IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE

(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)

1. FEE DETAILS AND IMPORTANT DATES:
Online submission of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31
01.03.2020 - 31.03.2020
March, 2020)
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit
01.03.2020 - 31.03.2020
Card/Net-Banking/UPI upto 11:50 pm on 31 March, 2020
General/Unreserved, Other Backward
Classes (OBC)-(NCL)* & UPS**/ Rs. 1100 /-
Fee Payable by EWS***
candidates SC/ST/PwD/ Transgender Rs. 550/-

Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate, as applicable

Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only
25.04.2020 - 02.05.2020
(No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website 08.05.2020

Date of Examination 01.06.2020

Duration of Examination 120 minutes (2 hours)

Timing of Examination 2:30 p.m - 4:30 p.m

Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on Admit Card

Display of Attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer
To be announced later
Keys
Websites www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in

Declaration of Result on NTA website 15.06.2020

To be announced by the ICAR on
Schedule for Online Counselling www.icar.org.in after the declaration of
result
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the
Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019,
04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

2. Candidates can apply for AIEEA (PG) 2020 “Online” on the website https://icar.nta.nic.in.
3. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted, in any case.
4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.
5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website
www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in . Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily
disqualified.
6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form
are their own as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on e-mail address or
SMS on given Mobile Number only.
7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form :
  Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read them carefully to ensure your
eligibility.
 Follow the 4 steps given below to Apply Online:
 Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
 Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No.
 Step-3: Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb) , Candidate’s
Signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb) and Thumb impression (file size: 3kb-30kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
 Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC/ICICI/Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit
Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after
payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s
account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is
not generated.
 All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.
8. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and check their e-mails/SMS regularly for
latest updates.
9. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date and shift indicated on
their Admit Card issued by NTA.
10. Any request to change the Examination Centre, Date , Shift and Subject provided on the Admit Card
will not be considered under any circumstances.
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 and Step 4 are not complete. Such
forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
3. The entire application process of AIEEA (PG) 2020 is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees,
and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including
Confirmation Page to NTA/ICARthrough Post/ Fax/E-mail/ by Hand.

Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/ Geometry/ Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/
Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/
Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with
facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.
Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/ orange) and
transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like
chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.

DISCLAIMER

1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions regarding filling of
Online Application Form given on AIEEA (PG) 2020 website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in before starting
online registration.
2. Candidate should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.
3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, contact/ address details, category, PwD status,
educational qualification details, date of birth, etc during online registration for AIEEA (PG) 2020 will be treated as
correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any request for change in information provided
by the candidates.
4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the candidate(s)
during online registration process.
5. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of application form
under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore,
candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in application form.

Usage of Data and Information:

NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and
development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s).
 INDEX
S. Description Page
No. No.

Important Information at a Glance

1 Introduction 1-2
1.1 About NTA
1.2 About ICAR
1.3 AIEEA (PG) 2020
2 General Information 3-8
2.1 Major Subject Groups and Sub-Subjects for Degree Programmes
2.2 University-wise and Sub-subject-wise Number of Seats Available for Admission
2.3 Schedule of Examination
2.4 Scheme of Examination
2.5 Syllabus for the Test
2.6 Subject
2.7 Conditions for the award of National Talent Scholarship (NTS)-2020
2.8 Reservation Policy
2.9 Cities for AIEEA (PG) 2020 Examination Centres
3 Eligibility Criteria and Qualifications 9-19
3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (PG) 2020
3.2 Subjectwise Qualifications for Admissions
3.3 Age Limit
4 Registration and Application Process 20-24
4.1 Applying online and submission of Application form
4.2 Replica of Application Form
4.3 Four steps to complete the Application Process
4.4 Application Fee
4.5 Mode and Method of Payment of Fee
4.6 Instructions to be followed while applying
4.7 Admit Card for AIEEA (PG) 2020
4.8 Examination Centre
5 Conduct of the Examination 25-28
5.1 Important Instructions for Candidates
5.2 Provision for PwD Candidates
5.3 Prohibited Materials
5.4 Code of Conduct for the Candidates
6 Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT) 29-31

7 Procedure of Declaration of Result 32-33

7.1 Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys for Challenges
7.2 Declaration of Result
7.3 Scoring Related Exception Handling
7.4 Percentile and Normalization procedure
7.5 No Re-checking or Re-evaluation Policy
8 Counselling 34
9 Correspondence with NTA 35
10 Query Redressal System 36
11 Test Practice Centres (TPCS) 37
12 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres 38
13 Legal Jurisdiction 39
 ANNEXURES
I LIST OF EXAMINATION CITY CENTRES 40-41
II DOMICILE STATE/U.T. CODES 42
III MAJOR SUBJECT GROUPS AND SUB-SUBJECTS PG ADMISSION THROUGH AIEEA (PG) 43-46
2020

IV STREAM IN GRADUATION DEGREE 47

V-A LIST OF GRADUATION COLLEGE/FACULTY CODE/GRADUATION DURATION CODE 48
V-B LIST OF PRIVATE AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITIES/COLLEGES (ACCREDITED BY ICAR) 49
WHOSE CANDIDATES PASSED OUT IN INDICATED BACHELOR DEGREE PROGRAMMES
ARE ELIGIBLE FOR APPEARING IN AIEEA (PG)-2020
VI LIST OF MASTER’S DEGREE PROGRAMMES AND COLLEGES OF DR. RPCAU, PUSA 50
ACCREDITED BY ICAR
VII PROCESSING CHARGES & GOODS AND SERVICE TAXES (GST) AND PROCEDURE FOR 51-52
PAYMENT OF FEE
VIII COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES 53
IX REPLICA OF AIEEA (PG) 2020 APPLICATION FORM 54-64
X PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES FOR MULTI 65-67
SESSION PAPERS- NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE
XI COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 68-72
XII NTA: TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCS) 73-82
XIII CERTIFICATE FOR THE CANDIDATES UNDER PERSONS WITH DISABILITY CATEGORY (PwD) 83
XIV CERTIFICATE REGARDING PHYSICAL LIMITATION IN AN EXAMINEE TO WRITE 84
XV LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE 85
XVI UNIVERSITY FROM WHERE GRADUATED, SUBJECT STREAM, FACULTY AND DURATION 86-87
XVII INDICATIVE AND TENTATIVE LIST *OF UNIVERSITIES FOR ADMISSION (BASED ON 88-89
LAST YEAR) IN MASTER DEGREE PROGRAMMES IN AGRICULTURE AND ALLIED
SCIENCE SUBJECTS THROUGH AIEEA (PG)-2020 ALONG WITH CONTACT DETAILS OF
REGISTRARS
XVIII CASTE CERTIFICATE FOR SCHEDULED CASTE / TRIBE CANDIDATE 90
XIX CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES-NON CREAMY LAYER 91-92
(OBC-NCL)
XX CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTION (EWS) 93
XXI SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE/DECLARATION BY THE EMPLOYER OF THE CANDIDATE (FOR 94
IN-SERVICE CANDIDATES)
XXII EMPLOYMENT STATUS OF IN-SERVICE CANDIDATES 95
Abbreviations:

AU Agricultural Universities
AMU Aligarh Muslim University
BHU Banaras Hindu University
CAU Central Agricultural University
CIFE Central Institute of Fisheries Education
CU Central University
DARE Department of Agricultural Research and Education
Dr. RPCAU Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University
DU Deemed University
EWS Economically Weaker Section
IARI Indian Agricultural Research Institute
ICAR Indian Council of Agricultural Research
IVRI Indian Veterinary Research Institute
JRF Junior Research Fellowship
NAEAB National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board
NARES National Agricultural Research and Education System
NDRI National Dairy Research Institute
OGPA Overall Grade Point Average
PwD Persons with Disability
RLB CAU Rani Lakshmibai Central Agricultural University
SAU State Agricultural University
SHUATS Sam Higginbottom University of Agriculture, Technology, and Sciences
SRF Senior Research Fellowship
PG Postgraduate
UG Undergraduate
 Chapter-1
INTRODUCTION

1.1 About NTA

The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India (GOI) has established
National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing
organization under Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher
education institutions.

The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:

i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the
competency of candidates for admission.
ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps in the
knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All
India Competitive Examinations for admission to Bachelor UG, Masters PG & Ph.D Courses in
Agricultural Universities (AUs) and award of scholarships & fellowships, to the NTA from 2019 onwards.

1.2 About ICAR

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and
managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry
of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the
University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan recommended the
establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University
was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States.

The ICAR-AU system of India has 74 Agricultural Universites comprising 63 State Agricultural, Veterinary,
Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central
Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CUs)
having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National
Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System (NAREES) of India is one of the largest in the
world, admitting more than 27,000 graduates, 14,000 post-graduates and 4,700 Ph.Ds annually, in
different disciplines of Agriculture and Allied Sciences.

During 2019-20, against the total of 3075 Seats, 2586 candidates were recommended by ICAR for
admission to accredited Master degree programmes in 64 accredited AUs under the ICAR-AU system.

1.3 AIEEA (PG) 2020

Students for 25% seats in Master degree programmes in AUs are admitted through AIEEA (PG). All (100%)
seats of the four ICAR-DUs namely, Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), Indian Veterinary Research

1
Institute (IVRI), National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) and Central Institute of Fisheries Education (CIFE)
are also filled up through the same examination.

ICAR AIEEA (PG)-2020 examination for the academic session 2020-21 will be conducted at 88 cities
(Annexure-I) all over the country enabling participation of a large number of candidates seeking
admission in Master degree programmes in AUs in different disciplines of Agriculture, Horticulture,
Forestry, Veterinary, Animal Sciences, Agricultural Engineering, Community Science (erstwhile Home
Science), Fisheries, Dairy Science and other allied sciences. For postgraduate studies, ICAR-PG
Scholarship, shall be awarded to 600 candidates based on merit in this examination as per their overall
merit-rank and seat availability in different disciplines. The remaining admitted students will be awarded
NTS (PGS).

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be
considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University There is no p r o v i s i o n o f direct
nomination for admission through ICAR in any Master degree programme without qualifying
in ICAR AIEEA (PG).

2
 Chapter-2
GENERAL INFORMATION

2.1 Major Subject Groups and Sub-Subjects for Degree Programmes

Master degrees are awarded by Agricultural Universities in about 96 sub-subjects under 20 major
subject-groups (Annexure-III). Candidates should select one Major Subject Group among the subjects given
in for appearing in the Entrance Examination, based on the compatibility with their own subject area at
graduation (UG) level Annexure-IV. The sub- subject choices, within the Major Subject-Group in which the
candidate qualifies the entrance examination, will be available at the time of online counseling.

2.2 University-Wise and Sub Subject–Wise Number of Seats Available for Admission

The numbers of ICAR seats and ICAR PG Scholarship/NTS (PG) in various subjects/Sub-subjects for the
Academic Session 2020–21 will be displayed on ICAR website www.icar.org.in at the time of counselling.

2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (PG) 2020

Schedule for important examination related activities has been given below. However, candidates are
requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through NTA and ICAR websites www.nta.c.in,
https://icar.nta.nic.in and www.icar.org.in.

Schedule of AIEEA (PG) 2020

Online submission of Application Form (upto 05:00 pm of 31 March, 2020) 01.03.2020-31.03.2020
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI
01.03.2020-31.03.2020
upto 11:50 pm of 31 March, 2020
Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only
25.04.2020-02.05.2020
(No corrections shall be allowed after 02.05.2020)
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website 08.05.2020
Dates of Examination 01.06.2020
Duration of Examination 120 minutes (2 hours)
Timing of Examination 2:30 p.m -4:30 p.m
Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on Admit Card
Display of Attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer Keys To be announced later
www.nta.ac.in,
Websites
https://icar.nta.nic.in
Declaration of Result on NTA website 15.06.2020
To be announced by the ICAR on
Schedule for Online Counselling icar.org.in after the declaration of
result

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the
Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019,
04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

3
2.4 Scheme of Examination
The test of AIEEA (PG) 2020 has a single paper of 2 hours duration. Details of the test are given below:
Mode of Examination LAN Based CBT (Computer Based Test)

Duration 120 minutes (2 hours)

Number of Questions 120

Type of Questions Multiple Choice Questions

Scoring  4 marks for each correct response

 -1 mark fo each incorrect response (negative
scoring)
 0 for non-attempt
Medium of Paper English only

2.5 Syllabus for the Test

The Question Papers for the test shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by the ICAR, which is
available at the website www.icar.org.in

2.6 Subjects
Candidates must ensure their subject or discipline-specific criteria before selecting subject or
discipline for admission as given under section 3.2.

2.7 Conditions for the award of ICAR-PG Scholarship and National Talent Scholarship (PG)-2020

 ICAR-PG Scholarship will be awarded to meritorious candidates seeking admission in the

Agricultural Universities where Master degree programme consists of course and research work.
Candidates already pursuing Master degree programme can also apply for fresh admission and
compete for ICAR- PG Scholarship provided they have not completed one year of their Master
degree programme on the date of examination.

 The ICAR- PG Scholarship would be awarded for two years from the date of registration in the
Master degree programme. For graduates with 10+2+3, if admitted in IARI and NDRI and awarded
ICAR- PG Scholarship, no fellowship would be payable during the first year of their degree program,
i.e. while completing remedial courses in the first year. No extension in ICAR- PG Scholarship
duration beyond 2 years will be granted. In case the fellowship allotted to a candidate is vacated
for any reason, the same will not be allotted/transferred to any other candidate even if there are
candidates next to him/her in the merit in same or other subject group. ICAR- PG Scholarship
awardees of last year(s), even if in merit, will not be awarded ICAR-PG Scholarship again; however,
admission would be granted to them as per their merit rank.

 Further, if ICAR- PG Scholarship holder seeks fresh admission, entire amount of scholarship
received by him/her shall have to be refunded back to the university with Interest. The scholarship
will be at the rate of Rs. 12,640/- per month together with a contingent grant of Rs. 6,000/- per
year for procurement of essential chemicals, equipments, books and travel connected with the

4
 research work. Not more than 50% of the contingent grant will be spent for purchase of books. All
purchases are to be made with the approval of the Major Advisor/Chairman of Student Advisory
Committee.

 All candidates who have been awarded ICAR-PG Scholarship have to execute a surety Bond of
appropriate amount as per University rules and regulations at the time of registration in the
University. The AU will ensure that if the candidate leaves before completion of the programme,
he /she refunds the scholarship amount drawn by him /her to the Council.

 To get ICAR- PG Scholarship, the candidate must pursue Master’s degree from an AU in a state
different from the one where the AU of his/her Bachelor’s degree is located, i.e. AUs of Bachelor’s
degree and Master Degree should be located in different states. This condition, however, shall
not apply for admission to NDRI, Karnal where admissions to 100% seats of Bachelor’s degree
programme are made on the basis of All India Entrance Examination conducted by ICAR). The
candidates passed out from IVRI, Bareilly shall also be exempted from this condition subject to
fulfilment of other prescribed requirements for the award of ICAR-PG Scholarship.

 The non-PG Scholarship/NTS(PG) candidates shall be eligible to get revised National Talent
Scholarship (NTS) of Rs. 5,000/- per month for two years provided they join Master degree
programme in an AU located in a state different from their state of domicile. For further details,
the candidates may see the Guidelines for NTS (2016) available at
http://www.icar.org.in/files/FINALGuidelines(GNTS)-26072016.pdf/. Even the candidates who do
not want to avail NTS (PG) have to mandatorily seek admission in an AU different from the one
from where they have graduated.

 The award of PG scholarship and NTS (PG) shall be governed by the rules and regulations issued
and as amended by the Council from time to time in this regard. After the admission, under no
circumstances, the request for change of subject and the university will be entertained from the
candidates/parents.

