Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

CLINICAL PHARMACY

1. It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve
a patient’s quality of life
A. Professional-patient’s relationship
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug therapy assessment
D. Pharmaceutical care
E. Formal documentation
2. It involves measuring direct and indirect costs attributable to a specific disease
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
3. The method that allows for the identification, measurement, and comparison of the benefits and costs of a
program or treatment alternative
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
4. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more
treatment alternatives
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
5. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
6. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that
policy makers can choose among them
A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation
B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Utility Analysis
E. Cost-Benefit Analysis
7. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions and
social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy
A. Optimum health
B. Quality of life
C. Health outcomes
D. Responsiveness
E. Wellness of being
8. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention
the subjects has been assigned
A. Randomized control trial
B. Crossover study
C. Cohort study
D. Blinded study
E. Cross-sectional study
9. A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of
persons without the disease
A. Randomized control trial
B. Case control study
 C. Cohort study
D. meta-analysis
E. open-label trial
10. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable
of interest is measured
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case control study
C. Cross over study
D. Cohort study
E. open label trial
11. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cross over study
C. meta-analysis
D. open label trial
E. cohort study
12. A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and
the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. case control study
D. cross over study
E. case series
13. Which of the following best describes the neonates?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
14. Which of the following best describes the infant?
A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month
E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age
15. Clinical manifestation of Gray Baby Syndrome include:
I. Characteristic gray color III. Hypertension
II. Abdominal distention IV. Progressive shock
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I and III only
16. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?
I. Polyneuritis III. Limb deformities
II. Mental retardation
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I and III only
17. Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:
I. Polypharmacy III. Medication adherence
II. Inappropriate prescribing IV. Multiple diseases
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
18. Potential difficulties that may occur while taking medication histories from the elderly include:
I. Impaired hearing III. Multiple diseases and medication
II. Mental acuity IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history
 A. I, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
19. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
20. Study of the use of and effect of drugs in a large number of people
A. Pharmacoepidemiology
B. Pharmacovigilance
C. Pharmacoinformatics
D. Pharmacogenetics
E. Pharmacogenomics
21. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis,
diagnosis or therapy
A. Adverse drug event
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Adverse drug reaction
E. Idiosyncrasy
22. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest x-ray?
I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first diagnostic test in a
cardiac workup
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
23. The manifestation of chromium deficiency include:
I. Alopecia III. Red blood cell fragility
II. Depigmentation of hair and skin IV. Glucose intolerance
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, III and VI
D. III only
E. IV only
24. The manifestation of zinc deficiency include:
I. Poor wound healing III. Poor resistance to infection
II. Poor growth
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. III only
E. I, II and III only
25. Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following
affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution III. The amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
II. pH IV. Electrolyte content
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
E. I and IV only
26. Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:
I. Electrolyte content III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
II. Presence of trace minerals IV. pH
 A. IV only
B. I and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. II and IV only
27. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Cevitamic Acid
E. Ascorbic Acid
28. Which of the following are associated with delusional hyponatremia?
I. Administration of albumin III. Cirrhosis
II. Congestive heart failure
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. I only
E. I, II and III
29. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism
II. Produces by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I only
30. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?
I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney
II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized by the kidney
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
31. Which of the following is/are true regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?
I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue
III. Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from hepatocellular
injury
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. III only
32. Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme?
I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST.
II. ALT is more liver specific.
III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. II only
33. Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit?
I. Hemolysis III. Sickle cell anemia
II. Polycythemia vera
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
 D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
34. According to the Seventh report of Joint National Committee (JNC 7), which of the following best describes a
normal blood pressure?
A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85
B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89
C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80
D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99
E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100
35. According to JNC 7, which of the following best describes Stage I hypertension?
A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85
B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89
C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80
D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99
E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100
36. Which of the following are the objectives of evaluating patients with documented hypertension?
I. to assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant disorders that may affect
prognosis and guide treatment
II. to reveal identifiable causes of high blood pressure and allow patient self-medication
III. to assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and cardiovascular diseases
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. I and II only
37. Routine laboratory tests for hypertension recommended before initiating therapy include:
I. Electrocardiogram III. Blood glucose and hematocrit
II. Urinary albumin excretion IV. lipid profile
A. I and IV only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, III and IV only
E. I, II and IV only
38. Lifestyle modification for hypertension include:
I. Diet rich in potassium and calcium
II. Physical activity
III. Moderation of alcohol consumption
IV. Weight reduction of overweight and obese patients
A. II, III and IV only
B. I, III and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II and III only
E. I, II, III and IV
39. Which of the following diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients with hypertension, either
alone or in combination?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Loop diuretics
C. Potassium-sparing diuretics
D. Osmotic diuretics
E. a and b
40. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the potential unfavorable effects of antihypertensive
drug choices?
I. Thiazide diuretics should be used cautiously in patients with gout
II. Beta-blockers should generally be avoided in individuals with asthma
III. Aldosterone antagonist and potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hypokalemia
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only
41. Factors that increase the chances of patients’ non-adherence to anti-hypertensive therapy include:
I. Misunderstanding of condition or treatment
 II. Lack of patient involvement in the care plan
III. Unexpected adverse effects of medications
IV. Complexity of care
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
42. Which of the following is/are true regarding cholesterol?
I. It is naturally occurring alcohol.
II. It is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of bile acids and steroid hormones.
III. It is used by the body to form cell membranes.
A. II only
B. II and III only
C. I and II only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
43. General principles of the diet therapy intended to lower cholesterol levels include:
I. Choose foods high in complex carbohydrates like starch and fiber.
II. Replace monounsaturated fats with saturated fats and fish oils.
III. Eat less high-fat, high-cholesterol foods.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. I and III only
44. Which of the following is/are true regarding bile acid resins as part of the management of
hypercholesterolemia?
I. Resins are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and thus lack systemic toxicity.
II. They reduce total and LDL cholesterol in a dose-independent manner.
III. They have a strong safety record established from years of use.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. I and III only
45. Which of the following is/are the side effects of bile acid resins?
I. Constipation III. Nausea
II. Bloating and epigastric fullness IV. Flatulence
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
46. Which of the following is/are true regarding niacin in the management of hypercholesterolemia?
I. It inhibits the mobilization of free fatty acids from peripheral adipose tissue to the liver.
II. It reduces the synthesis and secretion of VLDL particles by the liver.
III. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction which leads to flushing itching and headache.
A. I and II only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. I and III only
47. Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?
A. Bile acid resins
B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
C. Beta-blockers
D. ACE inhibitor
E. Calcium Channel Blockers
48. During drug interactions with statins that result in higher blood levels of the statin or activate metabolite can
increase the risk of myositis. Which of the following statins are most vulnerable to this interaction?
A. Atorvastatin and Pravastatin
 B. Fluvastatin and Simvastatin
C. Cerivastatin and Lovastatin
D. Lovastatin and Simvastatin
E. Atorvastatin and Fluvastatin
49. A small part of clot that breaks off and travels to another part of the vascular system
A. Embolus
B. Thrombosis
C. Infarction
D. Ischemia
E. Stroke
50. Which of the following are the primary factors that influence the formation of pathologic clots?
I. Abnormalities of blood flow that cause venous stasis
II. Abnormalities of blood vessel walls
III. Hypocoagulability resulting from alterations in the availability or the integrity of blood clotting components
A. I and II only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. I and III only
51. Which of the following is/are true regarding heparin?
I. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally
II. Obtained from bovine lung or porcine intestinal mucosa
III. Acts by binding to the naturally circulating anticoagulant antithrombin III
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. III only
52. Which of the following is/are true regarding warfarin?
I. Acts as a Vitamin K agonist
II. A rapid-acting anticoagulant that is effective only when administered parenterally
III. Rapidly and completely absorbed in the upper gastrointestinal tract
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. III only
53. Which of the following is/are true regarding Prothrombin Time (PT)?
I. Prolonged by deficiencies of clotting factor II, V, VII and X
II. Reflects alterations in the intrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade
III. The internationally recognized standard for monitoring warfarin therapy when exposed as INR
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. III only
54. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)?
