )
1) 20 J 2) 40 J 3) 60 J 4) 80 J
0
6 A pendulum of length l  1m is released from   75 . The rate of change of speed of the bob
at   60 0 is ( g  10ms 2 )
1) 5m / s 2 2) 2.5m / s 2 3) 5 3m / s 2 4) 2.5 3m / s 2
7. Theorem of perpendicular axes is applicable for
1) Planar bodies only 2) Regular shaped bodies only
3) Three dimensional bodies only 4) Any body having mass
8. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 6 kg and radius 50 cm. What is the
angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ?
1) 5rad / s 2 2) 10 rad / s 2 3) 25 rad / s 2 4) 5 rad / s 2
9. Let V g and Eg denote gravitational potential and gravitational field respectively. Then the
wrong statement is
1) V g =0, Eg = 0 2) Vg  0 , Eg = 0 3) Vg  0 , E g  0 4) V g =0, E g  0

10. A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to thrice the radius of
theearth ( R) . The change in potential energy of body will be
3 5 5 3
1) MgR 2) mgR 3) MgR 4) mgR
4 4 4 4
11. A particle executes linear SHM with an amplitude of 5 cm . When the particle is at 3 cm
from the mean position, the magnitude of the velocity is equal to that of its acceleration .
Then it’s time period in seconds is
3 5 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 3 3 2
12. On increasing temperature and mixing impurities, the elasticity of a material
1) Increases, Increases 2) Decreases, Decreases
3) Increases, Decreases 4) Decreases, Increases
1
13. Water is moving with a speed of 3.5ms through a pipe with a cross – sectional area of
2.2cm 2 . The water gradually descends 9.66 m as the pipe increase in area to 7.7 cm 2 .
The speed of flow at lower level is
1) 4ms 1 2) 3ms 1 3) 2ms 1 4) 1ms 1
14. The capacity of a vessel is 3 liters. It contains 16 gmoxygen, 14 gm nitrogen and 44 gm
mixture  N 2O  at 27 0 C . If R= 8.3 J/moleK Then pressure in the vesselwill be
1) 8.3 X 10 5 Pa 2) 16.6 X 105 Pa 3) 24.9 X 105 Pa 4) 33.2 X 10 5 Pa
15.
A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal
surface connected by a light string passing over two
smooth pulleys as shown. Another block of 1 kg is
connected to the other end of the string. The
1kg
acceleration of the system is (coefficient of friction 1kg
 = 0.2)
1) 0.8 g 2) 0.4 g 3) 0.5 g 4) zero

16. If the curve for a black body at temperature T is as shown in the figure , then the curve
at temperature 2T will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
17. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 6. If the temperature inside freezer

is- 20 0 C , the temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is (app)
1) 12 0 C 2) 22 0 C 3) 32 0 C 4) 42 0 C
18. The internal energy in a system that has absorbed 2kal of heat and done 1400 J of work
is
1) 6000 J 2) 7000 J 3) 8000 J 4) 9000 J
1
19. A rocket is moving at a speed of 220 ms towards a stationary target, emits a sound of
frequency 1000 Hz . Some of the sound reaching the target gets reflected back to the rocket
asan echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the rocket is (velocity of sound= 330ms 1 )
1) 3500 HZ 2) 4000 HZ 3) 4500 HZ 4) 5000 Hz
20. A string of length l is fixed at both ends and is vibratingin second harmonic. The tension in
string is T and linear mass density of string is  . The ratio of magnitude of maximum
velocity of particle and the magnitude of maximum acceleration is
1 l 2 l 2 1 T T
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 2
2 T T 2 l 2 l 2
21. An   particle of mass 6.4 X 10 27 kg is situated in a uniform electric field of 1.6 X 105 Vm 1
The velocity of the particle at the end of 10-2m path when it starts from rest is
5 1
1) 2 2 X 10 ms 2) 4 2 X 105 m / s 3) 2 X 10 5 ms 1 4) 4 X 10 5 ms 1
22. The charge following through the cell on closing the key K is equal to
CV CV CV 2CV
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 2 3
3 3
23. The electric potentials at a point ( x, y, z) is given by v   x y  xz  4 y  10 . The electric
field E at that point is
1)  3x 2 y  z 3  i   x3  4  j   3xz 2  k 2)  3x 2 y  z 3  i   x 3  4  j   3 xz 2  k
3)  3x 2 y  z 3  i   x3  4  j   3 xz 2  k 4)  3x 2 y  z 3  i   x 3  4  j   3 xz 2  k
24. A particle describes a horizontal circle on the smooth surface of an inverted cone. The plane
of the circle is at a height of h m above the vertex, Then the speed of the particle is
h gh 2 gR 2
1) 2) gh 3) 4)
g R h
25. The potential difference between A and B in the following figure is
6 4V
B
A 9 5
2A
12V
1) 32 V 2) 48 V 3) 24 V 4) 14 V
26. A bulb rated 200 V- 100 W is in series with another bulb rated 200 V – 50 W. If the voltage
across the combination is 240 V. Then power consumed by 100 W bulb is
1) 8 W 2) 12W 3) 16 W 4) 20 W
1
27. A man runs towards a plane mirror at a rate of 6ms . If the mirror is at rest, his image will
have a velocity (with respect to man)
1) +12 ms 1 2) -6 ms 1 3) 6 ms 1 4) -12 ms 1

28. The permeability of a substance is 3.14 X 10 4 wb/Am. Find its relative permeability
and susceptibility
1) 500, 499 2) 300, 299 3) 200, 199 4) 250, 249
29. Unpolarised light falls on two polarizing sheets placed one on top of the other. What must be
the angle between the characteristic directions of the sheets if the intensity of the final
transmitted light is one-third the maximum intensity of the first transmitted beam?
1  1   1   2
1) cos 1   2) cos 1   3) cos 1   4) cos 1  
4  3  2  3
30. A uniform conducting wire ABC has mass 10g. A current of 2 A flows through it. The wire is
kept in a magnetic field of 4T. Neglecting gravity, acceleration of wire
will be
1) Zero 2) 0.6ms 2 along y –axis

3) 1.2 ms 2 along y –axis 4) 24 ms 2 along y –axis
31. A galvanometer gives a full scale deflection when a current of 2 mA flows through it and the
potential difference across its terminals is 4 mV. Which of the following resistors would be
most suitable to convert it to give a full scale deflection for a current of 2 A ?
1) 0.002  in parallel 2) 0.002  in series 3) 0.004  in parallel 4) 0.004  in series
32. There are two coils A and B separated by some distance. If a current of 4 A flows through
A, a magnetic flux of 10 2 Wb passes through B (no current through B). If no current passes
through A and a current of 3A passes through B, what is the flux through A?
1) 5m Wb 2) 7.5 m Wb 3) 10 m Wb 4) 2.5m Wb
2
33. In a coil of area 20 cm and 5 turns with a magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane
and is changing at the rate of 108gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 50  . The
current in the coil will be
1) 1 A 2) 3 A 3) 2 A 4) 4 A
25
34. In a circuit the frequency is f  Hz and the inductance is 2H, then the reactance and

admittance will be
1) 1,1 2) 10, 0.1 3) 100, 0.01 4) 1000, 0.001
35. In a step – down transformer having primary to secondary turn ratio 10:1, the input voltage
applied is 250V and output current is 10 A. Assuming 100% efficiency, calculate the voltage
acrosssecondary coil current in primary coil and power output.
1) Vs  2500V I p  IA P0  250W 2) Vs  125V I p  IA P0  25W
3) Vs  2500V I p  IA P0  250W 4) Vs  25V I p  IA P0  250W
36. The electric field strength in an electromagnetic wave is 600 Vm-1 the magnitude of magnetic
field strength will be
1) 200 T 2) 200 mT 3) 2 T 4) 2 Mt

37. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency
of 2 X 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 Vm-1. The total energy density of the electromagnetic
wave is
1) 7805 X 10 8 J / m 3 2) 1 X 10 8 J / m 3 3) 7805 X 10 10 J / m 3 4) 1 X 10 12 J / m 3
38. The de- Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of 3.3 X 10 6 ms 1
( h  6.6 X 10 34 Js )
1) 0.22nm 2) 0.22  m 3) 0.44mm 4) 0.44nm
39. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a circular path. The energy
of the particle is tripled. If the initial radius of the circular path was R, the radius of the
circular path after the energy is tripled will be
1) 3 R 2) 9 R 3) 27 R 4) 3R
238 210
40. When 92U transforms to 85U , then the numbers of the emitted  and  particles
are respectively
1) 7 ,8 2) 8 , 7  3) 7 , 7  4) 8 ,8 
41. The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure is
1) A.B  C 2) A  B.C 3) A.B.C 4) A  B.C

42. In a full wave rectifier, input as frequency ‘  ’. The output frequency of current is

1) 2)  3) 2 4) 3
2
43. With a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance y1 from the principal focus, on
the principal axis. The image is formed at a distance y 2 from the principal focus. The
focal length of the mirror is
y  y2 y
1) y1, y2 2) y1, y2 3) 1 4) 1
2 y2
3
44. The refractive index of a material of a prism of angles 450 -450-900is . The path of the
2
ray of light incident normally on the hypotenuse side is shown as
1) 2) 3) 4)
45. In YDSE, the two slits are separated by 0.1mm and they are 0.5 m from the screen. The
wavelength of light used in 5000A . Find distance between 7th maxima and 11th minima
on the screen
1) 8.75 m 2) 8.75 mm 3) 8.75  m 4) 8.75 nm

CHEMISTRY
46. The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX 2 , in water is 4  10 12 . The
Concentration of M 2 ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
1) 4  10 1 M 2) 1.6  10 4 M 3) 1  10 4 M 4) 2  10 6 M
+
47. The Bond order in NO is 2.5. While that in NO is 3. Which of the statements is true for these
two species?
1) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
2) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
3) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
4) Bond length is unpredictable
48. Density of equilibrium mixture of N 2O4 and NO2 at 1 atm and 384 K is 1.84 gdm3 . Calculate
N 2O4 2NO2
the equilibrium constant of the reaction
1) 2.09 atm 2) 9.02 atm 3) 3.6 atm 4)6.3 atm
49.  H and  S for the reaction
Br2  l   Cl2  g   2BrCl  g  are 29.37 KJ and 104 Jk-1 respectively. Above what temperature
willthis reaction become spontaneous?
1) Above 150K 2) above 282.4K 3) above 153.5K 4)above 263.4K
50. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in BM) among the following is
2 2 4 2 4 2
1)  MnCl4    CoCl4    Fe(CN ) 6  2)  MnCl4    Fe(CN ) 6   CoCl4 
4 2 2 4 2 2
3)  Fe(CN ) 6    MnCl4   CoCl4  4)  Fe(CN ) 6    CoCl4    MnCl4 
51.
(i ) X
CH 3  C  C  CH 3  C H 3  C  C  C H 3
( ii ) Zn / H 2 O
O O
in the above reaction X is
1) HNO3 2) O2 3) O3 4) KMnO4
52. What mass of Mg(OH)2 is required to neutralize 125ml of 0.136 M HCl solution?
1) 0.248 g 2) 0.992g 3) 1.98 g 4) 0.496g
53. In the following sequence of reactions, what is D
CH3
 
O socl2 NaN3 heat
  A   B   C   D
CH 3
NH 2
1) Primary Amine 2) 3) Phenyl isocyanate 4) NH 2
54.
CHO
 H 2 N O H  H
cl
A
How many isomeric forms does the compound A exist?

1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
55. If uncertainly in the position of electron is 0.9 A0. The uncertainly in it’s velocity is
1) 5.8  1010 cm/sec 2) 5.8  108 cm/sec 3) 6.4  107 cm/ sec 4) 0.64  107 cm/sec
NacN H 3O 
56.  CH 3 2 CO  Hcl
 X  
Y.
In the above sequence of reactions X and Y are
1)  CH 3  2 C  OH  CN ,  CH 3  2 C  OH  COOH
2)  CH3  2 C  OH  CN ,  CH3 2 C  OH 2
3)  CH 3 2 C  OH  CN ,  CH 3 2 CHCOOH
4)  CH 3  2 C  OH  CN ,  CH 3 2 C  O
57. The time requires to coat a metal surface of 80 cm2 with 5X10-3 cm Thick layer of silver
(density 1.05 g/cm3 ) by passing a current of 3 amp through AgNO3 solution is
1) 115 sec 2) 125 sec 3) 135 sec 4) 145 sec
58. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and aminocaproic acid is
1) Buna –N 2) Nylon 6,6 3) nylon 2- nylon6 4) PHBV
59. Which of the following compounds is an anti fertility drug?
1) Aspirin 2) Penicillin 3) Chloromycetin 4) norethindrone
HI HNO3
60. X  Glu cos e   Y . what are X and Y?
1) n- Hexane andgluconic acid 2) Gluconic acid and saccharic acid
3) n- Hexanol and saccharic acid 4) n- hexane and saccharic acid
PCC NaOH
61. CH 3  CH 2  OH   A   B. Then ‘B’ is
1) CH 2  CH 2 2) CH 3CHO
CH 3  CH  CH 2  CHO
3) CH 3  COOH 4) OH
62.
CH 3Cl cl2 H 2O / H 

 A  B 
anh. Alcl3 NacN
 C 
Dsunlight
CO OH C H 2C O O H CN NC
1) 2) 3) 4)
63. Which of the following order is true regarding the acidic nature of phenol?
1) Phenol > O – cresol > O – Nitro phenol 2) Phenol > O – cresol < O – Nitro phenol
3) Phenol< O – cresol < O – Nitro phenol 4) Phenol< O – cresol > O – Nitro phenol
64. In the following reaction. X and Y respectively are

KMnO4 / H Y
C2 H 5OH  X 
H 2 SO4 / 
 CH 3COOC2 H 5
1)CH3OH, C2H5OH 2) CH3CHO, CH3OH
3)CH2=CH2, CH3-COOH 4) CH3COOH, C2H5OH
aqKOH Na C2 H 5Cl
65. C2 H 5Cl   A   B   C identify C in the above reaction
1) C2 H5ONa 2) C2 H 5OH 3) C2 H5 -O-C2 H5 4) C4 H10
66. A fuel cell involves combustion of the butane at 1 atm and 298 K
13
C4 H10( g )  O2( g )  4CO2( g )  5H 2O(l ) , G 0  2746 KJ / mol
2
0
What is E of the cell?
1) +4.74V 2) +0.547V 3) +1.09V 4) +4.37V
67. For which of the following, the units of rate constant and rate of reaction of same
1) Zero order 2) First order 3) second order 4) Third order
3 6 2.
68. The density of an ideal gasis 0.03 g/cm , its pressure is 10 dy/cm What is its R.M.S velocity
in (Cm/s)
1) 108 2) 3x104 3) 1X106 4) 1x104
69. 100 g of lime stone on heating produced 22g of CO2. The percentage of CaCO3 in lime stone is
1) 80% 2) 60% 3) 50% 4) 87.66%
70. For the reaction 2H2(g)+O2(g)  2H2O(g); H  571KJ bond energy of (H-H) is 435 KJ and
(O=O)is 498 KJ. Then calculate the average bond energy of (O-H) bond using the above data
1)484 KJ 2) 884 KJ 3) 271 KJ 4)279 KJ
71. The correct order of electrical conductivity of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is
1) Li   Na   K   Rb   Cs  2) Li   Na   K   Rb   Cs 
3) Li   Na   K   Rb   Cs  4) Li   Na   K   Rb   Cs 
72. Which of the following statement is correct
1) Atomic radius of Na is greater than that of Mg.
2) Metallic bond in Mg is stronger than the metallic bond in Na
3) Melting and boiling points of Mg are greater than that of Ca
4) Mg and Ca are most abundant elements among the alkaline earth metals
The correct statements are
1) III, IV 2)I, II, IV 3) II, IV 4) I, IV
0
73. Bond length of H-I is 1.6A and its observed dipole moment is 0.38D. Then the percentage of
ionic character nearly
1)5 2) 8 3)10 4)15
0 3- 2- 
74. The ionic radii ( in A ) of N , O and F are respectively
1) 1.36, 1.4 and 1.71 2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.4
3) 1.71, 1.4 and 1.36 4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.4
75. The method of Zone refining of metals is based on the principle of

1) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
2) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
3) Greater conductivity of solid metal than that of impurity
4) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten statethan in solid state of metal
76. EAN ( effective atomic number) are not equal in which of the following pair
4 2
1)  Ni  CO  4  ,  Fe  CN 6  2)  Ni  en  2  ,  Fe  H 2O 6 
3 4 2
3) Co  CN  6  ,  Fe  CN  6  4)  Ni  en  2  , Cu  CN  4 
77. Hexaaquo titanium (111) chloride is represented as
1) Ti  H 2 O 6  Cl3 2) TiCl3  6 H 2O 3) Ti  H 2O 5 Cl  Cl2 4) Ti  H 2O 3 Cl3 
78. Which of the following electrolytes is most effective in the coagulation of gold solution?
1) NaNO3 2) K 4  Fe  CN 6  3) Na3 PO4 4) MgCl2
79. A aqueous solution freezes at -1.860 c, (Kf=1.86, Kb=0.512) what is the elevation in boiling
point?
1) 0.186 2) 0.512 3) 0.86 4) 0.0512
80. A metal crystllizes in a bcc lattice. Its unit cell edge length is about 3 A0and its molar mass is
about 60 g/mol. The density of the metal is
1) 7.4 2) 6.2 3) 9.3 4) 12.4
81. The position of Br in the compound CH 3  CH  CHC  Br  CH 3  2 is
1) Allyl 2) Aryl 3) Vinyl 4) Secondary

82. The most stable carbocation is
CH 3

C H  C H 3
1) 2)
CH 2

CH 2  CH 2
H 3CO
3) 4)
83. CaC2  2 H 2 O  X
alc KOH
CH 3  CH 2  Cl  Y
Z
X  Y
In this reaction the reagent ‘Z’ is
1) Con H 2 SO4 2) LiAlH4 3) Pd+BaSO4 4) (Zn-Hg)+ ConHCl
 CH COO  Mn
PCl5 C6 H 6
84. 3
C 2 H 6 
2
 X   Y 
Anh . AlCl3
 Z . Identify X,Y,Z.
1) CO2 , COCl , C6 H 5COCl 2) CH 3CHO, CH 3CH 2Cl , C6 H 5CH 2COCl
3) CH 3COOH , CH 3COCl , C6 H 5COCH 3 4) HCOOH , HCOCl , C6 H 5CHO
-3
85. In PO4 ion the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P-O bond order respectively are
1) -0.75, 1.25 2) -3, 1.25 3) -0.75, 1 4) -0.75, 0.6
86. The statements regarding hydrides of VI-A group elements are
i) The order of volatility H2O<H2Te<H2Se<H2S
ii) The order of boiling point H2O>H2Te>H2Se>H2S
iii) The order of bond angles H2O>H2S>H2Se>H2Te
The correct combination is
1) Only (i) is correct 2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
3) (i) and (iii) are correct 4) All are correct
87. The halogen having greenish yellow gas reacts with hot and concentrated NaOHsolution and
give products. The oxidation state of that halogen changes from
1) 0 to -1 2) 0 to +5 3) -1 to +1 4) 0 to -1 and +5 states
2
88. The distribution of electrons in metal ion in  Mn  H 2O 6  in splitted d- orbitals is
0 2 3 4 1
1) t 5 2g eg 2) t 32 g eg 2 3) t2 g eg 4) t2g eg
89. Number of  bonds present in meta borate ion and borazole are
1) 14, 15 2) 14, 12 3) 18, 12 4) 18, 15
4
90. Name of structure of silicate in which three oxygen atoms of  SiO4  are shared is
1) Pyro silicate 2) Sheet silicate
3) Linear chain silicate 4) Three dimensional silicate
BIOLOGY
91. One of the following serve as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies.
1) Flora 2) Manuals 3) Herbaria 4) Monographs
92. Study the flow chart. Name the hormones labeled as A, B, C, D at each stage
Choose the correct option

A B C D
1) Gn-RH ICSH Androgen FSH
2) Gn-RH LH FSH Androgens
3) Gonadotropins LH FSH Testosterone
4) Gn-RH FSH LH Androgens
93. Conidia are
1) Exogenous, asexual spores 2) Endogenous, asexual spores
3) Exogenous, sexual spores 4) Endogenous, sexual spores
94. Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation.
A. LH B. FSH C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
1) A only 2) A and B only 3) A, B and C only 4) A, B, C and D
95. Identify the wrong sentence
1) Ovules are ategmic in gymnosperms 2) N2 fixing coralloid roots are found in Cycas
3) Mycorrhizal roots are seen inPinus 4) Endosperm is triploid in angiosperms
96. A sexually transmitted disease that can be treated with antibiotics is
1) Genital warts 2) Hepatitis - B 3) Syphilis 4) Trichomoniasis
Set-I Set-II
A. Stem tendril 1. Watermelon
B. Leaf tendril 2. Opuntia
C. Phylloclade 3. Acacia melanoxylon
D. Phyllode 4. Pea
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
98. Lactationalamenorrhoea is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to the high level of
1) FSH and LH hormones 2) Estrogen
3) Prolactin 4) Progesterone
99. Ovary is half- superior in
a) Mustard b) Peach c) Cucumber d) Rose
e) Brinjal f) Plum
1) b, d and e 2) a, b and f 3) b, d and f 4) b, c and f
100. Which of the following method is employed to assist the couple where there are problems with
the sperms such as decrease in sperm count?
A. ZIFT B. GIFT C. ICSI D. AI
1) A and B only 2) C and D only 3) C only 4) D only
101. Ebroyophytic, tracheoptytic, archegoniate, cryptogams are
1) Spermatophytes 2) Gymnosperms 3) Angiosperms 4) Pteridophytes

102. Which of the following are present in the muscles that exhibit high intensity contractions?
A. High myoglobin content
B. Low myoglobin content
C. Plenty of mitochondria
D. A few mitochondria
E. More amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
F. Less amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
1) A, C and E 2) B, D and F 3) A, C and F 4) B, D and E
103. The placentation not found in unilocular ovary is
1) Parietal 2) Basal 3) Marginal 4) Axile
104. Arrange the following events of ‘cross bridge cycle’ in an order

A. Power stroke
B. Another ATP binds to myosin head
C. PI released
D. Myosin head binds to active site and cross bridge formed
E. Energy released from hydrolysis of ATP in myosin head
F. ADP released
G. Myosin head releases active site
1) D, E, A, F, B, C, G 2) E, D, F, A, C, B, G
3) B, D, E, F, A, C, G 4) E, D, C, A, F, B, G
105. Living component in the xylem and dead component in the phloem respectively are
1) Xylem fibres and phloem parenchyma 2) Xylem parenchyma and phloem fibres
3) Tracheidsand phloem fibres 4) Xylem parenchyma and sieve cells
106. Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the muscles that are originated from
ectoderm?
1) Optic 2) Pathetic 3) Occulomotor 4) Abducens
107. Vascular bundles are conjoint, open with endarchprotoxylem are found in
1) Dicot stem 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot root
108. Which of the following end products of digestion are absorbed against concentration gradient
into the cells of villi?
1) Glucose, amino acids 2) Fructose, amino acids
3) Amino acids 4) Water
109. The correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is
1) G1 G2 S M 2) G1 S G2 M 3) G1 G2 M S 4) G1 S M G2
List – A List – B
A. Cricoid cartilage i) Smallest cartilages
B. Thyroid cartilage ii) Paired cartilages
C. Corniculate cartilages iii) ventral and lateral walls of larynx
D. Cuneiform cartilages iv) Largest cartilage
v) Lower and posterior part of wall of larynx
1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-v 2) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
3) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 4) A-v, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
111. Arrange the following in decreasing order based on the number of layers present around
them
I) Ribosome
II) Vacuole
III) Mitochondrion
IV) Endospore of bacterium
1) I II III IV 2) II I III IV 3) IV III II I 4) IV III I II

112. Statement 1 : Emphysema is a disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged.
Statement 2 : The lungs show smaller but fewer alveoli and more fibrous and less elastic
1) Both the statements are true 2) Both the statements are false
3) Statement 1 is true 4) Statement 2 is true
113. Arrange the following series descendingly based on the number of cohorts (orders)
I) Heteromerae II) Bicarpellatae III) Thalamiflorae IV) Calyciflorae
1) I II IV III 2) III IV II I 3) III IV I II 4) IV III II I
114. Functional Residual capacity =
1) TV + IRV + ERV 2) VC + RV
3) ERV + RV 4) TV + IRV
115. Identify the wrong pair regarding secondary metabolites
1) Alkaloid-Codeine 2) Toxin-Ricin
3) Lectin-Concanavalin A 4) Drug-Abrin
116. Flat T – wave in ECG indicates.
1) Hyperkalemia 2) Hypokalemia 3) Hypercalcemia 4) Hypocalcemia
0
117. A ds DNA of 170 A length consists of 15% Adenine. The number of hydrogen bonds existed
in that DNA is
1) 125 2) 135 3) 130 4) 140
118. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Exchange of NaCl and H2O takes place only through the descending limb of vasa recta
B. Exchange of NaCl and H2O takes place through both descending and ascending limbs of vasa
recta
C. K+ ion reabsorption takes place through proximal convoluted tubule.
D. ANF inhibits the secretion of renin and aldosterone
1) A, C, D 2) B, C, D 3) C, D 4) BD
119. Arginosuccinase enzyme belongs to major class
1) Hydrolases 2) Lyases 3) Ligases 4) Transferases
120. Necrosis of cardiac muscle tissue leads to
1) Heart failure 2) Heart attack 3) Chest pain 4) Ischemia
121. The correct sequence of events that occur in Meiosis I is
I) Synapsis II) Crossing over
III) Terminalisation IV) Segregationof chromosomes
1) I II IV III 2) I III II IV 3) I II III IV 4) II I III IV
A. The left ward shift of oxygenhaemoglobin dissociation curve indicates that the
haemoglobin has an increased affinity for oxygen
B. The plateau portion of oxygenhaemoglobin dissociation curve is the range that exists at the
pulmonary capillaries
C. The steep portion of curve is the range that exists at the systemic capillaries
D. In a resting person [pO2 = 40 mm Hg], haemoglobin always carries about 75% oxygen.
1) ABC 2) BCD 3) AD 4) ABCD
Set-I Set-II
A. Bryophyllum I. Offset
B. Agave II. Rhizome
C. Water hyacinth III. Bulbil
D. Ginger IV. Leaf buds
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
124. How many bones are present in pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle respectively?
1) 4, 6 2) 6, 6 3) 4, 2 4) 5, 6

125. If leaf cell of onion consists of 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are present in the
endosperm cell of onion?
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 48
126. What is the name of the region of the brain that is responsible for the functions like breathing,
heart beat and blood pressure?
1) Amygdala 2) Brain stem 3) Cerebrum 4) Both 1 and 2
127. Identify the correct sentence
1) Xenogamy occurs in dioecious plants only
2) In the plant with bisexual flowers autogamy only occurs
3) Autogamy occurs in bisexual flowers only
4) Either autogamy or geitonogamy occurs in dioecious plants
List - A List – B
A. Most convincing evidence in favour of i. Atavistic organs
organic evolution.
B. Strongly support the concept on organic ii. Evidences from cell and molecular
evolution. biology.
C. Clearly explain the path of evolution. iii. Vestigial organs
D. The most detailed and convincing iv. Connecting links
evidence in favour of biological evolution
1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii 2) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
3) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv 4) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
129. Observe the following diagram and identify A, B and C in the figure respectively
1) Coleoptile, Epiblast, Coleorhiza 2) Coleoptile, Shoot apex, Coleoptile

3) Coleorhiza, Epiblast, Coleoptile 4) Scutellum, Coleoptile, Coleorhiza
130. The dynamic nature of species was proposed by
1) Author of “The Origin of Species” 2) Author of “Natural History”
3) Author of “SystemaNaturae” 4) Author of “HistoriaGeneralisPlantarum”
131. Production of seeds without fertilization is called
1) Polyembryony 2) Apomixis 3) Parthenocarpy 4) Amphimixis
132. In the analysis of species area relationship among tropical rain forest, if the slope is more than
45º the value of ‘Z’ is
1) 0.6 2) 1 3) 1.2 4) 1.7
133. Pioneers in xerarch and hydrarch successions respectively are
1) Bryophytes and Lichens 2) Lichens and Phytoplanktons
3) Lichens and bryophytes 4) Lichens and submerged plants
134. In which of the following organisms “blind sac plan” was first formed?
1) Cnidarians 2) Flat worms 3) Nematodes 4) Chordates
135. Drought evaders or escapers are
1) Ephemerals 2) True xerophytes 3) Non-succulents 4) Succulents
136. Primary induction can not be found in
1) Pseudocoelomates 2) Schizocoelomates 3) Eucoelomates 4) Human beings
137. In pteris, each sorus is protected by the reflexed margin of the fertile leaflet called
1) Ramenta 2) Indusium 3) False indusium 4) fronds
138. Epididymis is lined with
1) Stratified cuboidal epithelium 2) Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
3) Pseudostratified non ciliated epithelium 4) Ciliated columnar epithelium
139. Arrange the following in ascending order based on their imbibing capacities
a) Wheat grains b) Cotton fibres c) Pea seeds
1) b, a, c 2) c, a, b 3) a, b, c 4) c, b,a
140. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Histamine acts as vasodilator and bronchodilator
2) Histamine and bradykinin act as vasoconstrictors and bronchoconstrictors
3) Histamine acts as vasodilator and bronchoconstrictor
4) Seratonin acts as vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor
141. The ratio of e-, H+ and ATP required for conversion of N2 into 2NH3 is
1)1:2:2 2) 1:1:1 3) 1:1:2 4) 2:1:2
142. If ‘the most abundant serum protein’ level falls in blood plasma.
1) Hydrostatic pressure increases 2) Hydrostatic pressure decreases
3) Oncotic pressure decreases 4) Colloidal osmotic pressure increases
143. Inhibition of cell division occurs due to lack or low level of
1) N Zn Mo 2) N K S Mo 3) K N Zn Mo 4) Ca Mg K
144. Match the following.
List – A List – B
A. Baosphils i. Large cytoplasmic granules
B. Acidophils ii. Peripheral cytoplasm
C. Neutrophils iii. Phagocytes
D. Lymphocytes iv. Small cytoplasmic granules
E. Monocytes v. Irregular cytoplasmic granules
A B C D E
1) v i ii iv iii
2) i v iv ii iii
3) v i iii iv ii
4) v i iv ii iii
145. If 2 glucose molecules are formed as net gain through Calvin cycle, how many
Erythrose 4-phosphate molecules are formed in the C3 cycle ?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
146. The people who live at higher altitudes generally show
1) Polycythemia 2) Erythrocytopenia 3) Leucocytopenia 4) Erythrocytosis
147. Elements involved in photolysis of water are
a) Ca2+ b) Mn2+ c) Cl- d) K+
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 3) a, b and c 4) b, c and d
148. Statocysts occur in
1) Hydra 2) Adamsia 3) Rhizostoma 4) Physalia
149. The ratio of substrate level phosphorylations that occur during glycolysis and Krebs cycle
respectively is
1) 1:1 2) 2:1 3) 1:2 4) 3:1
List-A List-B
A. Echinococcus i) Syncytial epidermis
B. Ancylostoma ii) Collagenous cuticle
C. Convoluta iii) Bifurcated intestine

D. Wuchereria iv) Syncytial tegument
E. Bilharzia v) Rhabdites
A B C D E
1) IV V I II III
2) IV I V II III
3) IV II III I V
4) V I III II IV
151. Observe the figure and identify A, B and C respectively
1) Inner mitochondrial membrane, F1,F0 2) Inner mitochondrial membrane, F0, F1

3) Mitochondrial matrix, F0, F1 4) Outer membrance of mitochondrion , F0, F1
152. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ
A. Silver fish – Trachea B. Scorpion – Book lungs
C. Sea squirt – Pharyngeal gills D. Dolphin – gills
The correct matchings are
1) A and B 2) A, B and C 3) B and D 4) C and D
153. Identify wrong statement
1) NAA and 2,4-D are synthetic auxins
2) Gibberellins promote bolting in Cabbages
3) Ethylenepromotes female flowers in cucumbers
4) Auxins help to prevent the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits
154. Identify the incorrect matching of a class and its characters.
1) Chondrichthyes – amphicoelous vertebrae
2) Amphibia – Sternum ,columellauris
3) Reptilia – Sinus venosus, micro lecithal eggs
4) Mammalia – metanephric kidneys, Uriotelic
155. One of the following bacteria play a great role in re cycling nutrients like nitrogen,
phosphorous, iron and sulphur
1) Chemo-autotrophic bacteria 2) Photo- autotrophic bacteria
3) Photo-heterotrophic bacteria 4) Chemo- heterotrophic bacteria
156. In the life cycle of Entamoeba, karyokinesis takes place during
A. Trophozoite stage B. Pre cystic stage C. Cystic stage D. Metacystic stage
1) A, B and C 2) A, B and D 3) B, C and D 4) A, C and D
157. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
1) Prion 2) Virion 3) Bacterium 4) Viroid
158. The respective enzymes secreted by Entamoeba and Plasmodium are
1) Histolysins and lypolytic 2) Proteolytic and cytolytic
3) Cytolytic and proteolytic 4) Proteolytic and histolysins
159. In F2 generation of Mendel’s dihybrid cross the percentage of recombinants formed is
1) 25% 2) 62.5% 3) 50% 4) 37.5%
160. One of the following is the set of infective stages to erythrocytes in the life cycle of malaria
parasite
1) Cryptozoite, micrometacryptozoite, erythrocyticmerozoite
2) Cryptozoite, mircromatacryptozoite, sporozoite
3) Cryptozoite, micrometacryptozoiteerythrocyticmerozoite
4) Cryptozoite, micrometacryptozoite, erythrocyticmerozoite, hypnozoite

161. The fraction of double homozygotes in the F2 of Mendel’s dihybrid cross is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 16 2
162. In cockroach due to the contraction of which muscles wings are depressed and segments are
telescoped respectively.
1) Dorsoventral muscles, ventral longitudinal muscles
2) Dorsolongitudinal muscles, ventral longitudinal muscles
3) Dorsoventral muscles
4) Ventral longitudinal muscles, Dorsolongitudinal muscles
Set-I Set-II
A.   174 Bacteriophage 1. 6.6 109 bp
B. Bacteriophage lambda 2. 4.6 106 bp
C. E.coli 3. 48502bp
D. Diploid content of Human DNA 4. 5386 nucleotides
5. 3.3 109 bp
1) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5 2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-4 3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5
164. Which of the following activities occur in the secretary part of Malpighian tubule?
1) Secretion 2) Secretion and absorption
3) Secretion and reabsorption 4) Reabsorption
165. AAA, AAG are the codons for
1) Leucine 2) Lysine 3) Cysteine 4) Serine
List – I List – II
A. Stable population I. Triangular shape
B. Declining population II. Exponential growth curve
C. Density dependent growth curve III. Sigmoid growth curve
D. Density independent growth curve IV. Urn shape
E. Growing population V. Bell shape
A B C D E
1) V IV III II I
2) V IV II III I
3) IV V III II I
4) IV III II III I
167. Identify the correct statement
1) Ampicillin resistant gene is present at Bam H1 site on pBR 322 cloning vector
2) Gene gun method is used to introduce alien DNA into plant host cells
3) Lysozyme is used to break the fungal cell wall
4) Restriction endonuclease enzyme added methyl groups to DNA
168. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome no 21. What percentage of
offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this
disorder?
1) 100% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4)25%
169. Down stream processing includes
1) Separation and purification 2) Denaturation and purification
3) Annealing and purificartion 4) Denaturation and separation
170. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene ‘h’. What proportion of his sperms will be with ‘abh’?
1)1/8 2)1/32 3)1/16 4)1/4

171. Select the wrong pair
1) Round up ready soyabean – herbicide tolerant
2) Transgenic tomato- resistant to Phytophthora
3) Bt . Cotton – Resistant to insects
4) Transgenic papaya – Resistant to ring spot virus
Part – I Part – II
A) Acromegaly I) Under secretion of GH in child
B) Giagantism II) Oxytocin
C) Addison’s III) Over secretion of glucocorticoid
D) Dwarfism IV) Over secretion of GH in child
E) Ejection of milk V) Over secretion of GH in adult
F) Cushing’s VI) Hyposecretion of Glucocorticoid
A B C D E F A B C D E F
1) V IV VI I III II 2) V IV VI I II III
3) V IV VI II III I 4) V IV VI II III I
173. Select the pair of correct combinations
I) Cauliflower- PusaShubhra – Resistance to black rot
II) Cowpea – PusaKomal – Resistance to white rust
III) Wheat – Himagiri – Resistance to hill bunt
IV) Brassica – PusaGaurav – Resistance to white rust
1) I II 2) I III 3) I IV 4) III IV
174. If a Rh positive Homozygus man marries a woman heterozygous for Rh, what is the
percentage of the children affected by erythroblastosis foetalis
1) Zero 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 75%
Set –I Set- II
A) Vitamin A enriched crop 1. Garden peas
B) Vitamin C enriched crop 2. Spinach
C) Iron and calcium enriched crop 3. Bitter gourd
D) Protein enriched crop 4. Carrot
1) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 2) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 3) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 4) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
176. If a normal female whose father is color blind marries a normal person. In the Progeny
percentage of color blind sons are
1) 0% 2) 100% 3) 25% 4) 50%
177. The following are produced without distillation
a) Wine b) Brandy c) Beer d) Whisky
1) a, b 2) a, c 3) a, d 4) b, d
178. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of one allele A of a gene
with only two allelic forms is 0.2, what is the frequency of heterozygotes for that gene in that
population?
1) 0.8 2) 0.16 3) 0.32 4) 0.48
179. Select the correct combinations
I) Aspergillusniger – Fungus - Citric acid
II) Acetobacteraceti – Bacterium – Acetic acid
III) Clostridium butylicum – Fungus – Butyric acid
IV) Lactobacilus – Bacterium – Lactic acid
1) I II IV 2) II III IV 3) I III IV 4) I II III
180. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands become extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island, this is an example for
1) Parasitism 2) Coexistence
3) Competitive exclusion 4) Commensalism


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
181) 2 182) 3 183) 1 184) 2 185) 4 186) 3 187) 1 188) 2 189) 4 190) 4
191) 4 192) 4 193) 4 194) 2 195) 2 196) 3 197) 2 198) 2 199) 4 200) 1
201) 4 202) 2 203) 3 204) 2 205) 2 206) 3 207) 4 208) 4 209) 2 210) 4
211) 1 212) 2 213) 3 214) 3 215) 4 216) 3 217) 2 218) 1 219) 4 220) 3
221) 2 222) 3 223) 2 224) 1 225) 2
CHEMISTRY
226) 3 227) 2 228) 1 229) 2 230) 2 231) 3 232) 4 233) 3 234) 3 235) 3
236) 1 237) 2 238) 3 239) 4 240) 4 241) 4 242) 2 243) 2 244) 4 245) 3
246) 3 247) 1 248) 4 249) 3 250) 1 251) 2 252) 2 253) 1 254) 3 255) 4
256) 4 257) 1 258) 2 259) 2 260) 1 261) 1 262) 4 263) 3 264) 3 265) 1
266) 4 267) 4 268) 2 269) 3 270) 2
BIOLOGY
271) 3 272) 2 273) 1 274) 3 275) 1 276) 3 277) 2 278) 3 279) 3 280) 2
281) 4 282) 4 283) 4 284) 4 285) 2 286) 3 287) 1 288) 1 289) 2 290) 4
291) 3 292) 3 293) 2 294) 3 295) 4 296) 2 297) 2 298) 2 299) 2 300) 2
301) 3 302) 4 303) 2 304) 3 305) 3 306) 2 307) 3 308) 4 309) 4 310) 2
311) 2 312) 3 313) 2 314) 1 315) 1 316) 1 317) 3 318) 3 319) 1 320) 3
321) 3 322) 3 323) 2 324) 4 325) 2 326) 1 327) 3 328) 3 329) 2 330) 2
331) 2 332) 2 333) 4 334) 3 335) 1 336) 4 337) 4 338) 2 339) 4 340) 4
341) 1 342) 2 343) 3 344) 2 345) 2 346) 1 347) 2 348) 3 349) 1 350) 1
351) 2 352) 2 353) 2 354) 1 355) 2 356) 3 357) 2 358) 3 359) 1 360) 3


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. The S.I unit of moment of inertia and dimensional formula is
1) kg / m 2 , M 1 L2T 0 2) kgm2 , M 1 L2T 0 3) N m 2 , ML3T 2 4) N / m 2 , M 1 L1T 2
2. Two solid spheres of radii R and 2R are made up of the same material. If they are placed in
contact with each other, the gravitational force of attraction between them is proportional to
1) R 4 2) R 2 3) R1/ 2 4) R 3/ 2
3. A body executing S.H.M has a maximum velocity of 1m/s and a maximum acceleration of
4m / s 2 . Its amplitude in meters is
1) 1 2) 0.75 3) 0.5 4) 0.25
4. The pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02 atm respectively. The ratio of their
respective volumes is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16
5. Sand is being dropped on a conveyer belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep
the belt moving with a constant velocity of V m/s will be (in newton)
MV
1) 2) zero 3) MV 4) 2MV
2
6. Two balls of same mass each ‘m’ are moving with same velocities ‘v’ on a smooth surface as
shown. If all collisions between the mass and with the wall are perfectly elastic the possible
number of collisions between the bodies and wall together is
1) 1 2) 2 3) Infinity 4) 3
t2
7. A body of mass 6kg under a force which causes displacement in it given by S  m, Where
4
‘t’ is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is
1) 3J 2) 9J 3) 6J 4) 12J
8. A system consists of two identical particles one particle is at rest and the other particle has an
acceleration ‘a’. The centre of mass of the system has an acceleration of
1) 2a 2) a 3) a/2 4) a/4
9. A thin hallow sphere of mass ‘m’ is completely filled with a liquid of mass ‘m’. When the
sphere rolls with a velocity ‘v’, kinetic energy of the system is (neglect friction)
1 4 4
1) mv 2 2) mv 2 3) mv 2 4) mv 2
2 3 5
10. A monoatomic and a diatomic gas molecules have how many degree of freedom respectively
1) 3,4 2) 4,3 3) 5,3 4) 3,5
11. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘P’, the
fractional decrease in radius is
P P B 3P
1) 2) 3) 4)
B 3B 3P B
12. 2kg of ice at -20°C is mixed with 5kg of water at 20°C. Final mass of water formed is
1) 6kg 2) 7kg 3) 4kg 4) 2kg

13. In a room, where the temperature is 30°C, a body cools from 61°C to 59°C in 4 min. The time
taken by the body to cool from 51°C to 49°C will be
1) 4 min 2) 6 min 3) 5 min 4) 8 min
C
14. Which of the following is true in the case of an adiabatic process where   P
CV
1) P1 .T   constant 2) P  .T 1  constant 3) PT   constant 4) P T  constant
15. Work done to increase the temperature of 1 mole of an ideal gas by 30°C, if it is expanding
under the condition V  T 2 / 3 is  R  8.314 J / mole /  K 
1) 116.2 J 2) 136.2J 3) 166.2 J 4) 186.2 J
16. Sum of magnitude of two forces is 25N. The resultant of these forces is normal to the smaller
force and has a magnitude of 10N. Then the forces are
1) 14.5N, 10.5N 2) 16N, 9N 3) 13N, 12N 4) 20N, 5N

17. An electric field is expressed as E  2i  3j. The potential difference VA  VB  between two
ˆ ˆ
points A and B whose positions vectors are given by r  iˆ  2ˆj and r  2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ is
A B
1) -1 V 2) 1 V 3) 2 V 4) 3 V
18. The velocity and time graph for a particle moving line is shown, then the average velocity
between t=4s and t=6s is
1) 10.5 m/s 2) 12.5 m/s 3) 7.5 m/s 4) 9.5 m/s

19. A rod of mass 2kg and length 2m is rotating about its one end O with an angular velocity
  4 rad/s. Find angular momentum of the rod about the axis rotation
42 32 22 10
1) kg  m 2 / s 2) kg  m 2 / s 3) kg  m 2 / s 4) kg  m2 / s
3 3 3 3
20. A disc of moment of inertia I1 is rotating freely with angular velocity 1 when a second, non-
rotating disc with moment of inertia I2is dropped on it gently the two then rotate as a unit.
Then the total angular speed is :
I11 I2 1 I11  I1  I2  1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
I2 I1 I2  I1 I2
21. A body of mass 10kg is acted upon by a given equation F  3t 2  30 N . The initial velocity of
the body is 10m/s. The velocity of the body after 5s is
1) 4.5 m/s 2) 6 m/s 3) 7.5 m/s 4) 5 m/s
22. Two particles of equal mass move in a circle of radius r under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. If the mass of each particle is M, the speed of each particle is
GM GM GM 2GM
1) 2) 3) 4)
r 2r 4r r