Note:

 5% reservation in PG Scholarship for PwD category will be horizontal across all categories, i.e.
such candidates would draw Scholarship from the GEN/SC/ST category to which they belong. If
the PG Scholarship is not available in a particular category to which the PwD candidate belongs
then the same would be drawn from Gen. category, if available.

 From Academic Session 2017-18, the criteria for PG Scholarship (erstwhile JRF) distribution, based
on total number of seats in each subject, has been changed to average number of aspirants
actually appeared in the AIEEA (PG) in the preceding three years. The number of PG Scholarships
is tentative and may vary depending on the actual number of candidates actually appeared for the
examination in a particular Major Subject. It will finally be known only at the time of counseling.

 There will be no transfer of ICAR-PG Scholarship even if a candidate awarded PG Scholarship at

the time of counseling leaves the degree programme in between for any reason.

 There is no reservation of ICAR- PG Scholarship for candidates of Gen-EWS, OBC (NCL) and UPS
category. They would be entitled for ICAR- PG Scholarship based on overall merit.

5
  PG Scholarship & NTS (PG) shall be awarded only after the completion of Online Counselling.

 The candidates are informed that in accordance with the decision taken during XVI Meeting of
National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 28.03.2016, the admissions
to the Master’s degree programmes of RLBCAU, Jhansi shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (PG).
However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the
candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award
of ICAR-PG Scholarship and NTS (PG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by RLBCAU,
Jhansi from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.

 Similarly, in accordance with the decision taken during XIX Meeting of National Agricultural
Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 20.03.2017, the admissions to the non-accredited
Master’s degree programmes or non-accredited colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa shall be made
through ICAR’s AIEEA (PG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic
Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be
eligible for the award of ICAR-PG Scholarship and NTS (PG). Such candidates may be provided
scholarship by Dr. RPCAU, Pusa from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21. The award
of ICAR-PG Scholarship and NTS (PG) to the candidates recommended for admission to Dr. RPCAU,
Pusa may be considered in future subject to accreditation of such programmes by the Council. The
list of ICAR accredited Master’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa is given at
Annexure-VI.

 However, the students who are already enrolled in non-accredited Master’s degree programmes
in non-accredited colleges and received the letter of award of the PG Scholarship and NTS (PG)
from the ICAR shall continue to avail the same in accordance with the prescribed rules and
regulations of the scholarship issued by the Council in this regard.

 The award of ICAR-PG Scholarship and NTS (PG) to the candidates recommended for admission to
RLBCAU, Jhansi and Dr. RPCAU, Pusa may be considered in future subject to accreditation of the
university, Master’s degree programmes and Colleges by the Council.

2.8 Reservation Policy

A. SC/ST/OBC-(NCL)/EWS/PwD in each Category
(i) There would be reservation of seats as well as ICAR-PG Scholarship to the extent of 15% for
Scheduled Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe candidates in different disciplines. The
reservation of seats among SC/ST categories is interchangeable i.e., if sufficient number of
candidates are not available to fill up the seats as well as PG Scholarship reserved for ST
candidates, these can be filled up from among suitable SC candidates and vice-versa in a
given subject as per merit-rank in examination. The original SC/ ST certificate in prescribed
form (Annexure-XVIII) is required to be produced for verification at the time of admission.
Depending on merit and choice, they can also take seat from the General/Unreserved
Category.
(ii) Reservation for candidates belonging to Central OBC-NCL category would be available at
BHU, SASARD Nagaland University, CAUs, CIFE, IARI, IVRI and NDRI Universities as per the

6
 latest Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling and Hon’ble SC
Judgment dated 18th August, 2011 and communication of seats by these universities at
the time of counseling. Candidates claiming admission under this category have to
produce a Central OBC certificate as per specimen enclosed in Annexure-XIX.
(iii) Reservation of seats for EWS shall be in accordance with the Gazette Notification No. DL-
(N)/04/0007/2003-19, dated 12 January, 2019, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative
Department), Govt. of India or any further related Govt. of India directive(s) applicable
at the time of counseling. The provision shall be applicable only for admission to Central
Educational Institutions and not to SAUs and minority educational institutions, if any,
under the ICAR-AU system. The unfilled seats remaining under Gen-EWS category will be
de-reserved to Unreserved (UR)/OPEN category seats. The certificate format for EWS
candidate is given at Annexure – XX.
(iv) Five percent seats are reserved, horizontally across the categories in different subjects,
for Persons with Disablitiy (PwD) candidates suffering from low vision, hearing impairment,
locomotors disability or cerebral palsy with appropriate medical certificate having at least
40% disability and found suitable by the Counseling Committee/University official. The
candidate applying for admission under this category should submit a copy of the
certificate about being PwD from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board at the time of
admission in allotted University as specimen (Annexure–XIII). The criteria for assessing
the degree of handicap could be variable from one subject to another. The decision of
the University allotted will be final in this regard. If seat is not available in a particular
Category to which the PwD candidate belongs, then the same would be drawn from
General Category/Unreserved Category depending upon the availability.
B RESERVATION FOR REMOTE AND UNDER PRIVILEGED STATES/UT (UPS)
Two percent seats under each discipline would be reserved, horizontally, across categories for
the candidates of the remote and under privileged States/UTs namely (i) Andaman & Nicobar
Island, (ii) Arunachal Pradesh, (iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, (iv) Daman & Diu, (v) Goa, (vi)
Lakshadweep, (vii) Manipur, (viii) Meghalaya, (ix) Mizoram, (x) Nagaland, (xi) Sikkim (xii) Tripura
and (xiii) Ladakh, where educational facilities in agriculture and allied science subjects either do
not exist or have no SAU(s) and who qualify this examination. UPS candidates will have to
produce domicile certificate issued by the competent authority at the time of admission. There
will not be any State quota within this quota.
Note:

1. Candidates need to refer to ICAR website (www.icar.org.in) regarding detail information regarding
reservation of seats and/or allocation of scholarship/fellowships for SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/ PwD/UPS/EWS in
each category.
2. The responsibility for verification of the genuineness of SC/ST/OBC (NCL), PwD and UPS certificate will be
of the concerned AU & ICAR System where the candidate has been granted admission on the basis of
counseling.

2.9 Cities for AIEEA (PG) 2020 Examination Centres

The Centres-Cities where the AIEEA (PG) 2020 will be conducted are given in (Annexure-I). While
applying candidates have to select any four cities of their choice for AIEEA (PG) 2020. The efforts will

7
be made to allot city of examination to the candidates in order of the choice opted by them in their
application form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be
allotted.

 NTA can change/shift the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby
centre, if number of candidates are more at any examination city centre.
 The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.
The decision of the NTA regarding allotment of Centre, Date and Shift shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in such case.

8
 Chapter-3
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS
3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (PG) 2020
i. In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (PG) 2020, an Indian national candidate must ensure that
he/she fulfills the eligibility requirements for the examination as well as admission as detailed
in the Information Bulletin. Applying for AIEEA (PG) 2020, appearing in the examination and
qualifying the same does not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility. The applicant for a
particular Subject must satisfy the eligibility criteria as specified in this Information Bulletin
(or its amendments / corrections).

 No certificates are required to be uploaded along with the online application at the
time of online submission.

 The documents / certificates etc., shall be verified directly at the time of admission
in the admitting university. In case the candidate is found not-eligible at any stage,
his/her candidature would be summarily rejected and admission will be cancelled.

Filling of ICAR quota seats in PG programmes in Agricultural Universities (under the ICAR-AU
system) will be permitted only for the programmes, colleges and Universities accredited by the
ICAR.
ii. Candidate should note that for admission to Master’s degree programmes through entrance
examination conducted by NTA, only the candidates having passed graduation with four/six
(10+6 B.Sc. Ag.)/five years’ (B.V.Sc. & AH) degree programme from any public funded/Govt.
institution will be eligible. Candidates passed out from private Agricultural
Universities/Colleges not accredited by ICAR, even though affiliated to public funded/Govt.
are not eligible for admission through this examination. Only those candidates from Private
Agricultural Universities/Colleges (accredited by ICAR) are eligible to appear in the
examination who have completed their degree in programmes accredited by ICAR. Further,
in case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an
Agricultural University or any particular college/university has been derecognized by
VCI/UGC or due to any Court directives (present or future), ICAR will not be responsible for
admitting students of that college/university in the Universities not willing to admit such
candidates. The list of private Agricultural Universities/Colleges accredited by ICAR whose
candidates are eligible to appear in the AIEEA (PG)-2020 examination is given at Annexure-
V-B. The candidates having Bachelor’s degree with 3 years’ duration will not be considered
for admission through ICAR AIEEA (PG) 2020 in AUs under ICAR-AU system except in few
courses at two ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI and NDRI for which the eligibility criteria of the concerned
ICAR-DU, including admission of graduates having passed with 3 years’ degree, would prevail
for admission.
iii. The Candidate must have passed Bachelor degree examination securing Overall Grade Point
Average (OGPA) of at least 6.60/10.00 in ten-point scale, 3.25/5.00 in five-point scale,
2.60/4.00 in four-point scale for General, OBC, UPS and EWS categories whereas for

9
 SC/ST/Person with Disability (PwD) candidates, the said requirement is an OGPA of at least
5.60/10.00, 2.75/5.00, 2.20/4.40, respectively. In other cases, where grade points are not
awarded and only marks are awarded, the candidate must have secured at least 60% marks
for General, OBC, UPS and EWS categories whereas for SC/ST/PwD categories the
requirement is 50% marks. (Please note that equivalence between OGPA and % marks will
not be acceptable). There will be no rounding-off of the OGPA/percentage of marks of
qualifying examination while deciding the basic eligibility of any candidate for admission e.g.
if a candidate obtained 49.99% marks in his/her qualifying examination, then it will not be
rounded-off to 50%.
iv. For admission in M.V.Sc., candidates must have completed B.V.Sc. & A.H. with internship
before the date of admission in the allotted university.
v. The candidates must complete the graduate degree in all respects and should have all the
degree-completion requirements at the time of Counseling/admission in the university failing
which they will not be considered for admission and the award of scholarship. Please note
that ICAR/University will NOT be held responsible for denial of admission to non-eligible
candidates.

Candidates reporting for the admission in the allotted university must have final year/final
semester result in hand clearly indicating final OGPA/CGPA or final percentage of marks
where grade points are not awarded. Candidates will be required to produce
Provisional/Degree certificate of qualifying graduate examination issued by the university for
this purpose.The candidates who do not have the PDC/Degree certificate, have to
mandatorily produce a certificate from the Registrar of the concerned university specifically
indicating that the candidate has fulfilled all the requirements for the award of Bachelor
degree. His/her Final OGPA/Percentage of marks at the end of final semester/year along
with likely date of issuance of PDC/Degree must be mentioned. The candidates should note
that the university may deny admission in case the PDC is not produced at the time of
admission at the university. No correspondence shall be entertained by the Council in this
regard.

3.2 Instructions for in-service candidates

1. The in-service candidates will qualify for admission only if they come in the overall merit list of
their concerned Subject and produce the Sponsorship Certificate/Declaration by their employer
(Annexure-XXI) for verification at the time of counselling.
2. The in-service candidates must be working in ICAR Institutes, ICAR-DUs, SAUs, CAUs, CUs having
faculty of agriculture, Central Government/State Government Departments dealing in
Agriculture and Allied Sectors and Public Sector Undertakings dealing with Agriculture and Allied
Sectors (Annexure-XXII).
3. The in-service candidates qualifying for admission will arrange for study leave/leave of the kind
due from their respective organizations themselves and ICAR will not intervene in this regard.
4. In-service candidates must retain the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page of the
application along with Sponsorship Certificate, in original, for showing to the university officials
in the event of their qualifying the examination and recommendation for admission to the
concerned university.

10
5. In no case, the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page of the application and
Sponsorship Certificate (Declaration by the employer) should be sent by the candidate either to
NTA or ICAR.
6. The counselling of in-service candidates seeking admission on seats reserved for the purpose at
ICAR-DUs (ICAR-IARI, ICAR-IVRI, ICAR-NDRI and ICAR-CIFE) will be done at respective ICAR-DU
level only. Such candidates are, therefore advised to remain in touch with the respective ICAR-
DU’s website for further details such as no. of seats, eligibility requirements, counselling schedule, etc.
3.2 Eligibility Qualifications for Admission to different Subjects
Candidates must ensure their subject or discipline specific criteria before selecting subject or
discipline for admission.

Subject/ Eligibility Qualifications for Alternate Eligibility Applicable at

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc. (4/5/6 Qualifications for
years Bachelors’ degree in) (1) IARI, (2) IVRI, (3) NDRI & (4)
CIFE
01-PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY

1.1 Plant Bio- B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 yrs. system) IARI
Chemistry/ Horticulture.
Bio. Chem.

1.2 Plant B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry/ Seri./ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Biotech & Biotechnology or B.Sc. (Hons.)
Molecular Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry/
Biology/ Sericulture/ Biotechnology.
Biotech.

1.3 Plant/ B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Crop Horticulture.
Physiology

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for Alternate Eligibility Applicable at

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Bachelors’ degree in) Qualification for
(1) IARI, (2) IVRI, (3)
NDRI &(4) CIFE

02- PLANT SCIENCES

2.1 Plant Breeding B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
and Genetics Horticulture/Forestry.
2.2 Plant Pathology B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Horticulture/Forestry.
2.3 Agricultural B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Microbiology/ Horticulture.
Microbiol.
2.4 Seed Science & B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Technology Horticulture/Forestry.
2.5 Plant Genetic B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
resources Horticulture/Forestry.

11
 03- PHYSICAL SCIENCE

3.1 Agricultural B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) - -

/Agro. Meteorology Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry.
3.2 (a) Soil Science & B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Agril. Chemistry Horticulture .

(b) Soil B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ - -

Conservation & Horticulture/Forestry.
Water Mgmt./
SWC
(c) Irrigation & B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ - -
WaterMgmt. Horticulture.

3.3 Agril. Physics B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Horticulture.
3.4 Agril. Chemicals B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Horticulture/Forestry.

3.5 Environmental B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Science Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry.

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for Alternate Eligibility Applicable at

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Bachelors’ degree in) Qualification for
(1) IARI, (2) IVRI, (3)
NDRI &(4) CIFE

4-ENTOMOLOGY AND NEMATOLOGY

4.1 Agricultural B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horti./ Forestry/ Sericulture or B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
/Horticultural B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horti./Forestry/
Entomology
4.2 Nematology Sericulture. T
B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horticulture / Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) B.Sc. (10+ 2+3 system) IARI
Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry.
4.3 Apiculture B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horticulture / Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) - -
Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry.
4.4 Sericulture B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horti./ Forestry/ Sericulture or B.Sc. - -
(Hons.) Agriculture/ Horti./Forestry/ Sericulture.
4.5 Plant Protection B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horti./ Forestry/ Sericulture or B.Sc. - -
(Hons.) Agriculture/ Horti./Forestry/ Sericulture.
5-AGRONOMY

5.1 Agronomy B.Sc. Ag. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture. B.Sc. (Ag.)/ B.Sc. (Ag.) NDRI
Hons/ B.Sc. (Ag. & AH)
5.2 Tea Husbandry & B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture - -
Technology / Horti./Forestry.

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for Alternate Eligibility Applicabl

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Bachelors’ Qualification for (1) IARI, (2) IVRI, e at
degree in) (3) NDRI & (4) CIFE
06-SOCIAL SCIENCES
6.1 Agricultural B.Sc. Ag./ Horticulture/ Agril. Marketing B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ IARI
Economics and Co-operation/Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) B. Tech.(DT)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc.
Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Agril. Marketing (Animal Sciences) /B.F.Sc.
and Co-operation/Forestry.