I. Reflects alterations in the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade
II. Used to monitor heparin therapy
III. Performed by adding a surface-activating agent, a partial thromboplastin reagent, and calcium to the
plasma sample
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. III only
55. A clinical syndrome characterized by discomfort in the chest, jaw, shoulder, back or arm
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Angina pectoris
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Ischemic heart disease
56. Which of the following statements describe/s accurately events in the process of atherosclerosis?
I. Extracellular lipids accumulate and undergo oxidation
II. As lesions progress, smooth muscle cells migrate, proliferate, and secrete large amounts of extracellular
matrix
III. The end results is the presence of an elevated plaque, which occludes the vessel lumen.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. III only
57. A type of angina which can be induced y exertion, emotional stress, or a heavy meal, and can be relieved by
rest, nitroglycerin or both
A. Prinzmetal’s angina
B. Angina decubitus
C. Unstable angina
D. Stable or classic angina
E. Preinfarction angina
58. A type of angina precipitated by coronary artery spasm that reduces blood flow, and usually occurs at rest
rather than with exertion or emotional stress
A. Prinzmetal’s angina
B. Angina decubitus
C. Unstable angina
D. Stable or classic angina
E. Preinfarction angina
59. Which of the following is/are true regarding the mechanism of action of nitrates?
I. Causes venous dilation, which reduces left ventricular volume and myocardial wall tension, decreasing
oxygen requirements
II. Reduces arteriolar resistance, helping to reduce afterload, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand
III. Facilitates collateral circulation by reducing pressure in cardiac tissues
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. III only
60. Nitrate tolerance is one major problem with the long-term use of nitroglycerin and long-acting nitrates. Which
of the following drugs have shown to be capable of reversing this phenomenon?
I. Acetylcysteine III. ACE inhibitors
II. Beta-blockers IV. Diuretics
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, III and IV only
61. Considered drug of choice in treatment of angina at rest
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Calcium-channel blocker
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Beta-blockers
E. Clopidogrel
62. Used for the same arrhythmias for which quinidine is given, but poses added concern when used
intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotension, syncope and myocardial
depression
A. Procainamide
B. Disopyramide
C. Tocainide
D. Mexiletine
E. Flecainide
63. Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias
A. Profapenone
B. Flecainide
C. Phenytoin
D. Quinidine
 E. Propranolol
64. Class I anti-arrhythmics work by blocking the rapid inward sodium current and thereby slow down the rate of
rise of the cardiac tissue’s action potential. Which subclassification moderately reduces the depolarization rate
and prolongs repolarization?
A. Class IA
B. Class IB
C. Class IC
D. Class ID
E. Class IA and Class IB
65. Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by quinidine?
I. Hearing loss III. Tinnitus
II. Photophobia IV. Blurred vision
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, III and IV only
E. II, III and IV only
66. Among the type III anti-arrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing Torsade’s de Pointes
type of ventricular tachycardia?
A. Sotalol
B. Flecainide
C. Amiodarone
D. Quinidine
E. Lidocaine
67. A class I anti-arrhythmic drug that can cause fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia and low-grade fever, suggestive of
systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome
A. Flecainide
B. Disopyramide
C. Mexiletine
D. Procainamide
E. Quinidine
68. A class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrthymias
A. Verapamil
B. Disopyramide
C. Propranolol
D. Sotalol
E. Ibutilide
69. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to
elicit Heart Failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V
70. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to
elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs with less-than ordinary exertion
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V
71. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class that indicates that the degree of effort necessary to
elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs while at rest
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V
72. Refers to the force exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole that determines the degree od
muscle fiber stretch
A. Frank-Starling mechanism
B. Afterload
 C. Cardiac Output
D. Preload
E. Decompensation
73. Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta
A. Frank-Starling mechanism
B. Afterload
C. Cardiac Output
D. Preload
E. Decompensation
74. Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin?
I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and increase its effect.
II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction.
III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
75. Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects in treating the patient
with Heart Failure?
A. 40mg/kg/min
B. 40ug/kg/min
C. 10-20ug/kg/min
D. 5-10ug/kg/min
E. 2ug/kg/min
76. A loop diuretic that is useful as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute pulmonary edema
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Bumetanide
E. Mannitol
77. Diuretics which have become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by 20-25% of the
filtered load and to maintain their efficacy until renal function is severely impaired
I. Spironolactone III. Furosemide
II. Ethacrynic acid IV. Bumetanide
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, III and IV only
78. Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?
I. Potassium III. Fab fragment antibody
II. Cholestyramine resin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III only
79. Which of the following best describes Isoniazid?
A. May be nephrotoxic and ototoxic
B. Has limited use due to its hepatotoxic potential
C. Requires pyridoxine supplementation
D. May discolor the tears and urine orange red
E. A pyrazine analogue of nicotinamide
80. Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin?
I. Bacterial endocarditis III. Urinary tract infection
II. Tularemia IV. Tuberculosis
A. I, II and III only
B. II, III and IV only
C. I and II only
D. II and IV only
E. III and IV only
81. Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?
A. Streptomycin=kanamycin>amikacin=gentamicin
B. Kanamycin>streptomycin=tobramycin>amikacin
C. Streptomycin=gentamicin>kanamycin=amikacin
D. Kanamycin>streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin
E. Streptomycin>kanamycin>amikacin>gentamicin
82. Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?
A. Neomycin and amikacin
B. Gentamicin and streptomycin
C. Kanamycin and streptomycin
D. Amikacin and neomycin
E. Streptomycin and amikacin
83. Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?
A. Gentamicin and streptomycin
B. Streptomycin and neomycin
C. Amikacin and kanamycin
D. Kanamycin and streptomycin
E. Amikacin and gentamicin
84. Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?
A. Streptomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Netilmicin
85. Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?
A. Streptomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Netilmicin
86. Which carbapenem needs to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to
this drug?
A. Aztreonam
B. Meropenem
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ertapenem
E. Imipenem
87. Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penicillin G Sodium and potassium?
I. Intradermal III. Intramuscular
II. Intravenous IV. Oral
A. II, III and IV only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and III only
D. IV only
E. II and IV only
88. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral administration of
penicillin. The following are its sign and symptoms:
I. Nausea III. Abdominal pain
II. Bronchoconstriction IV. Severe Hypertension
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. IV only
E. II and IV only
89. With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given within 1 hour of penicillin administration?
A. Tetracycline
B. Aminglycoside
C. Carbapenems
D. Erythromycin and chloramphenicol
E. Carbenicillin and isoniazid
90. An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against Pseudomonas organisms?
A. Carbenicillin
 B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Mezlocillin
E. Tazobactam
91. Which of the following are manifestations of complex partial seizure?
I. Glassy stare
II. Visual, Auditory, or olfactory hallucinations
III. Automatism
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. III only
92. Seizures that present as alteration of consciousness lasting 10-30 seconds
A. Simple partial seizures
B. Petit mal seizures
C. Myoclonic seizures
D. Tonic-clonic seizures
E. Complex partial seizures
93. In a grand mal seizure, which of the following may mark the clonic phase?
A. Contraction of the diaphragm
B. Arching of the back
C. Nausea
D. Muscle jerking and flaccidity of muscle
E. soreness
94. Which of the following is/are true regarding the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?
I. The individual becomes rigid and falls.
II. Respirations are interrupted.
III. The tonic phase lasts for about a minute
IV. The individual may experience confusion and disorientation.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II and III only
E. I, II and IV only
95. Which of the following may compromise the postical phase of generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
I. Heavy salivation III. Tachycardia
II. Incontinence IV. Drowsiness
A. I, II, III and IV only
B. I, II and III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and IV only
E. IV only
96. Which of the following is/are true regarding the major phases of seizure activity?
I. The ictal phase may precede the seizure by hour or days depending on the changes in the behavior or
mood of the patient.