23. A certain organ pipe, three successive resonance frequencies are observed at 425, 595 and
765Hz respectively. The length of the pipe is (velocity of sound 340m/s)
1) 2m 2) 1.5m 3) 1m 4) 0.5m
24. Two stationary sources A and B are sounding notes of frequency 680 Hz. A listener moves
from A to B with a constant speed ‘u’. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. What must be
the value of ‘u’ so that he hears 5 beats per second.
1) 1.0 m/s 2) 1.25 m/s 3) 1.5 m/s 4) 1.75 m/s
25. Two point charges +8C and +12C repel each other with a force of 48N. When an additional
charge of -10C is given to each of these charges then the new force is (the distance between
charges are same)
1) 24N (Repulsive) 2) 24N (Attractive) 3) 2N (Repulsive) 4) 2N (Attractive)
26. The equivalent capacitance between P and Q is
1) 10µF 2) 5µF 3) 20µF 4) 15µF

27. Four identical wires each having resistance R are connected as shown equivalent resistance
between A and B is
1) R/4 2) R/2 3) R 4) 4R
28. Figure shows a colour coded resistor what is the resistance of the resistor
1) 420   5% 2) 340   10% 3) 270   20% 4) 240   10%

29. A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent in to a semi circular arc, its
magnetic moment becomes
M 2M 2M 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2  3 M
30. Two straight long parallel conductors 10cm apart, carry equal currents of magnitude 3A in
the same direction. Then the magnetic induction at a point midway between them is
1) 2 10 5 T 2) 3 105 T 3) zero 4) 4 10 5 T
31. The magnetic flux linked with a closed coil is increased to a maximum value in 2s and its
relation with time is   at 2  bt  c then relation between a, b and c is
b b
1) a  b 2) a   3) a  b  c 4) ac 
4 2
32. The number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is 50 and 200. If the
current in the primary coil is 4A, then the current in the secondary coil is
1) 1A 2) 2A 3) 4A 4) 5A

33. During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium
1) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density
2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density
3) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density
4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero
34. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from 1nm
to 0.5nm is
1) 4 times to the initial energy 2) equal to the initial energy
3) 2 times to the initial energy 4) 3 times to the initial energy
35. A galvanometer with a shunt in parallel is used in series in a circuit. Then it is called
1) ammeter 2) voltmeter
3) ohmmeter 4) multimeter
36. The stopping potentials were v1 and v2 volts with the incident light of wavelength  and

respectively then
2
1) v1  v2  2v1 2) v2  2v1 3) v2  2v1 4) v2  v1
37. In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, electron has the angular momentum
 h h 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
h  2 h
38. Which of the following is emitted when 94 Pu 239 decay in to 92 U 235
1) Gamma ray 2) Neutron 3) Electron 4) Alpha particle
39. In the following common emitter circuit if
  100, VCE  7V, VBE  Neglegible, R C  2k, then IB  ?
1) 0.01 mA 2) 0.04 mA 3) 0.02 mA 4) 0.03 mA

40. In a n-type semiconductor, the fermi energy level lies
1) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the conduction band
2) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the valence band
3) In the middle of forbidden energy gap
4) Outside the forbidden energy gap
41. The expression of Y in following circuit is
1) ABCD 2) A+BCD 3) A+B+C+D 4) AB+CD

42. The distance between an object and its real image formed by a lens is ‘D’. If the magnification
is ‘m’, the focal length of the lens is
1) 
 m 1
D 2)
mD
3)
 m  1 D 4)
mD
 2 2
 m  m 1 m  m  1
43. When an object is placed between two plane mirrors, then the number of images formed is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) infinite
44. The monochromatic light beams of intensity 16 and 9 units are interfering. The ratio of
intensities of bright and dark parts of the resultant pattern
1) 16/9 2) 49/1 3) 7/1 4) 4/3
45. In YDSE for producing interference pattern, the fringe width depends on
a) wavelength b) distance between the two slits
c) distance between screen and the slits d) distance between source and the slits
1) a only 2) a and b 3) a, b and c 4) a, b and d
CHEMISTRY
1
46. The maximum number of electrons that can be present in an orbital with S   and l  2
2
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7
47. Which statement is wrong about Bohr’s theory
1) Orbit is a three dimensional area where probability of finding electron is maximum
2) Orbit is a two dimensional track on which electron moves
3) Atom has definite boundary
4) Energies and angular momentum of orbits are quantized
48. Give the name of the inert gas atom in which the total number of d-electrons is equal to the
difference in numbers of total p & s – electrons
1) Ar 2) Kr 3) Xe 4) Rn
49. In which of the following pairs the two species are not isostructural?
1) CO32 and NO3 2) PCl4 and SiCl4 3) PF5 and BrF5 4) AlF63 and SF6
50. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting
liquid CH 3OH to a gas?
1) Covalent bonds 2) Dipole-dipole interaction
3) London dispersion forces 4) Hydrogen bonding
51. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1gm cm-3)
1) 3.0 1023 cm3 2) 5.5 1023 cm3 30 6.023 1023 cm3 4) 9.0 1023 cm3
52. When N 2 is converted into NH 3 , the equivalent weight of nitrogen will be
1) 1.67 2) 2.67 3) 3.67 4) 4.67
53. Which is not a property of H 2O2
1) Conc. H 2O2 solution is acidic in nature 2) H 2O2 is a planar molecule
3) H 2O2 is an excellent solvent for electrolysis 4) H 2O2 is a diamagnetic
54. Read the following statements
I) Cs  is highly hydrated
II) Li has highest melting point among Li, Na, K & Rb
III) In alkali metals only Li forms nitride
The correct statements are
1) I & II 2) II & III 3) I & III 4) I, II & III
55. Solution of azeotropic nitric acid contain
1) 32% HNO3 , 68% H 2O by mass 2) 50% HNO3 , 50% H 2O by mass
3) 68% HNO3 , 32% H 2O by mass 4) 30% HNO3 , 70% H 2O by mass

56. If NaCl is doped with 103 mole% , SrCl2 then the concentration of cation vacancies will be
1) 1103 mole% 2) 2 103 mole% 3) 3 103 mole% 4) 12.04%
57. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2 – electrode zero in pure water at
298K is
1) 104 atm 2) 1010 atm 3) 1012 atm 4) 1014 atm
58. The correct curve for zero order reaction
I) II) III) IV)

Choose the correct set of option from the following
1) I & II 2) II & III 3) I & III 4) II & IV
59. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles?
1) Coagulation 2) Electrophoresis 3) Electro osmosis 4) Tyndall effect
3
60. In PO4 ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and PO bond order respectively are
1) -0.75, 1.0 2) -0.75, 0.6 3) -0.75, 1.25 4) -3, 1.25
61. Which of the following is used as fluorinating agent?
1) SF2 2) SF4 3) SF6 4) S 2Cl2
62. Which has maximum PH in aqueous solution
1) NaClO 2) NaClO2 3) NaClO3 4) NaClO4
63. Match the items of Column-I and Column-II and mark correct option
Column-I Column-II
A) Its partial hydrolysis doesnot change i) He
oxidation state of central atom
B) It is used in modern diving apparatus ii) XeF6
C) It is used to provide inert atmosphere for iii) XeF4
filling electrical bulbs
D) Its central atom is in sp 3 d 2 hybridisation iv) Ar
A B C D
1) i iv ii iii
2) i ii iii iv
3) ii i iv iii
4) i iii ii iv
64. Hydrometallurgy is useful ion the extraction of
1) Sn 2) Al 3) Hg 4) Ag
65. Which of the following Lathanoid is Radio active
1) Cerium 2) Promethium 3) Thulium 4) Lutesium
66. The complex  Pt  Py  NH 3  BrCl  will have how many geometrical isomers
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
67. Which one of the following is employed as Antihistamine?
1) Chloramphenicol 2) Diphenyl hydramine 3) Norethindrone 4) Omeprazole

68. The Amino acid containing Indole part is
1) Tryptophan 2) Tryosome 3) Proline 4) Methionine
69. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) Amylopectin is a branched polymer of -glucose
2) Cellulose is a linear polymer of  -glucose
3) Glycogen is the food reserve of plants
4) All protein are polymers of  - amino acids
70. The amine that can react with C6 H 5 SO2 Cl to form a product which is insoluble in alkali shall
be
1) 1° amine 2) 2° amine 3) 3° amine 4) Both 1° and 2° amine
71. Arrange the following acids in the decreasing order of the acidic strength
I) CH  C  COOH II) C6 H 5COOH III) CH 2  CH  COOH IV) CH 3COOH
Choose the correct option
1) I  II  III  IV 2) I  II  III  IV 3) I  III  II  IV 4) I  IV  III  II
72. Identify the product ‘C’ in the series
Na / C2 H 5OH HNO2 PDC
CH 3CN   A 
H 2O
 B  C
1) CH 3COOH 2) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 3) CH 3CHO 4) CH 3CONH 2
73. The order of reactivity of dehydration of alcohol is
1) 1  2  3 2) 1  2  3 3) 1  2  3 4) 1  2  3
74.
1) 2) 3) 4)
75. CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br  NaCN   CH 3CH 2 CH 2CN  NaBr . This reaction will be fastest in
1) Ethanol 2) Methanol
3) N, N ' dimethyl formamide (DMF) 4) Water
76.  
A  2 B  2C  D , initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of A, but the equilibrium
concentration of A and B are found to be equal. The Kc of reaction is
1) 4 2) 8 3) 12 4) 16
77. A basic buffer contains 0.8 mole of NH 4 Cl and 0.2 mole of NH 4OH for litre of a solution. The
K b of base is 1.8 105 , then the pH of the buffer solution is  log1.8  0.2553
1) 2.301 2) 6.345 3) 7.635 4) 8.6532
78. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vaccum. The work done will be
1) 3 Joules 2) 0 3) 9 Joules 4) Infinite
79. The correct order of melting point of IIIA group elements is
1) B  Al  Ga  In  Tl 2) B  Al  Tl  Ga  In
3) B  Al  Tl  In  Ga 4) B  Al  In  Tl  Ga

80. The AlO2 ion in a aqueous solution exists as
   
1)  Al  OH 4  2)  Al  OH 4 H 2O  3)  Al  OH 6  4)  Al  OH  4  H 2O  2 

81. Which of the following is incorrect for Group 14 elements
1) The stability of dihalides are in the order CX 2  SiX 2  GeX 2  SnX 2  PbX 2
2) The ability to form p-p multiple bonds among themselves increases down the group
3) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group
4) They all form oxides with the formula MO2
82. TLV values of four pollutants A, B , C and D are 2ppm, 9 ppm, 20 ppm and 50 ppm. Among
these four pollutants which one is the most toxic pollutant?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
83. The amount of oxygen required for healthy growth of plants and animals in water is
1) 1-2mg/ml 2) 4-6mg/litre 3) 4-6 g/Lit 4) 1-2 g/ml
84. N 2 g   2O2 g   2 NO2  x KJ
2 NO g   O2 g   2 NO2 g   y KJ
The enthalpy of formation of NO is
1 1
1) x  y 2)  x  y  3)  y  x 4)  2 x  2 y 
2 2
C2 H 5
|
85. The correct IUPAC name of CH 3  C  CH 2  Cl
|
C2 H 5
1) 1-chloro – 2,2-diethyl-2-methyl ethane 2) 1-chloro-2,2-diethyl propane
3) 1-chloro – 2- ethyl-2-methyl butane 4) 1-chloro – 2,2-diethyl propane
86. Among the following which has L-configuration
1) 2)
3) 4)
87. Most stable carbanion is
1) 2) 3) 4)
88. The best method of separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from there mixture is
1) Crystallisation 2) Chromatography 3) Distillation 4) Sublimation

89. What is ‘X’ in the following sequence of reaction?
Na NaOH
X 
1  Y  CaO
 CH 4
H2
2
1) Methanol 2) Methanoic acid 3) Ethanoic acid 4) Methanal

90. Arrange the following alkenes in the descending order of their reactivity with HBr
a) ethene b) propene c) 2-Butene d) 2-methyl-2-Butene
1) a>b>c>d 2) d>c>b>a 3) d>c>a>b 4) a>b>d>c
BIOLOGY
91. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t. rules of nomenclature?
1) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter
2) The specific epithet starts with a small letter
3) Biological names are printed in italics to indicate their latin origin
4) In the biological name – Mangifera indica L., ‘L’ denotes the word ‘Latin’
92. Amphibia belongs to division
1) Tetrapoda 2) Pisces 3) Agnatha 4) Gnathostomata
93. A suitable vector must have :
1) more than one ori for replication
2) many restriction sites of a restriction endonuclease
3) selectable marker genes for identification
4) all of the alnwe
94. In flatworms specialized cells are help in osmoregulation and excretion are
1) Renetti cells 2) Flame cells
3) Nephriedia 4) Cholorogogen cells
95. The parasitic fungi on mustard is
1) Albugo 2) Rhizopus 3) Mucor 4) Agaricus
96. Which connective tissue support frame work for epithelium
1) Areolar tissue 2) Adipose tissue
3) Dense connective tissue 4) Specialized connective tissue
97. Identify the virus and name the structures A and B
1) TMV, A=ssRNA, B=capsid 2) TMV, A=dsRNA, B=capsid

3) TMV, A=capsid, B=ssRNA 4) TMV, A=capsid, B=dsRNA
98. In cockroach blood vessels are purely developed and open into
1) Spongocoel 2) Spinal neurocoel 3) Blastocoel 4) Haemocoel
99. The artificial system of classification gives equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
characters. This is not acceptable as
1) Sexual characters are more easily affected by the environment than vegetative characters
2) Vegetative characters are more easily affected by the environment than sexual characters
3) Both vegetative and sexual characters are equally affected by the environment
4) Neither vegetative nor sexual characters are affected by the environment

100. In frog undigested solid waste moves into the rectum and passes out through
1) Anus 2) Cloaca 3) Vulva 4) Urinogenital opening
101. In the diagram given below, some of the algae have been labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, D and ‘E’.
These algae respectively identified as
1) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus and Laminaria

2) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus and Polysiphonia
3) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Laminaria and Fucus
4) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia and Laminaria
102. Identify the incorrect match
Non – Chordata Chordata
1) Notochord absent Notochord present
2) Heart is ventral Heart is dorsal
3) Ventral nerve cord Dorsal nerve cord
4) Gill slits absent Pharyngeal gill slits present
103. The margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction in the
flowers of
1) Cassia and gulmohar 2) China rose and cotton
3) Calotropis 4) Calotropis and lady’s finger
104. Rennin is
1) Proteolytic enzyme 2) Milk protein 3) Lipolytic enzyme 4) Angiotensinogenase
105. Observe the floral formula given below
Identify the plants which posses the above floral formula

1) Lupinus, Pisum 2) Solanum, Tabacum 3) Lilium, Aloe 4) Brassica, Solanum
106. Gross calorific value of carbohydrates is
1) 4.0 k.cal/g 2) 4.1 k.cal/g 3) 5.65 k.cal/g 4) 9.45 k.cal/g
107. Which of the following is conrid^d as molecular glue?
(a) Alkaline phosphatase 2) Resection endonuciease
3) DNA ligase 4) DNA pqlymerase
108. Match the column-I and II and choose the correct combination from the option given
Column-I Column-II
a) IC 1) EC+IRV
b) EC 2) RV+VC
c) FRC 3) VCERV
d) VC 4) ERV+RV
e) TLC 5) TV+ERV
1) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-2 2) a-5, b-2, c-3, d-1, e-4
3) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-5, e-2 4) a-3, b-5, c-2, d-4, e-1
109. Cyclosporin-A an immuno-suppressive drug is produced by:
1) Aspergillus niger 2) Monascus purpureus
3) Penicillium notatum 4) Trichoderma polysporum

110. Find out correct match
PO2 PCO2
(In mm Hg) (In mm Hg)
Atmospheric air a b
Alveoli c 40
Deoxygenated blood 40 d
Oxygenated blood e 40
Tissue f 45
1) a-104, b-40, c-95, d-45, e-45, f-40 2) a-159, b-40, c-104, d-45, e-95, f-40
3) a-159, b-45, c-104, d-95, e-40, f-45 4) a-159, b-0.3, c-104, d-45, e-95, f-40
111. Which of the following statements are correct for sap wood?
i) It does not help in water conduction
ii) It is light coloured
iii) It is also called alburnum
iv) Its tracheary elements are filled with tannins, resins, oils, gums aromatic compounds and
essential oils
v) It is hard and durable
1) ii, iii 2) i, ii, iii 3) iv, v 4) iii, iv, v
112. Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced from specialized cells in bone marrow are called
1) Myeloblasts 2) Choanocytes
3) Megakaryocytes 4) Sclerocytes
113. According to the Jacob-Monod {lac operon) model of gene regulation, inducer substances in
bacterial cells probably:
1) combine with operator regions, activating the associated operons
2) combine with structural genes, stimulating them to synthesize messenger RNA
3) combine with represser proteins, inactivating them
4) combine with promoter regions, activating RNA Polymerase
114. Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to
1) Ventricular pressure decrease 2) Ventricular pressure increase
3) Atrial pressure increase 4) 2 and 3
115. Mitochondria and chloroplast are
A) Semi-autonomous organelles
B) Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein
synthesis machinery
Which of the following options is correct?
1) Both (A) and (B) are correct 2) (B) is true but (A) is false
3) (A) is true but (B) is false 4) Both (A) and (B) are false

116. Conditional reabsorption of Na , H 2 O takes place in the part of nephron is
1) PCT 2) Henle’s loop 3) DCT 4) Collecting duct
117. Consider the following four statements (1-4) and select the options which includes all the
correct ones only :
a) Transforming principle explained by Griffith was later identified as DNA.
b) Histones are rich in acidic amino acids lysine and arginine.
c) In RNA, every nucleotide has — OH group present at 2-position of ribose.
d) In a dsDNA the two = chains have antiparallel polarity.
1) Statements (b), (c) and (d) 2) Statements (a) and (b)
3) Statements (b) and (d) 4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

118. Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) contains fluid which is almost same as plasma except that it
has
1) High glucose 2) High urea 3) No urea 4) High uric acid
119. A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is
1) 120 2) 480 3) 60 4) 240
120. Following statements related to contractile proteins
I) Actin is a polymer of monomeric G-actins
II) Meromyosin has globular head with short arm and tail
III) Myosin is monomeric protein with meromyosins
1) I, II are correct 2) II, III are correct
3) I, III are correct 4) I, II, III are correct
121. In the graphical representation of Michaelis-Menten kinetics X represents
1
1) Concentration of active mass of the substrate at which the rate of reaction is Vmax
2
1
2) Concentration of enzyme substrate complex at which the rate of reaction is Vmax
2
3) Concentration of product at which the rate of reaction is Vmax
1
4) Concentration of enzyme at which the rate of reaction is Vmax
2
122. Identify the odd one w.r.t for skeletal system
1) Patella – ventrally covers knee
2) Pubic symphysis – ventrally by fibrous cartilage
3) Scapula – Dorsally triangular flat bone
4) Ribs – ventrally attached to thoracic vertebrae
123. Test cross does not involve :
(A) crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait.
(B) crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait.
(C) crossing the F1 hybrid with double recessive genotype.
(D) crossing between two F1 hybrids.
1) A, B and D 2) A, B, C and D 3) B, C and D 4) A, B and C
124. Sterile female with abnormally in XO condition found in
1) Turner’s syndrome 2) Marfan’s syndrome
3) Klinefelter’s syndrome 4) Cri-du-chat syndrome
125. Terminalisation starts during
1) Diplotene 2) Pachytene 3) Leptotene 4) Zygotene

126. Study the given pedigree and identify the given trait
1) Autosomal dominant 2) X-linked dominant 3) Autosomal recessive 4) X-linked recessive

127. Inter flowering period, is' the period between two successive flowering phases. This inter
flowering period is present in which of the following?
1) Wheat and rice 2) Strobilanthus and Bambusa species
3) Mango and apple 4) Radish and carrot
128. Heterogametic male is found in all except
1) Mammals 2) Drosophila 3) Birds 4) Grasshopper
129. Which one is possible for a fully turgid cell?
1) DPD=10 atm, OP=15 atm, TP=5 atm 2) DPD=0.2 atm, OP=0.7 atm, TP=0.5 atm
3) DPD=5 atm, OP=7 atm, TP= 2 atm 4) DPD=0.0 atm, OP=15 atm, TP=15 atm
130. In DNA finger printing, gel-electrophoresis is used for
1) Separation of DNA fragment 2) Digestion of DNA fragment
3) Detection of hybridized DNA segment 4) Transfer of DNA fragments
131. Select the incorrect match
1) Free living bacteria – Azotobacter 2) Symbiotic cyanobacteria – Nostoc
3) Symbiotic prokaryote – Frankia 4) Symbiotic cyanobacteria – Azolla
132. Which of the following genes is defective in patient suffering from SCID
1) Tyrosinase 2) Adinosine deaminase
3) Homogentsic oxidase 4) Galactosidase
133. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
A) Alcohol dehydrogenase i) Magnesium
B) Opening and closing of stomata ii) Potassium
C) PEP-case and RuBisCO iii) Sulphur
D) stabilization of protein structure iv) Zinc
1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
134. Which of the following cells will undergo the second meiotic division
1) Primary spermatocytes 2) Spermatids
3) Secondary spermatocytes 4) Spermatogonia
135. To synthesize one molecule of glucose the requirements of CO2 : ATP : NADPH + H+ in C3
plants and C4 plants are
C3 Plant C4 Plant
CO2 : ATP : CO2 : ATP :
+
NADPH + H NADPH + H+
1) 6 : 30 : 12 6 : 18 : 12
2) 1:5:2 1:3:2
3) 6 : 18 : 12 6 : 30 : 12
4) 1:3:2 1:5:2
136. Formating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestors on either side
of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations is called
1) Cross breeding 2) In breeding
3) Out crossing 4) Interspecific hybridisation
137. The primary acceptor of CO2 in C3 cycle and C4 cycle are respectively
1) RuBP and PEP 2) PEP and RuBP 3) 3-PGA and PEP 4) RuBP and 3-PGA

138. Identify the incorrect for homologous organs
1) Heart of vertebrates 2) Fore limbs of vertebrates
3) Brain of vertebrates 4) Potato and sweet potato
139. Select the wrong match w.r.t respiratory quotient (R.Q):
1) Proteins = 0.9 2) Carbohydrates = 1 3) Tripalmitin = 4 4) Organic acid = >1
140. Scala tymphani, scala media and scala vestibule contains respectively
1) Perilymph, Endolymph, Perilymph 2) Perilymph, Perilymph, Endolymph
3) Endolymph, Perilymph, Perilymph 4) Endolymph, Perilymph, Endolymph
141. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) 2, 4 D i) Herring sperm DNA
B) ABA ii) Bolting
C) Ethylene iii) Stomatal closure
D) GA iv) Weed-free lawns
e) Cytokinins v) Ripening of fruits
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-ii, E-i 2) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-i
3) A-v, B-i, C-iv, D-iii, E-ii 4) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i, E-iv
142. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of
A to D.
1) A-receptor, C-synaptic vasicles 2) B-synaptic connection, D-K+

3) A-neuro transmitter, B-synaptic cleft 4) C-neurotransmitter, B-Ca+2
143. Natural auxins are
1) IAA 2) IBA 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) 2,4-D
144. Statement-I: In neurons, the action potential is generated by influx of sodium ions
Statement-II: Efflux of potassium ions causes depolarisation
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
4) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
145. A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below
i) Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals
ii) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
iii) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
iv) External fertilization is a rule during sexual reproduction
Choose the correct statements from the options below
1) i and iv 2) i and ii 3) ii and iii 4) i and iv

146. The centres for hunger, thirst, satiety and temperature control are present in
1) Epithalamus 2) Hypothalamus
3) Thalamus 4) Mid brain
147. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome
number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seeding will be respectively
1) 12, 24, 12 2) 24, 12, 12
3) 12, 24, 24 4) 24, 12, 24
148. Which of the following is secreted by anterior pituitary which promotes releases of adrenal
cortex hormones?
1) MSH 2) ACTH 3) Prolactin 4) LH
149. Which is wrongly matched
1) Agave – Bubils 2) Penicillium – Conidia
3) Water Hyacinth – Runner 4) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds
150. A-diseases which is due to hyperthyroidism, characterized by enlargement of thyroid gland,
protrusion of eye ball, increases BMR and weight loss is called
1) Exophthalmic goitre 2) Simple goitre 3) Grave’s disease 4) Both 1 and 3
151. Which is right sequence of hydrosere?
1) Phytoplankton —» Rooted submerged plants —» Rooted floating plants —» Reed swamp
2) Phytoplankton —» Rooted floating plants —» Rooted submerged plants —» Reed swamp
3) Phytoplankton —» Reed swamp —» Rooted submerged plants —» Rooted floating plants
4) Reed swamp -» Phytoplankton —» Rooted submerged plants —» Floating plants
152. Seminal plasma is not contributed by
1) Prostate gland 2) Seminal vesicle
3) Bulboure thal gland 4) Bartholin gland
153. Which of the following bryophyte was used in trans-shipment as packing material?
1) Marchantia 2) Sphagnum
3) Funaria 4) Polytrichum
154. Menrache is the state when
1) First parturition takes place 2) First hymen break occurs
3) First ejaculation of semen takes place 4) First menstrual cycle occurs
155. Identify the structures marked as A, B, C, D in the diagrams of dicot and monocot seeds given
below
1) A=Cotyledons, B=Epiblast, C=Root cap, D=Coleoptile

2) A=Cotyledons, B= Root cap, C= Epiblast, D= Coleorrhiza
3) A= Epiblast, B=Coleorrhiza, C= Coleoptile, D= Cotyledons
4) A=Cotyledons, B= Coleorrhiza, C=Root cap, D= Epiblast

I) IUD’s A) Lippes loop
II) Vasectomy B) Males
III) Saheli C) Oral contraceptives
IV) Vaults D) Physical barrier
A B C D
1) I III II IV
2) III IV II I
3) I II III IV
4) I IV III II
157. (a) Universal cell organelle. (b) Composed ofribonucleic acid and protein.
(c) Engine of cell. (d) Mg+2 is essential for their subunit association.
Above statements are related with which of the following organelles/structures?
1) Nucleolus 2) Mitochondria 3) Ribosome 4) Nucleus
158. If a person is suffering from severe male infertility due to very low sperm count, then it can be
treated by
1) GIFT 2) IUF 3) AI 4) ZIFT
159. How many unique gametes could be produced through the independent assortment by an
individual with the genotype AaBBCcDdee?
1) 8 2) 4 3) 2 4) 16
160. In which more individuals acquire mean character value in
1) Stabilising selection 2) Directional selection
3) Disruptive selection 4) Centrifugal selection
161. How many types of genotypes and phenotypes respectively are possible in the ABO-blood
group system in human beings?
1) 4, 6 2) 6, 4 3) 3, 2 4) 2, 3
162. Which one is most widely used for removal of over 99% particulate matter present in the
exhaust from a thermal power plant
1) Scrubber 2) Catalystic converter
3) Electrostatic precipitator 4) Green mufflering
163. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) The petioles in Australian Acacia expands, become green and synthesis food.
(B) Pattern of arrangement of leaves on stem is opposite in sunflower and Alstonia.
(C) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary.
(D) Ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent in Dianthus and Primrose.
(E) In Solanaceae, gynoecium is bicarpellary syncarpous, ovary is superior and placenta are
swollen with many ovules.
1) A and G 2) B only 3) A, C and D 4) E only
164. Statement-I: Increase in the concentration of toxicant in the living organisms 0at successive
trophic levels is called biomagnification
Statement-II: Biomagnification is well known for DDT and mercury
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
4) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
165. The main/prevailing/predominating form in life cycle of Pteridophyta is:
1) gametophyte 2) sporophyte 3) gametes 4) spores
166. How many are associated with ex-situ conservation national parks, seed banks, zoological
parks, wild life sanctuary, wild life safari parks, sacred groove botanical gardens
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3

167. Match the following columns:
Column-I Column-II
A) 174 DNA i) 3.3 109 bp
B)  - phage DNA ii) 4.6  106 bp
C) E.coli DNA iii) 48502 bp
D) Haploid content of human DNA iv) 5386 bases
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i 4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
168. A stable community shows
1) Should not show too-much variation in productive from year to year
2) Should not be resilient to occasional disturbances
3) Should not be resistant to alien species invasion
4) Increased diversity contribute to lesser productivity
169. Identify A, B and C of nucleosome:
1) A=Histone core, B=DNA, C=H1 2) A=DNA, B=Histone octamer, C=H1

3) A=DNA, B=H1, C=Histone octamer 4) A=DNA, B= Histone core, C=H1
170. Which of the following climatic factors inhibit decomposition of detritus
A) Low temperature B) Warm condition C) Aerobic condition D) Anaerobic condition
1) A C 2) A D 3) A B 4) A B C D
171. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of
15 N /15 N :15 N /14 N :14 N /14 N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be
1) 1 : 1 : 0 2) 1 : 4 : 0 3) 0 : 1 : 3 4) 0 : 1 : 7
172. Third trophic level in an ecosystem are
1) Primary producer 2) Primary consumer 3) Primary carnivore 4) Secondary carnivore
173. A semi-dwarf variety of wheat is
1) Sonalika 2) IR-8 3) Triticum 4) Jaya
174. Which of the following is a set of bacterial disease?
1) Cholera, Typhoid and Mumps 2) Diphtheria, Leprosy and Plague
3) Malaria, Mumps and Poliomyelitis 4) Tetanus, Tuberculosis and Measles
175. Phycocolloids are the substances which having capacity to hold water are mainly obtain from:
1) Chlorophyceae 2) Cyanophyceae 3) Rhodophyceae 4) All of these
176. Which one is a correct match?
1) Bhang – Analgesic 2) Cocaine – Opiate narcutics
3) Marphine – Hallucinogen 4) Barbiturate – Sleeping pill
177. Which of the following palindromic sequence is recognized by Eco RI?
1) 2) 3) 4)
178. Identify the incorrect one
1) Physical barrier – mucus membrane, skin 2) Physiological barrier- sweat, sebum, tear
3) Cytokine barrier – inter, leukins, interforns 4) Cellular barriers – T-cells, B-cells, Antibodies
179. Which of the following is correct?
1) A nematode Meloiegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield
2) Nematode infection can be prevented in tobacco plants by RNAi technology
3) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense
4) All of the above
180. The figure given below shown made of action if AIDS virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E
labelled in it
1) A-new viral DNA, B- viral RNA introduced into cell, C-viral DNA incorporated into host
genome, D-viral DNA, E-new viruses produced
2) A- viral DNA incorporated into host genome, B-viral DNA, C- new viral RNA, D- viral RNA
introduced, E-new viruses produced
3) A- viral RNA introduced, B-viral DNA, C-viral DNA incorporated into host genome, D-new
viral RNA, E-new viruses produced
4) A- new DNA introduced, B-viral RNA, C-viral RNA incorporated into host genome, D-new viral
DNA, E-new viruses produced


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
361) 2 362) 1 363) 4 364) 3 365) 3 366) 4 367) 1 368) 3 369) 2 370) 4
371) 2 372) 1 373) 2 374) 1 375) 3 376) 1 377) 1 378) 2 379) 2 380) 3
381) 3 382) 3 383) 3 384) 2 385) 4 386) 2 387) 4 388) 1 389) 2 390) 3
391) 2 392) 1 393) 3 394) 1 395) 1 396) 2 397) 3 398) 4 399) 2 400) 1
401) 3 402) 4 403) 4 404) 2 405) 3
CHEMISTRY
406) 1 407) 2 408) 2 409) 3 410) 4 411) 1 412) 4 413) 2 414) 2 415) 3
416) 1 417) 4 418) 2 419) 4 420) 3 421) 2 422) 1 423) 3 424) 4 425) 2
426) 3 427) 2 428) 1 429) 3 430) 2 431) 1 432) 3 433) 2 434) 1 435) 3
436) 1 437) 4 438) 2 439) 3 440) 4 441) 2 442) 1 443) 2 444) 2 445) 3
446) 2 447) 4 448) 1 449) 3 450) 2
BIOLOGY
451) 4 452) 4 453) 3 454) 2 455) 1 456) 1 457) 1 458) 4 459) 2 460) 2
461) 3 462) 2 463) 2 464) 1 465) 1 466) 2 467) 3 468) 1 469) 2 470) 4
471) 1 472) 3 473) 3 474) 2 475) 3 476) 3 477) 4 478) 3 479) 2 480) 4
481) 1 482) 4 483) 1 484) 1 485) 1 486) 3 487) 3 488) 3 489) 4 490) 1
491) 4 492) 2 493) 4 494) 3 495) 3 496) 3 497) 1 498) 4 499) 3 500) 1
501) 1 502) 3 503) 3 504) 2 505) 2 506) 2 507) 3 508) 2 509) 3 510) 4
511) 1 512) 4 513) 2 514) 4 515) 2 516) 3 517) 3 518) 3 519) 1 520) 1
521) 2 522) 3 523) 2 524) 1 525) 2 526) 1 527) 1 528) 1 529) 3 530) 2
531) 4 532) 3 533) 1 534) 2 535) 3 536) 4 537) 1 538) 4 539) 4 540) 3


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
xy 2
1. An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as t  .
z3
If percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively 1 0 0 , 3 0 0 , 2 0 0 , then percentage error in t is
1) 10 0 0 2) 4 0 0 3) 7 0 0 4) 13 0 0
2. A particle is dropped from height H. At a point its kinetic energy is x times of its potential
energy. Find the speed of the particle at that point ( Reference of P.E is ground)
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
1/ 2  2 g  x  1 H   2 gH   2 gxH 
1)  2gxH  2)   3)   4)  
 x    x  1    x  1 
3. A man moves on his motor bike with 54 Km/h and then takes a U-turn and continues to move
with same velocity. The time of U-turn is 10 S. Find the magnitude of average acceleration
during U-turn
1) 0 2) 3ms 2 3) 1.5 2ms 2 J 4) none
1
4. A body of 2 kg has an intial Speed 5ms . A force acts on it for some time in the direction of
motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body is
1) 9.25ms 1 2) 5ms 1 3) 14.3ms 1 4) 4.25ms 1

5. From the Circular disc of radius 4R two small disc of radius R are cut off. The Centre of mass
of the new structure will be
R R R R 3R ˆ ˆ
1) i
5
j
5
2) i  j
5 5
3)
14
i j  
4) none
6. Two Radioactive substances X and Y emit  and  particles respectively. Their disintegration
constants are in the ratio 2 : 3. To have equal rate of disintegration of getting emission of
 and  particles., the ratio of number of atoms of X to that of Y at any time instant is
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) e : 1 4) (e  1) : 1
7. A uniform rope of mass m and length L is hanged freely from stationary ceiling. If the cross
sectional area of rope is A and Young’s modulus Y, then net elongation in the rope due to its
own weight
mgL mgL mgL mgL

1) 2) 3) 4)
AY 2 AY 3 AY 4 AY

8. Beads A and B each of mass m are connected by a light in extensible cord. They are
constrained (restricted) to move on a frictionless vertical plane as shown. The beads
are released from rest at the position shown. The tension in the cord just after the release is
mg
1) 2mg 2) mg 3) 4) 2 mg
2
9. A uniform thin bar of mass 6 m and length 12 L is bent to make a regular hexagon. Its
moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the
plane of the hexagon is
12 2
1) 20mL2 2) 6mL2 3) mL 4) 30mL2
5
10. The force 7i  3 j  5k acts on a particle whose Position Vector is iˆ  ˆj  kˆ . What is the torque
ˆ ˆ ˆ
For the given force about the origin?
1) 2iˆ  12 ˆj  10kˆ 2) 2iˆ  10 ˆj  12kˆ 3) 2iˆ  10 ˆj  10kˆ 4) 10iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ

11. What will be time period of the displaced body of mass m?
m 3m 3m 3m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 
2k k 2k k
12. For a Satellite escape Velocity is 11 km/s. If the Satellite is launched at an angle of 600 with the
vertical, then escape velocity will be
1) 11km / s 2) 5.5 3km / s 3) 11/ 3km / s 4) 5.5km / s
13. A shell of mass M and radius R has a point mass m placed at a distance ‘r’ from its centre.
The gravitational potential energy U  r  verses ' r ' will be
1) 2)
3) 4)
14. Weight of a body is measured by a beam balance. Using standard brass weights. If the air
buoyancy is neglected fractional error arises in the measurement is ( given density of brass,
air and the object are 8gm / cc, 0.0012gm / cc and3.4gm / cc respectively)
1) 2 101 2) 2 102 3) 2 103 4) 2 104
15. Two identical long solid cylinders are used to conduct heat from temp T1 to T2. Originally the
cylinders are connected in series and the rate of heat transfer is H. If the cylinders are
connected in parallel then the rate of heat transfer would be
H
1) 2) 2H 3) 4H 4) 8H
4
16. The radiation emitted by a star A is 10000 times that of the sun. If the surface temperatures of
the sun and star A are 6000 k and 2000 k respectively, the ratio of the radii of the star A and
the sun is
1) 300 : 1 2) 600 : 1 3) 900 : 1 4)1200 : 1
0 o
17. One kilogram of ice at 0 C is mixed with one kilogram of water at 80 C . The final
temperature of the mixture is
(take specific heat of water = 4200Jkg 1k 1 ) (latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
1) 400 c 2) 600 c 3) 00 c 4) 500 c
2 C 3
18. In an adiabatic process where in pressure is increased by 0 0 if p  , then the volume
3 Cv 2
decreases by about
4 2 9
1) 0 0 2) 0 0 3) 4 0 0 4) 0 0
9 3 4
0
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of 13 c . The co-efficient of performance
of the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) will be
1) 325o c 2) 325k 3) 39o c 4) 320o c
20. Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 kms-1 respectively. The value of rms speed of
the molecules is (in kms-1)
15 15
1) 2) 2 15 3) 4) none
2 2
21. A glass tube 1.5 m long and open at both ends, is immersed vertically in a water tank
completely. A tuning fork of 660Hz is vibrated and kept at the upper end of the tube and the
tube is gradually raised out of water. The total number of resonances heard before the tube
comes out of water , taking velocity of sound in air 330 m/sec is
1) 12 2) 6 3) 8 4) 4
22. A table is revolving on its axis at 5 revolutions per second. A sound of frequency 1000Hz is
fixed on the table at 70 cm from the axis. The minimum frequency heard by a listener
standing at a distance from the table will be (speed of sound = 352 m/s)
1) 1000 Hz 2) 1066 Hz 3) 941 Hz 4) 352 Hz
1
23. Two Convex lenses of powers 4D and 6D are separated by a distance of m . The power of the
6
optical system so formed is
1) -6 D 2) +6 D 3) 10 D 4) 2 D
24. In a compound microscope , the focal lengths of two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm an object is
placed at 2 cm from objective and the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The
distance between the two lenses is
1) 6.00 cm 2) 7.75 cm 3) 9.25 cm 4) 11.00 cm

25. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow prism filled with a certain liquid is found to be
300. The light ray is also found to be refracted at angle of 300. The refractive index of the
liquid is
3 3
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 2
26. If a transparent medium of refractive index   1.5 and thickness t  2.5 105 m is inserted
in
front of one of the slits of Young’s Double slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the
interference pattern. The distance between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and
screen is 100 cm.
1) 5 cm 2) 2.5 cm 3) 0.25 cm 4) 0.1 cm
27. Conditions of diffraction is ( a= size of the object / aperture ,   wave length of light)
a a a
1)  1 2)  1 3)  1 4) none of these
  
28. An infinite number of charges , each of charge 1c are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates
x=1,2,4,8,….  . If a charge of 1C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1C
charge
1) 9000 N 2) 12000 N 3) 24000 N 4) 36000 N
29. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
different di-electric materials having di-electric constants k1 , k 2 and k3 as shown. If a single
di-electric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its
di-electric constant k is given by
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 kk
1)    2)   3) k  1 2  2k3 4) k  k1  k2  2k3
k k1 k2 2k3 k k1  k 2 2k3 k1  k 2
30. In the figure a potential of +1200 V is given to point A and point B is earthed, What is the
potential at the point P?
1) 100 V 2) 200 V 3) 400 V 4) 600 V

31. The equivalent resistance between the points P and Q in the network given here is equal to
3
(given r = )
2
1 3
1)  2) 1 3)  4) 2
2 2

32. A Voltmeter having a resistance of 998 ohm is connected to a cell of emf 2 volt and internal
resistance 2 ohms. The error in the measurement of emf will be
1) 4 10 1 volt 2) 2 10 3 volt 3) 4 10 3 volt 4) 2 10 1 volt

33. What should be the value of resistance R in the circuit shown in figure so that the electric
bulb consumes the rated power?
1) 4.5 2) 6 3) 12 4) none

34. Two wires AO and OC carry equal currents i as shown in figure. One end of both the wire
extends to infinity. Angle AOC is  . The magnitude of magnetic field at a point P on the
bisector of these two wires at a distance r from point O is
 
 1  cos 
 i   i   i 2  i 
1) o cot   2) o cot   3) o  4) o  
2 r 2 4 r 2 2 r sin  4 r  2 
2
35. A long straight metal rod has a very long hole of radius ‘a’ drilled parallel to the rod axis as
shown in figure. If the rod carries a current I, find the magnetic field on axis of hole. Given c
is the centre of the hole and OC = c
 0ic  0ic 0i  b 2  a 2  0 ic

1) 2) 3) 4)
 b2  a 2  2  b 2  a 2  2c 2b 2
36. The   1 / T  graph for an alloy of paramagnetic nature is shown in figure. The Curie
Constant is, then
1) 57 k 2) 2.8 103 k 3) 570 k 4) 17.5 103 k

37. An air core solenoid has 1000 turns and is one meter long. Its cross-sectional area is 10 cm2.
Its self-inductance is
1) 0.1256 mH 2) 12.56 mH 3) 1.256 mH 4) 125.6 mH
38. A Virtual Current of its 4A and 50 Hz flows in an AC circuit containing a coil. The power
consumed in the coil is 240 W. If the Virtual Voltage across the coil is 100 Vits inductance will
be
1 1 1 1
1) H 2) H 3) H 4) H
3 5 7 9
39. The power factor of a good choke coil is

1) Nearly zero 2) Exactly zero 3) Nearly one 4) Exactly one
40. In an electromagnetic wave, the average energy density associated with magnetic field is
Li02 B2 0 B 2 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 0 2 2B 2
41. According to Einstein`s Photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is
1) 2)
3) 4)
42. The log   log E graph between the energy E of an electron and its de-Brogile wavelength
 will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
43. Oribital acceleration of electron is

n2h2 n 2 h2 4n 2 h 2 4n 2 h 2
1) 2 2 3 2) 3) 4)
4 m r 2n 2 r 3 2 m 2 r 3 42 m 2 r 3

44. The circuit shown in following figure contains two diode D1 and D2 each with a forward
resistance of 50 ohm and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the
current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is
1) zero 2) 0.020 3) 0.03 4) 0.036

45. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of truth table it can be found that to
produce a high out put (1) at R, we must have
1) x  0; y  1 2) x  1; y  1 3) x  1; y  0 4) x  0; y  0
CHEMISTRY
46. The strength of bond formed by overlapping of atomic orbitals is in order
1) s  s  s  p  p  p 2) s  s  p  p  s  p
3) s  p  s  s  p  p 4) p  p  s  s  s  p
3 3 2
47. The molecule which possess both sp and sp d hybridisation is
1) solid PCl5 2) gaseous PCl5 3) PCl4 4) PCl6
48. Which of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation energy of
O2 , O2 , O2 and O22  ?
1) O2  O2  O2  O22 2) O2  O2  O2  O22 
3) O2  O2  O2  O22  4) O2  O2  O2  O22 
49. Ethers are more volatile than alcohols having same molecular formula. This is due to
1) Intermolecular H-bonding in ethers 2) Intermolecular H-bonding in alcohols
3) Dipolar character of ethers 4) Resonance structure in alcohols
50. A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formulae containing five
ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of
this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution and on reacting with excess of
AgNO3, AgCl precipitate. The ionic formula for thiscomplex would be
1) Co  NH 3 5  NO2   Cl2 2) Co  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl  NO2  
3) Co  NH 3 4  NO2  Cl2  Cl 4) Co  NH 3 5   NO2  2 Cl2 
51. Amongst TiF62 , CoF63Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42 (atomic number Ti=22,Co=27,Cu=29,Ni=28). The
colourless species are
1) CoF63 andNiCl42  2) TiF62 andCoF63
3) Cu2 Cl2 andNiCl42  4) TiF62  andCu2Cl2

52. A sample of water containing some dissolved table sugar and common salt is passed through
organic ion exchange resins. The resulting water will be
1) tasteless 2) Sweet 3) Salty 4) none of these
53. The function of fluorspar in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
( Na3 AIF6 ) is
1) as a catalyst
2) to lower the fusion temperature of the Alumina
3) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode
4) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the cathode
54. Which of the following metals behave different than that of others when react with very dilute
Nitric acid?
1) Iron 2) Copper 3) Zinc 4) Tin
55. A green coloured solution of some salt changes its colour to light pink on passing ozone
through it. Which of the following species represent pink and green colour respectively?
1) Mn 2  andMnO2 2) MnO42  andMnO4 3) MnO4 andMnO42  4) Cu  andCu 2
56. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, the products
obtained are
1) Cl   ClO  2) Cl   ClO2 3) Cl   ClO3 4) Cl   ClO4
57. Match the shape to the formula. Which pairing is incorrect?
1) XeO3 = trigonal planar 2) XeO2 F2  see  saw
 