12
 6.2 Dairy Economics B.Sc. (Dairy Tech.)/ B.Tech. Dairy B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B. NDRI
Engg./ B.V.Sc. & A.H. Tech.(DT)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc.
(Animal Sciences)
/B.Sc. (Ag.)/B.Sc. Home Science./
B.Sc.(Agri./Horti./Ag. Marketing &
Co-operation)
6.3 Agri. Exten./ Extn. B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry/ B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B.
Education/ Sericulture/ B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Tech.(DT)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc. IARI
Communication Horticulture/ Forestry/ Sericulture. (Animal Sciences) /B.F.Sc.

6.4 Dairy Extension B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH)/ B. Tech. B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying NDRI
Education (DT) /B.V.Sc. & A.H. (DT/DH)/ B.Tech. (DT)/ B.V.Sc. &
AH/ B.Sc. (Animal Sciences)/ B.Sc.
(Ag.) / B.Sc. (Ag. & AH)/ B.Sc.(Ag.)
Honors/ B.Sc. Home Science (with
elective Extension Education).
07- STATISTICAL SCIENCES

7.1 Agricultural B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horti. /Forestry/ B.Sc. (10+2+3 system) IARI
Statistics Sericulture/ Agricultural Marketing &
Coop./B.F.Sc./ Veterinary Sciences/
B.Tech. in Agril. Engg. or B.Sc. (Hons.)
Agriculture/ Horti. /Forestry/
Sericulture/ Agricultural Marketing &
Coop./ B.F.Sc./ Veterinary Sciences/
B.Tech. in Agril. Engg.
7.2 Computer B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horti. /Forestry/ B.Sc. (10+2+3 system) IARI
Application Sericulture/ Agricultural Marketing &
Coop./ Veterinary Sciences/ B.Tech. in
Agril. Engg. or B.Sc. (Hons.) in Agriculture/
Horti./Forestry/ Seri./ Agril. Mktg. &
Coop./ Veterinary Sciences/ B.Tech. in
Agril. Engg.
7.3 Bioinformatics B.Sc. Agril./Horticulture/Forestry B.Sc. (10+2+3 system) IARI
/B.F.Sc. /B.Sc. (Hons.)
Agric./Horticulture/Forestry
/B.F.Sc./B.Sc. Agril. Engg / B. Tech. Agril.
Engg.

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for Alternate Eligibility Applicable

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Bachelors’ Qualification for at
degree in) (1) IARI, (2) IVRI,(3)
NDRI & (4) CIFE

08- HORTICULTURE
8.1 Horticulture B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
(Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.
8.2 Vegetable Crops or Sci./ B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
Olericulture (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.
8.3 Pomology/Fruit Sc., Fruit Sci. B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
& Hort. Technology (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.
8.4 Post-Harvest Technology of B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
Horticultural Crops (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.

13
 8.5 Floriculture and Landscaping B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
Architecture (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.
8.6 Plantation Spices, Medicinal B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. -
& Aromatic Crops (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture. -
09-FORESTRY/ AGROFORESTRY AND SILVICULTURE

9.1 Forest Production & B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

Utilization
9.2 Silviculture & Agroforestry B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

9.3 Tree Physiology and B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

Breeding
9.4 Agroforestry B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

9.5 Forest NRM/ Forest Mgmt. B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -
& Utilization
9.6 Plantation Technology B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

9.7 Wildlife Sci. (Forestry) B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

9.8 Wood Science B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry. - -

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for Alternate Eligibility Applicable

Discipline SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Qualification for at
Bachelors’ degree in) (1) IARI, (2) IVRI, (3)
NDRI &(4) CIFE

10- AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY

10.1 Soil and Water Cons Engg./Soil & B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ - -
Water Engg. Mechanical/Civil/Elect./ Electronics.

10.2 Irrigation and Drainage Engg./ B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ - -

Irri. Water Mgmt. Engg. Mechanical/Civil/Elect./ Electronics.
10.3 Post-Harvest Technology/Processing B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Agric. & Food - -
& Food Engg. Engg./ Mechanical/Civil/Elect./
Electronics/ Food Engg./ Process and
Food Engg./Chemical Engg.

10.4 Farm Machinery and Power Engg. B. Tech. Agril. Engg./ - -

Mechanical/Civil/Elect./ Electronics/
Production Engg.

10.5 Renewable Energy Engg. B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Agric. & Food - -
Engg./ Mechanical/Civil/Elect./
Electronics/ Production Engg./ Food
Engg./ Process and Food Engg.

11- WATER SCIENCE &TECHNOLOGY

11.1 Water Science & Technology B.Sc. (Agriculture)/ Horticulture or B.Sc. - -
(Hons.) (Agriculture)/Horticulture/ B.
Tech. (Agri. Engg.).

14
 12- HOME SCIENCE (CURRENTLY RENAMED AS COMMUNITY SCIENCE)

12.1 Food & Nutrition B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science - -

or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community
Science/Home Science.

12.2 Human Development and B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science - -

Family Studies or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community
Science/Home Science.

12.3 Home Management/Family B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science - -

Resource Management or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community
Science/Home Science.

12.4 Clothing and Textile/ Textile & B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science - -
Apparel Designing or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community
Science/Home Science.
12.5 Home Science Extn./Edn.,/ Extn. B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science - -
& Comm. Mgmt. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community
Science/Home Science.

Subject/ Eligibility Alternate Eligibility Qualification for Applicable

Discipline Qualification for (1) IARI, (2) IVRI, (3) NDRI & (4) CIFE at
SAUs/ CAUs etc.
(4/5/6 years
Bachelors’ degree
in)
13-ANIMAL BIOTECHNOLOGY
13.1 Animal B.V.Sc. & A.H. B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH) /BE/ B.Tech. NDRI
Biotechnology (Biotechnology)/ B.Tech. in (Chemical Engg./Biochemical
Engg./Food Tech./ Fermentation Tech.)/ B.V.Sc. & AH /B.
Pharma/ Biotechnology/ B.Sc.(10+2+3 system).

13.2 B.V.Sc. & A.H. B.Sc. Biochemistry/ B.Sc.(Hons) Biochemistry/ Biotechnology/ NDRI
Veterinary/ Biomedical Sci./ B.V.Sc. & A.H./ B.Sc.(10+2+3 system). B.
Animal Tech./ B.E. in Biotech. /Dairy Tech./ Food Tech.
Biochemistry

Subject/ Discipline Eligibility Alternate Eligibility Applicable at

Qualification for Qualification for (1)
SAUs/CAUs etc.(4/5/6 IARI, (2) IVRI, (3) NDRI
years Bachelors’ degree &(4) CIFE
in)
14-VETERINARY SCIENCE
14.1 Veterinary Anatomy / Veterinary Anatomy & B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Histology
14.2 Vety. Gynecology and Obst./ Ani. B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Reproduction
14.3 Vety. Medicine (Clinical/ Preventive) B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.4 Vety. Parasitology B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.5 Vety. Pharmacology and Toxicology B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -

15
14.6 Vety. Pathology B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.7 Wildlife Sci./ Wildlife Health Mgt. B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.8 Vety. Virology - B.V.Sc. & A.H. IVRI
14.9 Vety. Immunology - B.V.Sc. & A.H. IVRI
14.10 Vety. Microbi. & Immunology/ Bacteriology B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.11 Vety. Surgery & Radiology B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
14.12 Vety. Public Health & Epidemiology/ Vety. B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Public Health/ Vety. Epidemiology/ Vety.
Epidemiology & Preventive Medicine

15-ANIMAL SCIENCES

15.1 Animal Husbandry/ Dairy Sci. B.Sc. Ag./B.Sc.(Hons.) - -

Agric./B.Sc. (Dairying)
/B.Sc. (Dairy
15.2 Animal Genetics and Breeding Tech.)/B.V.Sc.
B.V.Sc. & A.H. & A.H. B.V.Sc.&AH/ B.Sc. NDRI
Dairying/ B.Sc.
(Dairying & AH)/ B.Sc.
(Anim. Sci.)/ B.Sc. (Ag.
& AH)/B.Sc.
(Genetics)/B.Sc.
(Biotech.)/B.Sc.
(10+2+3 system).

Subject/ Eligibility ).
Alternate Eligibility Qualification for (1) IARI, Applica
Discipline Qualification for (2) IVRI, (3) NDRI &(4) CIFE ble at
SAUs/CAUs etc.
(4/5/6 years
Bachelors’ degree in)
15.3 Animal B.V.Sc. & A.H. B.V.Sc. & AH/B.Sc. (Ag. & AH) / B.Sc. (10+2+3 NDRI
Nutrition system).

15.4 Vety./Anim. B.V.Sc. & A.H. B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DH)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/ NDRI
Physiology B.Sc. (Anim. Sci.)
15.5 Livestock B.V.Sc. & A.H. B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. (Animal NDRI
Production Mgmt. Sciences)/ B.Sc. (Ag. & AH).
15.6 Livestock B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Products Technology
15.7 Poultry Science B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
15.8 Vety. & Animal B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Husbandry Extension
15.9 Livestock/ B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
Veterinary/Animal
Husbandry Economics
15.10 Bio- Statistics B.V.Sc. & A.H. - -
16-FISHERIES SCIENCE

16.1 Fisheries B.F.Sc. - -

Sciences/ Fish Env.
16.2
Mgmt.Fisheries Resour. B.F.Sc. - -
Mgmt.
16.3 Aquaculture B.F.Sc. - -
16.4 Fish Processing B.F.Sc. - -
Technol./ Fish PHT

16
 16.5 Fish Physiol. & B.F.Sc. - -
Biochem.
16.6 Aquatic B.F.Sc. - -
Animal Health
16.7
Mgmt. Fisheries B.F.Sc. - -
Extension
16.8 Aquatic Env. B.F.Sc. - -
Mgmt.
16.9 Fish Genetics/ B.F.Sc. - -
Breeding/
16.10 Fish Nutrition
Biotechnology B.F.Sc. - -
and Feed Tech.
16.11 Fish. B.F.Sc. - -
Economics
16.12 Fish Engg. & B.F.Sc. - -
Technology

Subject/ Discipline Eligibility Alternate Eligibility Qualification for (1) Applicable

Qualification for IARI, (2) IVRI, (3) NDRI &(4) CIFE at
SAUs/CAUs etc. (4/5/6
years Bachelors’ degree
in)

17- DAIRY SCIENCE

17.1 Dairy Microbiology B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH)/B.Sc. B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (Dairy Technol.)/ B. NDRI
(DT)/B.Tech.(DT) Tech (Dairy Technol. /Biotech.)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/
B.Sc.(Hons) Microbiology/ B.Sc. Food Tech., Food
Sci./ Biotechnol./ Food Sci. and Technol./Industrial
Microbiology/ Medical Microbiology/ Microbial &
Food Technology/B.Sc. with Microbiology /Industrial
Microbiology. B.Sc.(10+2+3 system).

17.2 Dairy Chemistry B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH)/B.Sc. B.Sc. Dairying/B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/B. Tech. (DT)/B. NDRI
(DT)/B.Tech.(DT) Tech./B.Sc.(Food Technology/Food Sci./Food Sci. &
Technol.)/Food Technol. Mgmt./ B.V.Sc. & A.H/ B.Sc.
Hons. (Chemistry). B.Sc.(10+2+3 system).

18-DAIRY TECHNOLOGY
18.1 Dairy Technology B.Sc. Dairying/B.Tech. Dairy B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B.Tech. NDRI
Technology. (DT)/B.Sc. Food Tech. / B.Tech. Food Tech. (4
years degree)/B.Sc. (Microbial & Food Tech.) - 4
years degree.
18.2 Dairy Engineering B.E./B.Tech. (Dairy B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B.Tech. NDRI
Engineering). (DT)/B.Sc. Food Tech. / B.Tech. Food Tech. (4
B.Tech (DT) years degree)/ B.Tech. Agril. Engg./B.Sc.
(Microbial & Food Tech.) - 4 years degree.

19-FOOD SCIENCE TECHNOLOGY (M. Sc. Degree will be awarded but M.Tech. Degree at AAU, Anand)

17
 19.1 Food B.Sc. Agric./ Horti./ B.Sc. B.Tech./BE (Food Technology), B.Tech. (Dairy -
Technology/Food (Hons.) Agriculture/ Technology), B.Sc. (Food Science/Food Science &
Processing Horticulture,/ Food Sci. Technology), B.Tech. (Food Technology &
Technology/Food & Technol./ B.E. (Agril.)/ Management), B.Sc. (Agriculture), B.V.Sc. & AH.-
Science & B. Tech. (Agrl. Engg.)/ B.
Technology/Food Tech. (Food Technology)
Process Engineering
(M.Tech. at AAU Anand)
Highlighted is AAU
19.1 Food
Technology/Food
Science & Technology

19.2 Food Safety & B. Tech. Dairy Technol./or Food Technol./Food NDRI
Quality Assurance Technol. & Mgmt. B.Sc. Food Sci./ Home Sci./
Food Microbiol./Industrial Microbiol./Medical
Microbiol./B.Sc. (10+2+3 system). B.Sc. Ag. /
Horti. / B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/
B.V.Sc. & AH.

Subject/ Eligibility Qualification for SAUs/ CAUs etc.(4/5/6 years Alternate Applica
Discipline Bachelors’ degree in) Eligibility ble at
Qualification
for (1) IARI,
(2) IVRI, (3)
NDRI &(4) CIFE
20- AGRI BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
20.1. Agri Business B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry/ Seri./ B.Sc. (Hons.) - -
Mgmt.(MBA) Agriculture/Horti./ Agril. Marketing, & Co-operation/
Sericulture/ Commercial Agriculture Buss. Mgmt./ Forestry/
B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Vety. Sci./ Dairy Sci./Fishery Sci./Food
Sci. & Technology/ B. Tech. Biotechnology.
20.2. Agril. Marketing B.Sc. Agril. Marketing and Co-operation - -
and Co-operation /Agriculture/Horticulture/Agriculture Engg./Sericulture
(M.Sc.) /Commercial Agriculture/Business Management/
orestry/Veterinary Science.

NOTE:
1. Candidate must fulfill the eligibility conditions as indicated above. They are generally eligible for pursuing Master
Degree in the subject in which they have passed their graduation.
2. For admission in Master degree courses under ICAR-AU system, candidate must have four years Bachelor
degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Fisheries Science, Home Science etc., after 10+2 or equivalent or
10+6 examination. Candidate should also note that for admission to Master’s degree programmes through
entrance examination conducted by ICAR, only the candidates having passed graduation with four years’ degree
programme from any /public funded/Govt. institution will be eligible. Candidates passed out from private
Agricultural Universities/Colleges not accredited by ICAR, even though affiliated to public funded/Govt. institutions
are not eligible for admission through this examination. Only those candidates from Private Agricultural
Universities/Colleges (accredited by ICAR) are eligible to appear in the examination who have completed their
degree in programmes accredited by ICAR. The candidates having passed Bachelor’s degree with 3 years’ duration
will not be considered for admission through AIEEA (PG) 2019 in accredited AUs under ICAR-AU system except in
few courses at two ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, NDRI, for which the eligibility criteria of the concerned ICAR-DU, including
admission of graduates having passed with 3 years’ degree, would prevail for admission. Master degree programm e
for graduates from non-agricultural stream would be of three years duration, the first year of which will be
exclusively for remedial courses introductory agriculture and orientation programmes.