II. The prodromal phase may include a subjective sensation, lethargy and confusion.
III. The ictal phase is the seizure itself, and its onset is heralded by a scream or cry.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. IV only
97. Measures the electrical activity of brain, and helps to identify functional cerebral changes underlying structural
abnormalities
A. CBC
B. EEG
C. MRI
D. PET
E. CSF
98. Which of the following is/are true regarding neurological imaging studies for seizures?
I. The MRI can detect brain lesions related to epilepsy.
 II. The PET measures the electrical activity of the brain.
III. EEG offer functional views of the brain to detect hypometabolism or relative hypoperfusion
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. II only
99. Which of the following anti-convulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of Tricyclic antidepressants
hypersensitivity?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Gabapentin
100. What are the most common adverse effects of anticonvulsive drugs?
I. Alteration in cognition and mentation
II. Headaches and dizziness
III. Gastrointestinal symptoms
A. II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. III only
E. I and II only
101. Which of the following drugs may increase the level of carbamazepine due to its ability to decrease
carbamazepine metabolism?
A. Valproic acid
B. Primidone
C. Phenytoin
D. Phenobarbital
E. Topiramate
102. Which of the following is/are known side effects of phenytoin?
I. Steven-Johnson Syndrome III. Ataxia
II. Gingival hyperplasia IV. Lupus erythematosus
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. II only
E. I, II, III and IV
103. Which of the following anticonvulsive drugs has a higher incidence of kidney stones?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Topiramate
D. Carbamazepine
E. Phenobarbital
104. A slowly progressive degenerative neurological disease characterized by tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia and
postural instability
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Multiple necrosis
C. Schizophrenia
D. Parkinson’s disease
E. Disease epilepsy
105. Which of the following is/are true regarding Parkinson’s disease?
I. It is neurodegenerative disease associated with depigmentation of substantia nigra
II. It involves surplus of dopaminergic input to the basal ganglia
III. There is an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
106. Which of the following drugs may cause secondary Parkinsonism?
I. Chlorpromazine III. Perphenazine
 II. Carbamazepine IV. Haloperidol
A. I, II and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. IV only
E. I and III only
107. Refers to the slowness in performing common voluntary movements, including standing, walking, writing and
taking.
A. Bradykinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Akinesia
D. Ataxia
E. Dyskinesia
108. Which of the following is/are true regarding selegiline?
I. Selective inhibitor of MAO type A, which prevents the breakdown of dopamine selectively in the brain
II. Most commonly used as an adjunct with levodopa/carbidopa when patients experience a “wearing off”
phenomenon
III. Most patients experience side effects at doses higher than 30-40mg/day
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. I and III only
D. II only
E. II and III only
109. Failure to adequately minimize severe and long-term airway inflammation in asthma may result in this kind
of change
A. Airway remodeling
B. Lung remodeling
C. Respiratory remodeling
D. Bronchial reconstruction
E. Respiratory arrest
110. Hyperreactivity in asthmatic patients can be measured in a physician’s office by having them perform one of
the following activities.
I. Inhaled nebulized histamine III. Treadmill
II. Inhaled nebulized nitric oxide IV. Inhaled nebulized metacholine
A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. II and III only
E. I, III and IV only
111. According to the NIH Guidelines, the classification of asthma arranged according to increasing severity is:
I. Intermittent III. Moderate Persistent
II. Mild Persistent IV. Severe Persistent
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. III, II and I only
112. Patients with obstructive lung disease have difficulty in expiration, using the spirometer the following results
may be observed.
I. Decreased vital capacity III. Decreased total lung volume
II. Increased residual volume IV. Normal total lung capacity
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
113. Agent/s that inhibit smooth muscle contractions in asthmatic patients is/are
I. Beta-adrenergic agonist III. Glucocorticoids
II. Methylxanthine IV. Anti-cholinergics
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
 D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
114. These agents are called “quick-relief medications” for asthmatic patients.
I. Beta-adrenergic agonist III. Glucocorticoids
II. Methylxanthines IV. Anti-cholinergics
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
115. These agents are called “long-term controlled medications” for asthmatic patients.
I. Beta-adrenergic agonist III. Glucocorticoids
II. Leukotriene inhibitors IV. Receptor antagonist
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
116. These agents are analogues and produce airway dilation through stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors
and activation of G-proteins with the resultant formation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).
I. Catecholamines III. Saligenins
II. Resorcinols IV. Methylxanthines
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
117. This agent inhibit the degranulation of mast cells in asthmatic patients, thereby preventing the release of the
chemical mediators of anaphylaxis.
A. Theophylline
B. Albuterol
C. Cromolyn Sodium
D. Catecholamines
E. Saligenins
118. Opiates, sedatives and tranquilizers should be absolutely avoided in the acutely ill patient with asthma
beacause of
A. Depressing alveolar ventilation
B. Bronchospasm
C. Depressing tracheal ventilation
D. Bronchoconstiction
E. Seizure
119. What is the difference of Chronic Bronchitis, a primary contributor of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary
Disease, in airway inflammation of that of asthma?
I. Slower to develop and non-specific
II. Predominance of IL-8
III. Relative absence of IL-5 and eosinophils
IV. Predominance of type 1 helper (CD8) T cells
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
120. The primary contributor/s to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is/are
A. Asthma
B. Chronic Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma and Bronchitis
E. Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema
121. It is the primary initial intervention in the management of COPD
A. Proper diet
B. Exercise
C. Smoking cessation
 D. Breathing regimen
E. Pulmonary transplant
122. The primary pharmacologic therapy used in the management of COPD is/are
I. Beta-adrenergic agonist III. Methylxanthines
II. Anticholinergics IV. Theophylline
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
123. Acute renal failure is characterized clinically by an abrupt decrease in renal function over a period of hours
to days; one of the effects is azotemia. What is azotemia?
A. Inability to maintain and regulate fluid, electrolyte and acid-base balance.
B. Inability to control the flow of urine output
C. Accumulation of nitrogen waste products
D. Accumulation of oxalates in the nephrons
E. Decreased in renal threshold
124. Acute renal failure incidence is principally observed in
A. Home-cared patients
B. Hospitalized patients
C. Community dwellers
D. City dwellers
E. Provincial residents
125. The oliguric phase of acute renal failure is characterized by a/an
A. Progressive decrease in urine output and may last from days to several weeks
B. Increased urine production over several days
C. Occurrence of several weeks to months and the normalization of kidney function
D. Progressive decrease in urine reabsorptive capacity of the kidney for several days
E. Increase in urine blood flow for a week Koda-Kimble 29-2
126. The diuretic phase in acute renal failure is characterized by a/an
A. Progressive decrease in urine output and may last from days to several weeks
B. Increased urine production over several days
C. Occurrence of several weeks to months and the normalization of kidney function
D. Progressive decrease in urine reabsorptive capacity of the kidney for several days
E. Increase in urine blood flow for a week
127. Which of the following is the recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage II COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and Beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting Beta 2 agonist
D. Sustained release Theophylline
E. Long acting Beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline
128. Which of the following is the recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage I COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and Beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting Beta 2 agonist
D. Sustained release Theophylline
E. Long acting Beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline
129. Which of the following is the recommended bronchodilator therapy for stage III COPD?
A. Beta 2 agonist
B. Anticholinergic and Beta 2 agonist
C. Long acting Beta 2 agonist
D. Sustained release Theophylline
E. Long acting Beta 2 agonist and sustained release theophylline
130. Which of the following is/are the mechanism/s by which NSAID’s induce mucosal injury seen during peptic
ulcer disease?