3)  XeF3   T shape 4)  XeF5   distorted pentagonal bipyramidal
58. The elements which occupy the peaks of ionization energy curve are
1) Na, K , Rb, Cs 2) Na, Mg , Cl , I 3) Cl , Br , I , F 4) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
59. When sodium metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, blue colour solution is formed. The blue
colour is due to
1) Solvated Na+ ions 2) Solvated electrons
3) Solavated NH 2 ions 4) Solvated protons
60. An organic compound A  C4 H 9Cl  on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon,
which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. A is
1) t-butyl chloride 2) s- butyl chloride
3) Iso butyl chloride 4) n- butyl chloride
61. The product (Y) of the following sequence of the reactions would be
Me OH
(i) CHCl3/NaOH/heat Br2/Fe Br3
+ X Y
(ii) H3O
1) 2)

3) 4)
62. End product of the following sequence of reaction is
O
O
1) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , COOH 2) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , CHO
O
COOH
COOH
3) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , 4) Yellow ppt of CHI3 ,
63. Which one of the following reacts with HCN and Tollens reagent, but is not oxidised by
Fehling`s solution?
1) Methanal 2) Ethanal 3) Benzaldehyde 4) Acetone
64. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is
1)  CH 3  2 NH   CH 3 3 N  CH 3 NH 2 2) CH 3 NH 2   CH 3 3 NH   CH 3 3 N
3)  CH 3 3 N   CH 3  2 NH  CH 3 NH 2 4)  CH 3 3 N  CH 3 NH 2   CH 3 2 NH
65. Epimers are pair of diastereoisomeric compounds. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers
which differ in configuration at position
1) C5 2) C2 3) C4 4) C3
Ka Ka
66. The p 1 and p 2 of an amino acid are 2.3 and 9.7 respectively. The isoelectric point of the
amino acid is
1) 6.0 2) 3.7 3) 12.0 4) 7.4
67. Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than in rural areas. This is due to the
presence of
1) CO2 2) N 2 3) CFC 4) SO2
68. Streptomycin,a well-known antibiotic, is a derivative of
1) peptides 2) carbohydrates 3) purines 4) Terpenes
H 2 / Pd  BaSO4 C  2 / H 2O
69. CH  CH  Quinoline
 A   B ‘B’ is
1) C2 H 4C 2 2) C2 H 5C  3) CHC  3 4) C   CH 2  CH 2  OH
Conc . HI anhydrousHI
70. B  mix  
2 moles
  CH 3 3 C  O  CH 3 1mole
 A  mix 
1) A and B are identical mixture of CH 3 I and  CH 3 3 C  OH
2) A and B are identical mixture of CH 3OHand  CH 3 3 C  I
3) A is a mixture of CH 3 Iand  CH 3 3 C  OH B is a mixture of CH 3OHand  CH 3 3 C  I
4) none of these

71. Which one of the following species is most stable
1) p  O2 N  C6 H 4  CH 2 2) p  CH 3O  C6 H 4  CH 2
3) p  Cl  C6 H 4  CH 2 4) C6 H 5  CH 2
72. Copper matte is a molten mixture of
1) Cu2O  Little FeS 2) Cu2 S  Little FeO
3) Cu2O  Little FeO 4) Cu2 S  Little FeS
73. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is
OH
1) 3  1  Methylethenyl   4  hydroxypen tan  2  one

2) 3  1  Hydroxyethyl   4  methylpent  4  en  2  one
3) 3  1  Hydroxymethyl   4  methylenepen tan  2  one
4) 3  1  Oxoethyl   4  methylpent  4  en  2  ol
74. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5 H10 yields acetone as one of the product
on ozonolysis?
1) 3-methyl-1-butene 2) cyclopentane 3) 2-methyl-1-butene 4) 2-methyl-2-butene
75. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 2-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
76. Which one of the following is used to make ‘non-stick’ cookware?
1) PVC 2) Polystyrene
3) Polyethylene terephthalate 4) Polytetrafluoroethylene
77. The speed of a photon is one-hundredth of the speed of light in vacuum. What is the
de Brogile wavelength? Assume that one mole of photons has a mass equal to one gram
[h=6.626 x 10-27 erg .sec]
1) 3.3110 3 A0 2) 1.33 103 A0 3) 3.13 102 A0 4) 1.3110 2 A0
1
78. Two gaseous equilibria SO2 g   O2 g   SO3 g  and 2SO3 g   2SO2 g   O2 g  have equilibrium
2
constants K1 and K2 respectively at 298 K. which of the following relationships between K1
and K2 is correct?
1 1
1) K1  K 2 2) K 2  K12 3) K 2  2 4) K 2 
K1 K1
79. The rate constant of the reaction
2 H 2O2 (aq)  2 H 2O (l )  O2 ( g ) is 3 x 10-3 min-1
At what concentration of H2O2, the rate of the reaction will be 2 x 10-4 Ms-1?
1) 6.67 x 10-2 (M) 2) 2 (M) 3) 4 (M) 4) 0.08 (M)
80. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+BC+D, the following kinetic data were obtained in
three separate experiments, all at 298 K
The rate law for the formation of C is

dc dc 2 dc 2 dc
1)  k  A B  2)  k  A  B  3)  k  A B  4)  k  A
dt dt dt dt
81. The standard reduction potential for Cu 2 / Cu is +0.34 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14
 Cu is  K sp Cu  OH  2   1.0  1020 
for Cu 2  2e  
1) - 0.25 V 2) + 0.25 V 3) -0.34 V 4) +0.34 V
82. The behavior of a real gas is usually depicted by plotting compressibility factor Z versus P at
a constant temperature. At high temperature and high pressure,Z is usually more than one.
This fact can be explained by vander Waals equation when
1) the constant ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’ 2) the constant ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’
3) both constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are negligible 4) both the constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are not negligible
83. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5 . The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which
50 0 0 of the acid is ionized is
1) 4.5 2) 2.5 3) 9.5 4) 7.0
84. An element crystallizes in fcc lattice having edge length 350 pm. Maximum radius of the atom
which can be placed in the interstitial site without distorting the structure is
1) 58.55 pm 2) 117 pm 3) 51.23 pm 4) 83 pm

85. The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of Cl ions in rock salt structure are
1) occupied by Na+ ions 2) occupied by Cl  ions
3) occupied by either Na+ or Cl  ions 4) vacant
86. Following data has been given for CO2 for the concentration in H2O
Temperature Henrys constant Pressure

273K 600atm 0.30 atm
333K 3400atm P2
If solution of CO2 in H2O is heated from 273 to 333 k, pressure(p2) needed to keep CO2 in
the solution is
1) 0.108 atm 2) 1.7 atm 3) 0.212 atm 4) 0.468 atm
o
87. A solution of urea (molar mass 60) boils at 100.18 C at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for
water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at
1) -6.54oC 2) 6.54oC 3) -0.654oC 4) 0.654oC
88. Which of the following is contributed towards the extra stability of lyophilic colloids?
1) Hydration 2) charge 3) colour 4) Tyndall effect
89. If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water, then what is the increase in entropy
1) 43.4 J/mol 2) 87.2 J/mol 3) 900 J/mol 4) zero
90. Smelting of iron ore takes place through this reaction
2 Fe2 O3  s   3C  s   4 Fe  s   3CO2  g 
H of of Fe2 O3 and CO2 are -8242 kJ/mol and -393.7 kJ/mol
The reaction is
1) Endothermic 2) Exothermic 3) H  0 4) none of these
BIOLOGY
91. Organisms that fix nitrogen in aquatic habitats are
1) Brown algae 2) Green algae 3) Cyanobacteria 4) All of these
92. Which of one following events do not take place during normal inspiration in human?
1) Upward and outward movement of ribs and sternum
2) Contraction of phrenic muscles
3) Increased intra pulmonary pressure
4) Decreased intra pulmonary pressure
93. The number of NADH molecules per glucose molecules taken electrons to the ETS is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 10
94. Incorrect statement from the following regarding conducting part of human respiratory
system is
1) Transports the atmospheric air to alveoli
2) Clears the air from foreign particles
3) Humidifies and also brings the air to body temperature
4) Initial bronchioles are not supported by C- shaped cartilaginous rings
95. Identify the correct order of below pictures
a) b) c) d) e)
1) Fucus, Porphyra,Dictyota, Laminaria,Polysiphonia
2) Polysiphonia, Fucus, Laminaria, Porphyra, Dictyota
3) Laminaria, Polysiphonia, Fucus, Dictyota, Porphyra
4) Porphyra, Fucus, Laminaria, Dictyota, Polysiphonia
96. Chronic respiratory disorder that reduces the respiratory surface is
1) Asthma 2) Bronchitis 3) Emphysima 4) Pneumonia
97. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
1) Addition of preservatives to the product
2) Purification of product
3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
98. Statement – I :- Atria and ventricles never contract together
Statement- II :- Myocardium of atria and ventricles is separated by fibrous skeleton
1) Both S –I and S –II are correct 2) S- I is incorrect and S- II are correct
3) If S- I is correct but S- II is incorrect 4) If both the S- I and S- II are incorrect
99. Which cross yields red,white and pink flowers variety of dog flower
1) RR x Rr 2) Rr x RR 3) Rr x Rr 4) Rr x rr
100. Which of the following activity is not related to stomach in adults?
I. Digestion of carbohydrates II. Formation of chyme
III. Formation of chyle IV. Presence of Rennin in the gastric juice
1) I, II only 2) I, III only 3) I, III, IV 4) I, II, III
101. At the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis there are
1) Bivalents 2) Single chromosomes
3) Unpaired duplicated chromosomes 4) Always 23 chromosomes
102. Match the following and find out the correct combination
Column – I Column- II
A. Duodenum I. Outer layer of GIT
B. Stomach II. Hepatic lobule
C. Serosa III. C. Shaped
D. Glisson’s capsule IV. J. Shaped
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) III IV I II
3) III IV II I 4) IV III I II
Choose the correct pair.
Plant Type of Parasite Haustorial Connection
I. Viscum Partial with only xylem of host stem
II. Santalum Partial with phloem of the host root
III. Orabanche Complete with xylem and phloem of host root
IV. Cuscuta Complete with xylem and phloem of host root
1) only II & III 2) only I &III 3) only I & IV 4) onlyIII & IV

104. How many of the following statements are not correct regarding bile salts?
A. Emulsification of lipids
B. activation of lipases
C. Synthesized in the gall bladder
D. Activation of amylases
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
105. Which one of the following pairs are wrongly matched
I) Water hyacinth— runner
II) Penicillium --- conidia
III) Bryophyllum --- sucker
IV) Agave --- bulbils
1) only II & III 2) only I & III 3) only I & IV 4)only III & IV
106. Which of the following matches correctly?
1) Factor II – Hageman Factor 2) Factor III – Prothrombin
3) Factor VIII – Antihaemophilic factor 4) Factor XII – Thromboplastin
107. List-I List-II
A. Hydrilla I. Astrosclereids
B. Eichhornia II. Spongy respiratory roots
C. Nymphaea III. Poorly developed roots
D. Jussiaea IV. Runner
V. Spongy stem
The correct match is
A B C D
1) II IV I III
2) III IV I II
3) V II III IV
4) III V I II
108. Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in
1) Myocardeal infarction 2) Cardiac arrest
3) Hypotension 4) Heart failure
109. Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by
1) Alternaria solani 2) Ustilago nuda 3) Puccinia graminis 4) Xanthomonas oryzae
110. High threshold substances of renal fluid are absorbed
1) Passively by PCT 2) Actively by PCT 3) Passively by DCT 4) Actively by DCT
111. One of the important evolutionary features of alternation of generation from thallophyta to
Spermatophyta is:
1) Gradual elaboration of gametophyte
2) Gradual elaboration of sporophyte
3) Gradual reduction of gametophyte and sporophyte
4) Gradual reduction of sporophyte and elaboration of gametophyte

112. Which of the following nitrogenous waste plays a role in osmotic gradient of medullary fluid?
1) Ammonia 2) Urea 3) Uric acid 4) All the above
113. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the synthesis of alpha amylase ?
1) ABA 2) IAA 3) Ethylene 4) GA3
114. The organ of corti is a structure located on the: -
1) Reissner’s membrane 2) Basilar membrane
3) Tectorial membrane 4) Scala vestibuli
115. Choose the correct statements
1) The separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining DNA with Ethidium
bromide.
2) Retrovirus in animals have the ability to transform normal cell into cancerous cell.
3) Plasmids that carry genes to provide resistance to antibiotics are R- plasmids.
4) cDNA- mRNA hybrids are made by using reverse transcriptase
1) only 1&2 2) only 2&3 3) only 1, 2 &4 4) 1,2,3&4
116. Large area of cerebral cortex which neither sensory nor motor is
1) Broca’s area 2) Wernike’s area 3) Association area 4) Somaesthetic area
117. An organism with two copies of the same allele is
1) Heterologous for the allele 2) Homologous for the trait
3) Heterozygous for the trait 4) Homologous for the allele
118. Arthritis is inflammation in
1) Bones 2) Muscles 3) Joints 4) Cartilages
119. Endomembrane system includes
1) ER, Golgi body , Chloroplast 2) ER, Lysosomes,Mitochondria
3) Golgi body, Vacuole, Nucleosome 4) ER, Golgi body, Lysosomes and Vacuole
120. In the center of A is an elastic fibre called B. The thin filaments are firmly attached to the C.
Find out A, B,C respectively.
1) I band, Z line, Z line 2) A band, Z line, M line
3) a band, M line, Z line 4) I band, M line, Z line
121. Select the correct statement from the following
1) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle.
3) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is pure methane
4) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria
122. Hyposecretion of thyroxine in adults can lead to
1) Grave’s disease 2) Tetany 3) Cretinism 4) Myxoedema
123. In the cross RrTt x rrtt
1) 25% will be tall with round seeds 2)All the offsprings will be tall with round seeds
3) 50% will be tall with round seeds 4)75%will be tall with round seeds
124. Choose the incorrect statement
a) all mammals are monocondylic
b) all cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fins
c) all reptiles have three chambered heart
d) all pisces do not have gills covered by operculum
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a and c 4) c and d
125. Which of the following RNA has the highest molecular weight ?
1) t RNA 2) m RNA
3) r RNA 4) All RNAs have the same molecular weight

126. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both mouth as
well as anus is
1) Octopus 2) Asterias 3) Ascidia 4) Fasciola
127. Endosperm may completely be consumed by the developing embryo before in maturation in
1) Coconut 2) Datura
3) Pea & Groundnut 4) Castor, Pea and Groundnut
128. Which of the following statements about all the four of spongilla, leech,dolphin and penguin
is correct?
1) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining are poikilothermic
2) All leeches is a fresh water form while the remaining marine
3) Spongilla has special collared cells called Choanocytes not found in the remaining three
4) All are bilaterally symmetrical
129. If 30% of an organism’s DNA is thymine, then
1) 20% is guanine 2) 30% is adenine
3) Both 1 & 2 are correct 4)70% is purine
130. Find out the incorrect statement from the following
1) Epithelia consists of three types of cell junction i.e tight junctions, adhering junction gap junction
2) In all the connective tissues the cells secrete collagen or elastic fibres except blood
3) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults
4) Neuroglia make up less than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body
131. Substrate level phosphorylation takes place in
1)Electron transport system and transition reaction
2)Krebs cycle and transition reaction
3)Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
4) Glycolysis and ETS
132. Bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by
1) Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium
2) Stratified non keratinized squamous epithelium
3) Simple squamous epithelium
4) Ciliated epithelium
133. Hydrophyte with ribbon shaped leaves shows which type of contrivance for cross pollination
among the following ?
1) Dichogamy 2) Dicliny 3) Herkogamy 4) Diheterostyly
134. The basal podomere present in the leg of cockroach is
1) Cardo 2) Coxa 3) Tarsus 4) Scape
135. Which of the following combinations are correct for wheat ?
1) Genus: Triticum, Family: Anacardiaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae
2) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Dicotyledonae
3) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Sapindales, Class: Monocotyledonae
4) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae
136. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
1) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to of the fallopian tube
2 ) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the
cervix
3) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hours of release of ovum in the uterus
4) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube

137. Which of the following diagram represents a molecule of simple lipid ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
138. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
column-I column-II
I. Fertilization a. Isthmus of oviduct
II. Cleavage b. Later part of oviduct
III. Morula c. Cervix
IV. Blastocyst d. Ampulla of oviduct
V. Parturtion e. Uterine wall
1) I-d,II-a,III-b,IV-c,V-e 2) I-b,II-a,III-d,IV-c,V-e
3) I-b,II-a,III-e,IV-d,V-c 4) I-d,II-a,III-b,IV-e,V-c
139. In a type of apomixes known as adventives embryony, embryos develop directly from the
1) Nucellus or integuments 2) Synergids or antipodals in an embryosac
3) Accessory embryosacs in the ovule 4) Zygote
140. The family planning programmers to attain total reproductive health were initiated in the
year
1) 1971 2) 1951 3) 1981 4) 1941
141. C4 acid , formed in the metophycel of C4 plants leaf during photosynthesis is .
1) OOA Malic acid 2) Pyruvic acid 3) Succinic acid 4) Fumeric acid
142. The transfer of zygote or early embryos upto 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube is
1) GIFT 2) IUT 3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
143. If a Nerium plant consists of 33 leaves on its stem ( three leaves at each node) how many nodes
and internodes are presents respectively
1) 10, 11 2) 11, 10 3) 11, 11 4) 33, 32
144. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the
probability of their son being colour blind is
1) 0 2) 0.5 3) 0.75 4) 1
145. The basis for the preparation of Chromosomal maps
1) Dominant and recessive characters 2) Mutations
3) Homozygosity 4) Linkage & Recombinations
146. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion
which can be drawn for the character
1) the female parent is heterozygous

2) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
3) The trait understudy could not be colour blindness
4) The male parent is homozygous dominant

147. Consider the following statements.
A) All enzymes require an additiona chemical component called cofactor or co enzyme for
their catalytic function
B) The CO factor for RUBISCO is Mg 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.
1) A only 2) B only 3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
148. Sugar glider doen’t show adaptive radiation with
1) Kangaroo 2) Tiger cat 3) Flying squirrel 4) Both 1 and 2
149. S –I :- Selective markers in plasmids are used to identify recombination from non-recombinants.
S-II : -In genetic engineering, the antibioties are used as selectable markers.
1) S-I & S-II are correct 2) S –I & S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct ,S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is correct , S-II is correct
150. Which of the following was not explained by Darwin?
1) Arrival of the fittest 2) Survival of the fittest
3) Struggle for existence 4) Over reproduction
151. What feature in prokaryotes substitutes for the spindle action in eukaryotes ?
1) Looped DNA 2) Elongation of plasma membrane
3) Centrioles with asters 4) Fission instead of cytokinesis
152. Mark the Incorrect combination regarding origin of various stages of human evolution
1) Dryopithecus – 15 mya 2) Home erectus – in 1891
3) Homo sapiens – 75000 ya 4) Australopithecus – 2 mya
153. Myxotrophic nutrition occurs in
1) Paramecium 2) Euglena 3) Plasmodium 4) Amoeba
154. Which of the following sets of disease is caused by bacteria?
1) Tuberculosis and Tetanus 2) Typhoid and typhus fever
3) Herpes and Influenza 4) kala azar and small pox
155. Bacteria that get their energy by fermentation and from whom oxygen is lethal are called
1) Obligate aerobes 2) Obligate anaerobes
3) Facultative anaerobes 4) Facultative aerobes
Column – I Column- II
A. Benign tumor I. Metastasis
B. Contact inhibition II. Non- invading
C. Malignant tumor III. Normal cells
A B C
1) III I II
2) II III I
3) I II III
4) II I III
157. Identify the set which has all organisms. Used in biological control of pests.
1) Triochoderma, Nucleo polyhedrovirus, Bacillus thuringiesis , ladybind
2) Dragon fly, Bacillus thuringiensis, ladybird ,Aphids
3) Lady bird , Penicillium , Baculoviruses , Aspergillus
4) Trichoderma , Aspergillus, Bacillus thuringiensis , Nucleopolyhedrovirus
158. Hisardale is developed by a cross between
1) Jack and Mare 2) Stallion and Jennet
3) Sahiwal and Nageri 4) Bikaneri ewe & Marino ram
159. Select the mismatch.
1) Cycas –Dioecious 2) Salvinia –Heterosporus
3) Equisetum –Homosporous 4) Pinus –Dioecious
160. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to MOET
1) It has been demonstrated for cow, sheep, mare buffaloes etc
2) It is used to increase herd size in short time
3) The fertilized eggs are recovered non surgically and transferred to genetic mother
4) In this method a cow is administered hormones with FSH like activity

161. Which of the following should not be associated with electron transport system ?
1) Movement of protons into the thylakoid space
2) Absorption of solar energy
3) Cytochromes 4) Formation of ATP
162. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of
1) Escherischia coli 2) Micobacterium tuberculosis
3) Rhizobium 4) Aspergillus niger
163. Which one is correct about Atlas 66 ?
1) It has high protein content
2) It has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
164. Sabin vaccine is
1) IPV 2) MMR 3) BCG 4) OPV
165. The Polymerase Chain Reaction
1) Quickly amplifies the small samples of DNA
2) Is involved in the production of transgenic organisms
3) Is used to make literally billions of copies in only a few hours
4) Starts with one gene sized piece of RNA
1) only 1,2 and 3 are correct 2) only 1 and 2 are correct
3) only 2 and 4 are correct 4) only 1 and 3 are correct
166. Some species regulate but only over a limited range of environmental conditions are example
of
1) Regulation 2) Conformers 3) Partial regulators 4) Partial conformers
167. Read the following four statements and select the right option having both correct statements
I) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only
II) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
III) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in synthesis of ATP and NADPH
IV Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP reductase
1) only II & IV 2) only I & II 3) only II & III 4) onlyIII & IV
168. Standing crop is measured as the
1) Mass of living organisms in a unit area 2) Number of organisms in a unit area
3) Energy of organism in a unit area 4) Both 1 & 2
169. Find out the False statements from the following.
I. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins called a
biofortification.
II. The antibiotic Penicillin was discovered by Waksman.
III. Germplasm collection is the entire collection having all the diverse alleles for all genes in
a given crop.
IV. The fungi which caused diseases in insects are known as insecticidal fungi.
V. Heterotrophic bacteria helpful to human in making curd from milk.
VI. Another name for ectomycorrhizal fungi is vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizal fungus.
VII. Free living anaerobic nitrogen fix ing bacteria is Rhizobium.
1) III VI IV VII 2) II IV VI VII
3) I II III IV 4) III V VI VII
170. For many taxonomic groups, species inventories are more complete in
1) Tropical region 2) Temperate region 3) Arctic region 4) Antarctic region
171. Casparian strips affect
1) Minerals but not water movement
2) Water and minerals movement into vascular cylinder
3) Water but not minerals movement
4) Neither the flow of water nor the flow of minerals into plant

172. Large ecosystem is called
1) Biome 2) Ecotone 3) Community 4) Ecosphere
173. Which statements are correct?
a. Degenracy of code is related to third member of codon
b . Single codon, codes for more than one amino acid
c. In codon, first two bases are more specific
d. In codons, third base is wobble e. Code is universal
1) a, b, c, d, e 2) Only a, b, d 3) Only a, c, d 4) Only a, c, d, e
174. An example of sexual deceit is
1) Barnacle & Whale 2) Clown fish & Sea anaemone
3) Hermit crab & Sea anaemone 4) Bees & Orchid flowers
175. Vascular bundels in monocotyledons are considered closed because.
1) There are no vessels with perforations 2) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
3) A Bundle sheath surrounds each bundle 4) Cambium is absent
176. The correct unit of productivity is
1) Cal m2 2) J m2 3)  Kcal m 2  yr 1 4) g m 2
177. Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent is called
1)Terminalisation 2) Diakinesis 3) Interkinesis 4) Heteropycnosis
178. The graph shows two types of population growth curves. A is exponential and B is logistic.
Which one of the following growth model considered as more realistic one?
1) A 2) B 3) Both A & B 4) none of the above
179. Identify the parts correctly in the picture
A B C D
1) Endosperm plumule Radicle pericarp
2) Radicle pericarp Endosperm plumule
3) plumule Radicle pericarp Endosperm
4) pericarp Endosperm plumule Radicle
180. The Indian rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states
1) Uttarakhand 2) Uttar pradesh 3) Himachal pradesh 4) Assam


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
541) 4 542) 4 543) 2 544) 3 545) 3 546) 2 547) 2 548) 3 549) 1 550) 1
551) 3 552) 1 553) 3 554) 4 555) 3 556) 3 557) 3 558) 1 559) 3 560) 1
561) 2 562) 3 563) 2 564) 4 565) 1 566) 2 567) 1 568) 2 569) 2 570) 3
571) 2 572) 3 573) 2 574) 3 575) 2 576) 1 577) 3 578) 2 579) 1 580) 2
581) 4 582) 3 583) 1 584) 2 585) 3
CHEMISTRY
586) 1 587) 1 588) 1 589) 2 590) 1 591) 4 592) 2 593) 2 594) 2 595) 3
596) 1 597) 1 598) 4 599) 2 600) 1 601) 2 602) 3 603) 3 604) 1 605) 2
606) 1 607) 4 608) 2 609) 4 610) 3 611) 2 612) 4 613) 2 614) 4 615) 2
616) 4 617) 2 618) 3 619) 3 620) 4 621) 1 622) 1 623) 3 624) 3 625) 4
626) 2 627) 3 628) 1 629) 1 630) 1
BIOLOGY
631) 3 632) 3 633) 4 634) 4 635) 3 636) 3 637) 4 638) 1 639) 3 640) 3
641) 3 642) 2 643) 2 644) 3 645) 2 646) 3 647) 4 648) 4 649) 3 650) 2
651) 2 652) 2 653) 4 654) 2 655) 4 656) 3 657) 2 658) 3 659) 4 660) 1
661) 4 662) 4 663) 1 664) 3 665) 2 666) 4 667) 3 668) 3 669) 3 670) 4
671) 3 672) 4 673) 2 674) 2 675) 4 676) 1 677) 1 678) 4 679) 1 680) 2
681) 1 682) 3 683) 2 684) 1 685) 4 686) 1 687) 2 688) 3 689) 1 690) 1
691) 2 692) 2 693) 2 694) 1 695) 2 696) 2 697) 1 698) 4 699) 4 700) 3
701) 2 702) 1 703) 3 704) 4 705) 4 706) 3 707) 1 708) 4 709) 2 710) 2
711) 2 712) 1 713) 4 714) 4 715) 4 716) 3 717) 1 718) 2 719) 1 720) 4


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. A uniform circular disc of radius R lies in the X-Y plane with its centre coinciding with the
origin of the coordinate system. Its moment of inertia about an axis lying in the X-Y plane,
parallel to the X-axis and passing through a point on the Y-axis at a distance y=2R is I1 . Its
moment of inertia about an axis lying in a plane perpendicular to X-Y plane passing through
a point on the X-axis at a distance x=d is I 2 . If I1  I 2 , the value of d is
19 17 15 13
1) R 2) R 3) R 4) R
2 2 2 2
2. A 1.5 F capacitor is charged of 60 V. The charging battery is then disconnected and a 15mH
coil is connected in series with the capacitor so that LC oscillations occurs. Assuming that the
circuit contains no resistance, the maximum current in this coil shall be close to
1) 1.4 A 2) 1.2 A 3) 0.8 A 4) 0.6 A
3. The initial velocity of a particle is u  at t  0  and the acceleration f is given by at 2 . Its velocity
v at time t is.
1) v  v  at 3 2) v  v  at 3 / 3 3) v  v  at 3 / 2 4) v  v  at
4. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of steel and brass wires in the figure are a,
b and c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be
Steel
M
Brass
2M
2a 2c 3a 2ac 3c
1) 2) 3) 4)
b 2b 2 c b2 2ab 2
5. The force acting on a window of area 50cm  50cm of a submarine at a depth of 2000 m in an
ocean, the interior of which is maintained at sea level atmospheric pressure is ( Density of sea
water = 103 kg m 3 , g  10m s 2 )
1) 5 105 N 2) 25 105 N 3) 5 106 N 4) 25 106 N

6. The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by
 
E  40cos  kZ  6  108 t  i , where E, z and t are in volt per meter, meter and second
respectively. The value of wave vector k is
1) 2m 1 2) 0.5m 1 3) 6m 1 4) 3m 1
V
7. A quantity X is given by  0 L where  0 is the permittivity of the free space, L is a length,
T
V is a potential difference and t is a time interval. The dimensional formula for X is the
same as that of
1) Resistance 2) Charge 3) Voltage 4) Current
8. A 1kg block situated on a rough incline is connected to a spring of negligible mass having
spring constant 100Nm 1 as shown in the figure. The block is released from rest with the
spring in the unstretched position. The block moves 10cm down the incline before coming to
rest. The coefficient of friction between the block and the incline is nearly ( take g=10
ms 2 and assume that the pulley is frictionless)
1) 0.2 2) 0.3 3) 0.5 4) 0.6

9. The focal length of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of
the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is
275 325
1) 45 cm 2) 55 cm 3) cm 4) cm
6 6
10. In the given figure, the radius of curvature of curved surface for both the plano-convex and
plano-concave lens is 10 cm and refractive index for both is 1.5. The location of the final
image after all the refractions through lenses is
1) 15 cm from plano-concave lens 2) 20 cm from plano-concave lens

3) 25 cm from plano-convex lens 4) 40 cm from plano-convex lens
11. An object 2cm high is placed at a distance of 16cm from a concave mirror, which produces a
real image 3cm high. The focal length of the mirror is
1) -9.6 cm 2) -3.6 cm 3) -6.3 cm 4) -8.3 cm
12. A car is travelling with linear velocity v on a circular road of radius R. If its speed is
increasing at the rate of a m / s 2 , then the net acceleration will be
2 2
v2 v2  v2   v2 
1) a 2) a 3)    a 2 4)    a 2
R R R R
13. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from
the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv, where v is its
escape velocity from the surface of the earth, the value of f is
1) 2 2) 1/ 2 3) 1 / 3 4) 1 / 2
14. Water is used as a coolant because
1) It has lower density 2) It has low specific heat
3) It has high specific heat 4) It is easily available

15. A heat engine has an efficiency  . Temperatures of source and sink are each decreased by
100K. The efficiency of the engine
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains constant 4) Becomes 1
16. Two rods of equal length and diameter have thermal conductivities 3 and 4 units respectively.
If they are joined in series, the thermal conductivity of the combination in the given units
would be.
1) 3.43 2) 4.43 3) 5.43 4) 2.43
17. A gas is filled in a container at pressure P0 . If the mass of molecules is halved and their rms
speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure would be

P0 P0
1) 2P0 2) 4P0 3) 4)
4 2
18. A solenoid has core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its windings carry a
current of 1A. The number of turns of the solenoid is 500 per metre. The magnetization of the
material is nearly
1) 2.5 103 Am 1 2) 2.5 105 Am 1 3) 2.0 103 Am 1 4) 2.0 105 Am1
19. A metallic surface irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency  1 and stopping
potential is found to be V1 . If the light of frequency  2 irradiates the surface, the stopping
potential will be
h h e h
1) V1   v1  v2  2) V1   v2  v1  3) V1   v2  v1  4) V1   v1  v2 
e e h e
20. A triply ionized beryllium  Be3  has the same orbital radius as the ground state of hydrogen.
Then the quantum state n of Be3 is

1) n=1 2) n=2 3) n=3 4) n=4
21. A body of mass 0.4 kg starting at origin at t=0 with a speed of 10ms 1 in the positive x-axis
direction is subjected to a constant force F=8N towards negative x- axis. The distance
travelled by body in 25 s is
1) 6005 m 2) 6000 m 3) 5995 m 4) 6002.5 m
1
22. Two samples X and Y contain equal amount of radioactive substances. If th of the sample
16
1
X and th of the sample Y, remain after 8 hours, then the ratio of half life periods of X and
256
Y is
1) 2:1 2) 1:2 3) 1:4 4) 4:1

23. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from the
coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light
travelling in the liquid?
1) 1.8 108 ms 1 2) 2.4 108 ms 1 3) 3.0 108 ms 1 4) 1.2 108 ms 1
24. A uniform rectangular plate R of sides a and b and a uniform square plate S of side c have
same masses and area as shown in the figure x-y axes are in the planes of plates. If I is
moment of inertia, then
I XR IYR
I. 1 II. 1
I XS IYS
Which of the above relations is correct

1) I only 2) II only 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I or II
25. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius R with constant speed v. During motion of
the particle from point A to point B
v
1) Average speed is v/2 2) The magnitude of average velocity is

2v 2
3) The magnitude of average acceleration is 4) Average velocity is zero
R

26. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted on an axis supported in frictionless
bearings. A light cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a steady downward pull T is
exerted on the cord. The angular acceleration of the disc is
MR 2T T MR
1) 2) 3) 4)
2T MR MR T
27. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in figure. The net torque produced
by the forces 4 N at A, 8N at B, 6N at C and 9 N at D angles indicated is
1) 5,4 N-m ( anticlock wise) 2) 1.8 N-m ( clock wise)

3) 2.0 N-m (clock wise) 4) 5.4 N-m ( clock wise)
28. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to occur due to
1) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small
2) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large
3) Strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration is small
4) None of these
29. The output of given logic circuit is
1) A. (B+C) 2) A.( B. C) 3) (A +B). (A+C) 4) A+B+C
30. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 10 and  respectively. If initially
they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of A to that of B
will be 1/e after a time
1 1 11 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
10 11 10 9

31. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of the circle, the period, sense of
revolution and the initial position are indicated in the figure. The simple harmonic motion of
the x-projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is
   
1) x  2 cos  2 t   2) x  2sin  2 t  
 4  4
   
3) x  2sin  2 t   4) x  2 cos  2 t  
 4  4
32. A train, standing in a station yard, blows whistle of frequency 400 Hz in still air. The wind
starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10ms 1 . Which of
the following statements is correct? ( Speed of sound in still air is 340 ms 1 )
1) The frequency of sound as heard by an observer standing on the plat form is 400 Hz
2) The speed of sound for the observer standing on the platform is 330 ms 1
3) The frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will increase
4) The frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will decrease
33. The tension of a stretched string is increased by 69%. In order to keep its frequency of
vibration constant, its length must be increased by
1) 30 % 2) 20% 3) 69% 4) 69%
34. In Young’s double slit experiment distance between two sources is 0.1 mm. The distance of
screen from the source is 20cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 A0 . Then angular position of
the first dark fringe is approximately.
1) 0.080 2) 0.160 3) 0.200 4) 0.310
35. A capacitor having capacitance 1 F with air, is filled with two dielectrics as shown below.
How many times capacitance will increase?
1) 12 2) 6 3) 8/ 3 4) 3

36. A and B are two points on a uniform ring of resistance 15 . The AOB  450 . The equivalent
resistance between A and B is
1) 1.64 2) 2.84 3) 4.57 4) 2.64

37. Four resistors are connected as shown in the figure. A 6V battery of negligible resistance is
connected across terminals A and C. The potential difference across terminals B and D will be
1) Zero 2) 1.5 V 3) 2 V 4) 3 V
38. In the circuit shown current is zero through
1) R4 only 2) R2 , R3 and R4 only 3) R1 , R2 , R4 only 4) R3 and R4 only
39. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0  12 find the points A and B as shown in the
figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance R or
the sub- circuit between these points is equal to 8/3 
1 5 1 1 1 3 1 1
1)  2)  3)  4) 
2 8 2 3 2 8 2 2
40. The magnitude of torque experienced by a square coil of side 12 cm which consists of 25 turns
and carries a current 10 A suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of coil makes an
angle of 300 with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.9 T is
1) 1.62 Nm 2) 1.22 Nm 3) 1.42 Nm 4) 1.82 Nm

41. When a positively charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with uniform velocity its
trajectory can be ( i) a straight line ( ii) a circle ( iii) a helix
1) ( i) only 2) ( i) or ( ii) only
3) (i) or ( iii) only 4) Any one of ( i),(ii) and ( iii)
42. Identify the wrong statement
1) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field
2) Eddy currents can be minimized by using laminated core
3) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat
4) Eddy currents can be used to produce breaking force in moving trains.
43. The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that encloses the charged particles in free is ( given ,
q1  14nC , q2  78.85nC , q3  56nC )
1) 103 Nm 2C 1 2) 103 CN 1m 2 3) 6.32 103 Nm 2C 1 4) 6.32 103 CN 1m 2

44. For the given digital circuit, identify the logic gate if
1) OR gate 2) NOR gate 3) NAND gate 4) AND gate

45. Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed.
The ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that in hydrogen is
1) 8 2) 2 / 17 3) 1/ 8 4) 32 / 17
CHEMISTRY
46. The wavenumber of a spectral line for a given transition is x cm 1 for He  , then its value for
Be3 for the same transition is  cm 1 
x
1) x 2) 4x 3) 4) 16x
4
47. The de- Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with velocity equal to 10 % of velocity of
light is
1) 242.4 pm 2) 24.2 pm 3) 2.42 pm 4) 2424 pm
48. Identify the incorrect statement among the following
1) Among isoelectronic species smaller the positive charge, smaller the radius
2) Among isoelectronic species greater the negative charge, larger the radius
3) Atomic radius increases down the group and decreases across a period
4) The decrease in radius is less in d- block due to poor screening effect of d- orbital

49. The incorrect match among the following is
1) SF4 - tetrahedral 2) ClF3 - T shape
3) H 2 S - angular 4) BrF5 - square pyramidal
50. At 400 K the root mean square velocity of a gas X of molecular weight 40 is equal to the most
probable velocity of another gas Y at 60 K. The molecular weight of the gas Y is
1) 8 2) 12 3) 16 4) 4
51. The weight of a dibasic acid of molecular weight 200, that should be present in 100 ml of
aqueous solution to give 0.1 normal solution is
1) 1g 2) 2g 3) 10 g 4) 20 g
52. The compounds with non zero dipole moment among the following are
A. CCl4 B. Quinol C. P- dichlorobenzene D. NH 3
1) A and B only 2) B and C only 3) B and D only 4) A,B,C,D
53. The correct order of bond order for the following is
1) CN   O2  O2  O2 2) O2  O2  O2  CN 
3) O2  O2  CN   O2 4) O2  O2  O2  CN 
54. The most ionic compound among the following is
1) LiF 2) CsF 3) BeCl2 4) LiI
55. The number of electrons transferred in the reaction MnO4  SO32  Mn 2  SO42 is
1) 5 2) 3 3) 10 4) 0
56. Which of the following weighs more
1) 5g atoms of calcium 2) 67.2 litres of O2 at STP
3) 1 g mole of CO2 4) 3 1024 atom of carbon
57. Which of the following combinations cannot act as buffer solution
1) 200 ml 0.1 M CH 3COOH + 200 ml 0.1 M NaOH
2) 200 ml 0.1 M CH 3COOH  200 ml 0.1 M CH 3COONa
3) 20 ml 0.5 M HCN  20 ml 0.5 M NaCN
4) 50 ml 0.1 M NH 4OH  50 ml 0.1 M NH 4 Cl
58. An ideal gas expands in volume from 104 to 10 3 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of
2  105 Nm 2 . The work done is
1) -180 KJ 2) – 180 J 3) – 900 J 4) + 900 J
59. The dissociation energy of CH 4 is 400 K Cal mol and that of ethane is 670 K Cal mol 1 . The
1
C-C bond energy is ( K Cal mol 1 )

1) 270 2) 70 3) 200 4) 240
1 1
60. At 200 K the equilibrium constant Kc for the following reaction is 0.5 A2  B2  AB . Then
2 2
the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2AB  A2  B2 at same temperature is
1) 0.04 2) 0.4 3) 4 4) 25
61. Identify the correct statement
1) Stability of carbonates increases down the group in alkali metals
2) BaSO4 is more soluble than CaSO4 in water
3) Li, Mg , Be doesnot give flame test
4) Chemical formula of calgon is Na2 Al2 Si2 O8 . xH 2O
62. Which of the following indicates high level of toxicity
1) High DO, high TLV 2) High COD, high BOD
3) High DO, low COD 4) Low COD, low BOD

63. The IUPAC name of the compound
is
1) 2- ethyl -3- methyl –pent -1-en- 4-yne 2) 2- ethyl- 3-methylpent-4-en-1-yne

3) 4-ethyl-3-methyl-pent-1-en-4-yne 4) 4-ethyl-3-methyl-pent-4-en-1-yne
64. The compound that is achiral among the following is
1) 2- hydroxypropanoic acid 2) 2- butanol
3) 2, 3 –dibromopentane 4) 3- bromopentane
65. Propene reacts with HBr in presence of  C6 H 5CO  2 O2 to give the following as major product
1) Isopropyl bromide 2) Allyl bromide 3) n- propyl bromide 4) 1, 2 dibromopropane
1
66. In a CCP formed by atoms of B, rd of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by A. The formula
3
of the compound formed by them is
1) A2 B3 2) AB3 3) A4 B3 4) A3 B2
67. The standard reduction potential of metals A,B,C are respectively 0.025V, -5V, -1.6 V. The
correct order of reducing ability of these elements is
1) B  C  A 2) A  C  B 3) A  B  C 4) C  A  B
68. The coagulating power of ions of electrolyte for As2 S3 follows the order
1) Na   Ba 2  Al 3 2) Al 3  Ba 2  Na  3) PO43  SO42  Cl  4) Cl   SO42  PO43
69. 6 g of a non volatile non electrolyte x when dissolved in 100 g water freezes at - 0.4650 C . The
molar mass of x is  K f  H 2O   1.86 KKgmol 1 
1) 120 g 2) 60 g 3) 240 g 4) 360 g
2 2 
70. The standard reduction potentials of Zn / Zn, Cu / Cu and Ag / Ag are respectively are –
0.76V, +0.34 V, 0.8 V. The following cells are constructed
i) Zn / Zn 2 / / Cu 2 / Cu
ii ) Zn / Zn 2 / / Ag  / Ag
iii ) Cu / Cu 2 / / Ag  / Ag the correct order of Ecell
0
of these cells is
1) ii > iii > i 2) ii > i > iii 3) i > ii > iii 4) iii > i > ii
71. For a hypothetical reaction A  B  C . Identify order of reaction from the following data
S. No [A ] M [ B] M rate r  ML1 
I 0.25 0.25 3 103
II 0.50 0.25 6 103
III 0.50 0.5 1.2 102
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
72. The rate constant K1 for one reaction is double the rate constant K 2 for another reaction. The
relation between the corresponding activation energies Ea1 and Ea2 is
1) Ea1  Ea2 2) Ea1  Ea2 3) Ea1  4 Ea2 4) Ea1  4 Ea2
73. The correct statement regarding extraction of Al from bauxite is
A. During Halls process silica is removed as vapours
B. During Baeyers process, red bauxite is purified using NaOH
C. Aluminium is refined by Hall Herault process
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) A and B only 4) A and C only

74. The complex that show geometric and optical isomerism is
1) Cis Co  en 2 Cl2  Cl 2) trans  Co  en  2 Cl2  Cl
3) Co  NH 3  4 Cl2  Cl 4) Co  NH 3 3 Cl3 
75. The spin only magnetic moment value of Cr  x is 4.9 B. M. The value of x is
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
2
76. The distribution of electrons ions in  Mn  H 2O 6  in d-orbitals is
5
1) t2g eg 0 3
2) t2g eg 2 3) t22g eg 3 4) t24g eg 1
77. 1 mole of an ammino cobalt ( III) chloride complex on treatment with excess AgNO3 solution
gives 287 g of AgCl. The number of chloride ion that satisfies both primary and secondary
valency is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 0
78. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
A. Basic nature of hydrides increases from NH 3 to BiH 3
B. H 2 S is most volatile hydride of VIA group elements
C. The correct order of acidic nature of hydrides of VIIA group elements is HI > HBr > HCl >
HF
D. The correct order of oxidising ability of oxyacid of chlorine is
HClO4  HClO3  HClO2  HOCl
1) A and D 2) B and C 3) A,B,C 4) A,B,C,D
79. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
1) XeF2  Linear  SP 3 d hybridised 2) BrF5  square pyramidal  SP 3d hybridsed
3) SO2  angular  SP 2 hybridised 4) SO3  triagonal planar  SP 2 hybridsed
0
200 C
80. B2 H 6  NH 3   A . The emperical formula of the compound A is
1) BNH 2) CH 3) BNH 2 4) B2 NH
81. The number of hydrogen bonds in the sequence of a structure of a double helical DNA
51 ATGCCTAAT 31 is
1) 19 2) 21 3) 24 4) 20
82. The bacteriostatic antibiotic among the following is
A. Ofloxacin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin
1) A and B only 2) A, B, C only 3) B, C, D only 4) A,B,C,D
83. Which of the following are condensation polymers.
A. Teflon B. Glyptal C. Nylon 6,6 D. BUNA-S
1) A and D only 2) A and B only 3) B and C only 4) A and C only
84. A compound ( A) with molecular formula C4 H 8Cl2 on basic hydrolysis forms a product B. B
gives a orange red precipitate with 2,4- DNP but does not reduce Tollens reagent. The
structure of A is
1) CH 3CH 2 CHCl CHCl 2) CH 3 CH 2 CCl2 CH 3
3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHCl2 4) CH 3 CHCl CHCl CH 3