18
 3. Though four/five (B.V.Sc.&A.H.)/six (10+6) years Bachelor degree is a compulsory requirement for admission to
Master degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/Veterinary sciences but IARI Pusa and NDRI Karnal may admit three -
years B.Sc. degree holders in certain subjects.
4. Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counseling/allottement of seat, may seek admission
only during the session for which examination has been conducted. They are not entitled to claim for admission in
other sessions/subsequent years based on this year’s examination.

3.3 Age Limit

Indian Nationals not below 19 years as on 31.08.2020 (i.e., candidate should not have been born after
01.09.2001) are eligible to appear in the examination. No relaxation is permissible regarding the
minimum age limit.

19
 Chapter-4
REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS
NTA is the examination conducting body and its scope is limited to conducting the examination and
declaration of the result (or Merit List). Candidates must note that all applicants shall be bound by the
conditions as laid down in this Information Bulletin, and the rules and regulations as enshrined in the
admitting University Act, Statutes, Ordinances, notifications and guidelines issued from time to time. It is
the sole responsibility of the candidate to ensure that he/she fulfills the specified eligibility in toto before
appearing in the examination.

4.1 Applying Online and Submission of Application Form

The online submission of Application Form for AIEEA (PG) 2020, uploading of scanned photograph,
signatures and Thumb Impression may be made at website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. The
candidates should complete all the required details while filling up the online form. On submission of
details and required fee, a Confirmation Page with Application Number shall be generated. Candidates
are required to take printout of Confirmation Page and keep it for reference.

In order to appear in AIEEA (PG) 2020, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure
detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the
Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form; and read them carefully. Candidates must follow
the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not
complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.

Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-

 Govt Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport number/Ration
Card Number/ Bank Account Number/PAN Number/ Other valid Govt Ids.
 Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
 Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
 Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
 Scanned images of Thumb impression (Male-Left, Female-Right, size of 3 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/JPEG format
only.
 Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.

4. 2 Replica of Application Form or Format

The replica of the AIEEA (PG) 2020 Application Form or Format is available at NTA ICAR website:
https://icar.nta.nic.in (Annexure-IX)
4.3 Four Steps to Complete the Application Process
Application Form may be submitted in four simple steps:
Step 1 Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step 2 Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application
No.
Step 3 Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb)
Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb) and candidate’s thumb impression
(between 3 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/JPEG format.

20
 Step 4 Pay fee using SBI/Syndicate/HDFC Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit
Card/Net-Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is
not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will
be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another
transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.
 Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely
for future reference.
 All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times

Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 and Step 4 are not completed. Such
forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
3. There is no provision to upload any certificate/marks sheet etc., with the application.
4. The entire application process is online. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s)
including Confirmation Page to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/E-mail By Hand.

4.4 Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:

General/Unreserved, OBC-NCL* & UPS**/EWS*** Rs. 1100 /-
SC, ST, PwD and Transgender Rs. 550 /-
Applicable Service/Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate.
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission
for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention
OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019,
01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of
reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
4.5 Method of Fee Payment
After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step
4) by choosing the following options:

1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card, while
logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information
asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.

2. Through Net Banking - Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging
on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of
net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

3. Through UPI/Paytm.
Note:
In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

1. If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore,
such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15
days of last date of submission of Application Form.

Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page
has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.

21
NOTE: The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of
particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.

Instructions to be followed while Applying

 Candidates must be careful while entering their e-mail address and phone number in the
Application Form, because this email address and phone number may be used by the NTA and
ICAR for future communication.
 The candidate is not required to give any option for Agricultural Universities for admission at the
time of filling up online application form. The admission/allotment of seat will be made through
online counseling on the basis of Sub-subject opted by him/her at the time registration for
counselling and depending upon the availability of seat at his/her merit-rank in the opted Major
Subject Group and fulfilment of other eligibility requirements.
 The reservation category being claimed by the candidate must be filled in correctly. Selection
should be made as under:

SC - for Scheduled Caste

ST - for Scheduled Tribe
PwD - for Persons with Disability
UPS - for Under Privileged States
EWS - Economically Weaker Section
OBC (NCL) - for Other Backward Classes with Central OBC certificate
GEN - for General/Unreserved category

In case of leaving the reservation category column blank, the candidate would be considered
under General Category.

 Candidates need to select their domicile State code carefully (Annexure-II).

 The candidate should refer to the list of Graduation College/Faculty Code and Graduation
duration code given at Annexure V-A at the time of filling application form.

 The list of private agricultural universities/colleges (accredited by ICAR) whose candidates are
eligible for appearing in AIEEA (PG)-2020 is given at Annexure V-B.

 The candidates are advised to retain:

(i) Computer generated Confirmation Page of online application

(ii) 3 identical copies of recent passport size colour photographs (with name and date)
same as uploaded on the Online Application Form
(iii) Copy of proof of payment of application fee

22
  If a candidate at any stage is found to have furnished wrong information or deliberately
suppressed any material information, his/her candidature/admission will be rejected/cancelled
as soon as it comes to the notice of either NTA or ICAR or the university concerned.

 For any future correspondence, the candidates must quote their Application number, the name
of examination i.e. AIEEA (PG) 2020 examination andMajor Subject Group (with code).

NOTE:- In service candidates must retain the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page of the
application along with Sponsorship Certificate (Annexure-XXI), in original, for showing to the university
officials in the event of their qualifying the examination and recommendation for admission to the
concerned university. In no case, the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page and
Sponsorship Certificate shall be sent either to NTA or the ICAR. The in-service candidates, seeking
admission to ICAR-DUs, should also see the respective ICAR-DUs website.

4.6 Admit Card for AIEEA (PG) 2020

The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility
conditions.

The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website w.e.f. 08 May 2020 onwards
and appear for the Examination at the given Centre
strictly as per the Date and Shift (Timing) indicated on the Admit Card.

No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination center, on Date and Timings other than
that allotted to them in their Admit card.

The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them
during the conduct of the examination.

The admit card will be uploaded on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. Please
check the admit card carefully for your Roll No., Name, Major Subject Group, Date of Birth,
Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc. In case of any problem related to
Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers between 10:00 am to 5:00 pm between
10 and 25 May 2020.

In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph, signatures
and Thumb Impression shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may
immediately approach the Help Line between 10:00 am to 5:00 pm between 10 May 2020 to 25
May 2020. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already
downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the
record later.
Note:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for AIEEA (PG) 2020 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.

23
 d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference and
verification during Counseling.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any
reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications)
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further
scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

4.7 Examination Centres

 A list of Examination City Centres is given at Annexure–I.

 While applying, candidates must select four Examination City Centres in order of their preference.
Since the seating capacity at each centre is limited, they will be considered for the allotment of
the examination city centres based upon first come-first served basis.
 NTA can change/shift the examination city centre opted by the candidate to another nearby
centre, if number of candidates are more at any examination city centre.
 The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.

24
 Chapter-5
CONDUCT OF THE EXAMINATION

5.1 Important Instructions for Candidates

1. Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre.
Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to appear in the examination.
I. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website
II. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting
on the specific space in the attendance sheet at the Centre during the Examination
III. Any one of the authorized Govt photo IDs (original, valid and non-expired), viz. PAN card/
Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar Enrolment
No/ Ration Card
IV. PwD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under PwD
category

Note : The name on the Photo Identification must match with the name as shown on the
admit card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the
relevant document like Marriage Certificate/Divorce/Decree/Legal Name Change Document
at the time of examination
2. The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre two hours before the commencement of
the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration formalities well before the time.
3. Registration desk will close 60 minutes prior to the examination. Candidates shall not be
permitted to enter in the Examination Centre after 02:00 p.m.
4. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the admit card carefully and follow them
during the conduct of the examination.
5. A seat indicating Roll No. will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should take their seat
immediately after opening of the examination hall. If the candidates do not report in time due to
any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay etc., they are likely to miss some of the general
instructions to be announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible
for any delay.
6. The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA website
for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized to verify
the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identify credentials.
Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. A candidate who does not possess the
valid Admit Card shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the
Centre Superintendent.
7. Candidates should find and sit on their allocated seat only. Any candidate found to have changed
room/hall or the seat on his/her own other than allotted would be considered as a case of
UnFairMeans and the candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted.

25
 8. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as per the
Major Subject Group opted by him/her in the application form and as indicated on the Admit
Card. In case, the Major Subject Group displayed on the computer is different from the one opted
by him/her, the same must be immediately brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
9. Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. NTA will not be
responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.
10. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on Date and shift as indicated in their Admit
Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for centre and shift provided
in the Admit Card shall be changed.
11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator
concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room/Hall until the full duration of the paper is
over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed by the Centre
Superintendent/Invigilators. Candidates should not leave the room/hall without handing over
their rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
12. Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of prohibited material.
13. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough
sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
14. The candidates must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate
place.
15. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the NTA with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of Unfair means will be dealt with as per rules.

5.2 Provision for Persons with Disability (PwD) Candidates

(i) In compliance of the “Guidelines for Conducting Written Examination for Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities” issued by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment vide Office
Memorandum No. F.No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated 29th August, 2018, the following provisions
would be available to the Candidates with Benchmark Disabilities, as defined in Section 2(r) of
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016.
(ii) A person with benchmark disability, as defined in Section 2 (r) of the RPwD Act, means a person
with not less than 40 percent of a specified disability where specified disability has not been
defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has
been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
Candidate needs to submit a certificate as per format given on Annexure-XIII.
(iii) A specified disability, as defined in Section 2 (zc) of the RPwD Act, means the disabilities as
specified in the Schedule of the said Act, which includes:
(a) Locomotor Disabilities: Leprosy, Cerebral Palsy, Dwarfism, Muscular Dystrophy, Acid
Attack Victims;
(b) Visual Impairment: Blindness & Low Vision;
(c) Hearing Impairement: Deaf & Hard of Hearing;
(d) Speech & Language Disability;

26
 (e) Intellectual Disability: specific learning disability (dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia,
dyspraxia & developmental aphasia), autism spectrum disorder;
(f) Mental illness;
(g) Chronic Neurological Conditions: Multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s diseases;
(h) Blood Disorder: Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle cell diseases;
(i) Multiple Disabilities: more than one of the specified disabilities including deaf blindness

(iv) In case of candidates with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability
(both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader shall be given, if so desired
by them.
(v) In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities (the Schedule of the said Act may
be referred to), the provision of scribe/reader can be allowed (if they so desire) on production of a
certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write (use the mouse in
case of CBT) and scribe is essential to write examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical
Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government health care institution as per
proforma at (ANNEXURE –XIV).
(vi) Such candidates will have the discretion of bringing his/her own scribe/reader or may opt to have
Scribe/Reader from NTA or through any of its authorised Institute/Agency/Personnel involved in the
examination.
(vii) An eligible PwD candidate, desirous of having facility of scribe/reader, shall have to mention his/her
appropriate PwD category in the relevant column of the application form and have also to record as
to whether he/she will have his/her own arrangement of scribe/reader or it has to be arranged by
NTA or through any of its authorised Institute/Agency/Personnel.
(viii) The qualification of the scribe shall be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the
examination. The persons with benchmark disabilities opting for own scribe/reader should submit
details of the own scribe as per proforma at (ANNEXURE–XV).
(ix) In case a PwD candidate who has opted the for scribe/reader from NTA or through any of its
authorised Institute/Agency/Personnel, the Centre Superintendent shall arrange a meeting of the
candidate with scribe/reader, a day before the examination, for giving him/her a chance to
check/verify whether the scribe/reader is suitable or not.
(x) Compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes per hour of examination shall be given to a candidate
allowed to use scribe/reader. If the examination is 03 hours duration, the compensatory time shall
be 01 hour. In case the duration of the examination is less or more than 03 hours, the compensatory
time shall be on pro-rata basis.
(xi) As far as possible, the examination for Person(s) with Disabilities should be held at the ground floor.

5.3 Prohibited Materials

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables and
Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone,
Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/ device etc.
 The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the examination
room/hall.

27
  If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, the same will be seized, his/her candidature
treated as unfair means and this will lead to cancellation of his/her current examination besides
debarring him/her from appearing in future examination(s).
 Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
 Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, Any kind of Paper/ Stationery, Eatables/snacks and
Tea/coffee/cold drinks/Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/Microphone/Pager,
Calculator, Camera, Tape Recorder, any metallic item or electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the
examination Room/Hall.
Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/ apple/orange)
and transparent water bottle to the examination hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed
foods like chocolate/candy/sandwich etc.

5.4 Unfair Means/ Code of Conduct

(i) If Candidates are found to be in possession of any of the following items, their candidature will be treated
as cancelled and will be debarred for future examination(s). The items/material will be seized and the case
treated as one of ‘unfairmeans’.

Any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities
of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any
other electronic gadget/device etc.

(ii) Candidates shall maintain perfect silence and attend to their Question Paper only. Any conversation or
gesticulation or disturbance in the Examination Room/Hall shall be deemed as misbehavior.
(iii) Candidates must not obtain or attempt to obtain or give assistance of any kind during the examination. This
will entail expulsion and cancellation of candidature for the examination.
(iv) If a candidate is found using unfairmeans or impersonating, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and
he/she will be liable to be debarred for taking examination either permanently or for a specified period
according to the nature of offence.

Important: For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any reason, re-test
shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.

28
 Chapter-6
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)

The major examinations being conducted by NTA will be Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number and
Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the
designated time of start of examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on
the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change / modify/ edit
/ answers already entered any time during the examination.

6.1 PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) (ANNEXURE-XI)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have
changed room/hall or the computer on their own rather than the one allotted would be liable to
cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.

(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display ‘Welcome’ login screen, Candidate’s
photograph and subject opted by the candidate. For login, the candidate will have to enter login-
ID and password.

(c) After logging in, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions
and Marking Scheme. At the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will be
able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered
by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse
or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the
entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, the
candidate will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will
be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.

(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The
countdown timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in
minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero,
the examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the
examination.
(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question
using one of the following text/color codes/symbols.

29
 You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for
review.

The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for
evaluation.

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would
like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a question and
simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation.
However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without answering it, the
corresponding question ‘‘Marked for Review’’without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It
may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the
examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of
the corresponding section.

(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of question palette to collapse
the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question
palette again, candidate can click on arrow/symbol which appears on the right side of question
window.
(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area,
without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question
viewing area for viewing the entire question.

(h) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the
screen.
(i) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks
Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll
Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the
Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over
the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(j) Navigating to a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the
currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save
the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the
candidate’s computer screen.

30
 (c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and
proceed to the next question.
(k) Answering a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on
the “Clear Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.

(l) Navigating through sections:

(a) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in
a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate
is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(b) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
(c) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during
the examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
(d) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.
(m) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key board
(numeric or otherwise):
(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just
below the question statement of these type of questions) and the attached computer
mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.
(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the
candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question,
anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that
has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question
Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and
subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
(n) Rough Work:
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in
the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the
rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

31
 Chapter-7
PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT
7.1 Display of recorded responses and Answer key for Challenge

 The NTA will display Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website www.nta.ac.in,
https://icar.nta.nic.in to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the Answer Key.
The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for three days.
 The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the Answer Key
on payment of Rs 1000/- per question challenged as processing charges.
 The NTA will also display the recorded responses of all the candidates on the NTA website prior
to declaration of result. The recorded responses are likely to be displayed for three days.
 The NTA’s decision on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared on the basis of
final answer keys.