I. Interruption of prostaglandin synthesis
II. Intracellular entrapment of NSAID’s in an ionized form
III. Alteration of the surface mucosal layer, permitting back diffusion of H+ and pepsin
IV. Extracellular entrapment of NSAID’s in an ionized form
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
 D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
131. Prevpac, an anti-Helicobacter pyroli regimen available in prepackaged formulation include:
A. Lanzoprazole, tetracycline and metronidazole
B. Bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline and metronidazole
C. Lanzoprazole, tetracyclin and amoxicillin
D. Bismuth subsalycilate, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
E. Lanzoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
132. Helidac, an anti-Helicobacter pyroli regimen available in prepackaged formulation include:
A. Lanzoprazole, tetracycline and metronidazole
B. Bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline and metronidazole
C. Lanzoprazole, tetracyclin and amoxicillin
D. Bismuth subsalycilate, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
E. Lanzoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
133. Mechanism/s by which prostaglandin maintain gastric epithelial integrity
I. Regulates the release of mucosal bicarbonate and mucus
II. Inhibit parietal cell secretion
III. Inhibit mucosal blood secretion and epithelial call restitution
IV. Maintain mucosal blood flow and epithelial cell restitution
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
134. “Heartburn” commonly described as a pain in the center of the chest is a classic symptoms of
A. Cardiac angina
B. Asthma
C. Gastroesophageal reflux
D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
E. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
135. What is the reasonable way of administering the Proton Pump Inhibitor, omeprazole, with NG tubes?
A. Place directly into the NG tube
B. Crushed ad mixed with water to make a slurry/suspension
C. Dissolution of the gelatin capsule with sodium bicarbonate injection
D. Suspension of the enteric coated beads in sodium bicarbonate injection
E. Crushed and mixed with sodium bicarbonate to make a slurry/suspension Koda-kimble 25-19
136. What is/are the joint changes observed in the rheumatoid arthritis?
I. Loosening of tendon sheath and other periarticular structures
II. Synovial thickening, leading to pannus formation
III. Joint space widening, leading to bone erosion and osteoporosis
IV. Erosion of articular surfaces
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
137. These agents prevent or slow joint destruction in rheumatic arthritis
I. NSAIDs III. D-penicillamine
II. Azathioprine IV. Hydroxychloroquine
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
138. In the synovium of rheumatoid arthritis patients, the balance of cytokines is heavily weighted toward the
proinflammatory cytokines, leading to sustained inflammation and tissue destruction. Proinflammatory
cytokines include/s
I. IL-1 III. IL-10
II. IL-1Ra IV. IL-11
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II only
 D. I, II, III and IV
E. I and II only
139. This anti-inflammatory drug for rheumatoid arthritis should only be administered for a brief period due to
serious adverse effects such as osteoporosis, cataract formation and impaired wound healing on long-term
use
A. Aspirin
B. Prednisone
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Infliximab
E. Gold
140. Synovial joint consists of two bone ends covered by articular cartilage. This cartilage can be characterized to
be
I. Avascular and aneural
II. Metabolically active and undergoes continual internal remodeling
III. Incharge of the production of proteoglycans and collagen in the extracellular matrix
IV. A member that produces a viscous fluid that lubricates the joint
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I and II only
141. This is a hallmark of the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis
A. Genetic marker such as HLA-DR4
B. Bacterial and viral infections
C. Inflammed synovium
D. Propagation of TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6
E. Chondrocytes degradation
142. Classified as a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug, it is indicated as a monotherapy for rheumatoid
arthritis and necessitates liver function monitoring
A. Etanarcept
B. Infliximab
C. Methotraxate
D. Leflunomide
E. Sulfasalazine
143. Neds, a 51 years old postal office clerk was diagnosed with osteoarthritis, the nonpharmacological treatment
most likely advised to her is/are
I. Aerobic exercise
II. use supportive mechanism e.g. cane
III. Weight loss
IV. Physical therapy
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II only
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II and III only
144. In patients diagnosed with gout, it is expected that this serum acid level rises
A. Picric
B. Lactic
C. Uric
D. Dipicolinic
E. Glycolic
145. The following drug/s is/are contraindicated to patients with gout and hyperuricemia since it/they increase/s
uric acid production
I. Ethambutol III. Diuretic
II. Salicylates IV. Acetaminophen
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II only
D. I, II, and III
E. II and IV only
146. If gout is left untreated eventual joint deformity and disability may be observed. This occurrence is due to
tophi or tophaceous deposit. Tophi is defined as
 A. Remains of degraded urate crystals
B. Deposits of monosodium urate crystals
C. Deposits of disodium urate crystals
D. Precipitate of monosodium urate crystals
E. Precipitate of disodium urate crystals
147. Assymptomatic hyperurecemia is characterized by increased serum uric acid level but has no signs or
symptoms of deposition disease. The logical primary intervention would be
A. Community intervention
B. Pharmacological intervention
C. Supportice intervention
D. Pharmaceutical intervention
E. Nutritional (increase purine rich food) intervention
148. Urate-lowering drugs should be administered for acute gouty arthritis when
A. Acute attack is controlled
B. Acute attack has not yet occurred, as prophylaxis
C. An acute attack is transpiring
D. An acute attack just had occurred
E. In concomitant use with proinflammatory agents
149. The greatest potential risks of therapy with uricosuric drugs are the formation of uric acid crystals in urine
and the deposition of uric acid in the renal tubules, pelvis, or ureter. To reduce this risk, patients are advised to
do the following activities:
I. Maintain high fluid intake (2L/day)
II. Maintain high fluid intake (1.5L/day)
III. Take 1 g of NaHCO3, 3-4 times a day
IV. Take 1 g of NaHCO3, 2-3 times a day
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
E. I and III only
150. Sarcomas are malignant tumors of the
A. Epithelial cells
B. Lymphoid
C. Nephron
D. Schwann cells
E. Connective tissues
151. The tumor marker Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is commonly seen in
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Breast cancer
E. Lung cancer
152. Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating chemotherapeutic agent where they generally form covalent DNA
adducts. The following should be consider for cyclophosphamide regimen
I. Absence of liver disease
II. Coadministration with mercaptoethanesulfonate
III. Maintenance of excellent hydration during therapy
IV. Control of purine rich food
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. II and IV only
153. This antidopaminergic phenothiazine drug can be administered rectally and acts directly at the
chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
A. Haloperidol
B. Lorazepam
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Thiethylperazine
E. Ondasentron
154. IV Catheters are commonly used in cancer therapy and are prone to infections. When is it advised to
remove the catheter?