KCN H 3O C2 H 5OH
85. C2 H 5Cl   A   B   C the IUPAC name of C is
C2 H 5OH
1) Ethyl propanoate 2) Methyl propanoate 3) Propylethanoate 4) Ethyl ethanoate

NaOH 
86. CH 3CHO  A   B . The product B is
1) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH 2) CH 3  CH  CH  CHO
0
||
3) CH 3  C  CH 3 4) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3

NaNO2  HCl
H2 C2 H 5OH
87. C6 H 5 NO2  A  0
 B   C ( major) . The compound C is
Ni 0 5 C 
1) C6 H 5 NH 2 2) C6 H 5OH 3) C6 H 6 4) C6 H 5CN
88. The correct order of reactivity towards SN 1 reaction among the following compound is
Br Me Me
Me Me Br
Br
( A) ( B) (C)
1) A > B > C 2) B > C > A 3) B > A > C 4) C > B > A
89.
A is
1) 2) 3) 4)
90. The increasing values of pKa for the following compounds is
A. m- nitrophenol B. Phenol
C. P-nitrophenol D. O- cresol
E. m- cresol is
1) C < A< B < E < D 2) D < E < B < A < C
3) C < A< D < E < B 4) D < E < C <A < B
BIOLOGY
91. The term taxonomy was coined by
1) Ernst Haeckel 2) H. F Copeland 3) A.P. de Candolle 4) Carolus Linnaeus
92. Which one of the following is correct?
1) Serum =Blood + Fibrinogen 2) Lymph =Plasma + RBC + WBC
3) Blood= Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets 4) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
93. Kingdom planate show following characters
A. Cellulosic cell wall
B. Starch is reserve food
C. Absorptive mode of nutrition
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C 4) A, B and C
94. Match the following blood cells with their functions and select the answer from code given
below:
Blood cells Functions
A. Neutrophils 1. Haemostasis
B. Basophils 2. Production of antibodies
C. B lymphocytes 3. Release of histamine
D. Platelets 4. Phagocytosis

1) A=3, B= 4, C=1, D=2 2) A=4, B=3,C=2,D=1
3) A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4 4) A=2, B=3, C=4,D=1
95. Match the following with reference to kingdom Protista
List- I List- 2
I. Diatoms A. Multinucleate aggregate plant body of slimemoulds
II. Plasmodium B. Kieselgur and rejuvenatory spores
III. Euglenoids C. Protozoan with infectious spore like stage in life cycle
IV. Dinoflagellates D. Bioluminiscence and mesokaryon
E. Proteinaceous pellicle and myxotrophic nutrition
I II III IV
1) B C E D
2) C A E B
3) B A C E
4) D C E B
96. In urinary system aldosterone takes part in retention of
1) K  2) Na  3) Water 4) Both 2 & 3
97. Which of the following division of fungi includes club fungi?
1) Deuteromycetes 2) Zygomycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Ascomycetes
98. Statement I : Red muscle can also be called aerobic muscle
Statement II : These muscles contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilize the large
amounts of oxygen stored in them.
1) Both statement 1 and statement II are correct
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
99. Secondary growth occurs in stem and roots of
1) Dicots 2) Gymnosperms 3) Monocots 4) Both 1 & 2
100. Endocrine centre in the brain is
1) Corpus callosum 2) Crura cerebri 3) Cerebral cortex 4) Hypothalamus
101. Select the characters related to Dryopteris
A. Stem is rhizome
B. Young leaves show circinnate vernation
C. Petioles are covered with ramenta
D. The sorus is covered by true indusium
1) A & B only 2) C & D only 3) A, B & C only 4) All the above
102. Observe the following graph with respect to menstrual cycle and identify A and B
Preovulatory phase post ovulatory phase
1) A- Oestrogen; B- progesterone 2) A- FSH; B- LH

3) A- Progesterone; B- Oestrogen 4) A- LH; B- FSH
103. Cyathium and Hypanthodium are similar in having
1) Achlamydeous flower 2) Bisexual flowers
3) Unisexual flowers 4) Neutral flowers
104. Which of the following is not true about uterus
1) It is attached to the pelvic wall 2) It is an inverted pear shaped structure
3) It opens into vagina through cervix 4) It forms birth canal along with cervix

List- I List- II
I. Assimilatory roots A. Cuscuta
II. Nodular roots B. Radish
III. Fusiform taproot C. Taeniophyllum
IV. Complete parasite D. Ground nut
With wiry stem
I II III IV
1) C D B A
2) C A B D
3) D A B C
4) C D A B
106. Zona pellucida disappears
1) After fertilization 2) Before blastocyst formation
3) Before implantation 4) After morula formation
107. Which of the following vegetative propagules are found in ginger and onion respeclively?
1) Corm, Rhizome 2) Stolene, Sucker 3) Rhizome, Bulb 4) Offsets, Bulb
108. Which of the following pedigree can be for haemophilia?
1) 2) 3) 4)
109. Study the following statements and find the correct option
Statement – I (SI) :- In higher plants asexual reproduction can occur both before and during
their maturation phase
Statement – II ( SII) :- In higher plants uniparental sexual progeny are never observed
1) Both SI & SII are false 2) SI is true but SII is false
3) SI is false but SII is true 4) Both SI & SII are true
110. Match column I with column II regarding human excretory system choose the correct option.
Column –I Column -II
A. Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capasule 1. Juxtamedullary nephron
B. Extension of cortex between the medullary 2. Vasa recta
pyramids as real columns
C. Nephrons with long loop of Henle running deep 3. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
into the medulla
D. A fine vessel of the peritubular capillaries 4. Podocytes
running parallel to Henel’s loop
E. A special sensitive region in the DCT and 5. Columns of Bertini
afferent arteriole at the location of their 6. Cortical nephron
contact
1) A-5;B-1;C-2;D-3;E-4 2) A-4;B-3;C-6;D-5;E-1
3) A-2;B-4;C-6;D-1;E-3 4) A-4;B-5;C-1;D-2;E-3
111. Choose the correct ascending sequence of the following plants with respect to their life- span
I. Wolffia II. Carrot III. Rose plant IV. Rice plant
V. Royal fern VI. Banana VII. Banyan tree VIII. Moss plant
1) VII, V, III, VI, II, IV, VIII, I 2) I, VIII, IV, II, VI, III, V, VII
3) I, VIII, II, IV, VI, III, VII, V 4) I, VIII, IV, II, III, VI, V, VII
112. Hisardale is a resultant by crossing between
1) Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams 2) Marino ewes and marino rams
3) Bikaneri ewes and Bikaneri rams 4) Bikaneri ewes and marino rams

113. Bentham and Hooker’s classification is published in a book namely
1) Historia plantarum 2) Species plantarum
3) Families of flowering plants 4) Genera plantarum
114. A human protein which is being obtained from transgenic animals and is used to treat
emphysema is
1) Insulin 2)  -I antitrypsin 3)  -I antitrypsin 4) Alpha- Lactalbumin
115. Correct Floral formula related to Mustard plant is
1) Br Brl  K 4C 4 A4 G  4  2) Br Brl K 2  2 C 4 A4  2 G  2 
3) Ebr EbrlK 2  2 C 4 A2  4 G  2  4) Ebr Ebrl % K 4 C 4 A4 G  4 
116. C- Peptide of human insulin is
1) A part of mature insulin molecule 2) Responsible for its biological activity
3) Added during maturation of proinsulin to insulin
4) Removed during maturation of proinsulin to insulin
117. Cytoplasm of adjacent cells is interconnected by
1) Plasma membrane 2) Primary cell wall
3) Plasmodesmata 4) Middle Lamallae
118. In an area, increase in population growth can be observed when natality, mortality,
emigration and immigration are
1) 120, 850, 300 and 920 respectively 2) 250,350,600 and 500 respectively
3) 350,500,250 and 600 respectively 4) 150,220,600 and 670 respectively
119. The secondary metabolites used as drugs are
1) Abrin, Ricin 2) Rubber, gums, cellulose
3) Morphine, codeine 4) Vinblastin, curcumin
120. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to:
1) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
2) Central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
3) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A- band
4) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A- band
121. Study the following lists
List- I ( Protein ) List- II ( Function )
A. Antibody I. Enables glucose transport into the cells
B. Glut- 4 II. Intercellular ground substance
C. Collagen III. Fights against infectious agents
D. RUBISCO IV. Abundant protein in biosphere
V. Hormonal function
A B C D
1) III I II IV
2) III I IV V
3) III IV II I
4) III II V IV
122. The most severe threat to loss of biodiversity is
1) Coextinction 2) Over exploitation
3) Alien species extinction 4) Habitat loss/ fragmentation
123. A root tip cell onion shows
1) 16 chromosomes at G1 with 2DNA molecules in each chromosome
2) 16 chromosomes at G2 with 1 DNA molecule in each chromosome
3) Same number of chromosomes in G1 and G2
4) Same quantity of DNA at G1 stage and metaphase
124. Green house gases are
1) Water vapour, CO2 2) CH 4 , CO 3) N 2O, CFC 4) All the above

125. The diploid chromosome number of maize is 20. Then the number of Bivalents, chromatids
and kinetochores in pachytene stage of its meiocyte
1) 20,40,40 2) 10,40,40 3) 10,20,20 4) 20,20,40
126. To which of the following categories does the adipose tissue belong?
1) Epithelial 2) Connective 3) Muscular 4) Neural
127. The simple mechanical tissue present in the petioles and young dicot stem is
1) Sclerenchyma 2) Xylem 3) Parenchyma 4) Collenchyma
128. Which of the following represents the correct combination without exception?
Characteristics Class
1. Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of limbs Mammalia
2. Mouth ventral, gills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; Chondrichthyes
persistent notochord
3. Sucking and circular mouth, jaws absent; integument without scales; Cyclostomata
paired appendages
4. Body covered with feathers; skin moist and glandular, forelimbs form Aves
wings; lungs with air sacs
129. Analyse the following lists. Choose the correct matching.
List- I List- II
(Vascular bundle types) (Part of a plant)
I. Bi collateral vascular bundle A. Cucurbita root
II. Radial vascular bundle B. Dicot root
III. Collateral closed vascular bundle C. Leaf
IV. Collateral and open vascular bundle D. Cucurbita stem
E. Sunflower stem
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-E 2) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-E
3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A 4) A-D, II-C, III-E, IV-B
130. Fertilization in Cockroach occurs in
1) Ootheca 2) Genital chamber 3) Vestibulum 4) Vagina
131. Find the true statements from the following
I. Phloem parenchyma and companion cells are nucleated cells
II. Phloem is a living tissue except bast fibres
III. Both xylem and phloem are useful for conduction and mechanical support
IV. The parenchyma in both xylem and phloem is storage in function
The correct answer is
1) I, II & IV 2) I, II, III 3) II, III, IV 4) I, III, IV
132. In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body
to form new tumours. This property of disease is considered as
1) Metagenesis 2) Mitosis 3) Teratogenesis 4) Metastasis
133. The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is:
1) Phytoplankton, sedges, free- floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
2) Phytoplankton, free- floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.
3) Free- floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
4) Phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges,
meadow and trees.
134. The correct path followed by sound waves from external ear to inner ear is:
1) Eardrum –auditory ossicles- fluid of cochlea- basilar membrane- hair cells
2) Eardrum- basilar membrane- auditory ossicles- fluid of cochlea- hair cells
3) Eardrum- fluid of cochlea- auditory ossicles- hair cells- basilar membrane
4) Eardrum- hair cells- auditory ossicles- basilar membrane- fluid of cochlea

135. The sequence of succession is
1) Lichens  Mosses  Grass  Shurbs  Trees
2) Trees  Shurbs  Lichens  Mosses  Grass
3) Mosses  Shurbs  Trees  Lichens  Grass
4) Lichens  Trees  Mosses  Grass  Shurbs
136. Match the following with correct combination:
List- I List- II
A. Hyaluronidase I. Acrosomal reaction
B. Corpus Iuteum II. Morphogenetic movements
C. Gastrulation III. Progesterone
D. Capacitation IV. Mammary gland
E. Colostrum V. Sperm activation
1) A-V, B- II, C- IV, D- I, E- III 2) A- I, B-III, C- II, D-V, E-IV
3) A-IV, B- II, C-V, D-III, E-I 4) A- I, B- II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
137. A character which is expressed phenotypically in both homozygotes & heterozygotes is
1) Recessive character 2) Mutant character
3) Dominant character 4) Pleotropic character
138. Artificial insemination means:
1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
2) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the vagina
3) Introduction of sperms of a health donor directly into the ovary
4) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
139. Choose the incorrect statement
1) One DNA helix runs continuously from one end to the other in each chromatid
2) Heriditary variations in fruitfly can be seen with low power microscope
3) Fruit flies could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
4) Mendel provided physical proof for the existence of factors.
140. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man.
Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy
1) Must be colour blind
2) Must have normal colour vision
3) May or may not colour blind
4) Will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
141. Chargaff’s rule is applicable to
1) Single stranded RNA 2) Single stranded DNA and RNA
3) Single stranded DNA 4) Double stranded DNA and RNA
142. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining
160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
1) 0.7 2) 0.4 3) 0.5 4) 0.6
143.
‘A’ in the above transcription unit is

1) Promoter 2) Terminator 3) Structural gene 4) Regulator

144. Read the following statements:
A. Mammalian lungs are solid and spongy
B. Air enters into the lungs because chest expands
C. In embryo stage breathing rate, residual air are absent
D. Residual volume is volume of air in lungs after forceful expiration
E. Partial pressure of oxygen in expired air is more than inspired air
How many statements are correct?
1) BCD 2) ABCD 3) AE 4) ACD
145. A restriction endonuclease breaks bond between the
1) Base pairs of a DNA molecule
2) Base pairs of a DNA- RNA hybrid molecule
3) sugar and phosphate components of nucleic acid molecule
4) Exons and introns of a DNA molecule
146. Read the statements A and B given below and choose the correct option:
Statement -I. Human heart transplanted is denervated but still keeps beating
Statement -II. Human heart is myogenic
1) Statement I & Statement II both are correct
2) Statement I & Statement II both are incorrect
3) Statement I correct Statement II incorrect
4) Statement I incorrect Statement II correct
147. Length of palindrome which is recognised by ECoRI
1) 20.4 nm 2) 20.8 A0 3) 21.4 A0 4) 20.4 A0
148. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
1) Fertilization of the egg is completed outside the body; the fertilized egg/ early embryo is then
placed in the womb of healthy adult female where the gestation is completed
2) Fertilization of the egg is completed in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in
a large test tube
3) A prematurely born baby is reared in a incubator
4) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo is completed in a large test tube
149. The cell walls of eukaryotic plant cells can be removed by treatment with
I. Lysozyme II. Cellulase III. Chitinase
1) I , II & III 2) I & II only 3) I & III only 4) II & III only
150. Select the correct option that represents examples of the following types of animals
I. Cold blooded animals
II. Warm blooded animals
III. Animal with dry and cornified skin
IV. Hermaphrodite animal
I II III IV
1) Rabbit Fish Frog Earthworm
2) Fish Rabbit Wall lizard Earthworm
3) Pigeon Frog Crocodile Starfish
4) Fish Frog Crocodile Earthworm
151. Which of the following is a transgenic plant?
1) Flavr Savr 2) Bacillus thuringiensis
3) Meloidogyme incognita 4) Baculo virus
152. Match the following animals with their respiratory organs and select the correct set
Set –I Set –II
A. Earthworm I. gills
B. Human II. bookgills
C. Prawn III. Trachea
D. Insect IV. Cutaneous
V. pulmonary

A B C D
1) IV V III II
2) IV V II III
3) II III IV V
4) IV V I III
153. Male sterile transgenic Brassica napus is
I. Suitable for food processing
II. Tolerant to abiotic stresses
III. Useful for hybrid seed production
IV. Herbicide tolerant
1) II, III, IV 2) III only 3) II, III only 4) III, IV only
154. If the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mg Hg the pulse pressure is
1) 120  80  9600 mm Hg 2) 120  80  200 mm Hg
120
3) 120  80  400 mm Hg 4)  40 mm Hg
80
155. N. Borlaug developed semi- dwarf wheat variety in Mexico at
1) International centre for wheat and Rice improvement
2) International centre for wheat, Rice and maize
3) International centre for wheat and Barley improvement
4) International centre for wheat and maize improvement
156. Match the following and select the correct set
Skeletal part Number of bones
A. Cranium I. 14
B. Back bone II. 26
C. Face III. 24
D. Hindlimb IV. 80
E. Ribs V. 8
VI. 30
A B C D E
1) V II III I IV
2) V II I III VI
3) I II III IV V
4) V II I VI III
157. The rice variety introduced into India from Philippines is
1) IR8 2) Sonora 3) TMV -3 4) Sweedish
158. The rate of conduction of impulse will be faster in case of
1) Myelinated nerve fibers 2) Un myelilnated thick fibers
3) Nonmyelinated thin nerve fiber 4) Both 1 & 2
159. First plant produced during the demonstration of totipotency was

1) Radish 2) Carrot 3) Maize 4) Datura
160. A pregnant women delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth mental retardation, low
intelligence and abnormal skin. This is the result to
1) Hypo secretion of growth hormone 2) Over secretion from pars distalis
3) Deficiency of iodine 4) Cancer
161. Micropropagation is useful
I. To generate somaclonal variations which are exploited for crop improvement
II. To multiply genetically uniform population
III. To generate new species
IV. To produce heterozygous plants
1) I & III are correct 2) III & IV are correct 3) I & II are correct 4) II & III are correct
162. An organism that transfer the infective agent from one primary host to another and allows
partial development of infective agent in its body is called
1) Mechanical vector 2) Biological vector 3) Reservoir host 4) Uninvited guest
163. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by
1) A machine
2) A bacterium that produces methane gas
3) A bacterium producing a large amount of carbondioxide
4) A Fungus that release a lot of gases during its metabolic activities
164. The given pie diagram represents the proportionate of species of major taxa of vertebrates
identify the groups A and B
1) A- Reptiles B- Birds
2) A- Fish B- Birds
3) A- Birds B-Fish
4) A- Birds B-Reptiles
165. Bottle Juices are clarified by the use of
1) Lipases 2) Pectinases 3) Proteases 4) 2 & 3
166. Which one of the following is not an ectoparasite- Host association?
1) Ticks- dog 2) Copepods- marine fish
3) Pediculus- Human 4) Plasmodium- Man
167. Path of water movement from soil to the xylem is
1) Metaxylem  Protoxylem  Cortex  Soil  Root hair
2) Cortex  Root hair  Endodermis  Pericycle  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
3) Soil  Root hair  Cortex  Endodermis  Pericycle  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
4) Pericycle  Soil  Root hair  Cortex  Endodermis  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
168. In male frog vasa efferentia from testis enter the kidney and open into
1) Wolffian duct 2) Mesonephric duct 3) Ureter 4) Bidders canal
169. Energy consuming and energy releasing steps in nitrogen cycle respectively are
1) Nitrification, nitrogen, fixation 2) Ammonification, nitrogen fixation
3) Ammonification, dentrification 4) Nitrogen fixation, nitrification
170. Match the following and select the correct set
Column – I Column – II
A. Pneumonia I. Salmonella
B. Typhoid II. Entamoeba
C. Common cold III. Epidermophyta
D. Ringworm IV. Haemophilus influenza
V. Rhinoviruses
A B C D
1) I III IV V
2) IV I III V
3) I II III IV
4) IV I V III

171. Enzymes promote rate of chemical reaction by
1) Lowering energy of activation 2) Increasing energy of activation
3) Maintaing energy of activation
4) Without affecting activation energy but increasing reaction time
172. Verhulst- pearl lozistic growth is described by the equation.
N dN N dN K N  dN  k
1) dN  rN 2)  rN 3)  rN   4)  kN 1  
K dt K dt  K  dt  K
173. Chlorophylls don’t absorb this wave length of light
1) Red wave length 2) Green wavelength 3) Blue wavelength 4) Orange wavelength
174. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding biomagnification of D.D.T
I. Spraying of D.D.T in a agricultural fields is carried by run off water into the near by water
bodies
II. The water bodies may have a very low concentration but it is accumulated at high
concentration in fish
III. The birds that consumed this fish have no effect though the accumulation of D.D.T is at
maximum level in the birds
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) Only III
175. To produce 4 sucrose molecules the number of ATP and NADPH + H  required in C3 plants
is
1) 144 & 96 2) 120 & 48 3) 188, 192 4) 72, 46
176. Which pair of geographical area shows maximum diversity in our country?
1) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch 2) Easterm Ghats and Western Ghats
3) Eastern Himalayas and western Ghats 4) Kerala and Punjab
177. From the below figure ATP synthesis through chemiosmotic hypothesis identify ABCD
respectively
1) Photoystem- I, Photosystem- II, Cytochromes b& f, ATP synthase

2) Photosystem- II, Photosystem- I, Cytochromes b&f, ATP synthase
3) Photoystem-I, Cytochromes b & f, ATP synthase, Photoystem- II
4) Photoystem- II, Cytochromes b& f, Photosystem- I, ATP synthase
178. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
1) Flying fish, cuttlefish, Silverfish- Pisces
2) Centipede, Millipede, Spider, Scorpion- Insecta
3) House fly, Butterfly, Tse-tse fly, silverfish- Insecta
4) Spiny anteater, Sea urchin, Sea cucumber- Echinodermata
179. Ratio of total ATPs produced by substrate level phosphorylation in aerobic respiration where
substrate is 2 molecules of G-3-P and number of molecules of CO2 liberated during Krebs
cycle is
1) 1:1 2) 3:2 3) 2:3 4) 1:4
180. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is know as:
1) Tonus 2) Spasm 3) Fatigue 4) Tetanus

INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
721) 3 722) 4 723) 2 724) 2 725) 3 726) 1 727) 4 728) 2 729) 4 730) 2
731) 1 732) 3 733) 2 734) 3 735) 1 736) 1 737) 1 738) 2 739) 2 740) 2
741) 1 742) 1 743) 1 744) 3 745) 3 746) 2 747) 2 748) 2 749) 3 750) 4
751) 1 752) 1 753) 1 754) 2 755) 2 756) 1 757) 1 758) 4 759) 4 760) 1
761) 4 762) 1 763) 1 764) 4 765) 2
CHEMISTRY
766) 2 767) 2 768) 1 769) 1 770) 4 771) 1 772) 3 773) 1 774) 2 775) 3
776) 1 777) 1 778) 2 779) 2 780) 3 781) 1 782) 2 783) 1 784) 4 785) 3
786) 1 787) 1 788) 2 789) 3 790) 2 791) 3 792) 2 793) 2 794) 1 795) 2
796) 2 797) 3 798) 1 799) 2 800) 3 801) 2 802) 3 803) 3 804) 2 805) 1
806) 2 807) 3 808) 2 809) 3 810) 1
BIOLOGY
811) 3 812) 3 813) 4 814) 2 815) 1 816) 4 817) 3 818) 1 819) 4 820) 4
821) 4 822) 1 823) 3 824) 4 825) 1 826) 3 827) 3 828) 1 829) 2 830) 4
831) 2 832) 4 833) 4 834) 2 835) 3 836) 4 837) 3 838) 3 839) 4 840) 2
841) 1 842) 4 843) 3 844) 4 845) 2 846) 2 847) 4 848) 2 849) 2 850) 2
851) 1 852) 4 853) 2 854) 1 855) 1 856) 2 857) 3 858) 2 859) 4 860) 3
861) 4 862) 4 863) 1 864) 1 865) 3 866) 1 867) 4 868) 1 869) 4 870) 2
871) 1 872) 4 873) 2 874) 3 875) 4 876) 4 877) 1 878) 4 879) 2 880) 3
881) 3 882) 2 883) 3 884) 2 885) 4 886) 4 887) 3 888) 4 889) 2 890) 4
891) 1 892) 3 893) 2 894) 4 895) 1 896) 3 897) 4 898) 3 899) 2 900) 4


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. A particle is projected up an inclined with initial speed v=20m/s and at an angle   300 with
the plane. The component of its velocity perpendicular to the plane when it strikes the plane
is:
1) 10 3m / s 2) 10m / s 3) 5 3m / s 4) 10 5m / s
2. A force F is applied on block A as shown in figure. The contact force between the blocks A
and B and between the blocks B and C respectively are (Assume frictionless surface)
F 2F 6F 4F F 4 F 6F
1) , 2) , 3) F , 4) ,
7 7 7 7 2 7 7
3. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 300 , the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the
plank in 4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will
be, respectively
1) 0.4 and 0.3 2) 0.6 and 0.6 3) 0.6 and 0.5 4) 0.5 and 0.6
4. Two stones of masses m and 2m are whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius
r
and the lighter one radius r. The Tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that of the
2
value of heavier stone when they experience same centripetal forces. The value of n is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
1
5. The force constant of a weightless spring is 16N m . A body of mass 1.0 kg suspended from it
is pulled down through 5 cm and then released. The maximum kinetic energy of the system
(spring + body) will be
1) 2 10 2 J 2) 4 10 2 J 3) 8 102 J 4) 16 102 J
6. Figure shows a thin metallic triangular sheet ABC. The mass of the sheet is M .The moment of
inertia of the sheet about side AC is:
Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
18 12 6 4
7. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If
their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be in the ratio

1) 1:2 2) 2 :1 3) 2:1 4) 1: 2
8. A Particle is projected vertically upwards and it reaches the maximum height H in time T.
The height of the particle at any time t will be.
1 2 1 2 1 2
1) g  t  T  2) H  g  t  T  3)   g  t  T  4) H  g (t  T )
2 2 3
9. A body of mass m is placed on the earth’s surface. It is taken from the earth’s surface to a
height=3R. The change in gravitational potential energy of the body is
2 3 mgR mgR
1) mgR 2) mgR 3) 4)
3 4 2 4
10. A 900 kg elevator hangs by a steel cable for which the allowable stress is 1.15 108 N / m 2 . What
is the minimum diameter required if the elevator accelerates upward at 1.5m / s 2 ? Take g=10
m / s2
6 102 6 102 3 102 3 102
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
5 10 10 5
11. A metal ball B1 (density 3.2 g/cc) is dropped in water, while another metal ball B2 (density 6.0
g/cc) is dropped in a liquid of density 1.6 g/cc. If both the balls have the same diameter and
attain the same terminal velocity, the ratio of viscosity of water to that of the liquid is
1) 2.0 2) 0.5 3) 4.0 4) 5.0
12. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is the surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of material of thermal
conductivity K 2 . The two ends of a combined system are maintained at two different
temperatures. There is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is in
steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is:
K  3K 2 K1K 2 3K1  K 2
1) K1  K 2 2) 1 3) 4)
4 K1  K 2 4
13. A black body is heated from 270 C to 127 0 C . The ratio of their energies of radiation emitted
will be
1) 81:256 2) 27:64 3) 9:16 4) 3:4
14. If pressure P, velocity V and time T are taken as fundamental physical quantities, the
dimensional formula of force is.
1) PV 2T 2 2) P 1V 2T 2 3) PVT 2 4) P 1VT 2
15. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have a rms velocity of 200 m/sec at 270 C and
1.0 105 N / m 2 pressure. When the temperature is 127 0 C and pressure is 0.5 105 N / m 2 , the
rms velocity in m/sec will be
100 2 400 100
1) 2) 100 2 3) 4)
3 3 3
16. A gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The part ABC of process is
semicircular. The work done by the gas is:
1) 400πJ 2) 2456J 3) 200 J 4) 1826J

17. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
C
temperature. The ratio of p for the gas is
Cv
4 5 3
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
3 3 2
18. An L-shaped tube with a small orifice is held in a water stream as shown in fig. The upper end
of the tube is 10.6cm above the surface of water. What will be the height of the jet of water
coming from the orifice? (Velocity of water stream is 2.45m/s)
1) Zero 2) 20.8cm 3) 10.6 cm 4) 40.0 cm

19. A metallic block weighs 15N in air. It weighs 12 N when immersed in water and 13N when
immersed in another liquid. What is the specific gravity of the liquid?
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3)12/13 4) 13/15
20. A body performs SHM along the straight line segment ABCDE with C as the midpoint of
segment AE (A and E are the extreme position for the SHM). Its kinetic energies at B and D
are each one fourth of its maximum value. If length of segment AE is 2R, then the distance
between B and D is
3 R
1) R 2) 3) 3R 4) 2R
2 2
21. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of
mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wave length 1 is
produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of
the rope is 2 . The ratio 2 / 1 is:
m1 m1  m2 m2 m1  m2
1) 2) 3) 4)
m2 m2 m1 m1
22. Two sirens situated one kilometer apart are producing sound of frequency 330Hz. An
observer starts moving from one siren to the other with a speed of 2 m/s. If the speed of sound
be 330 m/s, what will be the beat frequency heard by the observer?
1) 8 2) 4 3) 6 4) 1
23. An electron of mass me initially at rest moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric
field in time t1 .A portion of mass m p also initially at rest takes time t2 to move through an
equal distance in this uniform electronic field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the ratio of
t2 / t1 is nearly equal to
1/ 2 1/ 2
1) 1 2)  m p / me  3) m
e / mp  4) 1836

24. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged with 10μC. Another uncharged sphere of
radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After that if the spheres are separated, then
surface density of charges, on the sphere will be in the ratio of
1) 1:4 2) 1:3 3) 2:1 4) 1:1
25. Two charges, each equal to 1μC, are placed at the vertices A and B of a triangle ABC. The
product of AC and BC is 30 cm 2 . The sum of the sides AC and BC is 10cm. The potential at C
is
1) 3 105V 2) 6 105V 3) 9 105V 4) 18mV
26. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each divisions
reads 1 volt, the resistance in ohms needed to be connected in series with the coil will be
1) 99995 2) 9995 3) 103 4) 105
27. If power dissipated in the 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36W, the potential difference
across the 2Ω resistor is
1) 8 V 2) 10 V 3) 2 V 4) 4 V
28. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in figure.
The force experienced by 10 cm length of wire Q is
1) 1.4 104 N towards right 2) 1.4 104 N towards left

3) 2.6 104 N towards right 4) 2.6 104 N towards left
29. A triangular loop of side l carries a current I. It is placed in a magnetic field B such that the
plane of the loop is in the direction of B. The torque on the loop is
3 2 2 3
1) Zero 2) bil 3) Il B 4) IBl 2
2 4
30. The ratio of the magnetic field at the center of a current carrying coil of the radius a and at a
distance ’a’ from center of the coil and perpendicular to the axis of coil is
1 1
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 2 2
2 2 2
31. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B=0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1
mms 1 . The induced emf when the radius is 2cm is

1) 2πμV 2) πμV 3)  V 4) 2μV
2

32. A circuit has a resistance of 11Ω, an inductive reactance of 25Ω and a capacitative resistance
of 18Ω. It is connected to an AC source of 260 V and 50 Hz. The current through the circuit
(in amperes) is
1) 11 2) 15 3)18 4) 20
33. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The magnitude of the ratio of their focal length
is 2/3. Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal lengths?
1) -75, 50 2) -10, 15 3) 75, 50 4) -15, 10
0
34. When light rays are incident on a prism at an angle 45 , the minimum deviation is obtained. If
refractive index of the material of prism is 2 , then the angle of prism will be
1) 300 2) 400 3) 500 4) 600
35. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of
focal length 5 cm is focused on a distant object is such a way that parallel rays comes out from
the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle 20 at the objective, the angular width of the image
1) 100 2) 240 3) 500 4) 1/60
36. A double slit experiment is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.33. It has slit separation
of 1mm and distance between the plane of slits and screen 1.33 m. The slits are illuminated by
a parallel beam of light whose wavelength in air is 6300A0
1) 6.3 104 m 2) 8.3 104 m 3) 6.3 102 m 4) 6.3 105 m
37. When the angle of incidence on a material is 600 , the reflected light is completely polarized.
The velocity of the reflected ray inside the material is (in ms 1 )
 3 
1) 3 108 2)   10
8
3) 3  108 4) 0.5 108
 2
38. When radiation of wavelength  is incident on a metallic surface. The stopping potential is
4.8 volts. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold wavelength for the surface is
1) 2  2) 4  3) 6  4) 8 
39. The ratio between total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and
hydrogen atom (both in ground state) is
1) 1 2) 8 3)4 4)16
40. At any instant the ratio of the amount of radioactive substances is 2:1. If their half-lives be
respectively12 and 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of the substances?
1) 1:1 2) 2:1 3)1:2 4) 1:4
41. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of
each nucleus of uranium atom U 238 is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per
hour will be
1) 30 1025 2) 4 1022 3) 10 1020 4) 5 1015
42. Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connections are reversed, the value of V0 changes by
1) 0.2 V 2) 0.4 V 3) 0.6 V 4) 0.8V

43. A transistor is used as an amplifier in CB mode with a load resistance of 5kΩ the current gain
of amplifier is 0.98 and the input resistance is 70Ω, the voltage gain and power gain
respectively are
1) 70, 68.6 2)80, 75.6 3) 60, 66.6 4) 90, 96.6
44. If A and B two inputs in AND gate, then AND gate has an output of 1 when the values of A
and B are
1) A=0, B=0 2) A=1, B=1 3) A=1, B=0 4) A=0,B=1
45. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
wave?
1) A charge moving at constant velocity 2) A stationary charge
3) A charge less particle 4) An accelerating charge
CHEMISTRY
46. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particles is 6.02  102 cc / g whose radius and length 7A0
and 10A0 , If N A  6.02  1023 find molecular weight of virus
1) 3.08 103 kg / mol 2) 15.4 kg / mol 3) 15.4  10 4 kg / mol 4) 3.08 10 4 kg / mol
47. Which transition is Li 2 would have the same wavelength as the 2  4 transition is He  ion?
1) 4  2 2) 2  4 3) 3  6 4) 6  2
48. Pressure of a mixture of 4g of O2 and 2g of H 2 confined in a bulb of 1 litre at 00 C is
1) 25.184 atm 2) 31.205 atm 3) 45.215 atm 4) 15.210 atm
49. Which of the following exhibits weakest inter molecular forces
1) NH 3 2) HCl 3) He 4) H 2O
50. If x1 , x2 & x3 are enthalpies of H-H, O=O and O-H bonds respectively and x4 is the enthalpy of
vaporization of water, estimate the standard enthalpy of combustion of hydrogen?
x x x x
1) x1  2  2 x3  x4 2) x1  2  2 x3  x4 3) x1  2  x3  x4 4) 2 x3  x1  2  x4
2 2 2 2
51. Which of the following on the addition will cause deep red colour to disappear.
2
Feaq3   SCN aq    Fe  SCN    aq 
Pale yellow Colour less Deep red
a) KSCN b) HgC 2 c) H 2C 2O 4
1) a, b & c 2) a & b only 3) b & c only 4) a & c only
52. Which of the following are not state functions?
I) q+w II) q III) w IV) H-Ts
1) II,III&IV 2) I,II&III 3) II&III 4) I&IV
M M M
53. 30 CC of HC, 20 CC of HNO3 and 40CC of NaOH solutions are mixed and the volume
3 2 4
was made up to 1 dm 3 . Then pH of the resulting solution is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 8
0
54. Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0 C . This is due to
1) very high ionization energy and weak metallic bond
2) Low ionization energy
3) high atomic weight 4) high vapour pressure
55. Which substance does not speed up decomposition of H 2O2 ?
1) glycerol 2) Pt 3) gold 4) MnO2
56. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is incorrect
1) Hydration enthalpy : Li   Na   K   Rb 2) Ionisation energy : Li  Na  K  Rb
3) Density : Li  Na  K  Rb 4) Atomic size : Li  Na  K  Rb
57. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false
1) They are used as cation exchangers
2) They have open structure which enables them to take up small molecules
3) Zeolites are alumina silicates having three dimensional network
4) Some of the SiO 4 4 units are replaced by AO 45 and AO69 ions in Zeolits.
58. The chemical entities present in thermosphere of atmosphere are
1) O 2 , O  , NO  2) O3 3) N 2 , O2 , CO2 , H 2O 4) O3 , O2 , O2
59. Which is expected to show paramagnetism?
1) ClO2 2) SO2 3) CO2 4) SiO2
60. The bond order in CO32 ion between C-O is
1) Zero 2) 0.88 3) 1.33 4) 2
61. Which is the best description of behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below?
H 2O  Br2  HOBr  HBr
1) Proton acceptor only 2) both oxidized and reduced
3) Oxidized only 4) reduced only
62. One mole of CaOCl2 is dissolved in water & excess of KI added. Then hypo  Na2 S 2O3 
required to react with the oxidised product completely is
1) 1 mole 2) 2 moles 3) 1.5 moles 4) 2.5 moles
63. An organic compound containing C, H & N have the percentage 40, 13.33 & 46.67. Its
empirical formula may be
1) C2 H 7 N 2) C2 H 7 N 2 3) CH 4 N 4) CH 5 N
64. How will you separate a solution of benzene + CHCl3
1) Sublimation 2) Filtration 3) Distillation 4) Crystallization
65. The relative extent to which the various orbitals penetrate the electron clouds of other orbitals
is
1) s  p  d  f 2) f  d  p  s 3) p  s  d  f 4) d  f  p  s
66. A metal has an FCC latticed. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the
metal is 2.72 gm. cm3 . The molar mass of the metal is
1) 30 g mol  2) 27 g mol  3) 20 g mol  4) 40 g mol 
67. The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 m of Hg. A non-volatile and
non-electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of
the solution is 600 m of Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid substance?
1) 49.50 2) 59.6 3) 69.5 4) 79.8
68. For the inversion of cane sugar, the order and molecularity values respectively are
1) 2 and 2 2) 1 and 2 3) 1 and 1 4) 2 and 1
69. Consider the half-cell reduction reaction
Mn 2  2e   Mn , E 0  1.18V
Mn 2  Mn 3  e  , E 0  1.51V
0
The E 0 for the reaction 3Mn 2  Mn 2 Mn 3 and possibility of the forward reaction are
1) -2.69V and no 2) -4.18V and yes
3) +0.33V and yes 4) +2.69V and no
70. For a first order reaction, the half-life period is independent of
1) Initial concentration 2) cube root of initial concentration
3) first power of final concentration 4) square root of final concentration
71. A liquid aerosol is a colloidal system of
1) a liquid dispersed in a solid 2) a liquid dispersed in a gas
3) a gas dispersed in a liquid 4) a solid dispersed in a gas
72. Thomas slag is
1) CaSiO3 2) Ca3  PO4 2 3) MnSiO3 4) CaCO3

73. Which of the following after burning at room temperature gives gaseous oxide?
1) H 2) Na
3) S 4) He
74. Which noble gas is most soluble in water?
1) He 2) Ar 3) Ne 4) Xe
75. Which one of the following compounds is not colored?
1) Na2 CuCl4  2) Na2 CdCl4 
3) K 4  Fe  CN 6  4) K 3  Fe  CN 6 
76. Which of the following is more basic in nature
1) La  OH 3 2) Gd  OH 3
3) Pm  OH 3 4) Lu  OH 3
77. In the complex Fe  CO  x the value of x is and it is
1) 3, octahedral 2) 4, tetrahedral
3) 5, trigonal pyramidal 4) 6, square pyramidal
78. A magnetic moment 1.73 B.M will be shown by one among the following
2
1)  Ni  CN  4  2) TiCl4
4 2
3)  COCl6  4) Cu  NH 3  4 
79. Lysine is least soluble in water in the P H range

1) 3 to 4 2) 5 to 6 3) 6 to 7 4) 8 to 9
80. Which one of the following is used to make non-stick cookware?
1) PVC 2) Polystyrene
3) Polyethylene terephthalate 4) poly tetra fluoro ethene
81. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin are
1) NH 3 , Cl 2) NH 3 , H 2O
3) Cl , H 2O 4) NO, Cl
82. Which plastic is obtained from CHCl3 in the following reaction?
0
HF 800 C polymerisation
CHCl3 
SbF3
 X   Y   Plastic
1) Bakelite 2) Polythene 3) Teflon 4) Perspex
83.
CH 3
CH 3CH 2ONa CH 3CH 2OH

B 
CH3CH 2OH  CH 3  C  Br  A
 major   major 
CH 3
A and B are

CH 3
1) CH3  C  OCH 2CH 3 in both cases

CH 3
CH 3
2)
CH 3  C  CH 2 in both cases
CH 3 CH 3
3) CH 3  C  OCH 2CH 3 and CH 3  C
CH 3 CH 2
CH 3 CH 3
4) CH 3  C and CH 3  C  OCH 2CH 3
CH 2
CH 3
84. Which of the following exhibits linkage isomerism
1)  Co  NH 3 5 Br  SO 4 2)  Co  NH 3 5 NO 2  C 2
3)  Cr  H 2 O 6  C 3 4)  Co  NH 3 6   Cr  CN 6 
85. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?
1) 2) 3) 4)
SOCl2 NH 3 KOH
86. CH 3CH 2COOH   B   C 
Br2
 D the structure of D is
1) CH 3CH 2 NHCH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 3) CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2 4) CH 3CH 2 CONH 2
87. Organic compound A of the molecular formula C5 H10Cl2 is hydrolysed to compound B
C5 H10O , which gives an oxime with hydroxylamine and yellow ppt with a mixture of iodine
and sodium hydroxide. The compound A should be
1) CH 3CH 2CCl2 CH 2CH 3 2) CH 3CH 2CH 2CCl2CH 3
3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2CHCl2 4) CH 3CH 2 CH 2CHClCH 2Cl
88. Cyanohydrin of which of the following forms lactic acid
1) CH 3CH 2CHO 2) HCHO 3) CH 3CHO 4) CH 3COCH 3
89. Which of the following is more basic than aniline?
1) p-nitro aniline 2) benzyl amine 3) Di phenyl amine 4) Tri phenyl amine
 
90. Which of the following will be most stable diazomium salt RN 2 X ?
1) C6 H 5 N 2 X  2) CH 3 N 2 X  3) CH 3CH 2 N 2 X  4) C6 H 5CH 2 N 2 X 
BIOLOGY
91. Two organisms belongs to same class but not in the same family belongs to same __________
1) genus 2) species 3) variety 4) order

salivary amylase
92. Starch  A . A is
p H 6.8
1) Monosaccharide 2) polysaccharides 3) Disaccharide 4) Amylopectin

93. In potato, brinjal, makoi, lion, leopard. How many species, genera and families are there
1) Species-5; Genus-3; Family-2 2) Species-4; Genus-2; Family-3
3) Species-5; Genus-2; Family-2 4) Species-4; Genus-3; Family-3
94. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the
following type of teeth
1) premolars 2) molars 3) incisors 4) canine
95. Which of the following are homosporous pteridophytes
I. Selaginella II. Lycopodium III. Salvinia IV. Equisetum
1) I & IV only 2) II & IV only 3) II & III only 4) III & IV only
96. The blood leaving the lungs has all its hemoglobin oxygenated and gives up oxygen to the
tissues because
1) The tissue can absorb CO2 from oxyhaemoglobin
2) O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 concentration is higher as compared to blood
3) O2 concentration in tissues is higher and CO2 concentration is lower as compared to blood
4) oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction in lungs
97. In a 1.8kb long piece of ds-DNA,320 Adenine bases were found. What would be the number of
cytosine bases?
1) 580 2) 1160 3) 320 4) 1180
98. Two friends are eating together in a dining table one of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to the improper moment of
1) tongue 2) thinking 3) epiglottis 4) diaphragm
99. Tetradynamous condition is found in
1) Ocimum sanctum 2) Salvia 3) Brassica compestris 4) Datura metal
100. The given flow of blood circulation is represented as
Body parts Heart
Impure blood
Gills
Pure blood
1) Fishes-incomplete double circulation 2) Fishes-single circulation
3) Amphibians-Incomplete double circulation 4) Amphibians-complete single circulation
101. The most abundant component of cell after water is
1) Lipid 2) protein 3) nucleic acids 4) Ions
102. Which of the following is correct about human heart?
1) The volume of both atria>the volume of both ventricles
2) The volume of both ventricles >the volume of both atria
3) The volume of both atria=the volume of both ventricles
4) The volume of both ventricles <the volume of both atria

103. Which of the following kingdom system did not distinguish between the prokaryotes and
eukaryotes as well as unicellular and multicellular organisms
1) Whittaker’s five kingdom system 2) Haeckel’s three kingdom system
3) Copeland’s four kingdom system 4) Linnaeus two kingdom system
104. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to the
1) number of Bowman’s capsules
2) sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli
3) double the number of Bowman’s capsules 4) sum of kidneys in the body
105. Primary medullary rays are absent in
I. Dicot stem II. Dicot root III. Monocot stem IV. Monocot root
1) I,II,III only 2) I&IV only 3) II,III,IV only 4) III,IV only
106. Which one of the following correctly explains the functions of a specific part of a human
nephron?
1) Henle’s loop-Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
2) DCT- secretion of water, ions
3) Afferent arteriole-carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards the renal vein
4) Podocytes-Create minute space(slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
107. Match column-I with column-II,III and select the correct option from the given codes
Column-I Column-II Column-III
I. F.W.went (A) Auxin (P) fungus
II. Kurosawa (B) Cytokinin (Q) coleoptile of oat seedling
III. F.T Addicot (C) Gibberillic Acid (R) DNA
IV. Skoog & millar (D) Abscisic Acid (S) stress Hormone
1) I-AQ 2) I-AQ 3) I-AQ 4) I-AQ
II-BP II-CP II-CP II-CR
III-CR III-CS III-DS III-DS
IV-DS IV-BR IV-BR IV-BP
108. Study the following diagram and identify the correct option
1) C is made up of actin where as A and B are made up of tropomyosin