7.2 Declaration of Result

Overall merit-rank list shall be prepared separately for every Major Subject-Group. In the event of
candidates getting equal marks in the Entrance examination, relative merit will be determined in the
following order:
(i) the candidate scoring less negative marks will be rated higher in merit
(ii) the candidate higher in age would be rated higher in merit
(iii)the candidate with higher %age/CGPA in Class XII examination would be rated higher in
merit.

 The result of the AIEEA (PG) 2020 is likely to be declared by Mid of June and will be placed on
NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in.
 The result of the entrance examination would be available in terms of overall merit-rank obtained
by the candidate declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counseling.
 All announcements related to the conduct of entrance examination including, issue of
examination notification, Admit card information, examination result, schedule of online
counseling, general notices, etc., would be posted and available on the NTA website
www.nta.ac.in, https://icar.nta.nic.in. The candidates are advised to be vigilant about the
announcements on the NTA website as the NTA would not be held responsible for non-receipt
of any information/ letter by post or otherwise.
 No separate intimation about non-selection in AIEEA (PG) 2020 Examination, nor marks obtained
therein, will be sent to the candidate and no correspondence (Letter/ Fax/ e-mail etc.) in this regard
will be entertained.

7.3 NTA process of Error and Scoring related Exception Handling

Specifications All questions in the test papers are MCQs with only one correct answer. If any
anomaly or discrepancy is found during key verification, it shall be addressed in the following
manner:
1. If two/three options are found to be correct post challenge or during key verification - Marks to
be awarded to only those students who have marked either of the correct option.
2. If all options are found to be correct – Full marks to be awarded to all students.
3. If none of the options is correct/Question is found to be wrong/invalid – Question to be dropped
and full marks to be awarded to all students.

32
 7.4 Percentile and Normalization procedure:

(i) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be
converted to NTA Score (percentile).

(ii) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on Annexure-X under
Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.

(iii) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated corresponding
to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for the Raw Marks for all
the shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for deciding the allocation.

(iv) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will
be the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a
Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles
(Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar
method will be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the
examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

7.5 No Re-checking or Re-evaluation Policy

No representation for re-evaluation/re-checking of answer scripts shall be entertained after the

declaration of results, because candidates are given opportunity to evaluate their own recorded
responses and challenge discrepancies, if any before finalizing final answer key and declaration of the
result.

33
 Chapter-8
COUNSELLING

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be
considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University. The schedule for counseling will
be notified separately on ICAR website (www.icar.org.in) after declaration of result. The admission
and scholarship would be granted only when the candidate seeks admission through counselling
conducted by ICAR.

The admission and scholarship would be granted only when the candidate seeks admission through counselling
conducted by ICAR.

34
 Chapter-9
CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA

All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be addressed only
if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address and contact number of the sender. An email
containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be
entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from person claiming to be representatives, associates or
officiates of the applicant candidate. The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.

35
 CHAPTER- 10
QUERY REDRESSAL SYSTEM

QUERY REDRESSAL SYSTEM (QRS)

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online web-
enabled system developed by NTA.

 QRS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable submission of
queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of ICAR 2020 Examination with (24x7)
facility for speedy and favourable redressal of the queries/grievances.

 A Unique Registration Number will be generated for tracking the status of the
queries/grievances.

The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy and favourable response
before mailing their queries on the official email id of ICAR

36
 Chapter-11
TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCs) (ANNEXURE - XII)
The Ministry of Human Resource Development has mandated the NTA to set up, establish and create a
network of Test Practice Centres for candidates, especially in remote and rural areas to enable them to
practice and be comfortable in taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). This facility will be completely free of
cost. Candidates can register online (on NTA website) where they will be provided a convenient TPC near
their location to practice on a given computer node. This will facilitate and ease the process of being able
to take a Computer Based Test (CBT). The entire experience of using a computer will be close to the actual
experience of taking a CBT. All efforts will also be made to provide practice tests and questions so that
candidates can familiarize themselves with logging into the system, go through the detailed instructions
regarding the test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen (virtual) for attempting each question,
scroll down to the next question, navigate between questions, review and edit their options and submit
answers

37
 Chapter-12
COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES (Annexure-VIII)
Candidates who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various constraints, can
use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology,
Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services
Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India
and is managed at each village panchayat level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will provide the
desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission of application form
and payment of fee through e-wallet. The list of the Common Services Centre is available on website:
www.csc.gov.in.

38
 Chapter-13
LEGAL JURISDICTION

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of AIEEA (PG) 2020 Examination including Results shall fall within
the jurisdiction of Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination shall be
entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.
The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may sue or
be sued.

39
 ANNEXURE –I

LIST OF EXAMINATION CITY CENTRES

CITY_ HIMACHAL
CODE STATE CITY HP07 PRADESH SOLAN
ANDAMAN JAMMU AND
AND JK02 KASHMIR JAMMU
AN01 NICOBAR PORT BLAIR JAMMU AND
ANDHRA JK04 KASHMIR SRINAGAR (J & K)
AP16 PRADESH TIRUPATHI JH03 JHARKHAND JAMSHEDPUR
ANDHRA JH04 JHARKHAND RANCHI
AP17 PRADESH VIJAYAWADA
KK04 KARNATAKA BENGALURU
ANDHRA
AP18 PRADESH VISAKHAPATNAM DHARWAD/HUBBAL
ARUNACHAL ITANAGAR/NAHARL KK10 KARNATAKA LI(HUBLI)
AL01 PRADESH AGUN KK08 KARNATAKA GULBARGA
AM0 SHIVAMOGA(SHIM
2 ASSAM GUWAHATI KK15 KARNATAKA OGA)
AM0 ALAPPUZHA/CHENG
3 ASSAM JORHAT KL01 KERALA ANNUR
AM0 KL05 KERALA IDUKKI
4 ASSAM SILCHAR (ASSAM) KL07 KERALA KANNUR
BR09 BIHAR ARRAH KL12 KERALA KOZHIKODE
BR02 BIHAR BHAGALPUR KL15 KERALA PALAKKAD
BR06 BIHAR MUZAFFARPUR THIRUVANANTHAP
BR07 BIHAR PATNA KL17 KERALA URAM
CHANDIGAR CHANDIGARH/MOH KL18 KERALA THRISSUR
CH01 H ALI LL01 LADHAK LEH
CHHATTISGA BILASPUR MADHYA
CG02 RH (CHHATTISGARH) MP03 PRADESH BHOPAL
CHHATTISGA MADHYA
CG03 RH RAIPUR MP06 PRADESH GWALIOR
DL01 DELHI DELHI/NEW DELHI MADHYA
GO01 GOA PANAJI/MADGAON MP07 PRADESH INDORE
GJ02 GUJARAT ANAND MADHYA
MP08 PRADESH JABALPUR
GJ08 GUJARAT MEHSANA
MADHYA
GJ10 GUJARAT RAJKOT MP12 PRADESH SAGAR
GJ11 GUJARAT SURAT MADHYA
HR05 HARYANA HISSAR MP13 PRADESH SATNA
HR06 HARYANA KARNAL MAHARASHT
HIMACHAL KANGRA/PALAMPU MR13 RA JALGAON
HP04 PRADESH R MAHARASHT
MR14 RA KOLHAPUR
40
 MAHARASHT MUMBAI/NAVI TN02 TAMIL NADU COIMBATORE
MR16 RA MUMBAI TN08 TAMIL NADU MADURAI
MAHARASHT TN11 TAMIL NADU SALEM
MR17 RA NAGPUR
HYDERABAD/SECUN
MAHARASHT DERABAD/RANGA
MR18 RA NANDED TL01 TELANGANA REDDY
MAHARASHT
TL02 TELANGANA KARIMNAGAR
MR22 RA PUNE
MN0 TL07 TELANGANA WARANGAL
1 MANIPUR IMPHAL UTTAR
MG0 UP01 PRADESH AGRA
1 MEGHALAYA SHILLONG UTTAR
UP03 PRADESH ALLAHABAD
MZ01 MIZORAM AIZAWL
UTTAR
NL02 NAGALAND KOHIMA UP04 PRADESH BAREILLY
BERHAMPUR- UTTAR
OR03 ODISHA GANJAM UP11 PRADESH KANPUR
OR04 ODISHA BHUBANESWAR UTTAR
OR09 ODISHA SAMBALPUR UP12 PRADESH LUCKNOW
PB02 PUNJAB BHATINDA UTTAR
PB05 PUNJAB LUDHIANA UP18 PRADESH VARANASI
RJ01 RAJASTHAN AJMER UTTARAKHA
UK01 ND DEHRADUN
RJ05 RAJASTHAN BIKANER
UTTARAKHA
RJ06 RAJASTHAN JAIPUR
UK02 ND HALDWANI
RJ07 RAJASTHAN JODHPUR WB0 WEST
RJ08 RAJASTHAN KOTA 1 BENGAL ASANSOL
RJ09 RAJASTHAN SIKAR WB1 WEST
RJ11 RAJASTHAN UDAIPUR 0 BENGAL KOLKATA
SM01 SIKKIM GANGTOK WB1 WEST
TN01 TAMIL NADU CHENNAI 1 BENGAL SILIGURI

Note:
1. The exact name/location of Examination venue in the Examination city centre will be notified later along with the
Roll Number in accordance with the Application Number and Date of Birth and shall be available on NTA website
www.nta.ac.in, ntaicar.nic.in.
2. NTA may change/shift the examination city center opted by the candidate to another nearby centre, if number of
candidates are more at any city center

41
 ANNEXURE II

DOMICILE STATE/UTs CODES

Sl. Name of the State/UT Code Sl. No. Name of the State/UT Code Number
No. Number
1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands 01 19. Madhya Pradesh 20
(U.T.)

2. Andhra Pradesh 02 20. Maharashtra 21

3. Arunachal Pradesh 03 21. Manipur 22
4. Assam 04 22. Meghalaya 23
5. Bihar 05 23. Mizoram 24
6. Chandigarh (U.T.) 06 24. Nagaland 25
7. Chhattisgarh 07 25. Odisha 26
8. Dadra & Nagar Haveli & 08 26. Puducherry (U.T.) 27
Daman & Diu (U.T.)
9. Delhi (U.T.) 10 27. Punjab 28

10. Goa 11 28. Rajasthan 29

11. Gujarat 12 29. Sikkim 30
12. Haryana 13 30. Tamil Nadu 31
13. Himachal Pradesh 14 31. Tripura 32
14. Jammu & Kashmir 15 32. Uttarakhand 33
15. Jharkhand 16 33. Uttar Pradesh 34
16. Karnataka 17 34. West Bengal 35
17. Kerala 18 35. Telangana 36

18. Lakshadweep (U.T.) 19 36. Ladakh (U.T) 37

42
 ANNEXURE III

Sub-subject and Category-wise seats for PG admission through AIEEA (PG) 2020

Major Major Subject- Sub- Sub-Subject No. of Total Gen./ EWS SC ST Pwd*
Subject Group Subject Seats ICAR- PG OBC/
Code Code Scholars UPS
No. hip
01 PLANT 1.1 Plant Biochemistry/Bio- 17 5 4 1
BIOTECHNOLOG Chemistry
Y 1.2 Plant Biotech. & Molecular 45 12 9 2 1 1
Biology/ Biotech.
1.3 Plant /Crop Physiology 39 10 7 2 1 1
Total 101 27 20 5 2 2
02 PLANT SCIENCES 2.1 Plant Breeding and Genetics 131 42 33 6 3 2
2.2 Plant Pathology 115 38 29 6 3 2
2.3 Agril. 29 9 7 1 1
Microbiology/Microbiology
2.4 Seed Science and Technology 32 10 7 2 1 1
2.5 Plant Genetic Resources 4 1 1
Total 311 100 77 15 8 5
03 PHYSICAL 3.1 Agricultural /Agro. 12 3 2 1
SCIENCE Meteorology
3.2 (a) Soil Science and 118 23 18 3 2 1
Agricultural Chemistry (b) Soil
Conservation and Water
Management/ SWC (c)
Irrigation and Water
Management
3.3 Agricultural Physics 4 1 1
3.4 Agricultural Chemicals 7 1 1
3.5 Environmental Science 11 2 1 1 1
Total 152 30 23 5 2 2
04 ENTOMOLOGY 4.1 Agricultural/ Horticultural 112 36 28 5 3 2
AND Entomology
NEMATOLOGY 4.2 Nematology 15 5 4 1
4.3 Apiculture
4.4 Sericulture 6 2 2
4.5 Plant Protection
Total 133 43 34 6 3 2
05 AGRONOMY 5.1 Agronomy 156 87 67 13 7 4
5.2 Tea Husbandry &Technology 2 1 1
Total 158 88 68 13 7 4
06 SOCIAL 6.1 Agricultural Economics 77 13 10 2 1 1
SCIENCES
6.2 Dairy Economics 7 1 1
6.3 Agri. Extension/ Extension 90 16 12 3 1 1
Education/ Communication
6.4 Dairy Extension Education 11 2 2
Total 185 32 25 5 2 2
07 7.1 Agricultural Statistics 33 5 3 1 1

43
 STATISTICAL 7.2 Computer Application 6 1 1
SCIENCES
7.3 Bioinformatics 5 1 1
Total 44 7 5 1 1 0
08 HORTICULTURE 8.1 Horticulture 28 14 11 2 1 1
8.2 Vegetable Crops or Science/ 53 26 20 4 2 2
Olericulture
8.3 Pomology/Fruit Sci., Fruit Sci. 51 25 19 4 2 1
& Hort. Technology
8.4 Post-harvest Technology of 12 6 5 1
Horticultural Crops
8.5 Floriculture and Landscaping 34 17 13 3 1 1
Architecture
8.6 Plantation Spices, Medicinal 12 6 4 1 1
& Aromatic Crops Plants
Total 190 94 72 15 7 5
09 FORESTRY/AGR 9.1 Forest Production & 1 1 1
OFORESTRY AND Utilization
SILVICULTURE 9.2 Silviculture & Agroforestry 7 4 2 1 1 1
9.3 Tree Physiology &Breeding 4 2 2
9.4 Agroforestry 3 2 2
9.5 Forest NRM/ Forest 3 2 1 1
Management & Utilization
9.6 Plantation Technology 1 0
9.7 Wildlife Sci. (Forestry) 2 1 1
9.8 Wood Science 2 1 1
Total 23 13 10 2 1 1
10 AGRICULTURAL 10.1 Soil and Water Cons. 34 8 6 1 1
ENGINEERING Engg./Soil & Water Engg.
AND 10.2 Irrigation and Drainage 4 1 1
TECHNOLOGY Engg./ Irri. Water Mgmt.
Engg.
10.3 Post-Harvest Technology/ 30 8 6 1 1
Processing & Food Engg.
10.4 Farm Machinery and Power 35 9 6 2 1 1
Engg.
10.5 Renewable Energy 3 1 1
Total 106 27 20 4 3 1
11 WATER SCIENCE 11.1 Water Science & Technology 2 1 1
AND
Total 2 1 1 0 0 0
TECHNOLOGY

12 HOME SCIENCE 12.1 Food and Nutrition 17 3 2 1 1

(CURRENTLY
12.2 Human Development and 9 2 2
RENAMED AS
Family Studies
COMMUNITY
12.3 Home Management/Family 14 3 2 1
SCIENCE)
Resource Management
12.4 Clothing and Textile/ Textile 8 1 1
& Apparel Designing
12.5 Home Science Extension / 17 3 2 1
Education, / Extn. & Comm.
Mgmt.
Total 65 12 9 2 1 1