 I. If the patients has a “tunneled” catheter with a red streak over the subcutaneous part of the tunnel
II. If it is an exit-site infection
III. If it is coagulase-positive staphylococcal infection
IV. If infection is due to P. aeruginosa and Candida species
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II only
D. I, II and III only
E. I, III and IV only
155. Metformin is used in the management of diabetes mellitus. Patients receiving it should be monitored for
development of
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Tinnitus
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Hirsutism
E. Parakeratosis
156. Which of the following is an effect associated with the use of pilocarpine ophthalmic products?
I. Mydriasis III. Pupillary constriction
II. Cholinergic agonist
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III only
D. I only
E. I, II and III
157. Psoriasis is one of the most common dermatologic disease. It is best characterized by
A. Silvery micaceous scale
B. Polygonal,Flat-topped papules
C. Small red vesicles
D. Granulomatous lesions
E. Water-filled blisters
158. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding candidiasis?
I. It is a fungal infection caused by a related group of yeast.
II. It may be systemic and life-threatening.
III. It is very common among HIV-infected individuals.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
E. III only
159. The clinical hallmark of acne vulgaris
A. Papules
B. Pustules
C. Nodules
D. Comedones
E. Lesions
160. Transient lesions that are composed of a central wheal surrounded by an erythematous halo
A. Bullae
B. Acne
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
E. Urticaria
161. Include tumors of connective tissue such as bone or muscle
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lymphomas
D. Leukemias
E. Hematoma
162. Include tumors of blood-forming elements and are classified as acute or chronic, myeloid or lymphoid
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lymphomas
D. Leukemias
 E. Hematoma
163. The stage in carcinogenesis wherein the environment becomes altered to allow preferential growth of mutated
cells over normal cells
A. Promotion
B. Initiation
C. Progression
D. Regression
E. Metastasis
164. The first stage of carcinogenesis wherein normal cells are exposed to a carcinogen
A. Promotion
B. Initiation
C. Progression
D. Regression
E. Metastasis
165. A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide that is thought to cause a chemical irritation of the bladder
mucosa resulting to bleeding
A. Mesna
B. Amifostine
C. Acrolein
D. Dexrazoxane
E. Histamine
166. Which of the following is/are true regarding pain?
I. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience that is usually associated with structural or tissue damage
II. A subjective, individual experience
III. Has physical, psychological and social determinants
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. I only
167. Stimulation of mu receptor produces the characteristic narcotic effects. These morphine-like effects include
I. Analgesia III. Sedation
II. Europhia IV. Physical dependence
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and II only
E. I and III only
168. A component of red peppers that causes the release of substance P from sensory nerve fibers, resulting in
prolonged cutaneous pain transmission, histamine release, and erythema because of reflex vasodilation
A. Glucosamine sulfate
B. Chondroitin
C. Capsaicin
D. Capsicum oleoresin
E. Cyclooxygenase
169. Natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften the stool and increase the bulk
A. Saline laxative
B. Osmotic laxative
C. Emollient laxative
D. Bulk-forming laxative
E. Stimulant laxative
170. Laxatives that work by creating an osmotic gradient to pull water into the small and large intestines
A. Saline laxative
B. Lubricant laxative
C. Emollient laxative
D. Bulk-forming laxative
E. Stimulant laxative
171. Laxatives that act as surfactants by allowing absorption of water into the stool, which makes the softened
stool easier pass
A. Saline laxative
B. Osmotic laxative
C. Emollient laxative
 D. Bulk-forming laxative
E. Stimulant laxative
172. Clusters of dilated blood vessels in the lower rectum or anus
A. Anal abscess
B. Cryptitis
C. Anal fissure
D. Polyps
E. Hemorrhoids
173. Which of the following statements adequately describes bulk-forming laxatives?
A. Can cause diarrhea if not taken with water
B. Onset of action is in 4-8 hours
C. Produce much more complete evacuation of constipation than stimulant products
D. Are derived from polysaccharides and resembles fiber in mechanism of action
E. All of its kind can cause abdominal cramping
174. Which of the following is/are risk factor for hyperphosphatemia and death from sodium phosphate enema?
I. Renal insufficiency III. Anorectal malformation
II. Hirschsprung’s disease
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. I only
175. Which of the following is/are true regarding lactulose?
I. An osmotic laxative
II. May cause flatulence and cramping
III. Should be taken with fruit juice or milk to increase its palatability
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. III only
E. I only
176. A condition characterized in a poorly functioning colon and resembles to symptoms of ulcerative colitis,
caused by chronic use of stimulant laxatives
A. Melanosis coli
B. Cathartic colon
C. Lipid pneumonitis
D. Laxative abuse
E. Hyperphosphatemia
177. A dark pigmentation of the colonic mucosa that results from long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives
A. Melanosis coli
B. Cathartic colon
C. Lipid pneumonitis
D. Laxative abuse
E. Hyperphosphatemia
178. Adverse effects of metoclopramide limit its usefulness. These adverse effects include
I. Insomnia III. Exprapyramidal effects
II. Depression
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
E. III only
179. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding emollient laxatives?
I. Not good for acute constipation
II. More effective than placebo for long term use
III. Good for patients who should not strain by passing a hard stool
A. I, II and III
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I only
180. The biologically active thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland that is four times more potent than the
other is
A. Triiodothyronine
B. Thyroxine
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. TRH
E. A and B
181. It is the hypermetabolic syndrome that occurs from excessive production of thyroid hormone with classic
symptoms of weight loss despite increased appetite, nervousness, palpitation, heat intolerance and insomnia.
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hashimoto’s disease
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Grave’s disease
E. Cushing’s syndrome
182. Thyroid preparations that are used to treat hypothyroidism
I. L-Thyroxine III. Methimazole
II. PTU IV. Liotrix
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only only
E. I, II, III and IV
183. In this condition, there is a loss of insulin secretion that results from autoimmune destruction of the insulin-
producing β-cells in the pancreas.
A. Type II DM
B. Type I DM
C. Diabetes Insipidus
D. Gestational DM
E. Type III DM
184. It is a condition defined as any carbohydrate intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy and
its duration affect the prognosis for good obstetric and perinatal outcome.
A. Juvenile-onset DM
B. Adult-onset DM
C. Gestational DM
D. Obese Type II DM
E. Pediatric DM
185. The normal fasting plasma glucose level (FPG):
A. <140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)
B. <100mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
C. >126mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L)
D. 110-125mg/dL (6.1-7.0 mmol/L)
E. >200mg/dL (11 mmol/L)
186. The classical sign of diabetes mellitus include the following: polydipsia, polyuria, ketonuria, rapid weight
loss, combined with a random plasma glucose levels of:
A. ≥200 mg/dL
B. 105 mg/dL
C. 190 mg/dL
D. 140 mg/dL
E. ≥100 mg/dL
187. It is a rapid-acting insulin preparation that has a 4-5 hours duration of action.
A. Insulin glargine
B. Insulin lispro
C. NPH
D. Lente (Insulin Zinc Suspension)
E. RAI
188. It is a condition where blood glucose concentration is <50mg/dL and patient may be asymptomatic or a
blood glucose of <40mg/dL where patient suffers from blurred vision, sweaty palms, generalized sweating,
tremors, hunger, confusion, anxiety, and circumoral tingling and numbness and that severe condition can lead
to seizure and coma.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Ketoacidosis
 D. Hypoglycemia
E. Diabetes insipidus
189. It reversibly inhibits a variety of enzymes present in the brush-border of the mucosa of the small intestine
that are responsible for the breakdown of complex polysaccharides and sucrose into absorbable
monosaccharides
A. Metformin
B. Acarbose
C. Miglitol
D. B and C
E. A and B
190. First generation sulfonylureas
I. Tolbutamide III. Acetohexamide
II. Chlorpropamide IV. Glipizide
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I only
D. I and III only
E. II only
191. A condition characterized by an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) and is influenced by the production of
aqueous humor by the ciliary processed and the outflow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork.