2) B and C are made up of tropomyosin
3) C has binding sites for ATP and actin
4) A and B are made up of heavy meromyosin
109. In a cross involving F1 Hybrid flies, more number of parental type off springs were produced
than the recombinant type off springs this indicate
1) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
2) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
3) Both the characters are controlled by more than one gene
4) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
110. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular (or) skeletal system
1) Muscular dystrophy- age related shortening of muscles
2) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
3) Myasthenia gravis- Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.
4) Gout- inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
111. “We two (I & You) need not posses the same nucleotide sequence for synthesis of insulin”.
This assessment is based on which feature of codon
1) universality 2) Ambiguity 3) Degeneracy 4) Non-Overlapping

112. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system.
1) condyloid joint - between occipital condyles and Axis
2) pivot joint -between Atlas and occipital condyles
3) Hinge joint - between femur and tibio fibula
4) Gliding joint -between carpals and meta carpals
113. Which of the following is not acceptable as a feature of genetic material
1) It should be able to undergo changes at a higher rate
2) It should be structurally and chemically stable
3) It should be able to express itself as ‘mendelian characters’
4) It should be able to generate its replica
114. When a neuron is in resting state, ie, not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
1) Equally permeable to both Na+ions and K+ions
2) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ions
3) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and low permeable to Na+ ions
4) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
115. Which is not true for viroids
1) They are smaller than viruses 2) They contain ds-RNA as genetic material
3) RNA has low molecular weight 4) It causes potato spindle tuber disease
116. Which of the following senses is affected if the tectorial membrane is removed from human?
1) balance 2) auditory 3) vision 4) olfaction
117. Which one of the following is case of wrong matching?
1) Somatic hybridization-Fusion of two diverse cells
2) Embriod-Zygotic embryo
3) micro propagation-in-vitro production of plants in large numbers
4) callus-undifferentiated mass of cells
118. A man with a certain disease marries a normal woman. They have eight children (3 daughters
and 5 sons). All the daughters suffer from their fathers disease but none of the sons are
affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
1) sex linked recessive 2) sex linked dominent
3) autosomal dominent 4) sex limited recessive
119. The gene that encodes for BT-protein specific to cotton ball worm is
I) cry IAc II) cry II Ab III) cry II AC IV) cry I Ab
1) I&IV 2) I& II 3) II&III 4) II&IV
120. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male child becoming color blind are
1) Possible when maternal grand mother is homozygous for colour vision
2) Possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision
3) possible only when fathers mother was colour blind
4) Possible only when mothers father was colour blind
121. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
1) Selecting pathogen vectors 2) transformation of plant cells
3) constructing chimeric DNA 4) DNA amplification
122. Which one of the following hormones through synthesized elsewhere is stored and released by
the master gland?
1) Luteinizing hormone 2) prolactin
3) melanocyte stimulating hormone 4) antidiuretic hormone

123. Trichoderma is a effective biocontrol agent for several plant pathogens species of which
belongs to class A and is also used for production of Bioactive molecule B. A & B are
A B
1) Phycomycetes Cyclosporin-A
2) Basidiomycetes statins
3) Deuteromycetes cytosporin-A
4) Ascomycetes statins
124. A person suffers from frequent urination, feels thirsty and there is no glucose in the urine,
what may be the cause
1) Hypersecretion of posterior lobe of pituitary
2) Hyposecretion of posterior lobe of pituitary
3) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
4) Hypersecretion of thyroid
125. Non-N2 fixing biofertilizer is
1) Anabaena 2) Oscillatoria 3) Aulosira 4) Glomus
126. Which of these options is correct with regard to statements X and Y?
Statement X: Some STDs do not show symptoms in females
Statement Y: Some STDs in females may remain undetected for long time
1) Statement X and Y are correct 2) Statement X and Y are wrong
3) Statement X is correct Y is wrong 4) Statement X is wrong Y is correct
127. Mis-match regarding the phenotypical ratios of following crosses is
1) YyRr x yyrr-1:1:1:1(pea) 2) tt x TT-1:1(pea)
3) yyRR x YYrr-9:3:3:1 (F2 progency of pea) 4) Rr x Rr-1:2:1(snapdragon)
128. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
1) Hepatitis B virus 2) Human immunodeficiency virus
3) Chikunguniya virus 4) Ebola virus
129. Which one of the following is not common between Bryophytes & pteridophytes
1) Presence of Archegonium 2) Embryo
3) Antherozoids motility 4) Root system
130. Which option is correct for the region labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the given diagram
1) a = Mitosis, b = Primary spermatocyte 2) a = Meiosis, b = Secondary spermatocyte

3) a = Mitosis, b = Secondary spermatocyte 4) a = Meiosis, b = Primary spermatocyte
131. Diplontic life cycle is observed in ___
1) Pteridophytes and many algae 2) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
3) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 4) Bryophytes and spermatophytes
132. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of color blindness
in her family. What is the probability of their son being color blind?
1) 100% 2) 50% 3) nil 4) 25%
133. Dikaryotic phase is observed in _____
1) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes 2) Phycomycetes and deuteromycetes
3) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes 4) Ascomycetes and deuteromycetes

134. Mother and father have children with ‘O’, ‘A’ ‘B’ and ‘AB’ blood group, respectively.
What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
1) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group & father is heterozygous for B
2) Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group & father is homozygous for B
3) Both parents are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups
4) Both parents are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups
135. Identify the mis-match
1) petunia-ornamental 2) lupin-ornamental 3) muliathi-ornamental 4) Tulip-ornamental
136. In population of 250 individuals in Hardy-weinberg equilibrium recessive and homozygous
dominant individuals are 30% and 20% respectively. The frequency of recessive allele is
1) 0.45 2) 0.55 3) 0.48 4) 0.05
137. The fruit of mango differ from that coconut with respect to
1) mesocarp 2) endocarp 3) Drupe 4) single seeded
138. Identify the A,B,C and D in this figure
A
Population D
C density N
1) A-Natality, B-immigration, C-Mortality, D-Emigration

2) A- immigration, B-emmigration, C- Natality, D- Mortality
3) A- Mortality, B-emmigration, C- Natality, D- immigration
4) A- Mortality, B- Natality, C- emmigration, D- immigration
139. Identify the incorrect statement regarding secondary growth in dicot stem
1) lateral meristems contribute to secondary growth
2) cork cambium produces cork and secondary cortex
3) spring wood is lighter in color and has lower density
4) Bark constitutes wood and periderm
140. World summit on sustainable development was held in
1) Johannesburg, south Africa 2002 2) Rio De Janerio, 1992
3) Kyoto protocol- Japan 4) Montreal, Canada
141. In animal cells during cell cycle the centriole duplicates in the following phase
1) G1 2) G2 3) S 4) M
142. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristic goes on
1) Increasing 2) decreasing 3) remains same 4) none of the above
143. Root pressure
1) Is positive 2) is driving force for guttation
3) Is responsible for exudation 4) all the above correct
144. Which of these are examples of alien species invasion?
1) Nile perch introduced in Lake Victoria in east Africa
2) African cat fish in Indian River
3) water hyacinth in India 4) All of the above
145. Boron is not concerned with _______
1) carbohydrate translocation 2) uptake and ultilization of Ca 2
3) pollengrain transfer 4) cell membrane functioning

146. Matrix (or) ground substance in connective tissues are made up of
1) thick proteins 2) elastin fibers
3) modified polysacchardies 4) modified triglycerides
147. Which of the following statement is true for C4 plants
1) The first C4 acid formed in the bundle sheath cells is OAA
2) They undergo photorespiration
3) Maize and sorghum are C4 plants 4) mesophyll cells contain Rubisco enzyme
148. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples
of
1) Bone 2) ligaments 3) gristle 4) Areolar tissue
149. Which of the following is a copper containing electron carrier in E.T.S
1) complex-I 2) complex-II 3) complex-III 4) complex-IV
150. Polyp  Asexually  Medusa  sexually  PolyP
The above cycle is shown by
1) sea fan 2) sea pen 3) sea fur 4) sea walnuts\
151. In germinating castor seed, the R.Q is _____
1) one 2) more than one 3) less than one 4) zero
152. Animals with soft body, bilateral symmetry, triploblastic and unsegmented usually protected
by a shell made up of calcium carbonate belongs to phylum
1) Porifera 2) Echinodermata 3) Mollusca 4) Arthropoda
153. The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of _____
1) DNA 2) m-RNA 3) r-RNA 4) t-RNA
154. Which of the following is correct about reproduction in hemichordate?
1) Internal fertilization 2) usually direct development
3) sexes are separate 4) monoecious organism
155. Choose the correct statement regarding Ribosomes
1) They are also called suicidal bags of the cell
2) 70s Ribosomes are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
3) Ca+ Ion concentration is essential for formation of Ribosomal complex
4) They play major role in transcription
Structure Function
A. Wolffian duct 1) olfaction
B. Jacobson’s organs 2) Respiration
C. Intercostal muscles 3) carries sperms
D. vascular cloacal wall 4) exchange of gases
1) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
3) A-3, B-1 C-2, D-4 4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
157. In ficus (peepal) pollination is affected by
1) air 2) water 3) insects 4) birds
158. The type of vertebrae in homeotherms with dicondylic skull
1) Amphiplatyan 2) Procoelous 3) Amphicoelous 4) Heterocoelous
159. Polysiphonous condition is observed in
1) cucurbita 2) salvia 3) china rose 4) solanum
160. Which of the following characters is shown by the member of class-chondrichthyes
1) caudal fin is heterocercal
2) Gills without operulum
3) the skin is tough containing minute placoid scales
4) all the above
161. A leaf cell of a flowering plant has 26 chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes would
be
1) 13 in gametes 2) 26 in gametes 3) 52 in embryo 4) 13 in stem cells

162. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined by the germinal epithelium consisting of
1) Cells of Sertoli 2) Spermatocytes 3) Spermatogonium 4) Spermatids
163. In which of the following organisms m-RNA has introns
1) Nostoc 2) Rhizobium 3) Mycoplasma 4) Chlamydomonas
164. Ranikhet disease is found in
1) Honey bee 2) Hens 3) Fishes 4) Sericulture
165. The plant propagated through roots is
1) Sweet potato 2) Jasmine 3) Allium 4) All of the these
166. In an area where DDT had been used extensively used, the population of birds declined
significantly because
1) Increased cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
2) many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
3) birds stopped laying eggs
4) Earthworms in the area got eradicated
167. How many structural genes are present in the lac operon of E.coli?
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 6
168. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as
1) Net productivity 2) Net primary productivity
3) Gross primary productivity 4) Secondary productivity
169. Caulogenesis is due to
1) more auxin than cytokinin 2) gibberellin
3) more cytokinin than auxin 4) abscisic acid
170. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that average natality was 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 25 and emigration 30; The net increase in population is
1) 15 2) 05 3) zero 4) 275
171. Thermocycler is used for
1) gene transfer 2) splicing of DNA 3) Gene cloning 4) Gene isolation
172. The Kangaroo rat in north American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirements
by/through the some of the following methods for water conservation. How many are true?
I) Ability to dilute its urine II) Ability to concentrate its urine
III) Internal fat oxidation IV) Increasing food intake
1) All are true 2) All are false 3) More than 2 are true 4) More than one is true
173. Meloidogyne incognitia causes a great reduction in yield of
1) Bean 2) Tobacco 3) Rice 4) Cotton
174. Which one of the following is not a function of an ecosystem
1) productivity 2) stratification 3) energy flow 4) decomposition
175. Incorrect match of the following
1) Coleopterons-beetles 2) Lepidopterans-mosquitos
3) Dipterans-flies 4) Lepidopterans-army worm
176. Stages of Plasmodium vivax which are small in size, large in number, and formed by the end
of exoerythrocytic schizogony are
1) Macrometa cryptozoites 2) cryptozoites
3) micrometa cryptozoites 4) erythrocytic merozoites
177. Correct sequence of stages of succession in a pond
1) submerged plants  floating plants  reed swamp stage  sedges
2) floating plants  submerged plants  reed swamp stage  sedges
3) reed swamp stage  sedges  floating plants  submerged plants
4) sedges  reed swamp stage  floating plants  submerged plants
178. The larval stages of Wuchereria which can be seen in the female culex mosquito
I) micro filaria II) 1st stage micro filaria III) 2nd stage micro filaria IV) 3rd stage micro filaria
V) 4th stage micro filaria
1) I,II,III 2) II,III 3) II,III,IV 4) I,II,III,IV
179. What is the ploidy of embryo, endosperm, perisperm, and nucellus respectively?
1) 2n,3n,2n,2n 2) 2n,3n,3n,2n 3) 3n,2n,2n,3n 4) 2n,3n,2n,3n
180. Nicotine results in increased heart rate and blood pressure, by stimulating the release of
1) Vasopressin 2) adrenaline 3) insulin 4) thyroxine


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
901) 2 902) 2 903) 3 904) 2 905) 1 906) 2 907) 4 908) 2 909) 2 910) 2
911) 2 912) 2 913) 1 914) 1 915) 3 916) 4 917) 4 918) 2 919) 2 920) 3
921) 2 922) 2 923) 2 924) 3 925) 1 926) 2 927) 2 928) 1 929) 4 930) 4
931) 2 932) 4 933) 4 934) 4 935) 2 936) 1 937) 3 938) 2 939) 2 940) 1
941) 2 942) 2 943) 1 944) 2 945) 4
CHEMISTRY
946) 2 947) 3 948) 1 949) 3 950) 2 951) 3 952) 3 953) 2 954) 1 955) 1
956) 3 957) 4 958) 1 959) 1 960) 3 961) 2 962) 2 963) 3 964) 3 965) 1
966) 2 967) 3 968) 2 969) 1 970) 1 971) 2 972) 2 973) 3 974) 4 975) 2
976) 1 977) 3 978) 4 979) 3 980) 4 981) 1 982) 3 983) 3 984) 2 985) 2
986) 2 987) 2 988) 3 989) 2 990) 1
BIOLOGY
991) 4 992) 3 993) 3 994) 1 995) 2 996) 2 997) 1 998) 3 999) 3 1000) 2
1001) 2 1002) 2 1003) 4 1004) 1 1005) 3 1006) 4 1007) 3 1008) 4 1009) 2 1010) 2
1011) 3 1012) 3 1013) 1 1014) 3 1015) 2 1016) 2 1017) 2 1018) 2 1019) 2 1020) 4
1021) 2 1022) 4 1023) 3 1024) 2 1025) 4 1026) 1 1027) 2 1028) 3 1029) 4 1030) 3
1031) 3 1032) 3 1033) 3 1034) 3 1035) 3 1036) 2 1037) 1 1038) 2 1039) 4 1040) 1
1041) 3 1042) 2 1043) 4 1044) 4 1045) 3 1046) 3 1047) 3 1048) 3 1049) 4 1050) 3
1051) 3 1052) 3 1053) 3 1054) 3 1055) 2 1056) 3 1057) 3 1058) 1 1059) 1 1060) 4
1061) 1 1062) 1 1063) 4 1064) 2 1065) 1 1066) 2 1067) 2 1068) 3 1069) 3 1070) 2
1071) 3 1072) 4 1073) 2 1074) 2 1075) 2 1076) 3 1077) 1 1078) 4 1079) 1 1080) 2


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
0
1. A body is thrown at an angle 30 to the horizontal with the velocity of 10 m/s. After 2 sec, its
velocity will be (in m/s) (g=10m/s2)
1) 10 3 2) 5 3 3) 7 3 4) 2 3
2. A vehicle is travelling along unbanked curved path. If the friction between the road and tyres
suddenly disappears then the vehicle
1) moves along tangential direction
2) moves along radially outward direction
3) moves along a direction between tangential and radially outward direction
4) moves along the same curved path
3. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings as shown in the figure.
After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v.
What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is acceleration due to gravity)
1) 3 mg 2) 6 mg 3) zero 4) 2 mg
4. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 450, the box starts to slip and slides 2m down the
plank in 2s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the base and the plank will
be respectively
1) 1 and 0.65 2) 3 and 0.75 3) 1 and 0.858 4) 1 and 0.758


5. A particle moves with a velocity V  2i  3 j  kˆ ms 1 under the influence of a constant force

F  2i  2 j  3kˆ N . The instantaneous power applied to the particle is
1) 7W 2) 13W 3) 6W 4) 1W
6. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 60m with an initial velocity Vo. It
collides with the ground, loses 25 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same
height. The initial velocity Vo is
1) 36ms-1 2) 60ms-1 3) 50ms-1 4) 30ms-1
7. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1g falling from a height of 2km. It hits the ground
with a speed of 100m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s2. The work done by (i) the
gravitational force and (ii) the resistive force of air
1) (i) -10J (ii) -5J 2) (i) 10J (ii) 5J 3) (i) 20J (ii) -15J 4) (i) 1J (ii) 5J

8. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and solid sphere, both having the
same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and
the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing through its centre. Which of the two will
acquire a greater angular speed after a given time?
1) Sphere 2) Hollow Cylinder
3) Both acquire same angular speed in same time
4) Data is insufficient to reach any conclusion
R
9. A disc of radius R has mass 6m, a hole of radius is made in it as shown. The moment of
2
inertia of the remaining part about an axis passing through entre O of the disc and perpendicular to
the plane of disc is
21 9 8 2
1) mR 2 2) mR 2 3) mR 2 4) mR 2
8 2 21 9
10. Centre of mass of 3 particles 5kg, 10kg & 15kg is at (0,0,0). Where should a particle of mass
20 kg be placed so that the centre of mass of combination will be at (2, 2, 2) ?
1) (1,1,1) 2) (3,3,3) 3) (0,0,0) 4) (5,5,5)
11. An infinite number of point masses each equal to ‘2m’ are placed at x=1, x=2, x=4, x=8m…
what is the total gravitation potential at x=0
1) -2Gm 2) -4Gm 3) -6Gm 4) -3Gm
12. The mass of a body is ‘m’. It is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to 3 times
the radius of the earth (R). The change in potential energy of body will be.
2 1 3
1) mgR 2) mgR 3) mgR 4) mgR
3 3 4
13. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x=0 with an amplitude ‘a’ and
3
time period ‘T’. The speed of pendulum at x  a will be
4
a 7 a 5 a 7 a
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 T 2T 2T
14. Two simple harmonic motions y1  A sin t , y2  2 A cos t are superimposed on a particle of
mass m. The total mechanical energy of the particle is
5 1
1) m 2 A2 2) m 2 A2 3) 3m 2 A2 4) m 2 A2
2 2
15. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching the other end of wire
with a force F, the increase in its length is l . If another wire of same material but length 3L
and radius 3r is stretched with a force of 3F, the increase in its length will be
l
1) l 2) 2 l 3) 4) 3 l
2
16. Water rises to a height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface
of water is made less than ‘h’ then
1) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing
2) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts over flowing like a fountain
3) water rises upto a point a little below the top and says there
4) water does not rise at all
17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of kinetic theory of gases?
1) The volume occupied by the molecules of the gas is negligible
2) The force of attraction between the molecules is negligible
3) The collision between the molecules are elastic
4) All molecules have same speed

18. 2g of steam at 1000 C can melt how much ice at 00C? Latent heat of ice =80 cal/g and latent
heat of steam = 540cal/g
1) 1) 8g 2) 16g 3) 32g 4) 4g
19. Certain quantity of water cools from 700C to 650C in the first 4 minutes and to 600C in next 6
minutes. The temperature of surroundings is
1) 520C 2) 420C 3) 100C 4) 200C
20. Efficiency of carnot’s engine aperating between reservoirs, maintained at temperatures
6270C and 270C is
1) 33.3% 2) 67% 3) 50% 4) 75%
21. 2 Moles of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown
in figure, The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is
1) -10KJ 2) 10KJ 3) 5KJ 4) -5KJ

22. Three long straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in fig. The
force experienced by 10cm length of wire Q is
1) 2x10-5N towards right 2) 2x10-5N towards left

-4
3) 2x10 N towards right 4) 2x10-4N towards left
23. A 50 turns coil shown in figure carries a current of 2A in a magnetic field B of 0.1Wb / m 2 .
The torque acting on the coil is
1) 48Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the page

2) 48x10-3 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page
3) 0.48 Nm tending to rotate the side AD into the page
4) 48x10-3 Nm tending to rotate the side AD out of the page
24. A magnet is dropped down in an infinitely long vertical copper tube.
1) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and ultimately acquires a constant
terminal velocity
2) The magnet moves with continuously decreasing velocity and ultimately comes to rest
3) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity but constant acceleration
4) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and acceleration

25. An AC generator consists of a coil of 500 turns each of area 500cm2 and rotating at an
angular speed of 50 rpm in a uniform magnetic field of 2.4x10-2T. Find the peak value of emf
induced
1) 0.314V 2) 31.4V 3) 3.14V 4) 314V
26. The time varying electric and magnetic fields in space
1) produce EM wave which is propagated with a velocity less than velocity of light.
2) do not produce EM wave
3) produce EM wave which propagates with a velocity greater than the velocity of light
4) produce EM wave which propagates with the velocity of light
27. An electron of mass m and charge ‘e’ initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric
field ‘E’. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of the electron at time ‘t’ ignoring
relativistic effect is
h eEt 2  mh h
1) 2
2) 3) 2
4)
eEt h eEt eE
0
28. Wave length of the first member of Lymen series is 1216A . Calculate the wavelength of
second member of Balmer series.
1) 2824A0 2) 4864A0 3) 3864A0 4) 4684A0
29. When an  - particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘V’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of
charge ‘Ze’ its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on ‘m’ as
1 1 1
1) m 2) 3) 4) 2
m m m
-1
30. A train moving at a speed of 20 ms towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
620HZ. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is (speed of sound in air =330ms-1)
1) 700HZ 2) 1840HZ 3) 1740HZ 4) None of these
31. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the
smallest length of the column is 25cm. The next large length of the column resonating with
the same tuning fork is
1) 125cm 2) 50cm 3) 75cm 4) 100cm
32. Charges of 4 C each are placed at two opposite corners of a square of side 1m and
4 C each at the remaining two corners. The intensity of electric at the centre of the square
is.
1) Zero 2) 18x105 N/C 3) 9x105 N/C 4) 4.5x105 N/C
33. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After charging the capacitor, battery is
disconnected and distance between the plates is decreased then which of the following
statement is correct?
1) Electric field does not remain constant 2) Potential difference is increased
3) The capacitance is decreased 4) The stored energy is decreased
34. The potential difference between A and B in the following figure is
1) 23V 2) 9V 3)19V 4) 3V
35. A potentiometer wire has a length 3m and resistance 5Ω. The resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
gradient 2m V per cm on the wire is
1) 0.16Ω 2) 116 Ω 3) 1.16 Ω 4) 11.6 Ω
36. Susceptibility is positive for
1) non – magnetic substances 2) dia and paramagnetic substances
3) ferro and diamagnetic substances 4) para and ferromagnetic substances
37. Number of fissions per second in a reactor of power 2W is (given energy released per fission is
200MeV)
1) 6.2x1010 2) 62x1010 3) 0.62x1010 4) 3.2x1010
38. Half life of a radioactive substance A is 3 times the half life of another radioactive substance
B. Initially the number of nuclei of A and B are NA and NB respectively. After two half lives
N
of A, number of nuclei of both are equal. Then the ratio A is
NB
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 16 4 3
39. A potential barrier V volts exists across a P-N junction the thickness of the depletion region is
‘d’. An electron with velocity ‘v’ approaches, P-N junction from N side. The velocity of the
electron across the junction is
2Ve 2Ve 2Ve
1) v2  2) v2  3) V 4)
m m m
40. Two NOT gates and one AND gate are connected as shown. The system is equivalent to
1) AND 2) NOR 3) OR 4) NAND

41. If the minimum voltage in an AM wave was found to be 4V and maximum voltage 12V. Find
percent modulation index.
1) 75% 2) 60% 3) 66.7% 4) 50%
42. Parallel rays of light focused by a thin convex lens. A thin concave lens of same focal length
then joined to the convex lens and the result is that.
1) The focal point shifts away from the lens by a small distance
2) The focal point shifts towards the lens by a small distance
3) The focal point of lens does not shift at all
4) The focal point shifts to infinity.
43. A bird in air looks at a fish vertically below it and inside water. X is the height of the bird
above the surface of water and Y is the depth of the fish below surface of water. If refractive
index of water w.r.t air is µ, the distance of the fish as observed by the bird is
Y
1) X+Y 2) X  3) µX+Y 4) µX+µY

44. Light of wave length 789nm is used to view an object under a microscope. The aperture of the
objective has a diameter of 0.8cm. Find the limiting angle of resolution.
1) 12.03x10-5 rad 2) 120.3x10-5 rad 3) 12.03x10-7 rad 4) 120.3x10-7rad
45. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 400nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on screen 0.5m away. It is observed that the first minimum is
at a distance of 2mm from the centre of the screen. Find the width of the slit
1) 2cm 2) 2mm 3) 0.2x10-4 m 4) 2x10-4 m
PHYSICS
0
46. KC for A  B  3C is 20 at 25 c, if a 2 liter vessel contains 1,2 and 4 mole of A, B and C
respectively, the reaction at 250c shall
1) Proceed from left to right 2) Proceed from right to left
3) Be at equilibrium 4) Not occur
47. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1M NaCl is (ksp of AgCl = 1.2x10-10)
1) 0.05M 2) 1.2x10-6M 3) 2x10-5 M 4) 1.2x10-9 M

48. A system absorbs 600J of energy and does worked equivalent to 400J of energy. The internal
energy change is
1) 1000J 2) 200J 3) 600J 4) 300J
49. N 2  3H 2  2 NH 3 .H  46 K cal. From the above equation, heat of formation of ammonia is
1) 46 K. cal 2) -46 K cal 3) -23 k. cal 4) 23 K. cal
50. +1 oxidation state is stable for the element
1) B 2) Al 3) Ga 4) Tl
0
200 C
51. The empirical formula of ‘A’ in the following reaction B2 H 6  NH 3  ' A '
1) BNH 2) CH 3) BNH2 4) B2NH
52. Carbon suboxide C3O2 has

1) bent structure 2) trigonal planer structure
3) Linear structure 4) distorted tetrahedral structure
53. The IUPAC name of the following compound is CH 3  CH (C2 H 5 )  CH  CH  CH 3
1) 2 – ethyl but 2 ene 2) 5 –ethyl pent 2 ene 3) 4 ethyl pent 2 ene 4) 5 – methyl pent 2 ene
54. Which of the following carbo catians is most stable

1) CH 3  CH 2 2) CH 2  CH  3) CH  C  4) C6 H 5
55. 0.259 gm of an organic compound when treated by carius method gave 0.35 gm of BaSo4. The
percentage of sulphor in the compound is
1) 16.23% 2) 18% 3) 18.5% 4) 42%
alc . KOH ,  Zn Cu
56. B  C2 H 5Cl  C2 H 5OH
 A. here compounds A and B are
1) CH 4 , C2 H 4 2) C2 H 4 , C2 H 6 3) C2 H 6 , C2 H 4 4) C2 H 6 , C2 H 5OH
57. Which of the following is contaminant
1) SO2 2) Pb 3) NaCl 4) MIC
58. 18 gm of a non volatile solute is dissolved in 900 gm of H2O such that the relative lowering of
vapour pressure is 0.0019. The molecular weight of the solute is nearly
1) 60 2) 342 3) 189 4) 18
59. Of the following, the solution with higher vapour pressure is
1) 10% Glucose 2) 10% Urea
3) 10% Sucrose 4) All of these have same V.P.
+
60. The radius of the Na is 95 Pm that of Cl ion is 181 pm. Predict that coordination number of
Na+
1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) unpredictable
61. What is the EMF of the cell?
2 2 0 0
Zn( s ) / Zn(0.1 M ) // Sn(0.001M ) / Sn) s ) . Given Esn 2 / Sn  0.14v and E Zn 2 / Zn  0.76V
1) 0.62 2) 0.56v 3) 1.12v 4) 0.31v

62. 99% completion of a first order reaction takes place in 22 min. The time taken for 99.9%
completion of the reaction will be
1) 33 min 2) 52 min 3) 56 min 4) 44 min
63. Gels is the mixture of
1) solid in liquid 2) liquid in solid 3) liquid in gas 4) Gas in liquid
64. The correct order of basic nature of hydrides of group – 15 elements is
1) NH 3  ASH 3  SbH 3  BiH 3  PH 3 2) NH 3  PH 3  ASH 3  SbH 3  BiH 3
3) BiH 3  SbH 3  ASH 3  PH 3  NH 3 4) PH 3  BiH 3  SbH 3  ASH 3  NH 3
65. In which pair of ions both the species contain s-s bond?
2 2 2 2
1) S 2O7 , S2 O32 2) S 4O6 , S 2O32 3) S 4O6 , S 2O32 4) S 4O6 , S 2O72
66. The correct order of acidic strength
1) HF  Hcl  HI  HF 2) Hcl  HBr  HF  HI
3) HBr  Hcl  HI  HF 4) HI  HBr  Hcl  HF

67. The number of lone pairs and bond pairs present on Xe of XeO3 molecule
1) 1,3 2) 1,6 3) 4,3 4) 6,1
68. Which of the following designation is impossible?

1) 4f 2) 5g 3) 2d 4) 6P
69. An electron having magnetic quantum number+2 cannot have allowed ‘n’ and ‘l’ valves
respectively
1) n  4, l  3 2) n  3, l  2 3) n  4, l  2 4) n  2, l  3
70. The pair elements posses almost the same properties
1) Eu  Yb 2) NB  Ti 3) Mo  w 4) Tc  Re
71. The ionization enthalpy of second period elements vary with atomic number as
The element present at points B and E are

1) Be,c 2) B,N 3) Be,O 4) Be,N
+ 
72. The correct order of bond energies in No, No and No
1) No   No  No  2) No  No   No  3) NO   NO  NO  4) No   No   No
73. Dipole moment is shown by
1) cis – 1,2 – Dichloro ethene 2) Trans 1-2 dichloro ethene
3) Trans – 2-3- dichloro -2-pentene 4) Both 1and 3
0
74. The density of CO2 gas at 27 c and 1 atm pressure is ____ (gram/lit)
1) 1.78 2) 1.52 3) 1.96 4) 1.2
75. 16 gm of oxygen occupies a volume of 22.4 liters at 1 atm and
1) 00c 2) 300c 3) 2730c 4) 273k
76. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 ml of 0.5M HCl with 250 ml of 2M HCl will
be
1) 0.875M 2) 1.0M 3) 1.75M 4) 0.097M
77. Oxidation numbers of N in NH 4 NO 3 respectively are
1) 3,  5 2) 5,  3 3) 3,  3 4) 5,  5
78. H2O2 turns blacked lead paintings to white colour. In this reaction it oxidizes pbs to pbso4.
The number of moles of H2O2 needed to oxidize one mole of pbs is ?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0.5 4) 4
79. The calcium phosphate slag is commercially khown as
1) Thomas slag 2) Baeyer’s slag 3) Wohler’s slag 4) Matle
80. The electronic configuration of Godolonium (z=64)
1)  Xe 4 f 8 5d 9 6s 2 2)  Xe 4 f 7 5d 1 6 s 2 3)  Xe 4 f 7 5d 5 6s 2 4)  Xe 4 f 6 5d 5 6 s 2
81. Complex compounds  max  absorbed 
3 3
a)  CrC 6  758 A b)  Cr  NH3  6  465 A
3
c)  Cr  H 2 O 6  694 A
The correct order of CFSE of these complexes ions will be
1) a  b  c 2) a  c  b 3) b  c  a 4) a  b  c
Alc . KoH Br2 KCN
82. Identify ‘Z’ in the following series C2 H 5  I   X  Y  Z
1) CH 3  CH 2  CN 2) NCCH 2  CH 2  CN 3) BrCH 2  CH 2  CN 4) BrCH  CHCN
83. Incorrect order is
1) pKa value : p-nitro phenol < o-nitro phenol < m-nitrophenol
2) Ka – value : o-cresol < p-cresol < m-cresol
3) Acidic strength : o-fluoro phenol > o-chloro phenol > o-bromo phenol
4) Acidic strength : phenol > water > alcohol.
84.
Raney Ni; H 2
O  A
NaBH 4
 B
CH3OH
For products A and B respectively are

OH OH OH OH
and and
1) 2)
OH OH OH OH
and and
3) 4)
85. Preparation of ether by acid dehydration of secondary (or) tertiary alcohol is not a suitable
method due to
1) Presence of more basic alcohols 2) Steric hindrance
3) Formation of more stable carbonation 4) Formation of less stable carbocetia
86.
COOH
SOC 2 NH3 NaOH
  B   C  D
Br2
Br
Identify the product ‘D’ in the following :
CONH2 SO2 NH 2 COOH NH 2
Br Br NH 2 Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
87.
( i ) B2 H b / THF

( ii ) H 2 O2 / O H
A
1) Cyclohexane 2) Methyl Cyclohexene
3) Cyclo hexyl Methanol 4) Methyl cyclo hexane carbaldehyde
88. Which of the following is not a biopolymer
1) Proteins 2) Nucleic acids 3) cellulose 4) Neoprene
89. ‘Liver’ cells are rich in vitamins
1) B,A 2) A,D 3) D,E 4) K,E

90. The compound is used as
1) antiseptic 2) antibiotic 3) analgesics 4) Pesticide

BIOLOGY
91. Name the prothallus is precussor to seed habit which is retained on the parent sporophyte
1) Male prothallus - pteridophyte
2) Female prothallus - pteridophyte
3) Both male & female prothallus - pteridophyte
4) Male gametophyte – pteridophyte
92. Branch of Zoology which deals with heredity and variations
1) Genetics 2) Evolution 3) Ecology 4) Ethology
93. How many carbon atoms are present in palmitic acid and Arachidonic acid respectively
1) 20 ‘C’ & 16 ‘C’ 2) 20 ‘C’ & 20 ‘C’ 3) 16 ‘C’ & 16 ‘C’ 4) 16 C & 20 C
94.
Identify the A,B,C places after above diagram (biome with respect annual rain fall
A B C
1 Temperate Coniferous Grass Land
2 Coniferous Temperate Grass Land
3 Coniferous Grass Land Temperate
4 Temperate Grass Land Coniferous
95. Chromosomal theory of Inheritance is experimentally proved by
1) Sutton and Boveri 2) T.H. Morgan 3) Bateson 4) Mendal
96. Match the Following
Syndrome Symptoms
1 Down’s Syndrome a. gynecomastia
2. Klinefelter’s Syndrome b. Short stature
3. Turner’s Syndrome c. Furrowed Tongue
1) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b 2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c 3) 1-c, 2-c, 3-a 4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
97. Exogenous spores are produced in
1) Penicillium 2) mucor 3) Rhizopus 4) Euglena
98. Arrange the following sequentially to for sucked out milk from mammary gland
a. Alveoli b. Ampulla c. mammary tubules
d. Lacterious duct e. mammary duct f. Nipple
1) a-c-e-b-d-f 2) a-c-e-d-b-f 3) a-c-d-b-e-f 4) a-c-d-d-e-f
99. Which of the following is not a monocarpic plant
1) Rice 2) Maize 3) Wheat 4) Mango

100. Among the following primary Lymphoid organs are
1) Thymus and spleen 2) Bone marrow and Thymus
3) Bone Marrow and Spleen 4) Liver and Spleen
101. Fusion that involve motile small male gamets and non – motile male gamets (pollen tube)
respectively called
1) Zooidogamy, Siphanogamy 2) Siphanogamy, Zooidogamy
3) isogamy, Zooidogamy 4) Anisogamy, Siphanogamy
102. Which drug effects, effectors of gastro intestinal tract and central nervous system
1) Cannabinoids 2) Coca alkaloid 3) Opioids 4) All of the above
103. Which of the following are characteristics of Hydrophilous flower
i) Pollengrain is surrounded by mucillagenous sheath
ii) Not very colourful
iii) Nectar and odour absent iv) Stigma wettable
1) i, ii correct 2) ii, iii correct
3) i, ii, iv correct 4) i, ii, iii options are correct
104. Odd out the incorrect statements of the following related to MOET
1) Cow is administered hormones with FSH like activity
2) Induces superior ovulation in inferior cows
3) An animal is mated with an elite bull
4) The fertilized eggs recovered non-surgically
105. Which of the following is Rust fungus
1) Puccinia 2) Agaricus 3) Lycoperdon 4) Polyporous
106. The Ratio between Grinding teeth, canines, incisors are (Related to Man)
1) 20:4:8 2) 20:8:4 4) 8:4:20 4) 4: 8: 20
107. Peroxysomes and glyoxysomes together called as
1) Cytoskeleton 2) Microbodies 3) centrosomes 4) Plastids
108. Exchange of chloride ions and Bicarbonate ions from Plasma to RBC is called
1) Haldane effect 2) hamburger’s phenomenon
3) Bohr Effect 4) Sewall wright effect
109. Types of histone proteins present in histone octamer
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
110. Match the Following
A. Pelvic Girdle 1. Radius, ulna
B. Pectoral Girdle 2. Tibia, Fibula
C. Forelimb 3. Ischium pubis
D. Hind Limb 4. Scapula Acromian
1) A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1 2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
111. Polypetalous condition is present in
1) Ground nut 2) Bean 3) Red gram 4) All
112. Cardiac out put is increases due to influence of
1) Increase the Production of Renin 2) Increase the production of epinephrine
3) Increase the Production of Thyroxine 4) All of the above
113. Bicollateral vascular bundles are present in
1) Solanaceae 2) Cucurbitaceae 3) Gloriosa 4) 1 & 2
114. Arrange the following sequentially the parts in fallopian tube of female.
1) Fimbriae – Infundibulum – Isthmus ampulla
2) Fimbriae – Isthmus – Ampulla – Infundibulum
3) Fimbriae – Infundibulum – Ampulla isthmus
4) Fimbriae - Ampulla – Infundibulum – isthmus
115. Arrange the correct order in dicot embryo
1) Plumule – Cotyledons – Hypocotyl - Radicle - Rootcap
2) Cotyledon – Plumule – Radicle – Rootcap - Hypocotyl
3) Root cap – Radicle – Plumule – Cotyledon - hypocotyl
4) Plumule – Root cap – Radicle

116. The equation for J-shaped population growth curve is
dN dn K  N  N
1)  rN 2)  rN   3) N t  N o ( B  I )  ( D  G ) 4) D 
dt dt  K  S
117. Exine of pollengrain made up of
1) Pectose 2) Cellulose 3) lactose 4) Sporopollenin
118. Match the columns
A. Mutualism 1. Ticks on dogs
B. Commensalism 2. Balanus and Chathamalus
C. Parasitism 3. Sparrow
D. Competition 4. Epiphyte on mango branch
E. Predation 5. Ophrys and bee
1) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1, E-3 2) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, D-3
3) A-5, D-4, C-3, D-2, E-1 4) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2, E-3
119. Number of Centromeres, Chromatids, Kinetochores, DNA molecules in a metaphase
chromosome is
1) 4, 1, 1, 2 2) 2, 4, 1, 2 3) 1, 2, 2, 2 4) 2, 2, 1, 1
120. Select the mismatch pair
1) Erthroxylum coca – Leaves and young twigs – Cocaine
2) Claviceps purpurea – Fruiting Bodies – Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
3) Cannabis Sativa – Leaves, resin and inflorescence – Bhang hashish
4) Papaver somniferum - amphitamines
121. Which of the following is incorrect statement ?
1) Auxins are used to induce roots on stem cutting
2) Gibberelins are used in Bolting process
3) Cytokinins delay senescence
4) Ethylene promote opening of stomata
122. The Terms used for ecological age group of a population are
I. Pre – reproductive II. Reproductive III. Post – reproductive IV. Old age group
V. adolescent age group VI. Infertile age group
Choose the correct option for given statements
1) I, II and III 2) II, IV and V 3) IV, V and VI 4) I, V and VI
123. Which of the following is correct
1) True breeding involves self pollination
2) Chromosomal theory of inheritance proposed by morgan
3) UUU coded for methioninine
4) During electrophoresis ethidium iodide is used
124. Match the list of items of column-I with column – II and select the correct option from the
codes given below
A Electrostatic Precipitator 1 Remove gases likes SO2
B Scrubber 2 Reduces automobile emission
of poisonous gases
C Catalytic Converter 3 Remove Particulate Matter
1) A–2, B – 3, C -1 2) A-3, B-2, C-1 3) A-1, B-2, C-3 4) A-3, B-1, C-2
125. Which of the following is not a stop codon
1) UAA 2) UAG 3) UGA 4) AUC

126. Match the columns
A Air (prevention and I 1987
contron of
pollution) Act
B Water (prevention and II 1981
control of
pollution) Act
C Noise added as Air III 1974
pollutant
D Environment IV 1986
(Protection) Act
1) A:II, B:III, C:IV, D:I 2) A:II, B:III, C:I, D:IV
3) A:IV, B:II, C:II, D:I 4) A:IV, B:III, C:I, D:II
127. Identify the incorrect statement for Taxonomical Aid key
1) It is used for Identification of plants and animals
2) Keys are based on the contrasting characters
3) Keys are generally in a pairs called Manuals
4) Keys are generally analytical in nature.
128. Which of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
1) Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles
2) Earthworm – the alimentary canal consist of oesophagus, stomach, crop and intestine
3) Frog – Body divisible into three regions head neck and trunk
4) Man – Renal portal system is well developed
1. Auxins i) Charles Darwin
2. Gibberelins ii) Kurosawa
3. Cytokinins iii) Skoog and Miller
4. Ethylene iv) Cousins
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1) i ii iii iv 2) ii i iii iv
3) iv iii i ii 4) i iv iii ii
130. In case of suspected filarial patients blood samples are collected during night time because
1) Patients do not feel much pain
2) Filarial worms enter blood from lymph during night time
3) Micro filariae exhibits nocturnal periodicity
4) Adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time
131. Number of ATP’s and NADPH + H+ are required for one glucose molecule formation during
C3 & C4 cycles respectively
1) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH  H  , 30 ATP & 18 NADPH  H 
132. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it
1) Act as barbiturate 2) Stimulate supra renal gland to produce steroids
3) Causes the inhibition of adrenergic nerves 4) Interferes with the transport of Dopamine
133. Which cell organell functions are co-ordinating
i) Endoplasmicreticulum ii) Golgicomplexes iii) Vacuoles iv) Lysosomes
Identify the correct one
1) i, ii only 2) i, ii, iii only 3) i, iv only 4) i, ii, iii, iv
134. Iter or Aqueduct sylvius or Inter ventricular foramnina are connecting the
1) 1 and 2 ventricles of Brain 2) 2 and 3 ventricles of Brain
3) 3 and 4 ventricle of Brain 4) Right and Left artia of heart
135. How many radial spokes are present in centriole structure.
1) 7 2) 9 3) 8 4) 6
136. Montreal protocol is related to
1) Ozone depletion 2) Global worming
3) Climatic changes 4) Biodiversity hot spots
137. In griffth experiment Genetic material Transfer to
1) ‘S’ strain to ‘R’ strain 2) Heated ‘S’ strain to ‘R’ strain
3) ‘R’ strain to ‘S’ strain 4) Heated ‘R’ strain to ‘S’ strain
138. The hind brain in frog consists of
1) Cerebellum 2) Medulla Oblongata
3) Diencephalon 4) Both 1 and 2
139. In phaeophyceae members cellwall is madeup of
1) Only cellulose 2) Cellulose and algin
3) only pectin 4) Cellulose and pectin
140. Which one of the following diploblastic
1) Pennatula 2) Paramoecium 3) schistosoma 4) Entamoeba
141. The plant anatomy and the anatomy of seed plants book was written by
1) Stephan Hales 2) Camerarius 3) Johansen 4) Catherine esau
142. Match the items of both columns correctly
A Scoliodon i Saw fish
B Pristis ii Hammer headed
C Trygon iii Dog fish
D Sphyrna iv. Electric ray
v. Sting ray
1) A-ii, B-v, C-i, D-iii 2) A-iii, B-i, C-v, D-ii
3) A-ii, B-i, C-v, D-ii 4) A-v, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
143.
Above nitrogen base is

1) Uracil 2) Thyamine 3) Adenine 4) Guanine
144. The term ecology is coined by
1) Reiter 2) Haeckel 3) Von Bear 4) Mendel
145. Which of the following is Bacterial disease ?
1) Breaking of flowers 2) Tobaccomosoic 3) Chlorosis 4) Citrus canker
146. Occurrence of non-beneficial alleles in heterozygous genotype is
1) Genetic load 2) Genetic drift
3) Gene flow 4) Selection
147. Number of possible gametes for the genotype AaBbCcDD
1) 7 2) 8 3) 3 4) 5
148. The minimum percentage of impurities by domestic sewage in water that makes it polluted is
1) 1% 2) 5.2% 3) 0.1% 4) 0.5%