44
13 ANIMAL 13.1 Animal Biotechnology 25 4 3 1
BIOTECHNOLOG
13.2 Veterinary/Animal 29 4 3 1
Y
Biochemistry
Total 54 8 6 1 1 0
14 VETERINARY 14.1 Veterinary Anatomy / 17 2 2
SCIENCE Veterinary Anatomy &
Histology
14.2 Vety. Gynecology and Obst./ 35 5 3 1 1 1
Ani. Reproduction
14.3 Vety. Medicine (Clinical 28 4 3 1
/Preventive)
14.4 Vety. Parasitology 25 4 3 1
14.5 Vety. Pharmacology and 19 3 3
Toxicology
14.6 Vety. Pathology 26 4 3 1
14.7 Wildlife Sci./ Wildlife Health 2
Mgt.
14.8 Vety. Virology
14.9 Vety. Immunology 1
14.10 Veterinary Microbiology & 35 5 3 1 1 1
Immunology / Bacteriology
14.11 Veterinary Surgery & 31 4 3 1
Radiology
14.12 Vety. Public Health & 27 4 3 1
Epidemiology/ Vety. Public
Health/ Vety. Epidemiology/
Vety. Epidemiology &
Preventive Medicine
Total 246 35 26 6 3 2
15 ANIMAL 15.1 Animal Husbandry/ Dairy Sci. 6 1 1
SCIENCES
15.2 Animal Genetics and 41 4 2 1 1 1
Breeding
15.3 Animal Nutrition 38 4 3 1
15.4 Vety./Animal Physiology 29 3 3
15.5 Livestock Production and 44 5 3 1 1
Management
15.6 Livestock Product s 16 2 2
Technology
15.7 Poultry Science 15 2 2
15.8 Veterinary and Animal 14 1 1
Husbandry Extension
15.9 Livestock/ Veterinary/Animal 5 1 1
Husbandry Economics
15.10 Bio-Statistics 2 0
Total 210 23 18 3 2 1
16 FISHERIES 16.1 Fisheries Sciences/ Fish Env. 0 0
SCIENCE Mgmt.
16.2 Fisheries Resource 22 3 2 1
Management
16.3 Aquaculture 30 3 2 1 1
16.4 Fish Processing & 13 2 1 1
Technology/ Fish PHT
16.5 Fish Physiol. & Biochemistry 6 1 1

45
 16.6 Aquatic Animal Health Mgmt. 14 2 1 1
16.7 Fisheries Extension 8 1 1
16.8 Aquatic Env. Management 11 1 1
16.9 Fish 13 2 2
Genetics/Breeding/Biotechn
ology
16.10 Fish Nutrition and Feed Tech. 7 1 1
16.11 Fish. Economics 8 1 1
16.12 Fish Engg. & Technology 2 0
Total 134 17 13 3 1 1
17 DAIRY SCIENCE 17.1 Dairy Microbiology 9 2 2
17.2 Dairy Chemistry 10 3 2 1
Total 19 5 4 1 0 0
18 DAIRY 18.1 Dairy Technology 18 5 3 1 1
TECHNOLOGY
18.2 Dairy Engineering 9 3 3
Total 27 8 6 1 1 0
19 FOOD SCIENCE 19.1 Food Technology/Food 17 11 8 2 1 1
TECHNOLOGY Science & Technology(M.Sc.)
19.2 Food Safety & Quality 6 4 4
Assurance (M.Sc.)
19.3 Food Science & Nutrition 6 4 3 1
(M.Sc.)
Total 29 19 15 3 1 1
20 AGRI BUSINESS 20.1 Agri Business Management 162 11 8 2 1 1
MANAGEMENT (MBA)
20.2 Agri. Marketing & 3
Cooperation (M.Sc.)
Total 165 11 8 2 1 1
GRAND TOTAL 2354 600 460 93 4 31
7
*5% reservation in PG Scholarship for Physically Challenged (PC) category will be horizontal across all categories, i.e. such candidates would
draw Scholarship from the GEN/SC/ST category to which they belong. If the PG Scholarship is not available in a particular category to which PC
candidate belongs then the same would be drawn from Gen. category, if available.

Note:
i. The admission would be granted under accredited programme(s) of an accredited college(s) under an accredited university except for Dr. RP
CAU, Pusa, Bihar and RLBCAU, Jhansi where 100% seats will be filled up through ICAR.

ii. The exact title/nomenclature of the degree programme might vary from one university to another. Candidates are advised to enquire the
nomenclature of degree programme from the Registrar of university concerned (for contact details, please refer Annexure-XVII) at the time
of counseling/ while seeking admission.

iii. From Academic Session 2019-20, the criteria for PG Scholarship (erstwhile JRF) distribution, based on total number of seats in each subject,
has been changed to average number of aspirants actually appeared in the AIEEA (PG) in the preceding three years. The number of PG
Scholarship is tentative and may vary depending on the actual number of candidates actually appeared for the examination in a particular
Major Subject. It will finally be known only at the time of counseling.

iv. There will be no transfer of ICAR (PG) Scholarship even if a candidate awarded PG Scholarship at the time of counseling leaves the degree
programme in between for any reason.

v. There is no reservation of ICAR- PG Scholarship for candidates of OBC (NCL) and UPS category. They would be entitled for ICAR- PG Scholarship
based on overall merit.

46
 ANNEXURE IV

Stream in Graduation Degree

Stream Code

Agriculture 01

Agricultural Coop. & Marketing 02

Basic Sciences 03
Dairy Science/Dairy Technology 04
Engineering/Technology 05
Fisheries 06
Forestry 07
Home Science 08
Horticulture 09
Veterinary Science 10
Sericulture 11
Computer Science 12
Biotechnology 13
Food Science 14
Other subject streams 15

47
 ANNEXURE V A

List of Graduation College/Faculty Code

Name of College/Faculty Code

Bachelor Agriculture 01

Horticulture 02

Community Science (Formerly Home Science) 03

Basic Sciences 04

Forestry/Agro Forestry 05

Dairy Science/Dairy Technology 06

Engineering/ Agri. Engineering 07

Fisheries Science 08

Veterinary 09

Any other 10

Graduation Duration Code

Pattern Code

10+2+3 Years (Eligible for admission at IARI and NDRI only) 3

10+2+4 Years 4

10+2+5 Years 5

10+6 Years 6

48
 ANNEXURE V B

List of Private Agricultural Universities/Colleges (accredited by ICAR) whose candidates passed out in indicated Bachelor
degree programmes are eligible for appearing in AIEEA (PG)-2020

Sr. Name of University & year of Name of College Bachelor Degree

No. Establishment Programmes

1. Allahabad School of Agriculture (now Allahabad School of Agriculture B.Sc. (Hons.)

Naini Agricultural Institute), Sam Agriculture
Higginbottom University of Agriculture,
Technology and Sciences, Allahabad
(Uttar Pradesh)
(Established: 1910)
2. Lovely Professional University School of Agriculture B.Sc. (Hons.)
(Established: 2005) Agriculture
3. Guru Kashi University, Talwandi Sabo, B.Sc. (Hons)
Bathinda, Punjab Agriculture
(Established: 2011)
4. M.S. Swaminathan School of Agriculture, M.S. Swaminathan School of B.Sc. (Hons) Agriculture
CUTM, Odisha Agriculture, CUTM
(Established: 2013)
5. College of Agriculture and Technology, College of Agriculture and B.Sc. (Hons.)
Kullapuram, Theni (Affiliated to TNAU, Technology, Theni Agriculture
University)
(Established: 2010)
6. Siksha 'O' Anusandhan, (Deemed to be Faculty of Agricultural B.Sc. (Hons) Agriculture
University), Bhubaneswar, Odisha Sciences, Siksha 'O'
(Established: 2007) Anusandhan, Bhubaneswar
7. School of Agriculture, ITM University, School of Agriculture, ITM B.Sc. (Hons.)
Gwalior, MP University, Gwalior Agriculture
(Established: 2013)
NOTE:

Candidate should note that for admission to Master’s degree programmes through entrance examination conducted by
NTA, only the candidates having passed graduation with four/six (10+6 B.Sc. Ag.)/five years’ (B.V.Sc. & AH) degree
programme from any public funded/Govt. institution will be eligible. Candidates passed out from private Agricultural
Universities/Colleges not accredited by ICAR, even though affiliated to public funded/Govt. institutions are not eligible for
admission through this examination. Only those candidates from Private Agricultural Universities/Colleges (accredited by
ICAR) are eligible to appear in the examination who have completed their degree in programmes accredited by ICAR.
Further, in case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an Agricultural University
or any particular college/university has been derecognized by VCI/UGC or due to any Court directives (present or future),
ICAR will not be responsible for admitting students of that college/university in the Universities not willing to admit such
candidates.

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 Annexure-VI

List of ICAR accredited Master’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa
Name of Period of College Period of Master Degree Programmes
University & year Accreditation Accreditation
of Establishment

Rajendra Five years w.e.f. College of Home Five years w.e.f. M.Sc. Home Science in -
Agricultural 28.03.2016 to Science, Pusa 28.03.2016 to Extension Education and
University, Pusa, 27.03.2021 27.03.2021 Communication Management,
Samastipur Food and Nutrition
(Bihar) (1978)
Five years w.e.f. Faculty of Basic Five years w.e.f. M.Sc. Ag. in - Agricultural
28.03.2016 to Sciences and 28.03.2016 to Biotechnology, Agricultural
27.03.2021 Humanities, Pusa 27.03.2021 Statistics, Plant Physiology

Five years w.e.f. P.G. Department of Five years w.e.f. M.Sc. Ag. in - Agronomy,
28.03.2016 to Agriculture, Pusa 28.03.2016 to Agricultural Economics,
27.03.2021 27.03.2021 Entomology, Extension
Education, Plant Breeding
and Genetics, Plant
Pathology, Nematology, Soil
Science, Horticulture

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 ANNEXURE VII

Processing charges & Goods and Service Taxes (GST) and Procedure for Payment of Fee

Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Service/Processing charges & GST

After completing Step-2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step -3) by choosing
the following options:
(i) Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit card, Net Banking and Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in ICICI Bank or HDFC
Bank or Syndicate Bank:
 Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to website for
submitting application form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make payment through
Debit/ Credit Card.
 Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while
logging on to website for submitting application form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of
net banking and make payment through Net Banking.
(ii) Cash Deposit through e-challan at Syndicate Bank Branches only:
 Print e-Challan in .pdf on A 4 size paper from Syndicate MOPS page which will contain NTA’s required
information in addition to Bank reference No. and visit any of the Syndicate Banks branches in India and
deposit amount mentioned in e-Challan.
Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider (Service/Processing charges per transaction & GST (applicable
@ 18 %) to be paid by the candidate):

S. Mode of HDFC BANK SYNDICATE BANK STATE BANK OF INDIA

No. Payment
Syndicate NIL Charge SBI
HDFC NIL Charge
Net Bank
1
Banking Other Banks Rs 5.00+GST
Other Banks 4.00 + GST Other Banks 4.00 + GST
Syndicate
All Debit HDFC or
2 Nil Charge Bank or Other Nil Charge Nil
Card Other Banks
Banks
0.80% of
0.40% of 0.40% of Fee + Domestic Fee+GST
Domestic Domestic
Fee + GST GST (Minimum Rs
Credit 11/-)
3
Card 3.50% of
2.35% OF 2.35% of Fee+ Fee+GST
International International
Fee+ GST GST International (Minimum Rs
11/-)
Unified
Payment Nil
4 Nil Charge Nil Charge
Interface
(UPI)
PAY USING HDFC PAY USING SYNDICATE PAY USING SBI
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:-
(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such
candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned Bank to concerned
credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

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Helpdesk: For any transaction related queries/ inquiry, please contact at:

(a) If Paying using HDFC Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 -- 09799810080
Vikram Singh
2 Shri Ripon Bhattacharjee [email protected] 09625031697
3 Shri Achin Lamba [email protected] 09625048643

(b) If Paying using Syndicate Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

0120 2400850/
1 Helpdesk [email protected] 01202400851
9971262371
Complaint Management (0120) 2400853/
2 [email protected]
Services 09412770540
3 Customer Care [email protected] 9971262371
4 Through SMS [email protected]

(c) If Paying using SBI Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk [email protected] 18004253800
2 Helpdesk [email protected] 08026599990

3 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211

4 Through SMS UNHAPPY(addtext) 8008202020

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 ANNEXURE VIII

COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES

Candidates, who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various constraints, can use the services
of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital
India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national
e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is managed at each village panchayat level by a Village level
Entrepreneur (VLE)

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will provide the desired support
to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission of Application Form and payment of fee through e-
wallet. The list of the Common Services Centre is available on website: www.csc.gov.in.

The Common Services Centre will be providing following services on the rates indicated against each:

S. No. Services Service Charges per transaction

(GST applicable @ 18%)
1 Preparing e-mail, Submission of Application Rs 25/-+GST
form & Printout till Fee Payment (Including
uploading of Scanned Images )
2 Uploading of Scanned Images only Rs 10/-+GST
3 On line payment of Fee Rs 0.5% of Fee +GST
4 Downloading of Admit Card/ OMR Answer Rs 10+GST
Sheet/Answer Key
5 Online claim for Responses/ Answer Key Rs 25+GST
6 Printout per page Rs 5+GST
Note: To know nearest Common Services Centre, please open link - http://gis.csc.gov.in/locator/csc.aspx

53
 ANNEXURE IX
Replica of AIEEA (PG) 2020 Application Form

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 ANNEXURE X
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on PERCENTILE SCORE)
NTA will be conducting examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will be given
different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining equivalence among
various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in different sessions may not be exactly
the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when compared to other
sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to
those who attempt the easier one. In order to overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on Percentile
Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of
the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field
is created in the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA
scores for multi session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi session papers and
is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted in India. For normalization across
sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for the
examination. Basically the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each session of
examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW (same or lower raw
scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore the topper (highest score) of each session will get the
same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are also
converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the raw marks of the candidate) and
shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:
100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ’Session’
Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual subject. Percentile
score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:-
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2

Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks

Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total(Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49

65
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be the 100 Percentile
indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest scorer/ topper for that session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile Score of 100 for their
respective session.

Session Total Highest Candidates who scored Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw Score EQUAL OR LESS THAN
Appeared Highest Raw Score
28012 335 28012 100.0000000 i.e. all the highest raw
Session-1
[(28012/28012)*100] scores would be
32541 346 32541 100.0000000 normalized to 100
Session -2
[(32541/32541)*100] Percentile Score for
41326 331 41326 100.0000000 their respective session.
Session -3
[(41326/41326)*100]
40603 332 40603 100.0000000
Session -4
[(40603/40603)*100]

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on the total number of
candidates who have taken the examination for their respective session.

Session Total Lowest Candidates who scored Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw Score EQUAL OR LESS THAN
Appeared Lowest Raw Score
Session - 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score of
1 [(1/28012)*100] all the lowest raw
Session - 32541 -38 1 0.0030730 scores are different i.e.
2 [(1/32541)*100] Percentile Score depend
Session - 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 on the total number of
3 [(1/41326)*100] candidates who have
Session - 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 taken the examination
4 [(1/40603)*100] for their respective
session.

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score in Session-3 (Day-2
and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.

Candidate Percentile Score No of Raw Remark

Candidates Score
A 100.0000000 1 331 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have scored
[(41326/41326)*100] either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate A (331 raw
score).
It also indicates that no candidate has scored more than the
candidate A (331 raw score).
B 90.1224411 77 121 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 90.1224411% have
[(37244/41326)*100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate B
(121 raw score).
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored
more than candidate B (121 raw score).
C 50.4549194 381 41 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 50.4549194% have
[(20851/41326)*100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate C (41
raw score).