A. Glaucoma
B. Stye
C. Conjuctivitis
D. Corneal ulcer
E. Diplopia
192. An IOP greater than 21 mm Hg, normal visual fields, normal optic discs, open angles, and the absence of
any ocular disease contributing to the elevation of IOP.
A. Angle-closuse glaucoma
B. Open-angle glaucoma
C. Ocular hypertension
D. Primary open-angle glaucoma
E. Diplopia
193. In this condition, aqueous humor outflow from the anterior chamber is constantly subnormal primarily
because of a degenerative process in the trabecular meshwork.
A. Angle-closure glaucoma
B. Ocular hypertension
C. Primary open-angle glaucoma
D. Diplopia
E. Corneal ulcer
194. It is a parasympathomimetic agent that causes contraction of ciliary muscle fibers attached to the trabecular
meshwork and scleral spur. This opens the trabecular meshwork to enhance aqueous humor outflow.
A. Epinephrine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Apraclonidine
D. Levobunolol
E. Atropine
195. Are infections of the hair follicles or sebaceous glands of the eyelids commonly caused by Staphyloccocus
aureus.
A. Conjuctivitis
B. Hordeolum
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Cataracts
E. Comedones
196. Chohlestatic jaundice is an adverse effect reported for all the salts of this antimicrobial especially for its
estolate salt.
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Netilmicin
E. Polymixin
197. Associated with aplastic anemia and Gray Baby syndrome
A. Flucytosine
 B. Ketoconazole
C. Quinolones
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Salicylates
198. Types of pain that usually last less than 30days and occurs following muscle strains and tissue injury
A. Breakthrough pain
B. Chronic pain
C. Acute pain
D. Chronic non-malignant pain
E. Chronic cancer pain
199. Type of pain which is the intermittent, transitory increase in pain that occurs at a greater intensity over
baseline chronic pain
A. Acute pain
B. Chronic malignant pain
C. Chronic non-malignant pain
D. Breakthrough pain
E. Chronic cancer pain
200. Potential adverse effects of Aspirin include
I. Gastrointestinal ulceration III. Cardiac arrhythmias
II. Hypersensitivity asthma
A. I and II only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
201. If the hospital pharmacy is decentralized, each satellite pharmacy must be
A. Supervised by a single pharmacist who is knowledgeable and experienced in hospital operation
B. Supervised by pharmacy technician or aide, in order to maximize human resources in the hospital
C. Supervised by a licensed pharmacist who reports to the director of pharmacy
D. Supervised by pharmacy interns in order to facilitate full training experience
E. Supervised by a registered nurse if there is no pharmacist available
202. Routine inspections must be done in all areas where modifications are dispensed, administered and stored.
Documented checks are to be made to make sure that
I. Outdated and other unusable drugs are removed from locations where they could be administered in error.
II. The use of investigational drugs conforms poorly with pharmacy policies and procedures
III. External and internal drug preparations must be stored in the same pharmacy area
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. II only
D. I only
E. I and III only
203. Responsible for the development and surveillance of pharmacy and therapeutics policies and practices,
particularly drug utilization within the hospital
A. Medical director
B. Board of directors
C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee
D. Chief pharmacist
E. Pharmaceutical services director
204. Which of the following are the recommended functions of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee?
I. Advises the medical staff and pharmacy service on matters pertaining to the choice of drugs available for
patient care and diagnostic testing
II. Adds and deletes drugs in the hospital formulary or drug list and continually reviews it
III. Ensures constant supply of drugs by facilitating regular inventory and stocks review
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only
205. By custom, acts as the secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
A. Registered nurse
B. Head of the legal division of the hospital
C. Medical doctors
 D. Pharmacist
E. Administrative clerk
206. When medications are dispensed to inpatients at the time of their discharge, the labels must include
I. Full name of the patient
II. Name of the drug, strength, and amount dispensed
III. Unit cost of the drug
IV. Name of the prescribing practitioner
A. I, II and III only
B. I, II, III and IV
C. II only
D. I and II only
E. I, II and IV only
207. Refers to the definite course or method of action to guide and determine present and future decisions
A. Framework
B. Policy
C. Operations
D. Procedures
E. Strategic planning
208. Refers to a series of steps followed in a regular definite sequence in order to accomplish something
A. Framework
B. Policy
C. Operations
D. Procedures
E. Vision-Mission statement
209. Which of the following are included in the administrative information division of most policy and procedure
manuals?
I. Personnel policies and procedures III. Organizational relationship
II. Philosophy IV. Job description
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
210. Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of the information contained in policy and procedure manuals?
I. Current III. Static
II. Reliable
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
211. Which of the following factors mainly determine/s the type of services offered by a hospital?
I. Government health policies
II. The health care services demands of the patients in the target market
III. The resources of the organization
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
212. Which of the following are components of hospital marketing
I. Product or type of service III. Place
II. Price IV. Promotion
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
213. Refers to an amount that is above the break-even cost of providing a product or service and is necessary to
provide for replacement and upgrading of hospital equipment and facilities
A. Overhead costs
B. Revenue deductions
 C. Profit margin
D. Direct personnel cost
E. Supply cost
214. Refers to the pricing method wherein the price is calculated by adding a fixed fee to the acquisition cost of
the unit of product dispensed
A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method
215. Refers to the pricing method wherein the patient receiving a more costly drug pays for a proportionately
larger part of overall pharmacy service costs regardless of the amount of serviced received
A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method
216. Refers to the pricing method wherein the average drug cost per patient day, the average pharmacy service
cost per patient day, and the desired profit margin are computed to arrive at a single pharmacy charge for
each day the patient stayed in the hospital
A. Percentage markup method
B. Dispensing fee method
C. Per diem method
D. Standard method
E. Special cost method
217. A visual display technique that can be used as a scheduling tool for the entire planning process
A. Curve fitting
B. Gantt chart
C. Cyclical change
D. Regression
E. Distribution curve
218. A physical quantity of a drug product ordered by a prescriber to be administered to a specified patient at one
time, in ready-to administer form with no further physical or chemical alteration required
A. Unit dose package
B. Single unit dose
C. Unit dose
D. Multiple dose
E. Unit dose dispensing system
219. A package that contains one discrete pharmaceutical dosage form
A. Unit dose package
B. Single unit package
C. Unit dose
D. Multiple dose
E. Unit dose dispensing
220. Refers to the act of a pharmacist in supplying one or more drug products to or for a patient, usually in
response to an order from an authorized prescriber
A. Patient counseling
B. Drug utilization review
C. Distribution
D. Compounding
E. Dispensing
221. Refers to a system that has as its purpose the selection, acquisition, control, storage, dispensing, delivery,
preparation, and administration of drug products in health care institutions in response to the order of an
authorized prescriber
A. Drug distribution control system
B. Drug use information system
C. Drug distribution system
D. Drug packaging system
E. Drug availability system
222. Which of the following are considered as drug distribution control information necessary to ensure that a unit
dose package is delivered as ordered to the right patient, at the right date, and the right time?