1) Bryophyllum a) Bombax ceiba
2) Nepenthes b) Reproductive leaves
3) Whorled phyllotaxy c) Trap leaves
4) Palmetely compound leaf d) Alstonia
1) 1b 2c 3d 4a 2) 1c 2d 3a 4b 3) 1c 2b 3d 4a 4) 1c 2d 3b 4a
150. Identify the A, B, C, D places of the below diagram
A B C D
1 Mastcell Fibroblast Macrophage Collagen fibres
2 Mastcell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage
3 Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mastcell
4 Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mastcell Macrophage
151. Elaters are present in

1) Marchantia 2) Salvinia 3) Selaginella 4) Funaria
152. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
1) Homo neanderthalensis 2) Homo habilis
3) Homo erectus 4) Homo sapiens
153. Find out the correct statements among the following based on the advantages of transpiration
1) Creates transpiration pull for absorption of water and minerals
2) Supplies water for photo synthesis
3) Creates cool leaf surface some times 10 to 150C
4) Maintains the shape of the plant by keeping cells turgid
1) 1 only correct 2) All are correct except 1
3) 3 & 4 are correct only 4) All are correct
154. Which one of the following disease in non-communicable?
1) Diphtheria 2) Hepatitis 3) cancer 4) Malaria
155. When diploid male crossed with a diploid female, what is the ploidy of its zygote and PEN
after fertilization is
1) Zygote (2n), PEN –(3n) 2) Zygote (2n), PEN –(n)
3) Zygote (3n), PEN (2n) 4) Zygote (2n), PEN (2n)
156. Desert lizards exihibit
1) Anatomical adaptations 2) Physiological adaptations
3) Morphological adaptations 4) Behavioural adaptations
157. Arrange the following parts in the structure of T.S. of anther from pheriphery to inner side
1) Tepetum 2) Middle layers
3) Epidermis 4) sporogenous tissue 5) Endothecium
1) 1-2-3-4-5 2) 3-5-2-1-4 3) 2-3-4-5-1 4) 4-5-1-2-3
158. The receptors for opioids are present in
1) Cenral nervous system 2) gastrointestinaltract
3) respiratory tract 4) both 1 & 2
159. Protein and Lipids percentage in a typical RBC cells respectively.
1) 52% and 40% 2) 40% and 52% 3) 50% and 50% 4) 60% and 40%
160. Bidder’s canal in frog is present in
1) Testes 2) Kidney 3) ovary 4) brain
161. Brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins caused by the deficiency of
1) Manganese 2) Iron 3) Magnesium 4) Calcium
162. Hind wings of in cockroach arises from
1) prothorax 2) mesothorax 3) Metathorax 4) pronotum
163. Calvin cycle occurs in C4 cycle is
1) Mesophyll cell
2) Bundle sheath cells
3) Cytoplasm
4) Either mesophyll cell (or) Bundle sheath cells
164. Elephantiasis is caused by a member of
1) Platyhelmenthes 2) Aschelminthes 3) Protozoa 4) Annelida
165. Eustele is present in
1) Algae & Bryophytes 2) Gymnosperms & Angiosperms
3) Gymnosperms & Algae 4) Angiosperms & Pteridophytes
166. Which of the following is correctly matched
1) Typhoid – Haemophillus influenzae 2) Common cold – Plasmodium
3) Malaria – Rhinoviruses 4) Filariasis – Wuchereria
Column – A Column – B
1) Statin A) Immunosupressive agent
2) Cyclosporin – A B) Clot buster
3) Lipases C) Removes oily strains
4) Sterptokinase D) Lowers the blood cholesterol levels
1) 1A 2D 3C 4B 2) 1D 2A 3B 4C 3) 1C 2A 3B 4D 4) 1D 2A 3C 4B
168. Urea, lactic acid and some salts are eliminated by
1) sebaceous glands 2) sweat glands 3) liver 4) intestine
169. Find out wrong statement among the following
1) Solid stem in wheat do not prefer by stem sawfly
2) Rape seed ( Pusa Gaurav) is the variety resistance to insects & pests
3) 840 million people are suffering from hunger
4) Fe & Ca enriched spinach & Bathua released as biofortified crops
170. In human heart the non functional valve in right atrium is present at the opening of
1) coronary sinus 2) superior venacava
3) inferior venacava 4) right atrioventricular aperture
171. Find out correct statement among the following related to SCP
1) Spirulina is a filamentous blue green Algae – kingdom monera
2) Spirulina maxima is a filamentous Algae – kingdom plantae
3) Torula yeast & Baker’s yeast are unicellular – kingdom monera
4) Brevibacterium ketoglutamicum is a Bacterium – kingdom protista
172. Arrange the following sequentially by basing on low pH to high pH
A. Salivary juice B. Gastric juice C) Pancreatic Juice
1) B-A-C 2) A-B-C 3) B-C-A 4) A-C-B
173. Find out the ratio of number of stamens in liliaceae, number of stamens in Brassicaceae, and
number of tepals in liliaceae
1) 1:2:2 2) 1:1:1 3) 1:1:2 4) 1:2:1
174. Tidal Volume of human being per minute is
1) 4000 ml to 6000 ml 2) 6000 ml to 8000 ml 3) 4000ml to 5000ml 4) 7000ml to 9000ml

175. Identify the a, b in the following
1) a. BamHI, b. sal I 2) a. sal I, b. Pvu I 3) a. PvuI, b. EcoRi 4) a. Pvu II, b. Pvu I

176. Among the following which set of harmones are coworkers
1) insulin & glucogan 2) Gastrin & entrerogastrin
3) Epinephrine & nonepinephrine 4) Somatotrophin & somatostatin
177. Recombination percentage in body color and eye color in Drosophila?
1) 37.8% 2) 1.3% 3) 98.7% 4) 62.4%
178. In which of the following area cones are absent
1) photoreceptor area 2) fovea centralis 3) Macula leutea 4) Blind spot
179. How many parental types are formed in Monohybrid of F2 generation
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1
180. Number of bones in man
1) 206 2) 207 3) 208 4) 209


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
1081) 1082) 1083) 1084) 1085) 1086) 1087) 1088) 1089) 1090)
1091) 1092) 1093) 1094) 1095) 1096) 1097) 1098) 1099) 1100)
1101) 1102) 1103) 1104) 1105) 1106) 1107) 1108) 1109) 1110)
1111) 1112) 1113) 1114) 1115) 1116) 1117) 1118) 1119) 1120)
1121) 1122) 1123) 1124) 1125)
CHEMISTRY
1126) 1 1127) 4 1128) 2 1129) 3 1130) 4 1131) 3 1132) 3 1133) 3 1134) 1 1135) 3
1136) 3 1137) 4 1138) 3 1139) 1 1140) 2 1141) 2 1142) 1 1143) 2 1144) 2 1145) 2
1146) 4 1147) 2 1148) 3 1149) 4 1150) 3 1151) 4 1152) 3 1153) 4 1154) 1 1155) 3
1156) 1 1157) 1 1158) 4 1159) 1 1160) 2 1161) 3 1162) 2 1163) 3 1164) 1 1165) 2
1166) 4 1167) 3 1168) 4 1169) 2 1170) 3
BIOLOGY
1171) 2 1172) 1 1173) 4 1174) 2 1175) 2 1176) 4 1177) 1 1178) 1 1179) 4 1180) 2
1181) 1 1182) 3 1183) 4 1184) 2 1185) 1 1186) 2 1187) 2 1188) 2 1189) 1 1190) 3
1191) 4 1192) 4 1193) 4 1194) 3 1195) 1 1196) 1 1197) 4 1198) 4 1199) 3 1200) 4
1201) 4 1202) 1 1203) 1 1204) 4 1205) 4 1206) 2 1207) 3 1208) 1 1209) 1 1210) 3
1211) 2 1212) 4 1213) 4 1214) 3 1215) 2 1216) 1 1217) 2 1218) 4 1219) 2 1220) 1
1221) 4 1222) 2 1223) 1 1224) 2 1225) 4 1226) 1 1227) 2 1228) 3 1229) 1 1230) 1
1231) 1 1232) 2 1233) 4 1234) 3 1235) 1 1236) 4 1237) 2 1238) 4 1239) 1 1240) 2
1241) 1 1242) 3 1243) 2 1244) 2 1245) 2 1246) 4 1247) 4 1248) 2 1249) 3 1250) 3
1251) 1 1252) 1 1253) 2 1254) 2 1255) 1 1256) 3 1257) 2 1258) 4 1259) 2 1260) 1


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
a 3b 2
3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P  then maximum possible
cd
% error in P is
1) 7% 2) 4% 3) 14% 4) 10%
2. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed the angle of
projection is
1) 600 2) 150 3) 300 4) 450
3. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F  600  2 105 t
Where, F is in newton and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it
leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?
1) 9 N – s 2) zero 3) 1.8 N – s 4) 0.9 N – s
4. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force
F  2ti  3t 2 j N , where i and j are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be
 
developed by the force at the time t?
1)  2t 3  3t 4 W 2)  2t 3  3t 5 W 3)  2t 2  3t 3  W 4) None of these
5. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ and mass M about an axis
passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is
MR 2 3 7
1) MR 2 2) 3) MR 2 4) MR 2
2 2 2
6. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of
inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of
mass is
m1m2 2 m  m2 2
1) l 2) 1 l 3)  m1  m2  l 2 4) m1m2l 2
m1  m2 m1m2
7. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of
earth of radius ‘R’ in a circular orbit at an attitude of 2R.
GMm GMm 3 GMm 5 GMm
1) 2) 3) 4)
R 2R 4 R 6 R
8. If an object of mass m is taken from surface of earth to a point at a height 3R from the surface
of earth, then work done against gravity is (R = Radius of earth)
3 1 1 4
1) mgR 2) mgR 3) mgR 4) mgR
4 2 3 3
x
9. A string vibrates according to the equation y  A sin cos 200 t . Potential energy of a
6
particle on string will be minimum at t=
7 3 5
1) s 2) s 3) s 4) All of these
400 400 400

10. A mass is suspended separately by two different springs in successive order then time periods
is t1 and t2 respectively. If it is connected by both spring as shown in figure then time period is
t0 , the correct relation is
1) t02  t12  t22 2) t02  t12  t22 3) t01  t11  t21 4) t0  t1  t2

11. The bulk modulus of a spherical body is B. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, the
fractional decrease in radius is
B 3P P P
1) 2) 3) 4)
3P B 3B B
12. An air bubble of diameter 2 cm rises at the rate of 2.5 mm/s through a solution of density 2.25
g/cm3. Coefficient of viscosity of the solution is
1) 1960 poise 2) 1860 poise 3) 2000 poise 4) 1760 poise
13. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of
radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid
through the holes is
VR 2 V 2R VR 2 VR 2
1) 3 2 2) 3) 2 2 4)
nr nr nr nr 2
0 3 0 3
14. The density of water at 20 C is 998 kg/m and at 40 C is 992 kg/m . The coefficient of volume
expansion of water is
1) 3 104 / 0 C 2) 2 104 / 0 C 3) 6 10 4 / 0 C 4) 104 / 0 C
15. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses
and thermal conductivities ‘K’ and ‘2K’ respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity
of the slab is
2 4
1) K 2) 2K 3) 3 K 4) K
3 3
16. A gas is taken through the cycle A  B  C  A as shown. What is the net work done by the
gas?
1) Zero 2) -2000 J 3) 2000 J 4) 1000 J

17. An insulated container contains 4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at temperature T. Heat Q is
supplied to this gas, due to which 2 moles of the gas are dissociated in to atoms but
temperature of the gas remains constant then.
1) Q  2 RT 2) Q  RT 3) Q  3RT 4) Q  4 RT
18. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both ends has a fundamental frequency ‘f’, in air. If half
the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be
3f f
1) 2 f 2) 3) f 4)
2 2

19. A train is moving at 30 m/s in still air. The frequency of train whistle 500 Hz. And the speed of
sound is 345 m/s . What would be the apparent wavelengths in front of and behind the train if
a wind of speed 10 m/s were blowing in the same direction as that in which the train is
travelling.
1) 0.65m, 0.73 m 2) 0.60m, 0.73 m 3) 0.65m, 0.78 m 4) 0.60m, 0.71m
20. A dielectric is placed in between the two parallel plates of a capacitor as shown in figure, the
dielectric constant being ‘K’. If the initial capacity is ‘C’, then the new capacity will be
C  K  1
1) KC 2) ( K+1) C 3) 4) ( K-1) C
2
21. A charge Q is situated at the corner of a cube, the electric flux passed through all the six faces
of the cube is
Q Q Q Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 0 8 0 0 2 0
22. The potential at point A is
1) 10V 2) 11V 3) 16V 4) 4V

23. Three identical charges +q,-2q and +q are placed on the vertices of a regular hexagon of
dimension l as shown in the given figure. The dipole moment of system is
1) ql 2) 2ql 3) ql 2 4) Zero
24. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of
galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be
1 499 1 500
1) G 2) G 3) G 4) G
499 500 500 499
25. The magnetic field at centre, ‘P’ will be
0 0 0
1) 2) 3) 4) 40
4  2

26. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge -2 C in a magnetic field of 2 T
acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is 2i  3 j  106 ms 1
 
1) 4N in z direction 2) 8N in y direction 3) 8N in z direction 4) 8N in -z direction
27. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has
1) Low retentivity and high coercive force
2) High retentivity and high coercive force
3) Low retentivity and low coercive force
4) High retentivity and low coercive force
28. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a
converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the
diverging lens. The final image formed is.
1) Real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
2) Virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.
3) Real and at a distance of 20 cm from convergent lens.
4) Real and at a distance of 6 cm from the convergent lens
29. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio ‘n’ . In
I I
the interference pattern, the ratio max min will be
I max  I min
n 2 n n 2 n
1) 2) 3) 2
4) 2
n 1 n 1  n  1  n  1
30. In young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of
0 0
two wavelengths 1  12000 A and 2  10000 A At what minimum distance from the common
central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference
pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
1) 4mm 2) 3 mm 3) 8 mm 4) 6 mm
31. A concave lens with unequal radii of curvature made of glass   g  1.5  has a focal length of
40 cm. If it is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1  2 then
1) It behaves like a convex lens of 80 cm focal length
2) It behaves like a convex lens of 20 cm focal length
3) Its focal length becomes 60 cm
4) Its focal length remains unchanged
 
32. In a series LCR circuit, voltage applied is V  3sin  314t   V and current from the supply
 6
 
is i  2sin  314t   A The wattles component of current in given voltage current supply is
 3
1 1
1) 2A 2) A 3) A 4) 2A
2 2
33. A metallic rod of length '  ' is tied to a string of length 2 and made to rotate with an angular
speed  on a horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic
field ‘B’ in the region, the e .m.f induced across the ends of the rods is.
Bl 2 3Bl 2 4 Bl 2 5Bl 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
34. If the kinetic energy of a α-particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage change in the
deBroglie wave length of the particle is
1) 25 % 2) 75 % 3) 60 % 4) 50 %

35. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure. The ratio of the wavelength
r  1 / 2 is given by
1 4 2 3
1) r  2) r  3) r  4) r 
3 3 3 4
36. The energy released when 3  particles combine to from a C12 nucleus is
(mass of 2He4=4.002603)
1) 23.67 MeV 2) 0.961 MeV 3) 1.367 MeV 4) 7.27 MeV
37. A mixture consists of two radioactive material A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s
respectively . Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of two in the
mixture will become equal after
1) 60 s 2) 80 s 3) 20 s 4) 40 s
1
38. An alpha nucleus of energy mV 2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the
2
distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
1 1 1
1) 2) V 2 3) 4)
Ze m 2
39. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true.
1) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants
2) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants
3) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants
4) Holes are majority carries and trivalent atoms are dopants
40. The circuit is equivalent to
1) AND gate 2) NAND gate 3) NOR gate 4) OR gate

41. In a common emitter amplifier, the output resistance is 5000  and the input resistance is
2000  . If the peak value of signal voltage is 10 mV and   50 , then peak value of output
voltage is
1) 125 V 2) 1.25 V 3) 5 106V 4) 2.5 104V
42. A rod of length 10cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10cm in
such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20cm a way from the mirror. The length of the
image is
1) 10cm 2) 15cm 3) 2.5 cm 4) 5 cm

43. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t=0,
number of P species are 4 N 0 and that of Q are N 0 . Half – life of P(for conversion to R) is 1
minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample.
When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample
would be
9 N0 5N 0
1) 2N 0 2) 3N 0 3) 4)
2 2
44. The wavelength e of an electron and  p of a photon of same energy E are related by
1
1)  p e 2)  p 3)  pe2 4) None of these
e
45. The area covered by a transmitting antenna of height 50 m is
1) 320 km 2 2) 1440 km 2 3) 640 km 2 4) 120 km 2
CHEMISTRY
46. The ratio of radii of first bohr orbits of He  and Li 2 is
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) 4 : 9 4) 9 : 4
47. Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum numbers as given below. Which electrons
in at the highest energy level?
1 1
1) n  4, l  0, ml  0, ms   2) n  3, l  0, ml  0, ms  
2 2
1 1
3) n  3, l  2, ml  0, ms   4) n  4, l  1, ml  1, ms  
2 2
48. If the volume of drop of water is 0.0018 ml then the number of water molecules present in two
drops of water at room temperature is
1) 12.046 1019 2) 1.084 1018 3) 4.84 1017 4) 6.023 1023
49. 2.8 g of a gas at 1 atm and 273k occupies a volume of 2.24 litres. The gas can not be.
1) O2 2) CO 3) N 2 4) C2 H 4
50. If H 0f for H 2O2 and H 2O are -188 kj/mole and -286 kj/mole, What will be the enthalpy
change of the reaction 2 H 2O2  l   2 H 2O  l   O2  g 
1) -196 kj/mole 2) -494 kj/mole 3) 146 kj/mole 4) -98 kj/mole
51. The equilibrium constant K c for the following reaction at 842 C is 7.90 103 . What is K p at
0
1
same temperature F2  g   F  g 
2
1) 8.64 105 2) 8.26 104 3) 7.90 102 4) 7.56 102
52. The solubility (in mol L-1) of AgCl  K sp  1.0 10 10  in a 0.1 M KCl solution will be
1) 1.0 1010 2) 1.0 105 3) 1.0 1011 4) 1.0 109
53. 6g of urea is dissolved in 90g of boiling water. The vapour pressure of the solution is
1) 745 mm 2) 758 mm 3) 761 mm 4) 760 mm
54. Passage of current in amperes for 548 seconds through a silver coulometer results in the
deposition of 0.746 g of silver.
1) 1.22 2) 1.16 3) 1.07 4) 1.00
55. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it
1) Is neutral 2) Is readily decomposed
3) Is almost totally unionized 4) Has a low boiling point
56. Which of the following is correct for a first order reaction
1
1) t1/2 a 2) t1/ 2 3) t1/ 2 a 0 4) t1/ 2 a 2
a

57. The following data were obtained for the reaction 2 NO g   Br2 g   2 NOBr g 
Initial Concentration mole L1 Min 1
Experiment Initial Rate
 NO   Br2 
I 0.10 0.10 1.3 106
II 0.2 0.1 5.2 10 6
III 0.2 0.3 1.56 105
The order of reaction is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 0
58. Triclinic crystal has the following unit cell parameter
1) a  b  c;      900 2) a  b  c;       900
3) a  b  c;       900 4) a  b  c;     900 ,   1200
59. In a cubic unit cell seven of the eight corners are occupied by atoms A and centers of faces are
occupied by atoms B. the general formula of the compound is
1) A7 B6 2) A7 B12 3) A7 B24 4) A24 B7
x
60. Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by the expression  kp1/n Then the slope of the line
m
x
in the plot of log Vs log P .
m
1 x
1) n 2) 3) 4) p
n m
61. Which of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species
1) N 2 , O2 , NO  , CO 2) C22  , O2 , CO, NO
3) NO  , C22  , CN  , N 2 4) CN  , N 2 , O22  , C22 
62. Molecule the formal charges of oxygen atoms 1,2,3 are respectively
1) -1, 0, +1 2) 0, -1, +1 3) 0, +1, -1 4) +1, 0, -1

63. Which of the following equation denotes that H 2O2 acts as a reducing agent
1) PbS  4 H 2O2  PbSO4  4 H 2 O 2) NaNO2  H 2 O2  NaNO3  H 2O
3) Ag 2O  H 2O2  2 Ag  O2  H 2 O 4) 2KI  H 2 O2  H 2 SO4  I 2  K 2 SO4  H 2O
64. Which of the following does not give oxide on heating
1) MgCO3 2) Li2CO3 3) ZnCO3 4) K 2CO3
65. Bleaching powder is obtained by the action of chlorine gas and
1) dry slaked lime 2) dilute solution of Ca  OH 2
3) Conc. Solution of Ca  OH 2 4) dry CaO
66. Borax bead test is used to identify the
1) Anion in coloured salt 2) Cation in coloured salt
3) Anion in white salt 4) Cation in white salt

67. SiO2 is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated
1) CO 2) O2 3) CO2 4) O3
68. Which one of the following not a green house gas?
1) CO2 2) N 2O 3) O3 4) N 2
69. Weight ratio of Roasted ore, coke and lime stone fed into the blast furnance in the
manufacture of cast iron is
1) 8 :1: 4 2) 6 : 4 :1 3) 8 : 4 : 3 4) 8 : 4 :1
+2
70. The magnetic moment of Cr is similar to that of
1) Fe2 2) Fe3 3) Co3 4) Co2
71. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity.
1) K 4  Fe  CN  6  2)  Co  NH 3 6  C 3 3)  Ni  Co  4  4)  Cu  NH 3 4  C 2
72. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism.

1) Cis   Pt  NH 3  2 C 2  2) Cis   Co  en 2 C 2 

3) Trans   Co  en 2 C 2  4) Trans   Pt  NH 3  2 C 2 
73. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer
a) PHBV b) Buna-S c) PMMA d) Nylon-2,Nylon-6
1) a,b,c 2) a,d 3) a,c,d 4) a,b,c,d
74. List – I List – II
I. A A) Xerophthalmia, Degeneration of lachxymdl Glands
II. C B) Ostemalaciain adults, rickets in childrens
III. D C) Scurvy, delay in wound heating
IV. E D) Blood coagulation prevent
V. K E) Sterility, neurosis, nutritional nuclear dystrophy
1) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-e, V-d 2) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d, V-e
3) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d, V-e 4) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d, V-e
75. The drug used for preventation of heart attacks
1) Aspirin 2) Valium 3) Chlorom phenicol 4) Cephalosoprin
76. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method. The
ammonia evolved from 0.5 gm of compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized
10 ml of 1M H 2SO 4 . Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
1) 28% 2) 14% 3) 56% 4) 32.3%
77. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
1) 4-methyl-3-ethylhexane 2) 3- ethyl-4-methylhexane
3) 3,4-ethylmethylhexane 4) 4-ethyl-3-methylhexane

78. The following compounds A,B,C have R (or) S configuration
CN
OH OH
HOOC H HOOC CH 3 CH 3 C  CH
CH 3 CH  CH 2 C2 H 5
(A) (B) (B)
1) R, R, S 2) R, S, R 3) R, R, R 4) S, R, S
79. Arrange the following in increasing order of their stability

 
 
I) CH 2 III) CH 2 CH 2
II) CH 2 IV)
NO2 OH CH 3 NH 2
1) I< II< III< IV 2) II< I< III< IV
3) I< III< II< IV 4) II< III< I< IV
80. Which of the following will not show cis-trans isomerism?
1)  CH3  CH  C  CH 3  C 2)  CH3 CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2CH3 
3)  H3 C  2 C  CH   CH 2  CH 3  4)  CH3  2 CH  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 3
alc .KOH dil .H 2 SO4
81. C2 H 5Cl   A   B here A and B are
1) C2 H 4 , C2 H 5OH 2) C2 H 6 , C2 H 5OH 3) C3 H 8 , C2 H 5OH 4) C2 H 2 , C2 H 5OH
82. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic
1) 2) 3) 4)
(+) (-) (+)
83. In the following sequence of reactions


KCN H 3O LiAlH 4
CH 3  Br   A   B 
ether
 C, C is
1) Acetone 2) Methane 3) Acetaldehyde 4) Ethyl alcohol
84.
CH  CH  CH 3
 HBr Excess  
OCH3
What will be the product formed?
CH 2  CH  CH 3
Br  CH  CH 2  CH 3 CH 2  CH  CH 3 Br  CH  CH 2  CH 3
Br
Br
OCH 3 OH Br Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
 HI  dil 
85.  CH 3 3 COCH 3    CH 3 3 CCl  CH 3OH it follows which mechanism
1 2
1) SN 2) SN 3) E1 4) E2
CO,HC Conc.KOH
86. Benzene   A  B  C Correct statement among the following is
AC 3
1) First step is called Kolbe’s reaction 2) B and C are benzaldehyde and benzyl alcohol
3) Second step is called Aldol condensation 4) ‘A’ is benzene carbaldehyde
87. Haloform test is not given by
1) CH 3COCH 3 2) CH 3COC2 H 5 3) C6 H 5COC2 H 5 4) CH 3CHOHCH 3
88. Correct acid strength of order of following acids is
a) HCOOH b) CH 3COOH c) C6 H 5COOH d) CH 3CH 2COOH
1) a  c  b  d 2) a  b  c  d 3) c  a  b  d 4) d  a  b  c
89. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of
1) Primary aromatic amines 2) Primary aliphatic amines
3) Secondary aromatic amines 4) All
90.
i )O3 dil NaoH


ii ) Zn / H 2O
 X  
Y ; Y
O
O
CHO CHO
1) 2) 3) 4)
BIOLOGY
91. Find the correct sequence at various steps of herbarium technique.
a) Drying b) Poisoning c) Collection d) Labeling
e) Mounting f) Deposition g) Stitiching
1) c,a,b,e,g,d,f 2)c,a,f,d,g,e,b 3) c,b,e,g,d,f,a 4) c,a,e,b,g,d,f
92. Which one is not considered as a natural family planning method?
1) Rhythm /periodic abstinence 2) Withdrawal/ Coitus interrupts
3) Lactational amenorrhoea 4) Vasectomy
93. ‘contagium vivum fluidum’ (i.e living fluid infester)
1) Mayer 2) Ivanowsky 3) Beijerinck 4) Bawden and pine
94. According to Darwin, evolution is a
1) A sudden but discontinuous process 2) A gradual but discontinuous process
3) A gradual but continuous process 4) A quick and continuous process
95. Genetic material of prokaryotic cell is
1) Non – histonic double – stranded DNA 2) Histonic double – stranded DNA
3) Histone and DNA both are absent 4) Histone without DNA
96. One of the special character of coelenterate only is the occurrence of
1) Hermaphroditism 2) Flame cells 3) Polymorphism 4) Nematocysts
97. Type of stele without pith
1) Solenostele 2) Siphonostele 3) Protostele 4) Dictyostele
98. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in
1) Starfish and Hydra 2) Hydra and sponges
3) Earthworm and hydra 4) All the above
99. Match column – I with Column – II and select the correct option
Column – I Column - II
(Type of chloroplast) (Algae)
a) Cup – shaped i) Ulothrix
b) Girdle - shaped ii) Oedogonium
c) Stellate iii) Chlamydomonas
d) Reticulate iv) Zygnema
1) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i 2) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

3) a – ii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i 4) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
100. Consider the following step and identify A, B, C and D
Amylase
starch  A
Carboxypeptidase
Peptone  B
Lipase
Fat  C
Lactase
Lactose  D
A B C D
1 Disaccharide Dipeptide Fatty Acid Galactose
2 Fatty Acid Disaccharide Glucose Dipeptide

3 Glucose Fatty Acid Disaccharide Dipeptide
4 Dipeptide Galactose Disaccharide Fatty Acid
101. In which group will you place a plant which reproduces by means of spores has vascular
supply, and diploid sporophytic phase as dominant phase
1) Bryophyta 2) Pteridophyta 3) Gymnosperm 4) Angiosperm
102. Find out the incorrectly matched pair regarding your skeletal system
1) Vertebro chondral ribs = 6 2) Skull bones = 22
3) Occipetal Condyles = 2 4) Vertebro sternal ribs = 7
103. The origin of root hairs and lateral roots is, respectively
1) Exogenous and endogenous 2) Endogenous & Exogenous
3) Both Endogenously 4) Both Exogenously
104. Which extra – embryonic membrane participate in the formation of placenta
1) Amnion & Chorion 2) Chorion & Allantois
3) Chorion & Yolksac 4) Yolksac & Allantois
105.  - 174 bacteriophages contains
1) 5386 - Ribose Nucleotides 2) 5386 – Deoxyribonucleotides
3) 5386 – Deoxyribonucleotides base pairs 4) 5386 – Ribose nucleotides
106. Identify the following structure labeled A to E in the diagram given below from the I to V

I. Septal Nehridia II. Pharynx III. Forest of integumentary Nerphridia
IV. Integumentary nephridia V. Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia
A B C D E
1 II III IV I V
2 II IV V I III
3 II V IV III I
4 II I III IV V
107. The colour of Bougainvillea flower is due to the colour of its
1) Corolla 2) Bracts 3) Calyx 4) Androecium
108. See the following figures and select the right option with their respective classes diagram.
1) A – Cartilage Fish; B – Hag Fish 2) A – Cartilage Fish; B – Cartilage Fish

3) A – Bony Fish; B – Cartilage Fish 4) A – Bony Fish; B – Bony fish
109. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of china rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis)
is
1) Diadelphous 2) Polyandrous 3) Polyadelphous 4) Monadelphous
110. Ligaments and tendons are
1) Loose connective tissue 2) Muscular tissue
3) Fibrous Connective tissue 4) Skeletal tissue
111. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in having
1) Living Protoplasm 2) Cellulose walls
3) Vacuoles 4) Pectin & Cellulose deposits at corners
112. Blood does not clot inside the blood vessels due to the presence of
1) Heparin 2) Fibrinogen 3) Vitamin K 4) Thrombin
113. Tissues commonly known as the passport point (or) biological check post is characterized by
1) Bulliform cells and raphides 2) Cystolith & motor cells
3) Casparian bands & passage cells 4) Passage cells & starch
114. The respiratory centre in brain which controls inspiration and expiration is situated in
1) Medulla Oblongata 2) Cerebellum 3) Hypothalamus 4) Pericardium
115. Transcription start from
1) 51  31 2) 31  51 3) 51  51 4) Any direction
116. Heart beat can be initiated by
1) Sino – auricular node 2) Atrio - Ventricular node
3) Sodium ion 4) Purkinjes fibres
117. Which of the following is associated with the detoxification of drugs and muscle contraction
by the release and uptake of ca+2 ions?
1) Golgi complex 2) RER 3) SER 4) Free ribosomes
118. ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle; in the
ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not represented
1) Depolarization of atria 2) Repolarization of atria
3) Depolarization of ventricles 4) Repolarization of ventricles
119. The presence of DNA in mitochondria & chloroplast supports the hypothesis
1) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria & chloroplast
2) Mitochondria & chloroplast both originated as independent free living organisms
3) ATP is produced in mitochondria as well as in chloroplast
4) Mitochondria & chloroplast undergo meiosis & mitosis independent of nucleus

120. The basic functional and structural unit of human kidney is
1) Pyramid 2) Nephridia 3) Nephron 4) Henle’s loop
121. If you are provided with root – tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the
chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
1) Telophase 2) Anaphase 3) Prophase 4) Metaphase
122. Hinge joint is present between
1) Humerus and radius-ulna 2) Femur and acetabulum
3) Femur and pelvic girdle 4) All the above
123. Which one of the following is saturated fatty acid
1) Oleic acid 2) Linoleic
3) Linolenic acid 4) Stearic acid
124. The hunger centre, Osmo-regulation and thermoregulation are the function of
1) Spinal Cord 2) Pituitary gland
3) Cerebellum 4) Hypothalamus
125. Hydrolytic enzymes, which act on low PH are called as
1) Protease 2)  - Amylase 3) Hydrolases 4) Peroxidase
126. Consider the diagram of synapse
I) The nemnbered label indicate the location of the receptor molecules

II) The number points to synaptic vesicles
III) The number points to neurotransmitter
IV) The number points to synaptic cleft
I II III IV
1 C D A B
2 C A D B
3 B A C D
4 C A B D
127. The transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
1) Permanent but unstable 2) Transient and unstable
3) Permanent and stable 4) Transient but stable
128. Insulin is secreted by
1) Pituitary 2) Pancreas 3) adrenal gland 4) Thymus
129. If the egg of an organism has 10pg of DNA in its nucleus, how much DNA would a diploid cell
of same organism have in G2-phase of meiosis
1) 10 pg 2) 5 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 40 pg

130. Consider the following figures identify A to D
1) A – Thyroid, B – Corpus luteum, C – Trachea, D – Parathyroid gland

2) A – Thyroid, B – Isthmus, C – Larynx, D – Parathyroid gland
3) A – Thyroid, B – Isthmus, C – Trachea, D – Parathyroid gland
4) A – Parathyroid gland, B –Isthmus, C – Trachea, D – Thyroid
131. When a plasmolyzed cell is placed in hypotonic solution then water will move inside the cell
which force causes this?
1) TP 2) OP 3) WP 4) None
132. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood
transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the
donor
1) Blood group AB 2) Blood group B 3) Blood group O 4) Blood group A , AB
133. If cell A with DPD 4 bar is connected to cell B, C, D whose osmotic pressure and turgor
pressure respectively, 4 and 4, 10 and 5, 7 and 3 bars, the flow of water is
1) B to A, C and D 2) A to D, B and C 3) C to A, B and D 4) A to B, C and D
134. Match the following and select the correct option
(Method of sex determination) (Example)
A) XX - XO I) Fowls
B) ZW – ZZ II) Grasshopper
C) XX – XY III) Honey bee
D) ZO – ZZ IV) Human beings
V) Fumea moth
A B C D A B C D
1) III II V I 2) IV III V I
3) IV II III V 4) III I IV V
135. A nutrient element essential for the formation of microtubules of the mitotic spindle
apparatus during cell division is
1) Phosphorus 2) Sulphur 3) Calcium 4) Zinc
136. Cystic fibrosis is caused by
1) Recessive autosomal allele 2) Dominant autosomal allele
3) Recessive sex linked allele 4) Dominant sex linked allele
137. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following
five properties of starch [I - V] make it useful as a storage material?
I) Easily translocated II) Chemically non - reactive
III) Easily digested by animals IV) Osmotically inactive
V) Synthesized during photosynthesis
1) I, III and V 2) I and V 3) II and III 4) II and IV
138. What will be the phenotypic ratio in a situation of complementary gene interaction?
1) 9:7 2) 13:3 3) 15:1 4) 9:3:4
139. The ratio between glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate allotted for regeneration and number of
RuBP molecules synthesized during C3 cycle are.
1) 3 : 2 2) 5 : 3 3) 6 : 3 4) 3 : 5

140. Consider the statement given below regarding contraception and answer as directed there
after
I) possibility of conception are nil as long as mother breast – feeds the infant upto two years
II) MTP during first trimister is generally safe
III) Intrauterine devices like copper – T are effective contraceptives.
IV) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) 1, 3 2) 2, 3 3) 1, 2 4) 3, 4
141. Serial changes in the previously sterile or total barren area are called
1) Climatic climax 2) Secondary succession
3) primary succession 4) sere
142. Birth canal is formed by
1) Uterus + Vagina 2) Vagina + Vestibule
3) Vestibule + Urethra 4) Cervical canal + vagina
143. The delay of senescence or Richmond – long effect is a physiological effect of
1) IAA 2) BAP 3) GA 4) C2 H 4
144. Sertoli cells are found in testis, these cells are
1) Reproductive 2) Nurse cell 3) Receptor cell 4) None of these
145. Match the following column – I and column - II
Column – I Column - II
a) C2 H 4 i) Antiaging Hormone
b) Zeatin ii) Stress Hormone
c) NAA iii) Metheonine as Precursor
d) GA3 iv) Removes genetic dwarfism
e) ABA v) Positive phototropism
1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – v, e – iv 2) a – iii, b – i, c – v, d – iv, e - ii
3) a – v, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii, e – i 4) a – iv, b – i, c – v, d – ii, e – iii
146. Colostrum secreted by mother is rich in
1) Ig D antibodies 2) Ig E Antibodies 3) Ig A antibodies 4) Ig M Antibodie
147. The repressor of the operon is synthesized from the
1) i-gene 2) Z-gene 3) Y-gene 4) a-gene
148. Which one of the following statement is correct with respect to AIDS?
1) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
2) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T – lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
3) AIDS patient can be fully cured with proper care and nutrition
4) Drug addicts are less susceptible to HIV infection
149. The tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like
1) Inverted ‘L’ 2) Clover-leaf 3) Inverted-A 4) Inverted-S
150. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

1) c-wombat, b-koala, a –sugar glider, d-banded anteater
2) a-wombat, c-koala, d-sugar glider, b-banded anteater
3) b-wombat, d-koala, c-sugar glider, a-banded anteater
4) d-wombat, a-koala, b-sugar glider, c-banded anteater
151. Gross primary productivity is
1) Rate at which organic molecules are formed in autotroph
2) Rate at which organic molecules are used up in autotrophs
3) Storage of organic molecules in body of autotrophs
4) All the above
152. The sites of the first, second and third moulting of the Ascaris larvae are
1) Soil; lung and intestine 2) Liver; stomach and intestine
3) Soil; Alveoli of lungs 4) Specific natural immunity
153. In geitonogamy, pollengrains are transferred to
1) Genetically different flowers
2) Genetically similar flower
3) Stigma of another flower of a different plant
4) stigma of the same flower
154. The crown and root of a tooth is covered by a layer of hard substance called
1) Enamel 2) Dentine 3) Bony Socket 4) Cementum
155. When the body of ovule, the embryosac and the micropyle lie at right angles to the funiculus,
the ovule is called
1) Amphitropous 2) Anatropous 3) Campylotropous 4) Hemianatropous
156. Which of the following disease is associated with lungs.
1) Pneumonia 2) Bronchitis 3) Asthma 4) All the above
157. If a fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are found in its
pollen mother cell, synergid, endosperm, perisperm
1) 20, 40, 60, 80 2) 20, 20, 40, 60 3) 40, 20, 60, 40 4) 40, 20, 40, 40
158. See the figure of actin (thin) filaments identify A, B and C
1) A – troponin; B – tropomyosin; C – F -actin 2) A – Troponin; B – Tropomyosin; C - myosin

3) A – Troponin; B – Myosin; C - Tropomyosin 4) A – Tropomyosin; B – Troponin; C – F -actin
159. A tetraploid female plant of wheat (2n=14) is crossed with diploid male plant. The endosperm
cell is treated with colchicine. How many chromosomes present in resultant cell.
1) 48 2) 21 3) 28 4) 70
160. Sigmoid/ logistic growth curve is represented by
dN
1)  rN 2) N1  N 0  B  I  D  E
dt
dN dN
3)   rN 4)  rN 1  N / K 
dt dt
161. Mad cow disease is caused by
1) Bacteria 2) virus 3) Fungi 4) prions
162. Limnology is the study of
1) Marine water ecosystem 2) Terrastrial ecosystem
3) Brackish water ecosystem 4) Fresh water ecosystem
163. Which one is not a bacterial disease?
1) Leprosy 2) Scabies 3) Gonorrhoea 4) Syphilis

164. PAR stands for
1) Photosynthetically adaptive radiation 2) Photosynthetically accessible radiation
3) Photosynthetically active radiation 4) Photosynthetically activity radiation
165. Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross WwYy x WwYy. Find the number of plants
produced with first dominant and second recessive trait
1) 288 2) 96 3) 32 4) 320
166. Red data book deals with
1) The organisms that are extinct 2) Organisms that are extant
3) Endemic plants 4) Photo periodism
167. From the cross AABb x aaBb, genotypes AaBB:AaBb:Aabb:aabb are obtained in the ratio of
1) 1:1:1:1 2) 1:2:1:0 3) 0:3:1:0 4) 1:1:1:0
168. Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Wolf is a placental mammal. This shows
1) Convergent evolution 2) Divergent evolution
3) Parallelism 4) Inheritance of acquired characters
169. Number of linkage groups in an individual is equal to
1) Number of genes 2) n-number of chromosomes
3) 2n-number of chromosomes 4) number of autosomes
170. Ganga action plan for controlling pollution in ganges started in
1) 1985 2) 1981 3) 1987 4) 1989
15
171. Assuming that 50 heavy (i.e containg N ) DNA molecules replicated twice in a medium
containg N14, we expect
1) 100 half and 150 light DNA molecules
2) 100 half – heavy and half – light and 100 light DNA molecules
3) 50 heavy and 150 light DNA molecules
4) 50 heavy and 100 light DNA molecules
172. Which one of the following is oviparous
1) Platypus 2) Echidna 3) Columba 4) All the above
173. Atlas 66 variety of wheat developed for
1) High protein content 2) Scented grains
3) Checking grassy stunt virus 4) Vitamin – C
174. Epidermis of skin is a
1) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Columnar epithelium
3) Stratified epithelium 4) Pseudo stratified epithelium
175. Which of the following DNA form has the maximum number of base pairs per turn
1) A - DNA 2) B - DNA 3) C - DNA 4) Z - DNA
176. The main excretory product in cockroach is
1) Urea 2) Urea; Uric acid 3) Guanine 4) Uric acid
177. BT – toxin kills the insect by
1) Blocking nerve conduction 2) Damaging the surface of trachea
3) Creating pores in trachea 4) Creating pores in midgut
178. Trisomy of 21st chromosome result in
1) Cat cry syndrome 2) Down’s syndrome 3) Edward’s syndrome 4) Patau’s syndrome
179. A genetically engineered microorganisms used successfully in the bioremediation of oil spills
is a species of
1) Pseudomonas 2) Trichoderma 3) Xanthomonas 4) Bacillus
180. Mantoux test is done to detect
1) Tuberculosis 2) Cholera 3) Malaria 4) Both B and C


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
1261) 1262) 1263) 1264) 1265) 1266) 1267) 1268) 1269) 1270)
1271) 1272) 1273) 1274) 1275) 1276) 1277) 1278) 1279) 1280)
1281) 1282) 1283) 1284) 1285) 1286) 1287) 1288) 1289) 1290)
1291) 1292) 1293) 1294) 1295) 1296) 1297) 1298) 1299) 1300)
1301) 1302) 1303) 1304) 1305)
CHEMISTRY
1306) 2 1307) 4 1308) 1 1309) 1 1310) 1 1311) 4 1312) 4 1313) 1 1314) 1 1315) 3
1316) 3 1317) 3 1318) 3 1319) 3 1320) 2 1321) 3 1322) 3 1323) 3 1324) 4 1325) 1
1326) 2 1327) 3 1328) 4 1329) 4 1330) 3 1331) 2 1332) 2 1333) 2 1334) 1 1335) 1
1336) 3 1337) 2 1338) 1 1339) 3 1340) 3 1341) 1 1342) 3 1343) 4 1344) 2 1345) 1
1346) 4 1347) 3 1348) 1 1349) 2 1350) 1
BIOLOGY
1351) 1 1352) 4 1353) 3 1354) 3 1355) 1 1356) 4 1357) 3 1358) 2 1359) 2 1360) 1
1361) 2 1362) 4 1363) 1 1364) 2 1365) 2 1366) 3 1367) 2 1368) 4 1369) 4 1370) 3
1371) 4 1372) 1 1373) 3 1374) 1 1375) 1 1376) 1 1377) 3 1378) 2 1379) 2 1380) 3
1381) 4 1382) 1 1383) 4 1384) 4 1385) 3 1386) 4 1387) 2 1388) 2 1389) 4 1390) 3
1391) 2 1392) 3 1393) 1 1394) 4 1395) 3 1396) 1 1397) 4 1398) 1 1399) 2 1400) 2
1401) 3 1402) 1 1403) 2 1404) 2 1405) 2 1406) 3 1407) 1 1408) 2 1409) 1 1410) 1
1411) 1 1412) 3 1413) 2 1414) 1 1415) 4 1416) 4 1417) 3 1418) 1 1419) 4 1420) 4
1421) 4 1422) 4 1423) 2 1424) 3 1425) 2 1426) 1 1427) 2 1428) 1 1429) 2 1430) 1
1431) 2 1432) 4 1433) 1 1434) 3 1435) 4 1436) 4 1437) 4 1438) 2 1439) 1 1440) 1


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. Turpentine oil is flowing through a tube of length l and r. The pressure difference between the
two ends of the tube is P. The viscosity of oil is given by  


P r2  x2 
where v is the velocity
4vl
of oil at a distance x from the axis of the tube. The dimensions of  are
1)  M 0 L0T 0  2)  MLT 1  3)  ML2T 2  4)  ML1T 1 
2. The displacement x of a particle vaties with time as x  ae t  bet , where a, b  and  are
positive constants. The velocity of the particle will
1) be independent of  2) drop to zero when   
3) go on decreasing with time 4) go on increasing with time

3. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is given by

R  4sin  2t  iˆ  4cos  2t  ˆj . Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and iˆ and ĵ denote unit
vectors along x- and y- directions respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong
for the motion of particle?
1) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
2) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter
3) Acceleration vector is along  R .
v2
4) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , Where v is velocity of particle.
R
4. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure.
After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v.
What is the net force on the block of mass 2m?
F
v
m
2m
3m
(g is the acceleration due to gravity)
1) 3 mg 2) 6 mg 3) zero 4) 2 mg
5. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle  . The
coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is  s . The maximum safe
velocity on this road is
g ( s  tan ) g ( s  tan ) ( s  tan ) ( s  tan )
1) 2) 2
3) gR 2 4) gR
R (1   s tan ) R (1   s tan ) (1   s tan ) (1   s tan )
6. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a mass
of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the
combination is
3 1 1 3 1 2 2 1
1) viˆ  vjˆ 2) viˆ  vjˆ 3) viˆ  vjˆ 4) viˆ  vjˆ
2 4 4 2 3 3 3 3

a b
7. The potential energy between two atoms, in a molecule, is given by U  x  
12
 6 where a
x x
and b are positive constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atom is in stable
equilibrium, when
1/ 6 1/ 6 1/ 6
 2a   11a   a 
1) x    2) x    3) x = 0 4) x   
 b   5b   5b 
8. A thin hollow sphere of mass m is completely filled with a liquid of mass m. When the sphere
rolls with a velocity v, kinetic energy of the system is equal to
1 4 4
1) mv 2 2) mv 2 3) mv 2 4) mv 2
2 3 5
9. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a
horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the
rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is
W d  x W d  x Wx Wd
1) 2) 3) 4)
x d d x
10. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x–axis at distances 1m 2m 4m 8m
……., respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at
the origin will be
4 8
1)  G 2) 4G 3) G 4)  G
3 3
11. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young’s modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the
figure are p, q and s respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths
would be
5q 7q 2q 7q
1) 2) 3) 4)
 7sp 2
 5sp 
2
 5sp   5s p 
2
12. Two non-mixing liquids of densities  and n  n  1 are put in a container. The height of
each liquids is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The
cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL  p  1 in the denser liquid. The density d is
equal to
1) 2   n  1 p   2) 1   n  1 p  3) 1   n  1 p  4) 2   n  1 p 
13. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work
done by the system in the cycle is
P0V0
1) P0V0 2) 2P0V0 3) 4) Zero
2

14. Three containers of the same volume contain three different gases. The masses of the
molecules are m1 , m2 and m3 and the number of molecules in their respective containers are
N1 , N 2 and N 3 . The gas pressure in the containers are P1 , P2 and P3 respectively. All the gases
are now mixed and put in one of theses containers. The pressure P of the mixture will be
P P P
1) P   P1  P2  P3  2) P  1 2 3 3) P  P1  P2  P3 4) P   P1  P2  P3 
3
15. A mass of 2 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown
in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible.
When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring
constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass
gets detached from the pan (take g= 10 m/s2)
1) 10.0 cm 2) any value less than 12.0 cm
3) 4.0 cm 4) 8.0 cm
16. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at
some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an angle of
600 with the source observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent
frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms-1), is
1) 106 Hz 2) 97 Hz 3) 100 Hz 4) 103 Hz
17. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having distance
1.21 A0 between them the wavelength of the standing wave is
1) 6.05A0 2) 2.42A0 3) 1.21A0 4) 3.63A0

18. The electric potential at a point [x, y, z] is given by V   x 2 y  xz 2  4 . The electric field at that
point is
   
1) E  iˆ2 xy  ˆj x 2  y 2  kˆ 3xz  y 2 ˆ2
ˆ 3  ˆjxyz  kz
2) E  iz
3) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆjxy 2  kˆ3 z 2 x 4) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆjx 2  kˆ3 xz 2
19. Three point charges +q, -2q and +q are placed at points (x=0, y=a, z=0), (x=0, y=0, z=0) and
(x=a, y=0, z=0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector
of this charge assembly are
1) 2qa along the line joining points (x=0,y=0,z=0) and (x=a, y=a, z=0)
2) qa along the line joining points (x=0, y=0, z=0) and (x=a, y=a, z=0)
3) 2qa along  x direction
4) 2qa along  y direction

20.
In the circuit shown, the current through the 4  resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M
are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points M and N is
1) 0.5 volt 2) 3.2 volt 3) 1.5 volt 4) 1.0 volt
21. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. He
main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal
resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R, connected cross
the given cell, has values of
I) Infinity
II) 9.5 
The balancing lengths on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85m, respectively.
The value of internal resistance of the cell is
1) 0.475  2) 0.95  3) 0.5  4) 0.25 
22. 40 electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the
remaining 39 are connected again in series across the same supply. The illumination will be
1) More with 40 blubs than with 39
2) More with 39 bulbs than with 40
3) Equal in both the cases
4) In the ratio 402;392
23. An alternating electric field, of frequency v , is applied across the dees (radius=R) of a
cyclotron that is being used to accelerate protons (mass= m). The operating magnetic field (B)
used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given
by
mv 2mv
1) B  and K  2m 2 v 2 R 2 2) B  and K  m 2 vR 2
e e
2mv mv
3) B  and K  2m2 v 2 R 2 4) B  and K  m 2 vR 2
e e
24. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of
1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents up to 5.0 amp
by
1) putting in series a resistance of 15 
2) putting in series a resistance of 240 
3) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 
4) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 
25. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure p and volume V are related as Vp n =constant,
the bulk modulus for the gas in this process is
1 1
1) np 2) p 3) 4) p n
n n
26. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure & volume of a gas is 9/7, then the number of
degrees of freedom of the gas molecules is :
1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7

27. Curie temperature is that above which
1) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material
2) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
3) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
4) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
28. When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, then which of the following statement about the
current I in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?
1) I oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA

2) at t= 0, I= 2 mA and with time it goes to 1 mA
3) I= 1 mA at all t.
4) I = 2 mA at all t.
29. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the
condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the
inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is
1
1
 C V1  V2 
1) 
2
2)
C V12  V22  3)
C V12  V22  
 C V12  V22  2
4)  


 L  L L  L 
 
-2
30. In a region of magnetic induction B=10 tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance
2 ohm is rotated about an axis which is perpendicular to the direction of B and which forms
a diameter of the coil. If the coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of the alternating current
induced in the coil is
1) 4 2 mA 2) 30 mA 3) 6 mA 4) 200 mA
31. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled completely with a dielectric
substance having dielectric constant 4 and thickness 3 mm. The distance between the plates in
now increased by inserting a second sheet of thickness 5 mm and dielectric constant K. If the
capacitance of the capacitor so formed is one-half of the original capacitance, the value of K is
1) 10/3 2) 20/3 3) 5/3 4) 15/3
32. Light with an energy flux of 25 104 Wm2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal
incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted on the surface is
1) 1.25 106 N 2) 2.50  106 N 3) 1.20 10 6 N 4) 3.0 106 N
33. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal
length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength
5 105 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of
the screen is
1) 0.10 cm 2) 0.25 cm 3) 0.20 cm 4) 0.15 cm
34. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I 0 . Distance between
two slits is d  5 , where  is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the
intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?
3 I I
1) I 0 2) 0 3) I 0 4) 0
4 2 4

35. A biconvex lens    1.5  has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the
following options describes best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm
from the lens?
1) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm 2) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
3) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm 4) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm
36. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
gun can be increased by
1) Increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
2) Increasing the filament current
3) Decreasing the filament current
4) Decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
37. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV.
According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of
wavelength 4100 A0 is/are
1) A only 2) A and B only 3) All the three metals 4) None
38. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge z1 and mass M1
approaches a target nucleus of charge z2 and mass M 2 , the distance of closest approach is r0 .
The energy of the projectile is
1) directly proportional to z1 z 2 2) Inversely proportional to z1
3) directly proportional to mass M 1 4) directly proportional to M 1  M 2
39. Two radioactive substance A and B have decay constants 5 and  respectively. At t=0 they
have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be
1/ e 2 after a time interval
1) 4  2) 2  3) 1/2  4) 1/4 
40. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
1) AND 2) NOR 3) OR 4) NAND

 
41. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 s Vt  2 cos 15t   .
 3
The corresponding output signal will be
 5   4     2 
1) 2cos 15t   2) 300cos  15t   3) 300cos  15t   4) 75cos  15t  
 6   3   3  3 
42. A p–n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of
the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly
1) 11014 Hz 2) 20 1014 Hz 3) 10 1014 Hz 4) 5 1014 Hz
43. The apparent depth of water in cylindrical water tank of diameter 2R cm is reducing at the
rate of x cm/minute when water is being drained out at a constant rate. The amount of water
drained in cc per minute is :
(n1 = refractive index of air, n2 = refractive index of water)
x  R 2 n1 x  R 2 n2
1) 2) 3) 2  R n1 4) R2 x
n2 n1 n2

44. A thin prism P1 with angle 4o made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of the prism P2 is
1) 5.33o 2) 4o 3) 3o 4) 2.6o
45. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and are of cross-section 1.5 10 4 m 2 carries a current
of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn
in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 102 tesla making an angle of 300 with the
axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be
1) 3 103 Nm 2) 1.5 103 Nm 3) 1.5 10 2 Nm 4) 3 102 Nm
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following statements about open chain structure of glucose are correct?
A) It contains one –CHO group B) It contains one primary –OH group
C) It contains four secondary –OH groups D) It contains six –OH groups
1) A,B,D only 2) A,B,C,D 3) B,C,D only 4) A,B,C only
47. A,B and C in the following reaction are

H3O conc. H 2 SO4 1) O3
CH 2   A  
 B  
2) H O / Zn
C
2
H 3C OH CH 3 H 3C OH CH 2 O
1) CHO 2)
H 3C OH CH 3 H 3C OH CH 3
CHO O
3) CHO 4) COOH
48. Which of the following is false about Lithium?
1) It can directly react with Nitrogen 2) It cannot react with Ethyne
3) It is a very weak reducing agent 4) It cannot form Alums
BaCl2
49. MSO4 
excess
 MCl2  BaSO4 ;
BaCl2
MCO3 
excess
 MCl2  BaCO3 ;
These are the conformation tests of sulphate salts and carbonate salts respectively. If BaSO4 is
insoluble in Conc. HCl then BaCO3 will be
1) Soluble in dilute HCl 2) Insoluble in dilute HCl
3) does not react with HCl 4) Cannot be predicted
50. The half life time of zero order reaction is 1 hr, when the initial concentration of the reactant
is 2 mole/lit. How much time (in hr) does it take for its concentration to decrease from 0.5 to
0.25 mole/ lit?
1) 0.25 2) 0.5 3) 4 4) 1

51. Statement-A : I 3 ion is linear.
Statement-B : I 3 ion, iodine is in ‘sp’ hybridised state.
1) Both A and B are true 2) Both A and B are false
3) A is true and B is false 4) A is false and B is true
52. The ultimate product formed on methylation of diborane is:
1) B2  CH 3  6 2) B2 H 4  CH 3 2 3) B2 H 3  CH 3 3 4) B2 H 2  CH 3 4
53. Statement-I : Phosphinic acid has more reducing behavior than phosphonic acid
Statement-II : Phosphinic acid has two P- H bonds where as phosphonic acid has one P-H
bond
1) I is true and II is false 2) I is false and II is true
3) Both I and II are true 4) Both I and II are false
54. Which among the following is incorrect?
1) Orbital angular momentum of 2p electron is 2h / 2
2) 3p-orbital has ‘2’ nodal plane
3) Radial probability  4 r 2 dr . 2
4) Energy of electron in terms of Rydberg’s constant : E   RH .h.c
H  / KMnO4 1) LiAlH 4
55. CH 3  CH  CH  CH 3  
  A  2) H 
 B The compound ‘B’ will be
1) CH 3  COOH 2) CH 3  CH 2  OH 3) CH 3  CHO 4) CH 3  C||  C||  CH 3
O O
56. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same
atomic radii? (number in the parenthesis are atomic number)
1) Zr (40) and Ta (73) 2) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
3) Zr (40) and Nb (41) 4) Zr(40) and Hf (72)
1) If the Kelvin temperature of a gas is doubled the velocity of the gas also doubles
2) The Kinetic energy of 16 g of oxygen at 270 C is 450 cal
3) The compressibility factor (Z) of ideal gases is 1
4) The relative rates of diffusion of hydrogen and Helium respectively is 2 :1
58. Which of the following compounds do not undergo either aldol condensation or Cannizzaro’s
reaction ?
1) Methanal 2) Cyclohexanone 3) Benzophenone 4) Phenylacetaldehyde
59. 13 grams of a metal ‘M’ is deposited at cathode by passing 0.4F electricity. If the cathodic
reaction is M n  ne   M the formula of the metallic chloride is (Atomic weight of M= 65).
1) MCl4 2) MCl3 3) MCl 4) MCl2

H 3O
 
60. Major product of the following reaction is
OH
OH
OH
OH
1) 2) 3) 4)
61. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M) among is
2 2 4 4 2 2
1)  MnCl4    CoCl4    Fe(CN )6  2)  Fe(CN )6    CoCl4    MnCl4 
4 2 2 2 4 2
3)  Fe(CN )6    MnCl4   CoCl4  4)  MnCl4    Fe(CN )6   CoCl4 
62. The volume (in ml) of “ 50 vol” H 2O2 required, which on decomposition gives sufficient
oxygen for complete combustion of 100 ml of ethane at STP is
1) 14 2) 7 3) 70 4) 140

Mo2O3
63. CH 4  O2  X 
 CH
3 COO  Mn
C2 H 6  O2  2
 Y Which of the following is correct?
1) X and Y have same functional group 2) X and Y are functional isomers
3) X and Y have same percentage composition of elements 4) X and Y are homologues
64. Which of the element given below doesnot undergo disproportionation on reaction with aq.
NaOH solution ?
1) N 2 2) Cl2 3) S 4) P
65. Which of the following reaction does not take place
C  CH3 3 COOH
KMnO4

KOH

1) 2) HVZ reaction of 2 – Methylpropanoic acid
CONH 2 COOH

H 3O
 
3) 4) Nitration of benzoic acid
6 3 4 3
66. K p has the value of 10 atm and 10 atm at 298K and 323K respectively for the reaction :
CuSO4 .3H 2O  s   CuSO4  s   3H 2O  g  , then H for the reaction is:
1) 85 kJ / mol 2) 125 kJ / mol 3) 147.41 kJ / mole 4) 325 kJ / mol
67. Impurities in PH 3 make it inflammable The impurities are
1) P2 H 4 2) P4 3) Both 1 and 2 4) H 3 PO4
68. In which case of mixing of HCl and NaOH the heat released is maximum
1) 10ml of 0.1 M HCl + 40 ml of 0.1 M NaOH 2) 20ml of 0.1 M HCl +20 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
3) 25ml of 0.1 M HCl + 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH 4) 35ml of 0.1 M HCl +15 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
69. Which among the following is incorrect set?

1) Number of Bravais lattices possible for ortho rhombic crystal system : 4
2) CrO2 is diamagnetic substance 3) Covalent solid : SiO2
4) CaF2 has 8 : 4 coordination structure
70. A high spin complex of d 6 -cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy
12 12 2 2
1) 0  P 2)  0  3P 3) 0  2P 4) 0  P
5 5 5 5
71 IUPAC name of given compound is :
1) Deca-2,6-dien-9-yne 2) Deca-4,9-dien-1-yne
3) Nona-1,6-dien-8-yne 4) Nona-2,8-dien-1-yne
1) O2 molecule is diamagnetic 2) Order of ionic radius : Al 3  Mg 2  F 1
3) Lone pair in SF4 is present at equatorial position
4) Ionic compounds donot exhibit isomerism beacause ionic bond is non directional

List –I List – II
A) Dil. Aq. Boric acid 1) Antibiotic
B) Chloramphenicol 2) Analgesic
C) Rantadine 3) Antiseptic
D) Morphine 4) Antihistamine
5) Antacid
A B C D A B C D
1) 4 1 5 3 2) 3 1 4 2
3) 3 4 2 5 4) 4 2 3 1
74. Polymer Monomers
1) Nylon -2, nylon -6 a) 2- chlorobut -1,3 – diene
2) Teflon b) Ethylene glycol and terphthalic acid
3) Neoprene c) Amino caproic acid and glycine
4) Terylene d) Tera fluoro ethylene
e) Butadiene and vinyl cyanide
1) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – c 2) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 –a, 4 – b
3) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b 4) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
75. Most stable free radical is
1) 2) 3) 4)
76. A saturated solution prepared by dissolving Ag 2 CO3 in water has  Ag    2.56 104 M Its
KSP is
1) 8.4 10 12 M 3 2) 6.7 1011 M 3
3) 6.6 1012 M 3 4) 1.6 108 M 3
77. When 2 moles of HCl is added to acetylene, the product is ‘X’. When 1 mole of Cl2 is added
to ethylene, the product is ‘Y’. Here ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are a pair of :
1) Chain isomers 2) Position isomers
3) Homologues 4) Functional isomers
78. The product obtained in the following reaction is
Br
C2 H 5ONa
CH 3

ethanol

OC2 H 5 OC2 H 5 CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
0
79. Two hydrogen electrodes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are prepared at 25 C. The p H of electrolyte in
electrode ‘A’ is 3 and in electrode ‘B’ is 2 . If a Galvanic cell is constructed by these two
electrodes then the EMF of cell is:
1) +0.12V 2) +0.059V 3) -0.12V 4) +0.18B

80.
Z in the above reaction is
1) 2) 3) 4)
81. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl and KBr are 126.5,150 and 151.5
S .cm 2 .eq 1 respectively. The limiting equivalent ionic conductance for Br 1 is 78 S .cm 2 eq 1 .
The limiting equivalent ionic conductance of Na  ion is :
1) 128 2) 75 3) 50 4) 49
82. The standard entropies of CO, O2 and CO2 are 197,205 and 213 J .K 1 mole 1 respectively. The
standard entropy change for the reaction, 2CO g   O2 g   2CO2  g  is  in JK 1 
1) -173 2) -185 3) 197 4) 152
83. Which among the following indicates structure of Histamine, which causes inflammation in
the body?
1) 2)
3) 4)
84. The best electrolyte for coagulate As2 S3 sol is
1) NaC 2) A  NO3  2 3) CuSO4 4) BaC 2
85. Number of stereo isomers possible for Co  ONO 3  NH 3 3  is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5
a ) NaOH  I 2
86. A  b) H 
 CHI3  B ;
O
CH 3

B 
CO2

‘A’ in the following reaction is
O O O O
COCH 3 CH 2COOH OH COCH 3
CH 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
87. 18g of ‘Mg’ metal was strongly heated in presence of excess N2 and the product was treated
with water, then the volume of ammonia liberated at STP is
1) 22.4 lit 2) 11.2 lit 3) 16.8 lit 4) 44.8 lit

88. Energy profile diagram for a reaction is given below. The heat of reaction is
1) – 200 KJ 2) 200 KJ 3) 800 KJ 4) 600 KJ

A) Eutrophication is mainly caused by phosphates
B) Ozone layer is destroyed by C.F.C
C) M.I.C. is a contaminent
D) Benzopyrene is not carcinogenic
1) A, B, D 2) B, C, D 3) A, B, C 4) A, B, D
90. In the balancing of the reaction, Cr2O72  NO2  H   Cr 3  NO3  H 2O the stoichiometric
coefficients of Cr2O72 , NO2 and H  respectively are
1) 1, 3, 8 2) 1, 4, 8 3) 1, 3, 12 4) 1, 5, 12
BIOLOGY
91. Botanical gardens:
1) Have collections of living plants for reference
2) Is an ex-situ conservation strategy
3) Contains labeled plants indicating its botanical/ scientific name and family
4) All of the above
92. Alveoli of the lungs are lined by which epithelium:-
1) Stratified epithelium 2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium 4) Simple squamous epithelium
93. Read the following table carefully and select the correct option for W, X, Y, Z
Common Name Biological Name Family Order
Wheat Triticum aestivum X Y
Mango W Z Sapindales
1) W = Oryza sativa, X = Poaceae, Y = Poales, Z = Anacardiaceae
2) W = Mangifera indica, X = Anacardiaceae, Y= Sapindales, Z = Poaceae
3) W = Oryza sativa, X= Sapindales, Y = Poaceae, Z = Poales
4) W = Mangifera indica, X= Poaceae, Y = Poales, Z = Anacardiaceae
94. In the given list how many animals have complete double circulation:
Fish, Alligator, Frog, lung fish , Prawn, Crocodile, birds, mammals
1) Five 2) Four 3) Three 4) Six
95. Dinoflagellates have two flagella:
1) Both lying longitudinally between the wall plates
2) One lying longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall plates
3) Both lying transversely between the wall plates
4) But do not help in their movement

96. Read the statements with regard to frog, Which of the statement is/are correct and incorrect?
I) The medulla ablongata passes out through foramen of Monro and continues into spinal
cord
II) Vasa efferentia 10 -12 in number that arise from testes
III) Ovaries have no functional connection with kidneys.
IV) Frogs are uricotelic
1) Statements (I), (II) and (III) are correct while statement (IV) is incorrect.
2) Statements (I) and (II) are correct while statement (III) and (IV) are incorrect
3) Statements (II) and (III) are correct while statement (I) and (IV) are incorrect
4) Statements (II) ,(III) and (IV) are correct while statement (I) is incorrect.
97. Identify the virus and name the structure marked A, B, C, D and E:
1) Bacteriophage, A = Head, B = Sheath, C= Collar, D= Tail fibre, E= Base plate

2) Bacteriophage, A = Head, B= Collar, C= Base plate, D= Sheath, E= Tail fibre
3) Bacteriophage, A = Head, B= Sheath, C= Tail fibre, D= Collar, E= Base plate
4) Bacteriophage, A= Head, B= Collar, C= Sheath, D= Tail fibre, E= Base plate
98. Contribution of India in global species diversity is:
1) 1.8 % 2) 2.4 % 3) 8.1 % 4) 4.2 %
99. In gymnosperms:
1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary
2) Ovules remain exposed both before and after fertilization
3) Seeds are naked and not covered by fruit 4) All are correct
100. In man, ‘taeniae coli’ are
1) External bulged out pouches of colon 2) Longitudinal muscular folds of rectum
3) External bulged out pouches of rectum 4) Longitudinal muscular folds of colon
101. Match the column :
A) Psilopsida I) Dryopteris, Pteris and Adiantum
B) Lycopsida II) Equisetum
C) Sphenopsida III) Selaginella and Lycopodium
D) Pteropsida IV) Psilotum
1) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II 2) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
3) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 4) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
102. Triglycerides in the chylomicrons are digested by
1) Gastric lipase 2) Lingual lipase 3) Intestinal lipase 4) Lipoprotein lipase
103. Select the correct statements:
A) From the region of elongation, some epidermal cells form root hairs
B) Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora
C) Adventitious roots are seen in the banyan trees
D) Maize and sugarcane have prop- roots
1) A and D 2) A, C and D 3) C and D B and C

104. Note the following.
A) Active process B) Passive process C) Decrease in pulmonary volume
D) Increase in pulmonary volume E) Relaxation of diaphragm
F) Contraction of diaphragm
From the above aspects which are suitable to normal expiration in human being?
1) A, D, F 2) B, C, F 3) B, C, E 4) A, D, E
105. Match the column w.r.t placentation:
A) Axile I) Dianthus, Primrose
B) Parietal II) Sunflower, marigold
C) Free – central III) China rose, tomato, lemon
D) Basal IV) Mustard, Argemone
1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 4) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
106. Which of the following would have the same O2 content?
1) Blood entering the lungs – blood leaving the lungs
2) Blood entering the right side of the heart blood leaving the right side of the heart
3) Blood entering the right side of the heart blood leaving the left side of the heart
4) Blood entering the tissue capillaries – blood leaving the tissue capillaries
107. Parkinsonia and Australian Acacia are popular examples of:
1) Phylloclade 2) Phyllode 3) Cladode 4) Cladophyll
108. Read the following about blood clotting
Prothrombin
Activator
Prothrombin A
C
D Insoluble fibrin
E B
In the above process A, B, C, D and E are respectively
1) Thrombin, Soluble fibrin, Factor IV, Factor XIII and Soluble fibrinogen
2) Thrombin, Soluble fibrin, Factor IV, Factor XIII and insoluble fibrinogen
3) Thrombin, Soluble fibrin, Factor III, Factor XIII and Soluble fibrinogen
4) Thrombin, Soluble fibrin, Factor II, Factor XIII and Soluble fibrinogen
109. If recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme galactosidase. Which of
the following will occur in case of non- recombinants ?
1) Inserational inactivation 2) Colonies do not produce any colour
3) Chromogenic Substrate gives blue colour
4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase
110. Consider the following four statements(i) – (iv) and select the correct option
I) Fish heart contains only oxygenated blood
II) Closure of A – V valves produces the second heart sound
III) Columnae carneae occur in the atria
IV) Purkinje fibres are nerve fibres present in the heart wall
I II III IV I II III IV
1) F F T F 2) F F F T
3) T T F T 4) T F T F
111. In ‘’QB’’ Bacteriophase genetic material is :
1) DNA 2) RNA 3) Protein 4) None
112. Angiotensinogenase is secreted by
1) Juxtaglomerular cells 2) Juxta medullary cells
3) Liver 4) Lungs

113. Which of the following statements are correct for sap wood?
I) It does not help in water conduction
II) It is light coloured
III) It is also called alburnum
IV) Its tracheary elements are filled with tannins, resins, oils, gums aromatic compounds and
essential oils
V) It is hard and durable
1) II, III 2) I, II, III 3) IV, V 4) III, IV, V
114. Choose the correct one regarding urinary excretion
1) Urinary excretion = Tubular reabsorption + Glomerular filtration – Tubular secretion
2) Urinary excretion = Glomerular filtration – Tubular reabsorption – Tubular secretion
3) Urinary excretion = Tubular secretion + Tubular reabsorption – Glomerular filtration
4) Urinary excretion = Glomerular filtration – Tubular reabsorption + Tubular secretion
115. Match the column:
Column- I Column – II
A) Bean shaped guard cell I) Dicot stem
B) Dumb-bell shaped guard cell II) Monocot leaf
C) Trichome III) Dicot leaf
D) Exarch xylem IV) Dicot and monocot root
1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV 2) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
116. The change that takes place in “cori cori” cycle
1) Glycogen is formed from lactic acid in muscles
2) Urea is formed from ammonia in liver
3) Glycogen is formed from lactic acid in liver
4) Phosphocreatine is formed from creatine in liver
117. Stele excludes:
1) Pericycle 2) Vascular bundles 3) Pith 4) Endodermis
118. The shoulder blade is made of
1) Clavicle 2) Humerus 3) Ilium 4) Scapula
119. Select the wrong match:
1) Aleuroplast – Protein storage 2) Elaioplast – Fat / oil storage
3) Amyloplast – Starch storage 4) Etioplast – Chlorophyll storage
I) Summation of postsynaptic potentials occurs at axon hillock
II) Action potentials are developed when the EPSPs are greater than the IPSPs
III) Efflux of K+ causes repolarization
Which of the above are correct?
1) Only II 2) Only I 3) Only I and II 4) I, II, III
121. Study the names of different cell organelles/ structure given below:
Lysosome, Mitochondria, Golgi, ER, Ribosome, Chromosome, Thylakoid, Flagella,
Peroxisome
How many of the above are bound by single membrane?
1) Six 2) Two 3) Four 4) Three
122. Visual impulses from the retina of eye reach this part of human brain
1) Superior colliculi 2) Occipital lobe of cerebrum
3) Parietal lobe of cerebrum 4) Pons Varolii
123. ______ is the most abundant protein in animal world and ______ is the most abundant
protein in the whole biosphere.
1) Insulin, PEP-case 2) Insulin, RuBisCO 3) Collagen, PEP-case 4) Collagen, RuBisCO

124. Set of hormones related with maintenance of body temperature is
1) Melatonin and thyroxine 2) Thyroxine and calcitonin
3) Oxytocin and thyroxine 4) Somatostatin and melatonin
125. Chitin is present in the cell wall of
1) Yeast 2) Algae 3) Fungi 4) Bacteria
126. Observe the following about hormonal disorders and note the correctly given
Disorder Cause Main symptoms
I) Addison’s disease Hypersecretion of Loss of weight & muscle
glucocorticoids weakness
II) Myxedema Hyposecretion of thyroxine Lethargy, mental
impairment
III) Simple goiter Hypothyroidism Enlargement of thyroid
gland
IV) Tetany Hypoparathyroidism Prolonged contraction of
muscles
1) All of these 2) All except I 3) All except IV 4) Only III & IV
127. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence:
I) Terminalization II) Crossing over
III) Synapsis IV) Disjunction of genomes
The correct sequence is:
1) IV, III, II, I 2) III, II, I, IV 3) II, I, IV, III 4) I, IV, III, II
128. Match the following and choose the correct combination
A) Leydig cells I) Nourishing the sperms
B) Sertoli cells II) Lubricates the urethra
C) Prostate gland III) Secretion of testosterone
D) Cowper’s gland IV) Secretion of citric acid
V) Activates sperms
The correct match is :
1) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II 2) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
3) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II 4) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – IV
129. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 1000 male gametes in a flowering plant?
1) 80 2) 100 3) 250 4) 125
130. By the end of second trimester in foetus
1) The body is covered with fine hair 2) Eye lids separate
3) Eyelashes are formed 4) All these are seen
131. Match the column:

Column –I Column –II
I) Operator site A) Bindingsite for RNA polymerase
II) Promoter site B) Binding site for repressor molecule
III) Structural gene C) Codes for enzyme protein
IV) Regulator gene D) Codes for repressor Molecule
I II III IV
1) D B A C
2) B A C D
3) D C A B
4) B C A D

132. Study the following statements and choose the correct option
I) In periodic abstinence, couples avoid coitus from 17th to 27th day of the menstrual cycle
II) Saheli, once a week pill, developed by CDRI, Lucknow is a steroidal oral contraceptive
III) Diaphragms are the reusable female contraceptive barriers
IV) LNG – 20 is a hormone releasing IUD.
1) I and II only 2) II, III and IV only 3) III and IV only 4) All
133. Solution A has  s  30 bars and  p  5 bars. Solution B have  s  10 bars and  p  0
bars. The two are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Flow of water will be
1) A  B 2) B  A 3) Equal in both directions 4) No flow of water
134. The following graph shows the levels of ovarian hormones during a menstral cycle. What do 1
and 2 represent?
1 2
1) Progesterone Estrogen
2) FSH LH
3) LH FSH
4) Estrogen Progesterone
135. AUG initiation codon occurs over
1) 31 end of m –RNA 2) 51 end of m –RNA 3) Short arm of t RNA 4) Long arm of t-RNA
136. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement (1): MTP is considered relatively safe during the first trimester of pregnancy
Statement(2) : Foetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissues after the first
trimester
1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
2) Statement 1 incorrect and 2 is correct
3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
137. Leghaemoglobin function as:
1) Oxygen scavenger 2) Nitrogen scavenger 3) CO2 scavenger 4) Hydrogen carrier
138. If the blood group of a man is ‘O’ and that of his wife is ‘AB+’, how many of their children
have the phenotype for the blood group of father and mother respectively?
1) 100 % & 0 % 2) 0 % & 100 % 3) 50 % & 50 % 4) 0 % & 0 %
139. To remove one molecule of glucose from Calvin cycle, _______ turns of the cycle are required:
1) 6 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5
140. Find out the mismatch from the following related to skin colour of man
1) aabbcc – very fair 2) AABBCC – very dark
3) AaBbCc – intermediate shade 4) AABbcc – very light
141. Observe the diagram given below and identify A, B and C.

A B C

1) PS- II e acceptor ADP

2) ADP e acceptor PS- II

3) e acceptor PS- I ADP

4) PS- I e acceptor ADP
List- I List- II
A) Down syndrome I) 46, t(9:22)
B) Patau syndrome II) 47, + 18
C) Chronic Myelogenousleukemia III) 47, +21
D) Cri – du – chat syndrome IV) 46, 5 p –
E) Edward’s syndrome V) 47, + 13
A B C D E A B C D E
1) III II I IV V 2) III V I IV II
3) IV III II V I 4) V IV III I II
143. The total number of substrate level phosphorylation in cellular respiration as a result of
complete oxidation of one glucose molecule is
1) 6 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4
144. In which of the following organisms, sex of the offspring depends on the type of ovum that is
fertilized?
1) Birds and Drosophila 2) Reptiles and Moths
3) Cockroaches and birds 4) Grasshoppers and Moths
145. The experimental proof for DNA as genetic material comes from.
A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Conjugation D) Mutation
1) A, C 2) A, B, C, D 3) C, D 4) A, B
146. Study the pedigree chart given below
What does it show?

1) X-linked recessive – Protanopia 2) X – linked dominant – Follicular hyperkeratosis
3) Autosomal recessive – SCID 4) Autosomal dominant – Myotonic dystrophy
147. Which of the following is used for fruit ripening on commercial scale?
1) 2, 4 –D 2) 2, 4, 5 – T 3) IAA 4) Ethylene
148. Statement- I: Caterpillar larva of butterfly is similar in body form with its ancestor the
annelied
Statement- II: Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
2) Statement 1 incorrect and 2 is correct
3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.

A) IAA I) Herring sperm DNA
B) ABA II) Bolting
C) Ethylene III) Stomatal closure
D) GA IV) Weed-free lawns
E) Cytokinins V) Ripening of fruits
1) A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – II, E – I 2) A – V, B – III, C – IV, D – II, E – I
3) A – IV, B – I, C – IV, D – III, E – II 4) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – IV
150. “ The early embryos of various vertebrates exhibit the fundamental similarity”. This is stated
by
1) Von Baer 2) Ernst Haeckel 3) Lamarck 4) Nuttal
151. Match the column :
A) Zoospore I) Penicillium
B) Conidia II) Sponges
C) Gemmule III) Hydra
D) Buds IV) Chlamydomonas
1) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III 2) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

List – I List- II
A) T.R.Malthus I) On the tendency of varieties to depart from original types
B) Charles Darwin II) Philosophie zoologique
C) Weismann III) On the principles of populations
D) Lamarck IV) Natural selection
E) Alfred Russel Wallace V) Decaudalisation experiments
A B C D E A B C D E
1) III V IV II I 2) III II V I IV
3) III IV V II I 4) IV III V II I
153. What is the chromosome number in the meiocytes of human beings, fruit fly, Ophioglossum
and Zea mays respectively?
1) 46, 20, 1260, 8 2) 46, 1260, 20, 8 3) 46, 8, 1260, 20 4) 46, 8, 20, 1260
154. Read the following
A) Homo erectus B) Homo sapiens C) Homo neanderthalensis
D) Homo habilis E) Ramapithecus F) Australopithecus
Arrange the above based on probable evolutionary sequence
1) E, F, A, D, C, B 2) F, E, D, A, C, B 3) F, E, A, D, C, B 4) E, F, D, A, C, B
155. Find out correct order of vegetative propagules of plants like Potato, Ginger, Agave,
Bryophyllum and Water Hyacinth:
1) Offset, bulbil, leaf bud, rhizome and eyes 2) Leaf bud, bulbil, offset, rhizome and eyes
3) Eyes, rhizome, bulbil, leaf buds and offset 4) Rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud, eyes and offset
Disease Causative Agent Sympton
A) Typhoid fever I) Microsporum a) Fluid – filled alveoli
B) Pneumonia II) Salmonella b) Nasal congestion
C) Common cold III) Streptococcus c) Dry and scaly lesions
D) Ringworm IV) Rhino virus d) Intestinal performation

The correct match is:
1) A (II) d B (IV) a C (III) b D (I) c 2) A(II) d B (III) a C (IV) b D (I) c
3) A (II) d B (III) a C (IV) b D (I) c 4) A(II) c B (III) a C (IV) b D (I) d
157. Read the following statements:
I) The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
II) Stamens are well exposed from the flowers
III) Very often feathery stigmas are present
IV) Single ovule in each ovary is present
V) Flowers are packed into inflorescence
Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t anemophilous plants?
1) I, II, III 2) III, IV and V 3) I, II 4) I, II, III, IV and V
158. Which of the following provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?
A) Bone marrow B) Spleen
C) Thymus gland D) Lymph nodes
E) Appendix F) Peyer’s patches of small intestine
1) B and C only 2) B, D, E and F 3) B and D only 4) B, D and F only
159. Arrange A, B, C, D and E in the sequence of dicot embryo development from zygote stage.
1) A  C  D  B  E 2) C  B  D  E  A
3) A  B  C  E  D 4) B  D  A  E  C
160. The exaggerated immune response of the immune system to certain antigens is called
1) Auto- immune disorder 2) Hypersensitivity
3) Graft rejection 4) All the three
161. A hexaploid (6n) female plant gets pollinated by an octaploid (8n) male plant. As a result of
double fertilization, what will be the ploidy of embryo and endosperm respectively?
1) 10n, 7n 2) 6n, 8n 3) 7n, 10n 4) 8n, 6n
162. GEAC means
1) General engineering approval committee 2) Genetic Engineering approval committee
3) Generator energy approval committee 4) Green environment approval committee
163. How many different types of gametes would be formed in an individual who is heterozygous
for four different loci?
1) 16 2) 12 3) 8 4) 4
List- I List- II
A) Allen’s rule I) Eurythermal
B) Bergmann’s rule II) Temperature effect on length of extremities
C) Coral animals III) Body volume temperature
D) Van’t hoff’s rule IV) Temperature metabolic rate
V) Stenothermal
1) A – II, B – III, C – V, D – IV 2) A – II, B – III, C – 1, D – IV
3) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – I 4) A – II, B – V, C – IV, D – I

165. Study the following lists:
List- I List- II
A) T. H. Morgan I) Coined the term genetics
B) G.J. Mendel II) Linkage
C) Bateson III) Checker board
D) Reginal C. Punnett IV) Laws of heredity
V) Mutations
The correct match is:
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV I II 2) II IV I III
3) I II V IV 4) IV III II I
166. Obligatory relationship between two organisms in which both are benefitted is called:-
1) Proto- cooperation 2) Amensalism 3) Commensalism 4) Mutualism
167. Heterozygotic tall plant (Tt) is crossed with homozygous dwarf(tt) plant. Then what will be
the percentage of dwarf plants in the next generation?
1) 0 % 2) 50 % 3) 25 % 4) 100 %
168. Identify the logistic growth equation
dN  K-N  dN dN  K-N  dN  N-K 
1) =rN   2)  rN 3)  rN   4)  rN  
dt  N  dt dt  K  dt  K 
169. Which of the following correctly represents DNA replication?
1) 2) 3) 4)
170. All automobiles in India have met Euro- IV norms by
1) April 1, 2010 2) April 1, 2012 3) May 5, 2014 4) May 5, 2000
171. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
The percentages of other bases expected to be present in this DNA
1) G = 8.5%, A= 50 %, T =24.5 % 2) G= 34%, A= 24.5 %, T= 24.5 %
3) G= 17%, A= 16.5%, T=32.5% 4) G= 17%, A= 33%, T= 33%
172. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:-
1) Sulphurdioxide 2) Carbondioxide 3) Chlorofluorocarbon 4) Smog
173. Which of the following cry gene codes for the protein which can control the corn borer
effectively?
1) Cry I Ac 2) Cry II Ab 3) Cry I Ab 4) Cry II Ac
174. First biosphere reserve was established in 1986 at
1) Nilgiri 2) Nanda Devi 3) Rann of Kutch 4) Sunderbans
175. Which of the following are varieties of wheat?
1) Reimei and Jagannath 2) Kalyan sona and Sonalika
3) Himgiri and Parbhani Kranti 4) None of the above
176. Which option correctly describes the equations of curves A and B, in the given graph os
species area relationship?