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 It also indicates that remaining those appeared have scored
more than candidate C (41 raw score).
D 31.7040120 789 25 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 31.7040120% have
[(13102/41326)*100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25
raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored
more than candidate D (25 raw score).
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216% have
[(456/41326)*100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate E (-
15 raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored
more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately equal
number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2
In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination. Further, with
a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias becomes remote.

Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:

The examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
 Raw Scores
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.

No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than
Total Percentile (TP1) : 100 X T1 score
Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-
2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores which will then be used
for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the eligibility cut-
off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of 78 in
Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both
shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to
determine eligibility cut-offs.

In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

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 ANNEXURE XI

Computer Based Test (CBT)

The major examinations being conducted by NTA will be Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires candidates to sit in
front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number and Admit card. After logging the
candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the designated time of start of examination, the candidates
will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have
the option to change / modify/ edit / answers already entered any time during the examination.

Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on UGC NET website: www.ntanet.nic.in in November, 2018 for hands on practice)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating roll number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit
on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the computer on their own
other than the one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password. The computer terminal allotted to the candidate
will display WELCOME login screen, Candidate’s photograph and NET subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page

Candidate Welcome Screen

(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidates are advised to
go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of
start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

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General Instruction Page

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination. Depending
on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard
(numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the
examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she will be immediately
allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate
the full allotted time.

The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right
side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the
examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or
submit the examination.

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(d) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would like to have a
relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”,
these answers will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question
without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be considered for
evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the
examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the
corresponding section.

(e) Candidate can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette
thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette again, candidate can click on “<” which
appears on the right side of question window.
(f) Candidate can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area, without scrolling.
Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question viewing area for viewing the entire
question.
(g) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the screen.
(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks Sheets would have a
Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be
done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test
candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(i) Navigating to a Question To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed question.

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 (b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the answer for
the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and proceed to the
next question.

(j) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the “Clear
Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

(k) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be
viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate is currently viewing will be
highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will automatically
be taken to the first question of the next section.
(iii) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime during the examination
as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
(iv) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in every
section above the question palette.

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(l) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key board
(numeric or otherwise):
(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just below the question
statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space
provided for answer.
On Screen Virtual Keyboard

(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click
on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question, anytime during the entire
duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the
corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously
entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(m) ROUGH WORK:

All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre in the examination
Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.

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 ANNEXURE XII

NTA: Test Practice Centres (TPCs)

The NTA as part of its objectives, will, inter-alia conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests to assess
the competency of candidates for admission, and recruitment purposes, undertake research on educational, professional
and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them, identify experts and
institutions in setting examination questions and produce and disseminate information and research on education and
professional development standards.
The major examinations being conducted by NTA will be Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires candidates to sit in
front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number and Admit Card. After logging the
candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the designated time of start of examination, the candidates
will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have
the option to change / modify/ edit / answers already entered any time during the examination.

What is a Test Practice Centre (TPCs)?

The Ministry of Human Resource Development has mandated the NTA to set up, establish and create a network of Tests
Practice Centres for candidates, especially in remote and rural areas to enable them to practice and be comfortable in
taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). This facility will be completely free of cost. Candidates can register online (on NTA
website) where they will be provided a convenient TPC near to their location to practice on a given computer node. This
will facilitate and ease the process of being able to take a Computer Based Test (CBT). The entire experience of using a
computer will be as close to the actual experience of taking a CBT. All efforts will also be made to provide practice tests
and questions so that candidates can familiarize themselves with logging into the system, go through the detailed
instructions regarding the test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen (virtual) for attempting each question, scroll
down to the next question, navigate between questions, review and edit their options and submit questions.

The objective of TPCs will primarily be to organize test practice for the upcoming NTA examinations.
An NTA APP has also been developed which will enable the students to choose the nearest TPCs (July 2018).
Set of Instructions on How to Register for a TPCs
Step 1: Visit NTA official website for Registration as a candidate for the Test Practice Centre.(TPC)
Visit Website URL: https://nta.ac.in/ and click on the link “Student Registration (For Practice Center)”

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Step 2: Selecting Gmail or Facebook Login
Select login method: Gmail or Facebook

Step 3: Entering Gmail Username & Password

For gmail login candidate must enter email id & password

Step 4: Selecting Gmail Account

After authentication candidate has to click on selected Gmail Id.

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Step 5: Enter Personal Information
After login confirmation student will be redirected to registration

Step 6: Enter Contact Information

Candidate needs to enter contact information

Step 7: Enter Academic Information

Candidate needs to enter academic information.

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Step 8: Enter Exam Information
Candidate needs to enter exam information.

Step 9: Center Selection Dashboard

List of available center location sorted on the basis of Candidate’s current geo location.

Step 10: Five Center Selection

Candidate needs to select any 5 Centers in the order of preference.

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Step 11: Schedule Selection
Candidate needs to select anyone sessions from the 6 sessions given

Step 12: Review the Center Selection & Schedule Selection

Candidate needs to review the selection and after reviewing click on “Confirm Appointment”

Step 13: Center Selection Confirmation

Candidate can see that the data entered has been submitted

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Step 14: Text of approval on Candidate’s registered mobile number.
Candidate gets the approval as SMS in the registered mobile number.

Step 15: Confirmation SMS on student’s registered mobile number.

Candidate will get the confirmation SMS on the registered mobile number. This SMS will be used for entry at the Centre.
The SMS will be sent two days in advance along with an e-mail at the registered e-mail Id

Step 16: Incase the Candidate’s center has not been confirmed an SMS of rescheduling the booking will be received by
the Candidate.

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 ANNEXURE XIII

FORMAT OF THE CERTIFICATE FOR THE CANDIDATES UNDER PERSONS WITH DISABILITY CATEGORY (PwD)

NAME & ADDRESS OF THE INSTITUTE/HOSPITAL ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE

Certificate No. : Affix Recent

Passport size
Date: Attested
Photograph
CERTIFICATE FOR PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES here

This is to certify that Shri/Smt/Kum*) _________________________________________son/daughter* of Shri

______________________ Age _____________ years, Registration No. _________________________________
is a case of Locomotor disability/Cerebral Palsy/Blindness/Low vision/Hearing impairment/Other disability* and has
been suffering from degree of disability not less than ______________________________ %
(____________________________________________). The details of his/her above mentioned disability is
described below:
(IN CAPITAL LETTERS)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________

Note:-
1. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.*
2. Re-assessment is not recommended/is recommended after a period of __________________________
months/years.
3. The certificate is issued as per PWD Act, 1995.
* Strike out whichever is not applicable.

Sd/- Sd/- Sd/-

(DOCTOR) (DOCTOR) (DOCTOR)

Seal Seal Seal

Signature/Thumb impression of the person

Countersigned by the
Medical Superintendent/CMO/
Head of Hospital (With Seal)

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 ANNEXURE XIV

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

This is to certify that, I have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ___________________________ (name of the candidate with disability),

a person with _________________________ (nature and percentage of disability as mentioned in the certificate of

disability), S / o / D / o ____________________________, a resident of ___________________________

(Village/District/State) and to state that he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to

his/her disability.

Signature
Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution

Name & Designation

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal
Place:

Date:

Note:
Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (eg. Visual impairment – Ophthalmolgist,
Lcomotor disability – Prthopaedic specialist/PMR).

84
 ANNEXURE XV

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I ____________________________, a candidate with __________________ (name of the disability) appearing for the

_______________________ (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ____________________ at ________________

(name of the centre) in the District _____________________________, _______________________ (name of the State).

My qualification is ________________________.

I do hereby state that __________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for

the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _______________. In case, subsequently it is found that his qualification is

not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to the post and claims relating

thereto.

( Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Place:

Date:

85
 ANNEXURE XVI
UNIVERSITY FROM WHERE GRADUATED, SUBJECT STREAM, FACULTY AND DURATION
Codes for University from Where Graduated

Code Name of the University Code Name

No. (3 Letters)
01 Acharya N.G. Ranga Agricultural University, Guntur (AP) ANG
02 Anand Agricultural University, Anand-388 110 (Gujarat) AND
03 AP Horticultural University, Venkataramnnagudem, West Godawari-534101 (AP) AHU
04 Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat-785 013, (Assam) AAU
05 Bidhan Chandra Krishi Viswavidyalaya, Mohanpur, Nadia-741 252 (West Bengal) BCK
06 Birsa Agricultural University, Kanke, Ranchi-834 006 (Jharkhand) BAU
07 Ch. Sarwan Kumar Krishi Vishva-Vidyalaya, Palampur-176 062 (HP) HPK
08 C.S. Azad University Of Agri. & Technology, Kanpur-208 002 (UP) CSA
09 Ch. Charan Singh Haryana Agril. University, Hisar-125 004 (Haryana) HAU
10 Chhattisgarh Kamdhenu Vishwavidyalaya, Anjora, Dung-491 001 (CG) CKV
11 Dr. Balasaheb Sawant Konkan Krishi Vidyapeeth, Dapoli, Distt. Ratnagiri-415 712 KKV
(Maharashtra)
12 Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh Krishi Vidyapeeth, Krushinagar, Akola-444 104 (Maharashtra) PDK
13 Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar Univ. of Horticulture & Forestry, Solan, Nauni-173 230 (HP) YSP
14 Guru Angad Dev Vety. & Animal Sciences University, Ludhiana-141004 (Punjab) GAD
15 G.B. Pant University of Agri. & Technology, Pantnagar, Distt. Udham Singh Nagar-263145 GBP
(Uttarakhand)
16 Indira Gandhi Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Krishak Nagar, Raipur-492 012 (Chhattisgarh) IGK
17 Jawaharlal Nehru Krishi Viswa Vidyalaya, Adhartal, Jabalpur-482 004 (MP) JNK
18 Junagadh Agricultural University, Junagadh-362 001 (Gujarat) JAU
19 Karnataka Veterinary Animal And Fisheries Sciences University, Nandinagar, Bidar-585 401. KVA
( Karnataka)
20 Kerala Agricultural University, Vellanikkara, Thrissur-680 656 (Kerala) KAU
21 Kerala University of Fisheries & Ocean Studies, Panangad P.O., Kochi - 682506, (Kerala) KUF
22 Kerala Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Pookot Wayanad -673576 (Kerala) KVS
23 Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary and Animal Science Hisar (Haryana) LLR
24 Nanaji Deshmukh Veterinary Science University, Jabalpur (MP) NDV
, Jabalpur (MP)
25 Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture & Technology, Udaipur-313 001 (Rajasthan) MPU
26 Maharashtra Animal Science & Fishery University, Seminary Hills, Nagpur-440 006 MAS
(Maharashtra)
27 Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth, Rahuri-413 722 (Maharashtra) MPK
28 Marathwada Agricultural University, Parbhani-431 402 (Maharashtra) MAU
29 Banda University of Agriculture and Technology, Banda-210001(Uttar Pradesh) BUA
30 Narendra Deva University of Agri. and Technology, Kumarganj, Faizabad-224 229 (Uttar NDU
Pradesh)
31 Navsari Agricultural University, Dandi Road, Eruchar Rasta, Navsari-396 450 (Gujarat) NAU
32 Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, Bhubaneswar-751 003 (Odisha) OUA
33 Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana-141 004 (Punjab) PAU
34 Dr.RP CAU,Pusa,Samastipur-848 125 (Bihar) DRU
35 Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University, Bikaner (Rajasthan) RVB
36 Rajmata Vijayaraje Scindia Krishi Vishwa Vidyalaya Race Course Road, Gwalior-474002. ( MP) RVG
37 Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Univ. of Agriculture & Technology, Modipuram, Meerut-250 110 (UP) SVB
38 Sardarkrushinagar-Dantiwada Agricultural University, Sardar Krushinagar, Distt. Banaskantha- SDA
385 506 (Gujarat)
39 Sher-E-Kashmir University of Agril. Sciences & Technology, Jammu-180 012 (J&K) SKJ

86
 40 Sher-E-Kashmir University of Agril. Sciences & Technology of Kashmir, Shalimar Cam pus, SKS
Srinagar-191 121 (J&K)
41 Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Tirupati, Chittoor-517 502 (Andhra Pradesh) SVV
42 Swami Keshwanand Rajasthan Agricultural University, Bikaner-334 006 (Rajasthan) RAB
44 Tamil Nadu Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Chennai-600 051 (Tamil Nadu) TNV
45 Tamil Nadu Fisheries University, First Line Beach Road Nagapattinam– 611 001, (Tamil Nadu) TNF
46 University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad-580 005 (Karnataka) UAD
47 University of Agricultural Sciences, GKVK, Bengaluru-560 065 (Karnataka) UAB
48 University of Agricultural Sciences, Raichur-584102 (Karnataka) UAR
49 University of Agricultural and Horticultural Sciences, Shimoga (Karnataka) UAH
50 University of Horticultural Sciences, Bagalkot-587102 (Karnataka) UHB
51 UP Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhaya Pashu Chikitsa Vigyan Vishwa Vidyalaya Evam Anusandhan UPP Go
Sansthan, Mathura-281 001 (UP)
52 Uttar Banga Krishi Viswavidyalaya, P.O. Pundibari, Dist. Cooch Behar-736 165 (West Bengal) UBK
53 Uttarakhand University of Horticulture & Forestry, Bharsar, Pauri Garhwal (Uttarakhand) UUH
54 West Bengal University of Animal & Fishery Sciences, 68 Kb Sarani, Belgachia, Kolkata-700 037 WBU
(West Bengal)
55 Central Agricultural University, P.O. Box 23, Imphal-795 004 (Manipur) CAU
56 Aligarh Muslim University, Anoop Sahar Road, Aligarh-202 002 (UP) AMU
57 Banaras Hindu University, Institute of Agricultural Sciences, Varanasi-221 005 (UP) BHU
58 Nagaland University, School of Agricultural Sciences and Rural Development (SASARD), NAG
Medziphema-797 106 (Nagaland)
59 Visva Bharati, Palli Siksha Bhavana, P.O. Sriniketan-731 236 (West Bengal) VIB
60 Sam Higginbottom Institute of Agriculture, Technology & Sciences (Formerly Allahabad SHT
Agricultural Institute), Naini, Allahabad-211 007 (UP)
61 National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal-132 001 (Haryana) NDR
62 Delhi University (Delhi) DEL
63 SKN Agriculture University, Jobner, (Rajasthan) SKN
64 Agriculture University, Kota (Rajasthan) AUK
65 Agriculture University, Jodhpur (Rajasthan) AUJ
66 Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University, Jhansi (UP) RLB
67 Prof. Jayashankar State Agricultural University, Hyderabad (Telangana) PJT
68 Bihar Agriculture University, Sabour, Bhagalpur (Bihar) BAS
69 Kamdhenu University, Gandhinagar-382010 (Gujarat) KUG
70 Sri Konda Laxman Telangana State Horticultural University Rajendranagar, Hyderabad SKL
(Telangana)
71 Sri P.V. Narsimha Rao Telangana State University for Veterinary, Animal and Fisheries Sciences, SPV
Rajendranagar, Hyderabad
72 Other Universities OTH

Note: In case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an Agricultural University or any particular
college/university has been derecognized by VCI/UGC, ICAR will not be responsible for admitting students of that college/university
in the Universities not willing to admit such candidates.