I. A description of unit dose order
 II. Socio-economic status of the patient
III. Identification and location of the patient
IV. Time and date of administration
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II and IV only
223. A standard “bid” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at
A. 7am & 7pm
B. 8am & 8pm
C. 6am & 6pm
D. 9am & 9pm
E. 10am & 10pm
224. A standard “tid” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at
A. 8am – 12nn – 4pm
B. 9am – 1pm – 5pm
C. 10am – 2pm – 6pm
D. 7am – 11pm – 3pm
E. 6am – 10am – 2pm
225. A standard “q6h” dosing schedule means that the drug must be given at
A. 7am – 1pm – 7pm – 1am
B. 8am – 2pm – 8pm – 2am
C. 9am – 3pm – 9pm – 3am
D. 6am – 12nn – 6pm – 12am
E. 10am – 4pm – 10pm – 4am
226. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein a bulk supply of each drug product is maintained on the nursing
unit in advance of need and the nurse prepare the doses for administration
A. Patient prescription system
B. Floor stock
C. Emergency carts
D. Unit dose dispensing system
E. Decentralized system
227. Refers to a drug distribution system where in all drugs are retained in the pharmacy until the order is
received, and then a multiple dose supply is dispensed to the nursing unit labeled for use by a specific patient
A. Patient prescription system
B. Floor stock
C. Emergency carts
D. Unit dose dispensing system
E. Decentralized system
228. Factors aside from the system design that affect the total system cost of maintaining a hospital drug
distribution system
I. Mission of the hospital III. Physical layout of the hospital
II. Bed size IV. Enforcement of performance standards
A. I, II, III and IV
B. II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I and IV only
E. I, III and IV only
229. Which of the following is/are advantages of unit dose dispensing system?
I. Less drug losses due to waste and pilferage
II. Greater accuracy in inventory control, cost accounting and charging
III. Improved ability of the hospital to attract and retain highly qualified and motivated pharmacy personnel
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. II only
E. I, II and III
230. A “stat” order means
I. the drug is to be administered immediately
II. The order takes precedence over the regularly scheduled medication
III. The drug is to be administered at a specific time
 A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
E. II and III only
231. Which of the following is/are true regarding subcutaneous injection administration?
I. The main areas of administration are the thigh, abdomen and upper arm
II. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 90 degree angle
III. Rotation of injection sites will reduce the chance of local irritation or damage
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. II only
232. Which of the following is/are true regarding intramuscular injection administration?
I. The usual sites of administration are the deltoid and gluteal muscles
II. 5 – 6ml is usually the recommended maximal volume
III. The needle is inserted through the skin at a 45-6 degree angle
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I only
E. III only
233. Which of the following is/are true regarding intradermal injection?
I. Use to check for circulating antibodies to the injected antigen
II. Intradermal skin test in usually read at 24, 36 and 48 hours
III. A reddened area of induration of 5 mm or greater usually indicates an intact immune system
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I only
E. III only
234. Which of the following are indications of intravenous therapy?
I. Replacement of fluid and electrolytes
II. Parenteral nutrition
III. Administration of drugs requiring a rapid high blood level
IV. Emergency situation like cardiac arrest
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
235. Which of the following are possible adverse effects of intravenous administration?
I. Thrombophlebitis III. Speed shock
II. Air emboli IV. Injection of pathogens
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
236. The optimal pH range of aminophylline
A. below 7.0
B. Above 7.0
C. Above 8.0
D. Below 8.0
E. Above 6.0
237. Which of the following is/are nutrition support activities of a pharmacist?
I. Catheter care III. Parenteral formulation design
II. Nutritional assessment IV. Metabolic monitoring of therapy
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
 D. III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
238. Which of the following is/are essential human nutrients for intravenous diets?
I. Carbohydrates III. Electrolytes
II. Proteins IV. Fats
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
239. The most important human nutrient required for tissue synthesis, repair, transport of body nutrients and
waste, and maintenance of immune function
A. Carbohydrates
B. Protein
C. Fats
D. Electrolytes
E. Water
240. Most widely utilized carbohydrates in parenteral nutrition because of its low cost, availability and proven
utility
A. Glycerol
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Dextrose
E. Lactose
241. Which of the following is/are mechanical tube feeding complications?
I. Aspiration pneumonia III. Hypertonic dehydration
II. Mucosal erosion IV. Nasopharyngeal irritation
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
242. Which of the following is/are metabolic tube feeding complications?
I. Electrolyte imbalance III. Diarrhea
II. Glucose intolerance IV. Distention
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
243. The extent to which a technique consistently measures whatever it measures regardless of the investigator
or the situation
A. Validity
B. Dependability
C. Vulnerability
D. Sensitivity
E. Reliability
244. Which of the following is/are gastrointestinal tube feeding complications?
I. Electrolyte imbalance III. Diarrhea
II. Glucose intolerance IV. Distention
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
245. The extent to which a technique measures what it is intended to measure
A. Validity
B. Dependability
C. Vulnerability
D. Sensitivity
E. Reliability
246. An authorized, structured ad continuing program that reviews, analyzes and interpret patterns of drug usage
in a given health care delivery system against pre-determined standards
A. Pharmaceutical care plan
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Drug utilization review
D. Quality assurance
E. Drug auditing and inventory control
247. Pre-clinical studies that determines the new drug’s absorptive, distributive, metabolic and excretory
pathways
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamic studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies
248. Pre-clinical studies that determines the action of new drug in animals to estimate the magnitude of its
intended therapeutic effect
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamic studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies
249. Pre-clinical studies in animal that determine the relative safety in humans and monitor parameters that will
be used in clinical trials
A. Pharmacologic studies
B. Pharmacodynamic studies
C. Toxicologic studies
D. Pharmacokinetic studies
E. Biogenetic studies
250. Any drug that has not yet been released for general use, and has not yet been cleared for sale in commerce
I. Investigational drug III. Regulated drug
II. Experimental drug IV. New drug
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and IV only
251. Various strategies and techniques are in place for use in counseling and educating patients. The effective
domain of learning process involves
I. Perception III. Memory
II. Emotion IV. Beliefs
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II and III only
E. IV only
252. The behavioral domain of learning process involves
I. Decision making III. Physical abilities
II. Actions IV. Perception
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II and III only
E. IV only
253. An order for medication issued by a physician, dentist, or other properly licensed medical practitioner
A. Medication profile
B. Patient chart
C. Voucher
D. Prescription
E. Insurance policy
254. Medications that may be dispensed legally only on prescription
A. Over-the-counter drugs
B. Sample drugs
 C. Imported drugs
D. Investigational drugs
E. Legend drugs
255. Prescription part generally understood to be a contraction of the Latin verb recipe, meaning take thou or you
take
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signatura
E. Transcription
256. The body or principal part of the prescription order that contains the names and the quantities of the
prescribed ingredients
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signatura
E. Transcription
257. Part of the prescription that consists of directions to the pharmacist for preparing the prescription.
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signatura
E. Transcription
258. Part of the prescription where the prescriber indicates the directions for the patient’s use of the medication.
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signatura
E. Transcription
259. They are commonly used abbreviations in prescription and medication orders. What does “aa” mean?
A. Before meals
B. Up to
C. Left ear
D. Each ear
E. Of each
260. The abbreviation “po” means
A. After surgery
B. Rectally
C. By mouth
D. When necessary
E. After eating
261. The abbreviation “ss” means
A. Without
B. Symptoms
C. Suppository
D. One-half
E. Immediately
262. Defined as the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or devices as a result of a
prescription-drug order.
A. Pharmacy dispensing
B. Pharmacy compounding
C. Pharmacy manufacturing
D. Pharmacy quality assurance
E. Pharmacy practice
263. Use of bulk powders, large quantities of tablets or capsules, and viscous liquids that can not be poured
readily.