A B
1) S  CAZ Log S  Log C  Z Log A
2) LogS  LOgC  Z LogA S  CAZ
3) Log C  LogS  Z Log A S  CAZ
4) S  CAZ Log C  Log S  Z Log A
177. The BOD test measures the rate of :
1) O2 uptake by microbes in a sample of water to oxidse organic matter
2) Organic matter production
3) Air quality
4) Organic matter use by herbivore fishes
178. Aglomerular kidney exist in
1) Marine cartilaginous fishes 2) Fresh water Bony Fishes
3) Fresh water Chondricthyes fishes 4) Marine Bony Fishes
179. The figure given below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR-322.
Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
1) Ori-original restriction enzyme 2) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

3) Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers 4) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance gene
180. Association between ‘cattle egret’ and ‘grazing cattle’ is (Assume ‘+’ sign for beneficial
organism and ‘ –‘ sign for detrimental and ‘0’ for neutral interaction)
1) + and – 2) + and 0 3) – and 0 4) + and +


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
1441) 1442) 1443) 1444) 1445) 1446) 1447) 1448) 1449) 1450)
1451) 1452) 1453) 1454) 1455) 1456) 1457) 1458) 1459) 1460)
1461) 1462) 1463) 1464) 1465) 1466) 1467) 1468) 1469) 1470)
1471) 1472) 1473) 1474) 1475) 1476) 1477) 1478) 1479) 1480)
1481) 1482) 1483) 1484) 1485)
CHEMISTRY
1486) 4 1487) 1 1488) 3 1489) 1 1490) 1 1491) 3 1492) 4 1493) 3 1494) 2 1495) 2
1496) 4 1497) 1 1498) 3 1499) 4 1500) 3 1501) 4 1502) 2 1503) 3 1504) 1 1505) 1
1506) 3 1507) 3 1508) 3 1509) 2 1510) 2 1511) 3 1512) 1 1513) 2 1514) 3 1515) 3
1516) 1 1517) 2 1518) 4 1519) 2 1520) 3 1521) 3 1522) 1 1523) 2 1524) 2 1525) 3
1526) 4 1527) 2 1528) 1 1529) 3 1530) 1
BIOLOGY
1531) 4 1532) 4 1533) 4 1534) 2 1535) 2 1536) 3 1537) 4 1538) 3 1539) 4 1540) 4
1541) 4 1542) 4 1543) 4 1544) 3 1545) 3 1546) 2 1547) 2 1548) 1 1549) 3 1550) 2
1551) 2 1552) 1 1553) 1 1554) 4 1555) 2 1556) 3 1557) 4 1558) 1 1559) 4 1560) 4
1561) 1 1562) 2 1563) 4 1564) 1 1565) 3 1566) 2 1567) 2 1568) 3 1569) 4 1570) 4
1571) 2 1572) 3 1573) 2 1574) 4 1575) 2 1576) 1 1577) 1 1578) 4 1579) 1 1580) 4
1581) 4 1582) 2 1583) 1 1584) 2 1585) 4 1586) 3 1587) 4 1588) 1 1589) 1 1590) 1
1591) 4 1592) 3 1593) 3 1594) 4 1595) 3 1596) 4 1597) 4 1598) 2 1599) 4 1600) 2
1601) 3 1602) 2 1603) 1 1604) 1 1605) 2 1606) 4 1607) 2 1608) 3 1609) 1 1610) 1
1611) 4 1612) 3 1613) 3 1614) 1 1615) 2 1616) 1 1617) 1 1618) 4 1619) 4 1620) 2


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
PHYSICS
1. Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown. All the three particles are
moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is v 0 , then the ratio of
tensions in the three sections of the string is
1) 3 : 5 : 6 2) 3 : 4 : 5 3) 6 : 9 : 10 4) 7 : 6 : 11
2. A physical quantity is given by X   M a LbT c  . The percentage error in measurement of M, L

and T are  ,  and  . Then, the maximum % error in the quantity X is
a b c
1) a  b  c 2) a  b  c 3)   4) none of these
  
dv
3. An object moving with a speed of 6.25m/s, is deaccelerated at a rate given by  2.5 v ,
dt
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest would be
1) 2s 2) 4s 3) 8s 4) 1s
4. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two
vectors, the angle between these vectors is
1) 900 2) 450 3) 1800 4) 00
5. A mass M is supported by a massless string wound round a uniform cylinder of mass M and
radius R. On releasing the mass from rest, it will fall with acceleration :
R
M
1 1 2
1) g 2) g 3) g 4) g
2 3 3
6. A body of mass m is dropped from a height nR above the surface of the earth (here R is the
radius of the earth). The speed at which the body hits the surface of the earth is
2 gR 2 gR 2 gRn 2 gRn
1) 2) 3) 4)
n  1 n  1 n  1 n  1

7. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given an acceleration a towards the right. The relation between a and 
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is
g g
1) a  g cos 2) a  3) a  4) a  g tan 
sin  cos ec
8. A car of mass 1000kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 450 , the speed of the car is
1) 20 ms 1 2) 30 ms 1 3) 5 ms 1 4) 10 ms 1
9. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9.when it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance
between the objective and eye-piece is 20 cm. the focal length of the lenses are
1) 10cm, 10cm 2) 15cm, 5cm 3) 18cm, 2cm 4) 11cm, 9cm
A B
10. The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U  2  , where A and B are positive
r r
constants and r is the distance of particle from the center of the field. For stable equilibrium,
the distance of the particle is
1) B/2A 2) 2A/B 3) A/B 4) B/A
11. A moving neutron collides with a stationary  -particle. The fraction on the kinetic energy
lost by the neutron is
1) 16/25 2) 9/25 3) 3/5 4) 2/5
12. A constant torque of 31.4N-m is exerted on a pivoted wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is
4 rad / sec2 , then the moment of inertia of the wheel is
1) 2.5kg  m 2 2) 3.5 kg  m 2 3) 4.5kg  m 2 4) 5.5 kg  m 2
13. A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to total
kinetic energy is
1 1 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 3 4
14. An object of mass m is raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius of
the earth, that is, taken from a distance R to 2R from the centre of the earth. What is the gain
in its potential energy ?
1 1 1 1
1) mgR 2) mgR 3) mgR  4) mgR
2 4 2 6
15. A beam of ordinary light is incident on a system of four polaroids which are arranged in
succession such that each polaroid is turned through 300 with respect to the preceding one.
The percentage of the incident intensity that emerges out from the system is approximately
1) 56% 2) 6.25% 3) 28% 4) 21%
v
16. The average depth of Indian ocean is about 3000m. The fractional compression. of water
V
at the bottom of the ocean (given that the bulk modulus of the water = 2.2 109 N / m 2 and
g  10 m / s 2 ) is
1) 0.82% 2) 0.91% 3) 1.36% 4) 1.24%
17. In drops of liquid, each with surface energy E, join to form a single drop. In this process
1) some energy will be absorbed 
2) energy absorbed is E n  n 2/3 

3) energy released will be E n  n 2/3  
4) energy released will be E n 2/3  1 
18. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown, with their ends at 1000 C ,500 C and 00 C . The temperature of their junction is
200 0 100 0
1) 750 C 2) C 3) 400 C 4) C
3 3
19. The circuit
Is equivalent to
1) NOR gate 2) OR gate 3) AND gate 4) NAND gate
20. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, fraction of heat energy
supplied which increases the internal energy of gas, is
2 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 7 4
21. Two mole of oxygen is mixed with eight mole of helium. The effective specific heat of the
mixture at constant volume
1) 1.3R 2) 1.4R 3) 1.7R 4) 1.9R
22. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
C
temperature. The ratio of p of the gas is
Cv
3 5 3
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
4 3 2
1
23. A carnot engine, having an efficiency of   as heat engine is used as a refrigerator. If the
10
work done on the system is 10J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is
1) 100J 2) 99J 3) 90J 4) 1J
24. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the
mean position are v1 and v2 , respectively. Its time period is
x12  x22 x22  x12 v12  v22 v12  v22
1) 2 2 2 2) 2 2 2 3) 2 2 4) 2 2
v1  v2 v1  v2 x1  x22 x1  x22
 x
25. The equation y  A cos 2  2 nt  2  represents a wave with
 
1) amplitude A/2, frequency 2n and wavelength 
2) amplitude A/2, frequency 2n and wavelength  / 2
3) amplitude A, frequency n and wavelength 
4) amplitude A, frequency 2n and wavelength 2
26. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22m/s and 16.5m/s
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400Hz. The
frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340m/s]
1) 350 Hz 2) 361 Hz 3) 411 Hz 4) 448 Hz

27. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the
charge on an electron)
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 q2
28. What will be the equivalent capacitance of the system as shown in the figure, where two
spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b(b>a) are placed concentrically in air with a
charge +Q on A and B being earthed ?
 ab   b2 
1) 4 0   2) 4 0  a  b  3) 4 0b 4) 4 0  
ba ba
29. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V ( x, y, z )  6 xy  y  2 yz , the electric field (in
N/C) at point (1,1,0) is
1) (3i  5 j  3k ) 2) (6i  5 j  2k ) 3) (2i  3 j  k ) 4) (6i  9 j  k )
30. The potential difference VA  VB  between the points A and B in the given figure is
1) -3V 2) +3V 3) +6V 4) +9V

31. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If  1 and  2 are the
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is
2 1 2  2  2  1 2
1) 2) 1 3) 1 4)
1   2 2 1 2  1 2 1   2
32. A square wire of each side I carries a current l. What is the magnetic field at the mid-point of
the square ?
0 I  I  I  I
1) 4 2 2) 8 2 0 3) 16 2 0 4) 32 2 0
4 l 4 l 4 l 4 l
33. An  -particle describes a circular path of radius r in a magnetic field B. What will be the
radius of the circular path described by the proton of same energy in the same magnetic field
?
r
1) 2) r 3) 2 4) 2r
2

34. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc shown
in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be
3 2 M
1) M M 2) 3) M 4)
  2
35. A coil having n turns and resistance R  is connected with a galvanometer of resistance
4R  . This combination is moved in time t second. From a magnetic field W1  Wb to W2 
Wb. The induced current in the circuit is
W  W1 n W2  W1   W2  W1  n W2  W1 
1) 2 2) 3) 4) 
5Rnt 5 Rt Rnt Rt
36. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as
1
I sin 100 t  ampere
2
1
e sin 100 t   / 3 volt
2
The average power (in watts) consumed in the circuit is
1 3 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 2 8
37. In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square value of the electric field is
Erms  6 V / m . The peak value of the magnetic field is
1) 1.4110 8 T 2) 2.83 108 T 3) 0.70 108 T 4) 4.23 108 T
38. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i on one face of a prism of angle A(assumed
to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism
is  , the angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to
A
1)  A 2) 3) A /  4) A / 2 
2
39. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
I I
interference pattern, the ratio max min will be
I max  I min
n 2 n n 2 n
1) 2) 3) 2
4) 2
n 1 n 1  n  1  n  1
40. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a
temperature T(kelvin) and mass m, is
h h 2h 2h
1) 2) 3) 4)
mkT 3mkT 3mkT mkT
41. Two identical photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f 2 . If the velocities of the
photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2 , then
1/2
2h  2h 
1) v12  v22  ( f1  f 2 ) 2) v1  v2   ( f1  f 2 ) 
m m 
1/2
2 2h
2  2h 
3) v  v 
1 2 ( f1  f 2 ) 4) v1  v2   ( f1  f 2 ) 
m m 
42. An excited hydrogen atom returns to the ground state. The wavelength of emitted photon is
 . The principal quantum number of the excited state will be
1/2 1/2 1/2
 R    R 1  1/2  1 
1)   2)   3)     R  1  4)  
  R 1   R    R   R  1 
43. Radioactive material A has decay constant 8 and material B has decay constant  . Initially,
they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material A
1
to that B will be ?
e
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
 7 8 9
44. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
1) 102 A 2) 101 A 3) 103 A 4) 0A

45. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100  and an
output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
1) 1000 2) 1250 3) 100 4) 500
CHEMISTRY
46. Cloud or fog is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are
___ and _____ respectively.
1) Liquid, gas 2) gas, liquid 3) Liquid, Liquid 4) Solid, gas
47.
1) 2) 3) 4)
48. IUPAC name of Acetanilide is :
1) N-phenyl ethanamide 2) N-methyl benzanamide
3) N-phenyl benzene carboxamide 4) N-methyl ethanamide
49. In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and
hyperconjugation operate ?
1) 2) 3) 4)
50. Total number of isomers (structural, stereo) possible with the formula C4 H10O
1) 6 2) 4 3) 8 4) 5
51. PbCl4 exists but PbBr4 and PbI 4 do not exist because of
1) Large size of Br  & I  2) Strong oxidizing character of Pb 4 
3) Strong reducing character of pb 4 4) Low electronegativity of Br and I
52. In an organic compound various elements are estimated by different experiments.
Incorrect about their estimation is:
1) chlorine is estimated as ClO2 2) Sulphur is estimated as BaSO4
3) Nitrogen is estimated as N 2 (in dumas) and NH 3 (in kjeldahl’s)
4) Phosphorous is estimated either as Mg 2 P2O7 (or) as  NH 4 3 PO4 .12 Mo3O

o
||
i ) CH 3mgBr
53. CH 3  C  CH3   product. What is that product ?
ii) H 2O
OH
|
1) CH 3  C H  CH 3 2) CH 3  C  CH 3
| |
OH CH 3
3) CH 3  C H  CH3 4) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
|
CH 3
54. The final product of the following reaction sequence is
1) 2) 3) 4)
55. Identify (C) in the reaction (s)
1) 2) 3) 4)
56.
H 3CO
i) HBr
  Pr oduct ' P '
ii) Anhyd.ABr3
What is ‘P’ in the above reaction
H 3CO H 3CO H 3CO H 3CO
1) 2) 3) 4)
57.

1) 2)
3) 4)
58. By the action of conc. H 2 SO4 , phosphorous changes to

1) H 3 PO3 2) HPO3 3) H 3 PO4 4) H 4 P2 O7
59. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of   bonds in structure of following
molecules :
I) H 2 S 2O6 II) H 2 SO3 III) H 2 S 2O5
1) I, II, III 2) II, III, I 3) II, I, III 4) I, III, II
60. The oxidation state of Iron in Brownring test.
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
61. Nessler’s reagent is used to detect :
1) CrO42 2) PO43 3) MnO4 4) NH 4
62. The radius of which of the following hydrate ion is smallest ?
   
1)  Li  H 2O  n  2)  Na  H 2O  n  3)  K  H 2O  n  4) Cs  H 2O n 
63. The ion helpful for controlling heart beating and muscle contraction is
1) Mg 2 2) Na  3) K  4) Ca 2
64. The value of ‘n’ in the reaction Cr2O7 2   14 H   nFe2   2Cr 3  nFe3  7 H 2O will be
1) 2 2) 3 3) 6 4) 7
65. An aqueous solution of 6.3g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made up of to 250mL. The volume of
0.1N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10mL of this solution is:
1) 20mL 2) 40mL 3) 10mL 4) 4mL
66. The degree of dissociation of Ca  NO3  2 in a dilute aqueous solution containing 14g of the salt
per 200g of water 1000 C is 70%. If the vapour pressure of water at 1000 C is 760mm. The
vapour pressure of the solution is.
1) 746.3mm of Hg 2) 757.5 mm of Hg 3) 740.9mm of Hg 4) 750 mm of Hg
67. The pH of 0.1M solution of the following salts increases in the order
1) NaCl  NH 4Cl  NaCN  HCl 2) HCl  NH 4Cl  NaCl  NaCN
3) NaCN  NH 4Cl  NaCl  HCl 4) HCl  NaCl  NaCN  NH 4Cl
68. 2 N 2O5  4 NO2  O2 what is the ratio of the rate of decomposition of N 2O5 to rate of
formation of NO2 is :
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:4 4) 4:1
69. The ultimate product formed on methylation of diborane is
1) B2  CH 3 6 2) B2 H 4  CH 3 2 3) B2 H 3  CH 3 3 4) B2 H 2  CH 3 4
70. 13g of a metal ‘M’ is deposited at cathode by passing 0.4F of electricity. If the cathodic
reaction is M n  ne  M , the formula of the metallic chloride is (Atomic weight of M=65)
1) MCl4 2) MCl3 3) MCl 4) MCl2

71. For which of the following entropy change is negative
1) Conversion of CaSO 4 s  into CaO s  and SO 2 g  . 2) Dissolution of I2 in water
3) Synthesis of ammonia 4) Sublimation of dry ice
0
72. At 298K the molar conductivities at infinite dilution  m of NH 4Cl , KOH & KCl are 152.8,
272.6 and 149.8 Scm 2 mol 1 respectively. The  0m of NH 4OH is Scm 2 mol 1 and % dissociation
of 0.01M NH 4OH with  m  25.1 Scm 2 mol 1 at the same temperature are :
1) 269.6 ; 9.6 2) 205.4 ; 8.4 3) 275.6 ; 0.091 4) 275.6 ; 9.1
73.
and are
1) Functional isomers 2) Metamers
3) Metamers + Functional isomers 4) Positional isomers
74.  2 2 
If there are three possible values  1 , 0,  1 for the spin quantum, then the potassium
belongs to the following group is
1) IA 2) VII A 3) IV A 4) III A
75. Correct statements among the following regarding to silicones are.
A) They are polymers with hydrophobic character
B) They are biocompatible
C) In general, they have high thermal stability and low dielectric strength
D) Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and use as greases
1) A, B, C, D 2) A, B, C 3) A, B 4) A, B, D
3
76. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert 10m at 1000K with a pressure of 200 pascals
Given R is the gas constant in JK 1 mol 1 , x is
2R 2R 4 R 4 R
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 R 4 R 2R 2R
77. The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction 2A  B  products
Experiment [ A] [ B] Initial rate of reaction
 molL 
1
 molL  1
molL1 min 1
I 0.10 0.20 6.93 103
II 0.10 0.25 6.93 103
III 0.20 0.30 1.386 102
The time (in minutes) required to consume half of ‘A’ is

1) 5 2) 10 3) 1 4) 100
78. The following will have lowest heat of hydrogenation per mole of compound is :
1) 2) 3) 4)
79. In the sulphonation of benzene, the electrophile involved is :
1) HSO4 2) SO3 3) SO2 4) SO42 
80. When Grignard reagent  C2 H 5 MgBr  is treated with phenol, we get :
1) C2 H 5OH 2) C2 H 6 3) Ethyl benzene 4) Benzene

81. Reaction of HBr with propene in absence of peroxide is :
1) electrophilic addition 2) electrophilic substitution
3) nucleophilic addition 4) free radical addition
82. Column – I Column – II
1) a) Alkaline KMnO4
2) b) HI + P
3) c) AlCl3 at 570K
4) d) NaI + acetone
e) Zn-Hg/Conc.HCl
1) 1  e;2  a;3  b;4  c 2) 1  a; 2  e;3  c; 4  b
3) 1  c;2  a;3  e; 4  b 4) 1  d ; 2  a;3  b;4  e
83. In permanganate ion MnO4 , manganese has an oxidation number of +7. Therefore it is :
1) sp 3d 3 hybridized 2) sp 3 hybridized 3) dsp 2 hybridized 4) d 3 sp 3 hybridized
84. In the presence of strong electrical field, the following set of orbitals are not degenerate
1) 3d xy and 3d yZ 2) 3d xy and 3d z2 3) 3d xy ,3d yz and 3d zx 4) 3d x2  y 2 and 3d z2
85. The magnetic moment of an ion is close to 36 1024 joule/tesla. The number of unpaired

electrons of the ion are : 1BM  9.273  1024 J / T 
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 3

86. No.of ionisable & non-iosizable Cl ions in COCl3 .5 NH 3 respectively are
1) 3,0 2) 2,1 3) 1,2 4) 0,3

87. For the given complex COCl2  en   NH 3 2  , the number of geometrical, optical and total
isomers of all types possible respectively are
1) 2,2 and 4 2) 2,2 and 3 3) 2,0 and 2 4) 0,2 and 2
88. Column – I Column – II
(Equivalent conductance) Formule
A) 229 p)  Pt  NH 3 3 Cl  Cl3
B) 97 q)  Pt  NH 3 3 Cl3  Cl
C) 404 r)  Pt  NH 3 4 Cl2  Cl2
D) 523 s)  Pt  NH 3 6  Cl4
A B C D A B C D
1) s p q r 1) r q s p
3) r q p s 4) s p r q
89. Number of HIO4 molecules required for complete oxidation of one mole of glucose is
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 1
90. List – I List – II
1) Urea formaldehyde resin 
a)  NH   CH 2 5  CO   n
2) Neoprene b)   NH   CH  2 6  NH  
n

 
3) PVC c)  CH 2  C  CH  CH 2  
 | 
 Cl n
 
4) Nylon-6 d)  CH 2  CH  
 | 
 Cl n
e)  NH  CO  NH  CH 2   n
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1) e d c b 2) e c b d
3) a c d b 4) e c d a
BIOLOGY
91. Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories.
Common name
S.No Common name Family Order Class Division
i. Man Hominidae Primata Mammalia A
ii. Housefly Muscidae Diptera B Arthropoda
iii. Mango C Sapindales Dicotyledonae Angiospermae
iv. Wheat Poaceae Poales D Angiospermae
Select the correct option for A, B, C and D.
A B C D
1) Chordata Insecta Anacardiaceae Monocotyledonae
2) Animalia Arachnida Anacardiaceae Monocotyledonae
3) Chordata Arachnida Polygonaceae Monocotyledonae
4) Non – Chordata Insecta Anacardiaceae Dicotyledonae
92. A normal woman, whose father had haemophilia, married a normal man. What is the chance
of occurrence of hemophilia in their children?
1) 25 % children will be hemophilic
2) 50% children will be hemophilic
3)75 % children will be hemophilic
4) None hemophilic but 75 % will be carriers
93. The given flow chart represents the hierarchy of various taxonomic categories.
Identify the missing categories (A, B and C) and select the correct statements regarding :
i) A is the taxonomic category which contains a number of related genera.

ii) Examples of category B are Monocotyledoneae
iii) C represents the basic unit of taxonomic hierarchy.
iv) Examples of category C are Fungi, Monera, Protista etc.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (iii) and (iv) 3) (i), (ii) and (iv) 4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

94. Read the following and arrange in an ascending order with respect to the ‘number’ of
chromosomes to which trisomy condition is developed.
A) Patau syndrome
B) Edward syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
1) A-B-C-D 2) A-C-B-D 3) A-D-C-B 4) A-C-D-B
95. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the class Ascomycetes ?
1) Conidia are the asexual spores produced endogenously on conidiophores
2) Ascospores are the sexual spores produced endogenously in asci.
3) Aspergillus , Neurospora and Claviceps are Ascomycetes fungi.
4) Mycelium is generally branched and septate in Ascomycetes.
96. Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused when fertilization takes place between gametes of.
- + + -
1) Rh female and Rh male 2) Rh female and Rh male
+ + - -
3) Rh female and Rh male 4) Rh female and Rh male
97. Which of the following characters represent the affinities of Gnetum with angiosperms and
difference with Cycas and Pinus ?
1) Presence of xylem vessels and absence of archegonia
2) Perianth and two integuments
3) Embryo development and apical meristem
4) Absence of resin ducts and leaf venation.
98. Arrange the following structures of mammary gland in sequence, based on the passage of
milk.
a) mammary duct b) alveoli c) lactiferous duct d) mammary tubules e) mammary ampulla
1) b, d, a, e, c 2) b, d, e, a, c
3) b, a, e, d, c 4) b, e, d, a, c
99. Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones.
i) Sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.
ii) Salvinia is homosporous
iii) Life –cycle in Cycas is diplontic
iv) In Cycas, mlae cones and megasporophylls are borne on the same trees.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iii)
3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
100. Statement I: Heart in fishes is described as Branchial and Venous heart
Statement II: In fishes, heart receives blood only from the gills and supplies only deoxygenated
blood to the body parts.
1) Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2) Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
101. Identify the given structure and select the correct option.

No L M N
Prothallus (2n) of
1) Aplanospore of Ulothrix Ovule of Angiosperm
pteridophyte
2) Palmella stage of Ulothrix Prothallus (n) of bryophyte Ovule of Gymnosperm

3) Akinetes of Chlamydomonas Sporophyte (2n) of bryophyte Endosperm of Gymnosperm
Palmella stage of
4) Prothallus (n) of pteridophyte Ovule of Gymnosperm
Chlamydomonas
List- I List -II
A) Antennary glands 1) Arenicola
B) Pedipalps 2) Astacus
C) Parapodia 3) Acorn worm
D) Phasmids 4) Aranea
E) Radula 5) Ancylostoma
6) Aplysia
A B C D E A B C D E
1) 3 4 1 5 6 2) 2 4 1 3 6
3) 2 4 1 5 6 4) 2 3 6 5 1
103. Match the Column I Column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A) Thorns i) Vegetative propagation
B) Phylloclades ii) Defensive mechanism
C) Runners iii) Mechanical support
D) Stilt roots iv) Absorption of nutrition
E) Haustoria v) Photosynthesis
1) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii) , D-(ii), E-(i) 2) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(i) , E-(iv)
3) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(iv) 4) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(ii)
104. Given diagram based on pyramid of energy arranged in proper sequence
1) (i)PP-809, (ii) PC-37, (iii)SC-11, (iv) TC-1.5

2) (i) PP-37,(ii)PC-809, (iii)SC-11, (iv)TC-1.5
3) (i) PP-37, (ii) PC-11, (iii) SC-809, (iv) TC-1.5
4) (i) PP-37, (ii) PC-1.5,(iii) SC-809, (iv)TC-11

105. Which of the following is an incorrect pair ?
1) Phylloclade – Opuntia 2) Cladode - Asparagus
3) Phyllode – Asparagus 4) Stem tendrils – Grapevine
106. Which of the following conditions tend to disturb the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a
population.
a) Natural selection
b) Large size of the population
c) Differential reproductive success
d) Panmictic mating
e) Large scale migrations
1) b, d only 2) a, c, d, e 3) a, e only 4) a, c, e only
107. Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B, C and D) and select the correct option.
A B C D
1) Valvate Twisted Imbricate Vexillary
2) Imbricate Twisted Valvate Vexillary
3) Twisted Imbricate Vexillary Valvate
4) Twisted Imbricate Valvate Vexillary
108. Select correct sequence of Blood Coagulation
1) Fibrin – Thrombokinase – Thrombin – Fibrinogen – Prothrombin – Blood clot
2) Prothrombin – Thrombokinase – Blood clot – Fibrinogen – Fibrin – Thrombin
3) Thrombin – Fibrinogen – Fibrin – Blood clot – Prothrombin - Thrombokinase
4) Prothrombin – Thrombokinase – Thrombin – Fibrinogen – Fibrin – Blood clot
109. Identify the missing words (A, B, C and D)
A B C D
1) Racemose Zygomorphic 3+3 Bicarpellary
2) Racemose Actinomorphic 5 Bicarpellary
3) Cymose Zygomorphic 3+3 Tricarpellary
4) Cymose Actinomorphic 5 Multicarpellary
110. Match the following and select the correct set.
A. Mitral valve i. Pulmonary aorta
B. Tricuspid valve ii. Right upper corner of right atrium
C. Semilunar valves iii. Left lower corner of right atrium
D. Atrioventricular node iv. Right atrioventricular opening
E. Sino-atrial node v. Left atrioventricular opening
A B C D E A B C D E
1) ii iii i iv v 2) v iv i ii iii
3) ii iv v i iii 4) v iv i iii ii

111. Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represents
the related floral formula.
1) 2)
3) 4)
112. Pisiform bone of the wrist of a mammal is formed by the ossification in the.
1) Soft tissues 2) Embryonic mesoderm 3) Cartilage 4) Tendon
113. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
i) secondary growth usually occurs in monocotyledons
ii) Bark refer to all tissues interior to vascular cambium
iii) Lenticels permit the exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of
the stem.
iv) Annual rings give an estimate of the age of the tree.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iii) 3) (i) and (iv) 4) (ii) and (iv)
114. Statement-I: In frog, bucco-pharyngeal cavity acts as a ‘force pump’ during pulmonary
respiration. Statement-II: During pulmonary respiration in frog, Air is forced through the
glottis into the lungs when the floor of bucco-pharyngeal cavity is lowered.
1) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
3) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I
4) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
115. Which of the following statements are correct about heartwood ?
i) It does not help in water conduction
ii) It is also called alburnum
iii) It is light in colour and is very soft
iv) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannins, resins, etc
1) (ii) and (iv) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (i) and (iv)
116. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) Maximum number of nephrons in kidney are juxta-medullary type
2) DCT of many nephrons open into Henle’s loop
3) Vasa recta may or may not present for cortical nephrons
4) All of the above
117. Organelles with self duplicating ability are
I) Mitochondria
II) Ribosomes
III) Golgi complex
IV) Chloroplast
1) I, II, III and IV 2) I, II and III only
3) I, II and IV only 4) I & IV only

118. The idea of evolution of species, which is the foundation for the biological concept of evolution
was proposed by.
1) Charles Darwin in ‘Origin of species’ 2) John Ray in ‘Historia Generalis Plantarum’
3) Linnaeus in ‘Systema Naturae’ 4) Buffon in ‘Natural History’
119. Events of Anaphase-I is/ are.
I) Centromere splits
II) Separation of Homologous chromosomes
III) Chromatids move to opposite poles
IV) Chromosomes move to opposite poles
1) I, II 2) II, III 3) I, III 4) II, IV
120. Equation of exponential growth
dN K  N dN dt dN0 NK
1)  rN  2)  rN 3)  rN 4)  rK
dt  K  dt dN dt  N 
121. Study the following statements.

A) Occurs as free living organisms to the root ecosystem
B) Effective biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens
C) Has heterotropic mode of nutrition
D) Plant body is undifferentiated.
The taxon with above features is developed as biocontrol agent to use in the treatment of plant
diseases. Among the following identify the taxon
1) Glomus 2) Trichodesmium 3) Bacillus 4) Trichoderma
122. Match the disorders given in column I with their feature given in column II and choose the
correct option
Column – I (Disorders) Column – II (Feature)
A) Uremia I. Excess of proteins in urine
B) Hematuria II. Presence of high ketone bodies in urine
C) Ketonuria III. Presence of blood cells in urine
D) Glycosuria IV. Presence of glucose in urine
E) Proteinuria V. Excess of urea in blood
A B C D E A B C D E
1) V III II IV I 2) IV V III II I
3) V III IV II I 4) III V II I IV
123. Study the following.
Taxon Crop variety Character developed
I) Bhindi Parabhani kranthi Powdery mildew resistance
II) Cauliflower Pusa shubhra Black rot resistance
III) Brassica Pusa Gaurav Aphid resistance
IV) Mung bean Pusa sawani Yellow mosaic virus resistance
Identify the correct combinations
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) I and IV 4) III and IV
124. Find the odd one out.
1) Parathyroid – Tetany 2) Pancreas –Diabetes insipidus
3) Adrenal cortex –Cushing’s syndrome 4) Thyroid - Goitre

125. Following is the sequence of amino acids coded by an m-RNA. Predict the nucleotide sequence
in the template of DNA that directs its synthesis. Met-Leu-Thr-Ser-Phe-Ile
1) 31-T ACGAATGGAGGAAATAG- 51 2) 51-TACGAATGGAGGAAATAG-31
3) 31-AUGCUUACCUCCUUUAUC-51 4) 51 -AUGCUUACCUCCUUUAUC-31
126. Arrange the following lungs capacities of human in the ascending order
A) Vital capacity of lungs B) Tidal volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Expiratory reserve volume
E) Total lung capacity
1) BACDE 2) BDACE 3) BDCAE 4) EABCD
127. A pure pea plant with round and yellow seeds was crossed with a pure pea plant having
wrinkled and green seeds.F2 generation produced 1012plants.How many of the plants show
yellow seeds approximately.
1) 569 2) 189 3) 759 4) 63
128. Study the pedigree chart given below. What does it show?
1) Inheritance of a condition like Phenylketonuria

2) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
3) Inheritance of a recessive sex- linked disease like Haemophilia
4) Inheritance of a sex linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
129. Study the following table. Hormone Nature Significance
I) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy Natural auxin Dicot-weedicide acetic acid
II) Abscisic acid Carotenoid derivative Induction of seed dormancy
III) Gibberellic acid Adenine derivative Delay of senescence
IV) Ethylene Gaseous Hormone Induction of female flowers in cucumber
Identify the CORRECT combination
1) I, II 2) II, III 3) II, IV 4) I, III
130. Statement-I: Nicotine present in tobacco smoke cause raise in blood pressure and increases heart
beat.
Statement-II: Nicotine stimulate adrenal medulla to release Aldosterone and Cortisol
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I
3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
131. Study the following statements and identify the WRONG statement?
1) Transcription is initiated when ‘σ ’ factor binds RNA polymerase
2) A small stretch of RNA primer is required for initiation of DNA replication
3) Translation is terminated when release factor binds of stop codon of m-RNA
4) Transcription of lac operon is initiated when inducer binds to operator region

132. Saheli oral contraceptive pill once in a week prevent inplatation of the fertilized egg by
1) Prevents progesterone production 2) Pramote progesterone production
3) Prevent oestrogen production 4) Pramote oestrogen production
133. Study the following figure and identify A, B, C, D.
1) A-Coleoptile B-Radicle C- Plumule D- Coleorhiza

2) A-Plumule B-Plumule C- Coleorhiza D- Radicle
3) A-Coleoptile B- Plumule C- Radicle D- Coleorhiza
4) A-Plumule B-Coleoptile C- Coleoptile D- Radicle
134. Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the ….A…. components of the body. They have
…B…. appearance under the microscope and hence are called … C… muscles. Choose the
correct options to fill A, B and C.
1) A-muscular, B-striped, C-striated 2) A-visceral, B-striped, C-striated
3) A-skeletal, B-striped, C-striated 4) A-microfibrillar, B-striped, C-striated
135. Identify the correct pair of combinations.
I) Chloroplast-----ATP-----oxidative phosphorylation
II) Glyoxysomes-----Glyoxylate cycle-----Convert stored lipids to carbohydrates
III) Mitochondria-----ATP-----photophosphorylation
IV) Golgi complex-----Cis and trans faces-----cell plate formation
1) II, IV 2) I, III 3) II, III 4) III, IV
136. Choose correct combination.
1) Macula-Otolith organ 2) Macula densa-afferent renal arteriole
3) Macula lutea-semicircular canal 4) Crista-Cochlea
137. Arrange the following in descending order based on their numbers.
I) no. of chromosomes in gamete of rice
II) no. of chromosomes in a meiocyte of potato
III) Total types of Histone proteins associated with eukaryotic DNA
IV) Number of chromosomes in a meiocyte of Apple
1) IV, II, I, III 2) II, I, IV, III 3) III, I, IV, II 4) II, IV, I, III
Scientist Contribution
A) Alexander von Humboldt I) Popularised Biodiversity
B) Edward wilson II) Biodiversity & productivity
C) Paul Ehrlich III) Species-area relationship curve
D) Tilman’s outdoor plots IV) Rivet proper hypothesis
V) Resource partitioning
1) A-III,B-I,C-V,D-II 2) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II 3) A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-V 4) A-V,B-I,C-IV,D-II
139. In which of the following plant/animal highest number of chromosomes seen.
1) Ophioglossum 2) Onion 3) Fruit fly 4) House fly
140. Find incorrect statement related to human reproductive system.
1) LH surge causes rupture of graafian follicle resulting in ovulation
2) Chorion is derived from somatopleure
3) Mesoderm is formed by ingression
4) Chorio allantoic placenta is formed in humans
141. Identify the correct pair of combinations.
I) Zostera-----Long ribbon like pollen grains-----hypohydrophily
II) Opuntia-----stem succulent-----phyllode
III) Vallisneria -----Submerged rooted hydrophyte-----hypohydrophily
IV) Asparagus-----Root succulent-----Vegetable
1) II, III 2) I, II 3) I, IV 4) III, IV
142. Find the mis match.
1) Red muscles-more myoglogin, aerobic muscles
2) Osteoporosis-inflammation in joints due to accumulation of uric acid
3) Muscular dystrophy-progressive wasting of muscles
4) A-band has both thick and thin filaments
143. Identify the mis -match.
1) Both gamosepalous and gamopetalous condition___ Solanaceae
2) Gamosepalous and poly petalous condition____Fabaceae
3) Pentamerous, tricyclic flowers____ Liliaceae
4) Both polysepalous and polypetalous condition____Brassicaceae
144. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its named taxonomic category ?
1) Whales – Cetacea , an order 2) Bears- Carnivora, the family
3) Bats- Chiroptera, a species 4) Cats – Canis, the genus
145. Which of the following bacterium has both useful and harmful activities with respect to
human society.
1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 2) Xanthomonas oryzae
3) Lactobacillus 4) Streptococcus pneumonia
146. The singing of the Bulbul bird is to
1) Attract the prey
2) Communicate with its mate during breeding season
3) To escape from the predator 4) It is a type of respiration
147. Pick out the incorrect expressions regarding the last reaction of EMP pathway and first
reaction of Alcoholic fermentation.
I) Both reactions occur in cytosol
II) Both reactions are catalysed by same enzyme
III) End products of both reactions contain three carbon atoms
IV) ATP is synthesised in the last reaction of EMP pathway where as CO2 is released in the
first reaction of alcoholic fermentation
1) I, IV 2) II, III 3) Except-II 4) II, III, IV
148. Which of the following feature is noticeable among the living organisms of various categories
when we proceed from species to kingdom ?
1) Increase in both similarities and differences
2) Decrease in similarities but no changes in differences
3) Decrease in difference but increase in similarities
4) Decrease in similarities but increase in differences
149. Mismatch of the following
1) GAA, GAG-Glutamate 2) UGG-Tryptophan
3) GUU, GUC, GUA, GUG-Valine 4) GCU, GCC, GCA, GCG-Proline
150. Match the following columns.
A. Cervical 1. 1
B. Thoracic 2. 1
C. Lumbar 3. 5
D. Sacral 4. 12
E. Caudal 5. 7
A B C D E A B C D E
1) 1 2 3 4 5 2) 5 4 3 2 1
3) 5 3 4 2 1 4) 1 3 2 5 4

151. In incomplete dominance F2 phenotypic ratio of pink, Red, white colour flowers.
1) 1: 2 : 1 2) 2: 1 : 1 3) 1: 1 : 2 4) 1: 1: 1 : 1
152. Select the correct
Interaction Species A Species B
1) Parasitism + +
2) Commensalism - -
3) Amensalism - 0
4) Predation + +
153. The correct sequence of following steps of gel electrophoresis for the separation of DNA
fragments is.
I) Elution
II) Incubation of DNA on agarose gel surface
III) Exposure of DNA fragments to U.V. light
IV) Staining of DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
1) IV, III, II, I 2) II, IV, III, I 3) II, III, IV, I 4) I, IV, III, II
154. Path taken in the eye ball by light rays is
1) cornea  conjunctiva  aqueous humor  lens (through pupil)  vitreous humor  retina
2) conjunctiva  cornea  aqueous humor  lens (through pupil)  vitreous humor  retina.
3) conjunctiva  cornea  lens (through pupil)  aqueous humor  vitreous humor  retina
4) conjunctiva  cornea  vitreous humor  lens (through pupil)  aqueous humor  retina
155. Identify the correct combination.
1) Indole compounds___ 2, 4, D____ Removal of apical dominance
2) Tomato____ seeds contain some chemicals_____ stratification
3) Cousins____ A gaseous PGR____ Respiratory climactic
4) Cabbage____Annual____Monocarpic plant
156. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of
symptoms are indicative of pneumonia ?
1) Fever chills, cough, headache
2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
3) Sever problems in respiration, lips finger nails many turn to grey to bluish
4) High fever, weakness, stomach pain loss of appetite and constipation
157. Study the following lists.

List -I List- II
A) Anaphase-I I) Splitting of the centromere
B) Anaphase-II II) Recombination nodules
C) Pachytene III) Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids
associated at their centromere
D) Diakinesis IV) Chromosomes aligned on the equatorial plate
V) Nuclear envelope becomes thin and breaks down
A B C D A B C D
1) III I II V 2) I III IV II
3) II III V IV 4) III V II IV
158. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and remaining 160
to Aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
1) 0.5 2) 0.6 3) 0.7 4) 0.4
159. How many chromosomes are present in each of the following with respect to onion plant
respectively.
a) leaf epidermal cell b) antipodal cell c) endosperm cell d) generative cell e) egg cell
f) megaspore g) microspore mother cell
1) 8,16,8,8,8,16,24 2) 24,8,16,8,16,8,8 3) 16,8,8,8,16,24,8 4)16,8,24,8,8,8,16

160. One of the following is the set of infective stages to erythrocytes of man in the life cycle of
malarial parasite
1) Cryptozoite, Micrometacryptozoite, Erythrocytic merozoites
2) Cryptozoite, Macrometacryptozoite, Sporozoites
3) Cryptozoite, Macrometacryptozoite, Erythrocytic merozoites
4) Macrometacryptozoites, Micro metaceryptozoite, Erythrocytic merozoites
161. Identify the physiological functions of two microelements of them, the former is required for
the synthesis of auxin the latter for of IAA oxidase respectively.
I) Constituent of chlorophyll molecule II) Maintenance of cell turgidity
III) Splitting of water in photosynthesis IV) Co-factor for carboxypeptidase
V) Component of methionine
The correct answer is
1) II, V 2) IV, III 3) V, I 4) IV, II
162. Which of the following statements is correct ?
1) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
2) Cromagnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
3) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
4) Closest relative of Homo sapiens is cromagnon man
163. Find out the incorrect pair of statements.
I) In completely plasmolysed cell, pressure potential does not contribute to water potential
II) If a cell is placed in hypotonic solution for longer time, the cell membrane shrinks away .
from its cell wall
III) Apoplastic system comprises of interconnected protoplasts
IV) Polypeptides have more imbibing capacity than polysaccharides
1) I, IV 2) III, IV 3) II, III 4) I, II
164. How many of the following statement are true if the parietal cells of the mucosa of the
stomach are damaged.
I. The absorption of vitamin B12 is normal
II. The proenzymes pepsinogen and prorennin are not activated
III. Acidic medium is provided to the food of the stomach
IV. The digestion of proteins is affected
1) Only one 2) Only three 3) Only two 4) All the four
165. The correct sequence of the involvement of the following components in non-cyclic electron
transport
I) PC II) PQ III) Pheo IV) NADP+
The correct sequence is
1) II, I, III, IV 2) III, II, I, IV 3) IV, I, II, III 4) III, II, IV, I
166. The function of pineal body is to
1) Lighten the skin colour 2) Control sexual behavior
3) Regulate the period of puberty 4) All of these
167. Identify the correct pair of combination
I) Vallisneria - Long stalked female flowers - Hypohydrophily
II) Tribulus - Ephemerals
III) Hydrilla - Submerged suspended hydrophyte - Aerenchyma
IV) Casuarina - Perennial-Succulent phylloclades
1) III, IV 2) I, III 3) I, IV 4) II, III
168. The type of movement exhibited by macrophages and leucocytes
1) Ciliar movement 2) Amoeboid movement 3) Flagellor movement 4) Muscular movement
169. Which is not true for monocot stem?
1) Presence of conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundles
2) Presence of bundles sheath
3) Presence of collenchymatous hypodermis 4) Vascular bundles scattered (Atactostele)
170. The structures associated with excretory function in cockroach are
1) Malpighian tubules, Fat bodies, Nephrocytes, Cuticle only
2) Malpighian tubules, Fat bodies, Nephrocytes, uricose glands & cuticle
3) Malpighian tubules, Fat bodies Nephrocytes, only 4) Malpighian tubules & Cuticle only

171. Tyloses are
1) Totipotent cells in vascular bundle 2) Structure that block the lumen of xylem vessels
3) Epidermal outgrowths that help in water loss due to transpiration
4) Wound healing secretions in phloem tissue
172. The best milch breed in the world is.
1) Chittagong 2) Deoni 3) Holstein –Friesian 4) Red sindhi
173. The use of bio resource by different organizations without proper authorizations from
concerned people and without the compensatory payment is called
1) Bioremediation 2) Bio –war 3) Biofortification 4) Biopiracy
174. Mac Arthur showed that five closely related species of warblers. Living on the same tree was
able to avoid competition and co – exist due to
1) Structural differences in their foraging activities
2) Physiological differences in their foraging activities
3) Anatomical differences in their foraging activities
4) Behavioral differences in their foraging activities
175. Identify the X, Y, Z respectively
1) A-Peptide, C-peptide, B-Peptide 2) B-peptide, C-peptide, A-peptide

3) A-peptide, B-peptide, C-peptide 4) B-peptide, A-peptide, C-peptide
176. Sound produced by jet planes during takeoff is around and above
1) Above 150 db 2) 30 db 3) 60 db 4) 90 db
177. Bio patents are
a) Right to use the invention b) Right to use the biological entities
c) Right to use the products d) Right to use the process
1) a, d-only 2) b, c only 3) c, d only 4) a, b, c and d
178. Match the following cyclical changes on the head of daphnia & corresponding seasons
Set I Set II
a) Appearance of projection 1) Autumn
b) Round head without projection 2) Spring
c) Projection begins to decrease 3) Summer
d) Helmet like projection of maximum size 4) Winter
1) a- 2 b - 4 c - 1 d - 3 2) a - 4 b - 2 c - 1 d - 3
3) a - 3 b - 1 c - 4 d - 2 4) a - 3 b - 2 c - 4 d - 1
179. A genetically engineered micro organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
species of
1) Bacillus 2) Trichoderma 3) Xanthomonas 4) Peseudomonas
List –I List –II
A) Bamboo I) Anadromous migration
B) Oysters II) Produce a large number of small sized organisms
C) Mammal III) Breeds only once in its life time
D) Hilsa IV) Produce a small number of large sized organisms.
1) A –III, B –II, C-IV, D-I 2) A –I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) A-IV, B-I, C-IV, D-II


INDIA
Time: 3 Hours
KEY
PHYSICS
1621) 1622) 1623) 1624) 1625) 1626) 1627) 1628) 1629) 1630)
1631) 1632) 1633) 1634) 1635) 1636) 1637) 1638) 1639) 1640)
1641) 1642) 1643) 1644) 1645) 1646) 1647) 1648) 1649) 1650)
1651) 1652) 1653) 1654) 1655) 1656) 1657) 1658) 1659) 1660)
1661) 1662) 1663) 1664) 1665)
CHEMISTRY
1666) 1 1667) 2 1668) 1 1669) 1 1670) 3 1671) 2 1672) 1 1673) 2 1674) 4 1675) 3
1676) 3 1677) 2 1678) 3 1679) 2 1680) 2 1681) 4 1682) 4 1683) 4 1684) 3 1685) 2
1686) 1 1687) 2 1688) 1 1689) 4 1690) 4 1691) 3 1692) 4 1693) 1 1694) 3 1695) 4
1696) 4 1697) 2 1698) 1 1699) 2 1700) 2 1701) 1 1702) 1 1703) 2 1704) 2 1705) 4
1706) 2 1707) 2 1708) 3 1709) 2 1710) 4
BIOLOGY
1711) 1 1712) 1 1713) 3 1714) 1 1715) 1 1716) 1 1717) 1 1718) 1 1719) 3 1720) 3
1721) 4 1722) 3 1723) 3 1724) 1 1725) 3 1726) 4 1727) 4 1728) 4 1729) 1 1730) 4
1731) 1 1732) 4 1733) 1 1734) 2 1735) 4 1736) 3 1737) 4 1738) 4 1739) 4 1740) 2
1741) 4 1742) 1 1743) 2 1744) 2 1745) 1 1746) 3 1747) 3 1748) 1 1749) 3 1750) 3
1751) 4 1752) 3 1753) 3 1754) 3 1755) 1 1756) 1 1757) 4 1758) 2 1759) 1 1760) 3
1761) 3 1762) 2 1763) 3 1764) 1 1765) 1 1766) 2 1767) 2 1768) 4 1769) 4 1770) 2
1771) 2 1772) 3 1773) 2 1774) 2 1775) 3 1776) 3 1777) 1 1778) 2 1779) 4 1780) 1
1781) 2 1782) 4 1783) 3 1784) 3 1785) 2 1786) 4 1787) 4 1788) 2 1789) 3 1790) 2
1791) 2 1792) 3 1793) 4 1794) 4 1795) 3 1796) 1 1797) 4 1798) 1 1799) 4 1800) 1

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Time: 3 Hours NEET TOT GT-1 Max. Marks: 720 M

The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is

1) B sin  / 2  2) Bv sin  / 2  3) 2 Bv sin  / 2  4) Bv sin  / 4 

1) The point D will be at a potential of 60V

1) 3gL 2) 5gL 3) 2gL 4) gL

Page | 2 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) 10V 2) 20V 3) 30V 4) None of these

Page | 3 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) 5V 2) 10V 3) 15V 4) 20V

31. The friction acting on the upper block is

Page | 5 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) If y is increased from zero to H , x will first increase and then decrease.

Page | 6 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 7 NEET MODEL TOT GT

 PCl3  Cl2

Page | 8 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) A=chlorobenzene B=Chlorobenzene 2) A=Lindane B=Chlorobenzene

In these reactions A and B are

Page | 11 NEET MODEL TOT GT

104. Identify the correct sequence of “Systemic Circulation” Pathway

Page | 12 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 13 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Crop Variety Resistant

Page | 14 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 15 NEET MODEL TOT GT

From the diagram given above A,B,C,D are respectively, occupied by

A, B, C, D in the diagram are respectively, occupied by

Page | 16 NEET MODEL TOT GT

From the diagram A, B, C, D are, respectively, occupied by

Page | 17 NEET MODEL TOT GT

The Gene responsible for the trait is:

Page | 18 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 19 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) X= RNA – ligase,Y= DNA ligase 2) X= Bam HI, Y=RNA-ligase

Page | 20 NEET MODEL TOT GT

SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

Page | 21 NEET MODEL TOT GT

SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

Page | 22 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) 0.8 g 2) 0.4 g 3) 0.5 g 4) zero

17. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 6. If the temperature inside freezer

Page | 24 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) Zero 2) 0.6ms 2 along y –axis

Page | 25 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) A.B  C 2) A  B.C 3) A.B.C 4) A  B.C

Page | 26 NEET MODEL TOT GT

1) Primary Amine 2) 3) Phenyl isocyanate 4) NH 2

How many isomeric forms does the compound A exist?

75. The method of Zone refining of metals is based on the principle of

Page | 29 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 30 NEET MODEL TOT GT

Page | 31 NEET MODEL TOT GT

104. Arrange the following events of ‘cross bridge cycle’ in an order