87
 ANNEXURE XVII

UNIVERSITIES (TENTATIVE) FOR ADMISSION THROUGH AIEEA (PG) 2019 WITH ADDRESSES AND REGISTRAR’S CONTACT
NUMBER

S. Name & Address of University Tel. No. of Fax No. of

No. Registrar with Registrar
STD Code
A. ICAR INSTITUTE BASED DEEMED-TO-BE UNIVERSITIES
1. Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai-400 022-26363404 022-26361 573
061(Maharashtra)
2. Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi-110 012 (Delhi) 011-25733 390 011-258442494
3. Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Izatnagar-243 122 (UP) 0581-2301 375, 0581-2302179,
2302536 2303284
4. National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal-132 001 (Haryana) 0184-2259008, 0184-2250 042,
2259574 0184-2272392
B. STATE AGRICULTURAL/ VETERINARY UNIVERSITIES
5. Acharya N.G. Ranga Agricultural University, Guntur (AP) 040-24015 122 040-24018 653
6. Anand Agricultural University, Anand-388 110 (Gujarat) 02692-261 310 02692-261 310
7. Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat-785013 (Assam) 0376-2340 008 0376-2340 001
8. Bidhan Chandra Krishi Viswavidyalaya, Mohanpur, Nadia-741 252 033-25878 163 03473-222 273
(West Bengal)
9. Bihar Agricultural University, Sabour Distt. Bhagalpur 813210 (Bihar) 06274-240239 0641-2452604
10. Birsa Agricultural University, Kanke, Ranchi-834006. (Jharkhand) 0651-2450 832 0651-2450 832
11. C.S. Azad University of Agri. & Technology, Kanpur-208 002 (UP) 0512-2533 704 0512-2533 808
12. Chhattisgarh Kamdhenu Vishwavidyalaya, Anjora, Durg-491 001 0771-2103471 0771-14223614
(CG)
13. Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar Univ. of Horticulture & Forestry, Solan, 01792-252 219 01792-252 009
Nauni-173 230 (HP)
14. Dr. Y. S. R. Horticultural University, D. C. C. Bank Building, P.B. No. 7, 08816-284445 02692-261 520
Tadepalligudem-534101, West Godawari Distt. (AP)
15. G.B. Pant University of Agri. & Technology, Pantnagar, Distt. Udham 05944-233 640 05944-233 640
Singh Nagar-263 145 (Uttarakhand) 05944-233 473
16. Jawaharlal Nehru Krishi Viswavidyalaya, Adhartal, Jabalpur-482 004 0761-2481 778 0761-2481 778
(MP)
17. Junagadh Agricultural University, Junagadh-362 001 (Gujarat) 0285-2672 346 0285-2672 482
18. Kerala Agricultural University, Vellanikkara, Thrissur-680 656 0487-2371 619 0487-2370 019
(Kerala) 0487-2370 432
19. Kerala Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Pookot Wayanad - 0487-2373644 0487-2373043
673576 (Kerala)
20. Lala Lajpat Rai University of Veterinary and Animal Science Hisar 01662-289065 01662-289065
(Haryana)
21. Nanaji Deshmukh Veterinary Science University, South Civil Lines, 0761-2620783 0761-2620783
Jabalpur Madhya Pradesh 482001
22. Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture & Technology, Udaipur- 0294-2471 302 0294-2471 302
313 001 (Rajasthan)
23. Navsari Agricultural University, Eru Char Rasta, Vijalpore, Navsari- 02637-282 823 02637-283794
396 450 (Gujarat)
24. Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, Siripur, Bhubaneswar, 0674-2397424 0674-2397424
Khurda, 751 003 (Odisha)
25. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana-141 004 (Punjab) 0161-2400 955 0161-2400955
26. Swami Keshwanand Rajasthan Agricultural University, Bikaner-334 0151-2250025 0151-2250025
006 (Rajasthan)

88
 27. Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences, Bijay 0151-2540028 0151-2549348
Bhawan, Palace Complex, Bikaner-334006 (Rajasthan) 0151-2543419
28. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Univ. Of Agriculture & Technology, 0121-2888502 0121-2888525
Modipuram, Meerut-250 110 (UP)
29. Sher-E-Kashmir University of Agril. Sciences & Technology, Railway 0191-2262012 0191-2262012
Road, Jammu-180 012 (J&K)
30. Sher-E-Kashmir Univ. of Agril. Sciences & Technology of Kashmir, 0194-2461 271 0194-2461 271
Shalimar, Srinagar-191 121 (J&K)
31. Tamil Nadu Fisheries University, First Line Beach Road Nagapattinam 04365-241444 04365–240087
– 611 001 (Tamil Nadu)
32. Tamil Nadu Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Chennai-600 044-25551 584 044-25551 585
051 (Tamil Nadu)
33. University of Agricultural Sciences, GKVK, Bengaluru-560 080-23330 984 080-23330 277
065(Karnataka)
34. University of Agricultural and Horticultural Sciences, No. 126, Navile, 08182-270705 08182-2777295
Shimoga -577204 (Karnataka) 08182-279263
35. University of Horticultural Sciences, Sector No. 60, Navanagar, 08354-201351 08354-235152
Bagalkot-587102. (Karnataka)
36. UP Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhaya Pashu Chikitsa Vigyan 0565-2470199 0565-2470819
VishwaVidyalaya Evam Go Anusandhan Sansthan, Mathura-281 001 0565-2471288
(UP)
37. West Bengal University of Animal & Fishery Sciences, 68 KB Sarani, 033-2556 3123 033-25571986
Belgachia, Kolkata-700 037(West Bengal)
38. SKN Agriculture University, Jobner-303329, Distt. Jaipur (Rajasthan) 01425-254022 01425-254022
39. Agriculture University, Kota Borkhera, Baran Road, Post Box Number 0744-2321205 0744-2321203
20 Kota-324001 (Rajasthan)
40. Prof. Jayashankar Telangana State Agricultural University, 040-24015226 040-24016688
Hyderabad-500030 (Telangana)
41. Sri Konda Laxman Telangana State Horticultural University 040-2401 4301 040-2401 4301
Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500030, (Telangana)
42. University of Agricultural Sciences Dharwad-580005, Karnataka 0836-2747958 0836-2745276
43. Sardarkrushinagar-Dantiwada Agricultural University, 02748-278226 02748-278234
Sardarkrushinagar, Distt. Banaskantha-385 506 (Gujarat)
44. Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Tirupati, (AP)-517502 08772-248894 08772-248881
45. Allahabad School of Agriculture, Allahabad, Sam Higginbottom 0532-2684781 0532-2684394
University of Agriculture,Technology & Science, Allahabad (U.P.) –
211007
46. Faculty of Fisheries, Kerala University of Fisheries & Ocean Studies, 0484-2703782 0484-2703782
Kochi Kerala-682506
C. CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITIES
47. Central Agricultural University, P.O. Box 23, Imphal-795 004 (Manipur) 0385-2410644 0385–2415196
48. Dr.Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Pusa, Samastipur-848 06274-240 239 06274-240277
125 (Bihar)
D. CENTRAL UNIVERSITIES WITH AGRICULTURE FACULTY
49. Banaras Hindu University (Institute of Agricultural Sciences), Varanasi- 0542-2368558 0542-2368 418
221 005 (UP)
50. Nagaland University (School of Agril. Sciences & Rural Development), 03862-247 255 03862-247 113
Medziphema-797 106 (Nagaland)
*The final list of universities for admission to Master’s degree programmes will be available at the time of counselling.

89
 ANNEXURE XVIII
CASTE CERTIFICATE FOR SCHEDULED CASTE / TRIBE CANDIDATE

1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt/Kumari……….…................................................ Date of Birth ...................................

Son/Daughter of.................................................................of village/town ..................................... in District/Division of
State/Union Territory .....................belongs to the ..............................Caste/Tribe which is recognized as SC/ST under The
Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order, 1950. The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Union Territories Order, 1951. The
Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Union Territories Order. 1951, as amended by the SCs And STs List (Modification) Order.
1950; The Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960; The Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966; The State Of HP Act, 1970; The North
Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the SCs And STs Order (Amendment) Act, 1976. The Constitution (Jammu
& Kashmir) SC Order, 1956. The Constitution (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) SC Order 1959 as amended by SCs and STs Order
(Amendment) Act,
1976. The Constitution (Dadra And Nagar Haveli) SCs Order, 1962. The Constitution (Dadra And Nagar Haveli) STs Order, 1962. The
Constitution (Pondicherry) SCs Order, 1964. The Constitution Scheduled Tribes (Uttar Pradesh) Order. 1967. The Constitution
(Goa, Daman & Diu) SCs Order, 1968. The Constitution (Nagaland) STs Order. 1970. The Constitution (Sikkim) SCs Order,
1968 or any such Govt. of India directive applicable at the time of counseling.
2. Shri/Smt/Kumari..................................................................and/or his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in Village/
Town.................................of District....................................of State/Union Territory of .......................................
3. Applicable in the case of SC/ST persons who have migrated from State/Union Territory Administration to another
State/Union Territory. The certificate is issued on the basis of the SC/ST Certificate to Shri/Smt
........................................ father / mother of Shri/Smt/Kumari............................................. of
Village/Town.......................................... in District/Division............................................... of the State/ Union
Territory ......................................... who belongs to the ........................................... Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled
Tribe in the State/Union Territory issued by the ........................................ (Name of the prescribed authority) vide their
No ....................... Dated..................................

Signature
Designation (with Seal of Office)
Place…………….(State/Union Territory)
Date…………..

*Please delete the words which are not applicable. Please quote specific presidential order.
Note: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here has the same meaning as in section 20 of the representation of the
people’s act, 1950.
List of Authorities Empowered to Issue SC/ST Certificates
1. District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy
Collector/1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/City Magistrate/Sub-divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive
Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner not below the rank of 1st class Stipendiary Magistrate.
2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate
3. Revenue Officers, not below the rank of Tehsildar
4. Sub-divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides
5. Administrator/Secretary to Administrator/Development Officer (Lakshadweep Islands)
6. Certificate issued by any other authority will be rejected.

90
 ANNEXURE XIX

FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES-NON CREAMY LAYER (OBC-NCL) APPLYING FOR ADMISSION TO
CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIs), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum. ..............................................................Son/Daughter of Shri/Smt.

..................................................... of Village/Town............................................ District/Division ..................................................in
the.................................................. State belongs to the ................................................ Community which is recognized as a
backward class under:

(i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCC(C) dated 10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No186 dated
13/09/93.
(ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC dated 19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 163 Dated
20/10/94.
(iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated 24/05/95 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 88 Dated
25/05/95.
(iv) Resolution No. 12011/96/94-BCC dated 9/03/96.
(v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC dated 6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 Dated
11/12/96.
(vi) Resolution No. 12011/13/97-BCC dated 03/12/97.
(vii) Resolution No. 12011/99/94-BCC dated 11/12/97.
(viii) Resolution No. 12011/68/98-BCC dated 27/10/99.
(ix) Resolution no. 12011/88/98-bcc dated 6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 270 dated 06/12/99.
(x) Resolution no. 12011/36/99-bcc dated 04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 71 dated
04/04/2000.
(xi) Resolution no. 12011/44/99-bcc Dated 21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
21/09/2000.
(xii) Resolution no. 12015/9/2000-bcc dated 06/09/2001. (xiii) Resolution no. 12011/1/2001-bcc dated 19/06/2003. (xiv) Resolution
no. 12011/4/2002-bcc dated 13/01/2004.
(xiii) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006.
(xiv) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/ 2007.
(xv) Resolution No.12011/16/2007-BCC dated 12/10/2007; Resolution No.12018/6/2005-BCC dated 30/07/2010; Resolution No.
12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010; Resolution No. 12015/15/2008-BCC dated 16/06/2011; Resolution No.12015/13/2010-
BC-II dated 08/12/2011; Resolution No.12015/5/2011-BC-II dated 17/02/2014; Resolution No. 20012/129/2009-BC-II dated
04/03/2014.

Shri/Smt./Kum............................................................................and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in the

..............................................................District/Division of.............................................................State. This is also to certify that
he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India,
Department of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) Dated 08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No. 36033/1/2013
Estt.(Res.) dated 27th May, 2013.

Dated:………...…………….
District magistrate/ Deputy commissioner, etc
Seal
Note:
(a) The term ‘Ordinarily’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People
Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate / Additional Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy
Collector/ Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra
Assistant Commissioner (Not Below The Rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his family resides.

91
 Declaration/undertaking - for OBC candidates only

I, .................................................................son/daughter of Shri ............................................................... resident of

Village/Town/City......................................District ...................................State hereby declare that I belong to
the..................................Community which is recognized as a Backward Class by the Government of India for the purpose of
reservation in services as per orders contained in Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum No.36012/22/93-
Estt.(SCT), dated 8/9/1993. It is also declared that I do not belong to persons/ Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3
of The Schedule to the above referred Office Memorandum, Dated 8/9/1993, which is Modified vide Department of Personnel and

Training Office Memorandum No. 36033/1/2013 Estt.(Res.) dated 27th May, 2013.

Place: ................................... Signature of the Candidate

Date: .....................................

 Declaration/undertaking not signed by candidate will be rejected.

 False declaration will render the applicant liable for termination of registration at any time.

Creamy Layer Definition

OBC Creamy layer is defined comprehensively at http://ncbc.nic.in/html/creamylayer.html

All candidates for the OBC reserved seats should make sure that they do not satisfy any of the creamy layer criteria as listed in the
website. Some general exclusion for quick reference (no way comprehensive) are as follows.

1. Any of the parents holds a constitutional position in govt. of India

2. Any one of the parents is a class i officer.
3. Both the parents are class ii officers.
4. Any one of the parents is employed in an equivalent rank to class I officer or both parents equivalent to class II officer in a public
sector, insurance companies, banks, universities or in other organizations
5. Land holdings on irrigated land are 85% or more of the statutory ceiling area.
6. Parents income is more than Rs.8 lakhs per year or Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling.

92
 ANNEXURE XX

*Note 1: Income covered all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession, etc.

93
 ANNEXURE XXI

SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE
DECLARATION BY THE EMPLOYER OF THE CANDIDATE (FOR IN-SERVICE CANDIDATES)

(i) Certified that the particulars filled by Mr./Shri...................................................................... .......son/

daughter of.......................................................................................... .in the application form have
been verified and found correct.

(ii) The candidate will be granted deputation leave/study leave/extraordinary leave or he/she will be given
a scholarship or stipend of the value of Rs.................per month. On completion of the degree, he/she
will be required to serve this department/institute/university for a period of................years.

(iii) If selected for admission, the candidate will be relieved to join the course on the date of start of session
in the university when admitted.

(iv) If selected for the award of or other fellowship, there will be no objection for his receiving the
scholarship and contingency amounts attached there to subject to the following conditions:

(a) ....................................

(b) ....................................

(c) ....................................

(v) Certified that I am competent to take the decision to sponsor him/her on the terms and conditions
mentioned above/the decision to sponsor him/her on the above terms and conditions has been
taken by and is being communicated under the direction of who is the competent authority.

(vi) This university/Institute/organization/department under takes to pay dues out standing against the
candidate, if not paid by him.

(vii) Any other relevant information:

SIGNATURE...................................................................

DESIGNATION......................................................................

ADDRESS .........................................................................

.........................................................................

.........................................................................

Candidates are advised to preserve this certificate (after declaration by the employer) for showing at the
time of admission in the concerned university. In no case, this certificate or its copy should be sent by the
candidate either to NTA or ICAR.

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 Annexure –XXII

Employment status of in-service candidates

Institutes/Agric. Universities/Other Code Number
ICAR Institutes and ICAR Institute based Deemed-to-be- 01
Universities
State Agricultural Universities including 02
Veterinary/Horticulture/
Fisheries Universities, CAU and CUs having faculty of
agriculture
Central Government Departments dealing in agriculture and 03
allied sectors
State Government Departments dealing in agriculture and 04
allied sectors
Public Sector Undertaking dealing in agriculture and allied 05
sectors
Any other Govt. organization 06

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