A. Prescription bottles
B. Applicator bottles
C. Wide-mouth bottles
D. Round vials
E. Sifter-top bottles
264. Use for powders to be applied by sprinkling.
 A. Prescription bottles
B. Slide boxes
C. Wide-mouth bottles
D. Dropper bottles
E. Aerosol containers
265. Use for dispensing liquids of low viscosity.
A. Prescription bottles
B. Collapsible tubes
C. Wide-mouth bottles
D. Dropper bottles
E. Ointment jars
266. Any substance that may be considered a food or part of a food and provides medical or health benefits,
including the prevention and treatment of disease
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent
267. Substance found in edible fruits and vegetable that may be ingested by human daily in grams quantities and
that exhibit a potential for modulating human metabolism in a manner favorable for cancer prevention
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent
268. Nutritive or non-nutritive food component being scientifically investigated as a potential inhibitor or
carcinogenesis for primary and secondary cancer prevention
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent
269. Processed food that are supplemented with food ngredients naturally rich in disease-preventing substances
A. Designer food
B. Nutraceutical
C. Pharmafood
D. Phytochemical
E. Chemopreventive agent
270. Which of the following are considered as categories of Complementary and Alternative Medicine?
I. Mind-body intervention III. Herbal medicine
II. Bioelectromagnetic interventions IV. Diet and nutrition
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
271. An ancient Chinese healing art that employs fine needles inserted at various locations in the body to restore
the smooth flow of energy
A. Hypnosis
B. Allopathy
C. Acupuncture
D. Acupressure
E. Homeopathy
272. A therapeutic method that clinically applies the Law of Similar (like cures like) and uses medically active,
potentized substances at weak or infinitesimal doses
A. Ayurvedic medicine
B. Chiropractic
C. Hypnosis
D. Homeopathy
E. Allopathy
273. A state of altered consciousness, sleep or trance induced artificially in a subject by means of verbal
suggestion or by the subjects concentrating upon some subject
 A. Hypnosis
B. Chiropractic
C. Allopathy
D. Homeopathy
E. Iridology
274. A diagnostic tool that purports to correlate changes in the color and texture of the iris with mental and
physical disorders
A. Hypnosis
B. Chiropractic
C. Allopathy
D. Homeopathy
E. Iridology
275. Referred to a specialty practice of pharmacy that focuses upon the safe and efficacious use of radioactive
drugs
I. Nuclear pharmacy III. Institutional pharmacy
II. Radiopharmacy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
E. I and III only
276. A drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or
photons
A. Designer drug
B. Prohibited drug
C. Dangerous drug
D. Over-the-counter drug
E. Radioactive drugs
277. Which of the following is/are true regarding radiopharmaceuticals?
I. Lack pharmacological effects
II. Employed as tracers of physiological functions
III. Small amounts produce negligible effects on biological processes
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
E. II only
278. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for bone scans
A. Tc-99m Diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m Macroaggregated
C. T1-201 thaluous choride
D. Sr-89 strontium choride
E. 1-131 sodium iodide
279. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for myocardial perfusion scans
A. Tc-99m Diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m Macroaggregated
C. T1-201 thaluous choride
D. Sr-89 strontium choride
E. 1-131 sodium iodide
280. A diagnostic radiopharmaceutical used for lung scans
A. Tc-99m Diphosphonates
B. Tc-99m Macroaggregated
C. T1-201 thaluous choride
D. Sr-89 strontium choride
E. 1-131 sodium iodide
281. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vitamin A?
I. Acts as anthracitic vitamin
II. Maintains the integrity of epithelial membranes
III. Essential in the formation of rhodopsin and the normal functioning of the retina
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
 D. I and III only
E. II only
282. Which of the following is/are true regarding the functions of Vitamin C?
I. Formation of intracellular collagen
II. Healing of bone fractures
III. Metabolism of tyrosine
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III only
E. II only
283. Hospitals may be classified in different ways according to
I. Type of service III. Ownership
II. Length of stay IV. Bed capacity
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, III and IV only
284. Which of the following are fundamental functions of a hospital?
I. Patient care III. Research
II. Wellness IV. Education
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III only
E. I, II, III and IV
285. Which of the following is/are true regarding open questions?
I. Allow the patient sufficient latitude in interpreting and responding to requests for information
II. Cannot be answered in one phrase or with a “yes” or a “no”
III. Its limited use will result in an overly long unfocused and inefficient interview
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I and II only
E. II only
286. The provision of integrated, accessible health-care services by clinicians who are accountable for
addressing a large majority of personal health-care needs developing a sustained partnership with the patient,
and practicing in the context of family and community
A. Disease management
B. Acute care
C. Primary care
D. Institutional care
E. Long-term care
287. An evaluative approach to health-care delivery that attempts to improve outcomes for patients with a specific
disease while optimizing the overall use of health-care resources
A. Patient-focused care
B. Benefit management
C. Disease management
D. Case management
E. Primary care
288. A process by which an experienced professional works with patients, providers, and insurer to coordinate all
services deemed necessary to provide the patient with medically appropriate health care
A. Patient-focused care
B. Benefit management
C. Disease management
D. Case management
E. Institutional care
289. Categories listed by application of the US Food and Drug Administration definitions to available clinical data
in order to define a drug’s potential to cause birth defects or fetal death
A. Phenol coefficient
B. Relative risk ratio
 C. Bioequivalence requirement
D. Pregnancy risk
E. Therapeutic index
290. A pregnancy category that indicates an adequate studies in pregnant women have failed to show a risk to
the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy, and no evidence of risk in later trimesters
A. Category B
B. Category D
C. Category A
D. Category C
E. Category S
291. A pregnancy category that indicates that studies in animals or humans show fetal abnormalities, or adverse
reaction reports indicate evidence of fetal risk
A. Category B
B. Category A
C. Category O
D. Category X
E. Category Y
292. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but
there are no adequate studies in humans
A. Category C
B. Category B
C. Category D
D. Category E
E. Category O
293. A pregnancy risk category that indicates that there is evidence of risk to the human fetus, but the potential
benefits of use in pregnancy women may be acceptable despite potential risks
A. Category E
B. Category B
C. Category D
D. Category A
E. Category X
294. A pregnancy category that indicates that animal studies have not shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but
there are no adequate clinical studies in pregnant women
A. Category D
B. Category B
C. Category X
D. Category A
E. Category C
295. Which of the following is/are forms of non-verbal communication?
I. Clothing and hairstyle III. Eye contact
II. Posture IV. Proximity to other person
A. II and III only
B. III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I, II, III and IV
296. Which of the following is/are examples of mechanical barriers to effective listening and communication?
I. Noise III. Impaired eyesight
II. Harsh lighting IV. Uncomfortable chair
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. I and II only
297. A skilled and principled use of relationships to facilitate self-knowledge, emotional acceptance and growth,
and the optimal development of personal resources
A. Communication
B. Counseling
C. Listening
D. Health promotion
E. Problem-solving
298. The ability to see the world from the point of view of the another person, through their frame of reference,
through their conceptual and emotional spectacles
A. Sympathy
B. Genuineness
C. Listening
D. Empathy
E. Involvement
299. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/are function/s of tertiary level of prevention?
I. Prevention deterioration, relapse and complications
II. Promotion of rehabilitation
III. Prevention of onset disease
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only
300. According to the preventive model, which of the following is/are function/s of secondary level of prevention?
I. Help adjustment to terminal conditions
II. Minimization of the severity of an existing disease
III. Reversal of progress of an existing disease
IV. Education
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I only