APPLICANT PREPARATION GUIDE FOR THE

POST ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY

PREPARING FOR THE MULTIPLE-CHOICE AND CLOZE EXAMS

There are many different types of tests. The two most familiar types are achievement tests and
aptitude tests. Achievement tests measure what is already known while aptitude tests measure the
probability of a person's success in some unfamiliar area. A final exam in college is an example
of an achievement test because the test measures information that has already been presented. In
contrast, a college entrance test (such as the SAT) is an example of an aptitude test because the
test measures existing skills to predict one’s ability to grasp and master information that will be
presented at a later date.

In general, studying previously presented material can improve performance on achievement

tests. However, little can be done to quickly improve performance on aptitude tests. This is
because aptitude tests measure existing skills that have been developed over a long period of
time. If an individual is weak in the areas associated with successful performance, the aptitude
test will detect these weaknesses and render scores that reflect a decreased probability of success.
The only way to predictably improve scores on an aptitude test is to improve existing skills
through extensive learning and practice (e.g., coursework, training).

Because the POST Entry-Level Law Enforcement Test Battery is primarily a language aptitude
test, one must already possess solid language skills to perform well on the test. However, there
are a few exercises that can be helpful in maximizing performance if solid language skills are
already in place. This test preparation guide has been developed to provide helpful information
about test format and content. This guide explains exactly what is tested in the exam and
provides short, sample tests that can be used for practice. This guide also provides research-
based information on the best strategies for answering test questions.

WHAT THE TEST BATTERY MEASURES

Focusing exclusively on language ability, the test battery is comprised of two components: one
evaluates writing ability and the other reading ability. The writing component of the test measures
clarity, vocabulary, and spelling. The reading component measures reading comprehension.

Writing Ability

Each of the three writing sub-tests contains 15 items. The clarity sub-test presents the test-taker
with two sentences and asks the test-taker to identify which sentence is correctly written and clear.
As the segment name implies, this section is intended to measure the test-taker's ability to identify
clear writing. Only common writing errors (e.g., unclear references, misplaced modifiers, sentence
fragments, and run-on sentences) are included in the clarity portion of the exam.

1
The spelling sub-test utilizes a standard multiple-choice format. A sentence is given with one word
omitted. A blank indicates the location of the omitted word. Four alternative spellings of the same
word are given. The test-taker is asked to identify the word that is correctly spelled for the given
context.

The vocabulary sub-test also uses a standard multiple-choice format. One word in a sentence is
underlined and the test-taker is instructed to select the alternative that is the most accurate synonym
or definition. The words included in the spelling and vocabulary tests are common words that are
likely to be encountered in law enforcement work.

Reading Ability

Reading ability is measured through the use of two sub-tests. The first is a 20-item reading
comprehension sub-test. This sub-test presents the test-taker with passages which vary in length
from a single paragraph to one page. After reading the passage, test-takers answer multiple-choice
questions about the information contained in the passage. All passages cover common concepts
and contain the information necessary to answer all questions.

The second measure of reading ability is the 40-item CLOZE sub-test. Test-takers are presented
with a passage of text. In each passage, the first and last sentences of the passage are left intact.
However, between the first and last sentences, every seventh word is systematically deleted from
the text. No word is deleted that cannot be deduced from context. In place of each deleted word is a
dashed line. Each dash represents one letter in the deleted word. The test-taker must use contextual
clues to determine what words would logically complete the passage. The word must come from
the test-taker's vocabulary as no alternative words or lists of words are presented in the test. A
word is considered correct if it is syntactically correct and semantically appropriate (i.e., words
selected by the test-taker must be the right part of speech and must make sense in the passage). In
some instances, there is more than one correct response, in others, only one word can correctly fill
the blank. In instances where more than one word is correct, the test-taker receives credit as long as
he/she selects a word that fits within the context.

PRACTICE TEST

The following shortened version of the test is provided to prepare potential test-takers for the
types of items they will encounter on the actual test. Familiarity with the structure and content of
the test should reduce anxiety associated with taking the exam. The covers of the test, as well as
all instructions and directions, have been presented exactly as they appear on actual tests.
Following each practice sub-test, the keyed responses are provided along with an explanation of
why the other choices are incorrect. For item formats where test-taking strategies can improve
one’s final score, the strategies are presented.

2
NAME: ___________________________________________________________________
(Last) (First) (MI)

SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____

TEST LOCATION ___________________________________________________________

DATE _____________________________________________________________________
(Month) (Day) (Year)

ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY

TEST BOOK A

CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON
PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING
1601 ALHAMBRA BOULEVARD
SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95816-7083

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO

CONTROL NUMBER ____________

3
 WRITING SKILLS TEST

The Writing Test is comprised of a 45-item multiple-choice examination. This test measures
three aspects of good writing: clarity, vocabulary, and spelling.

Remember to mark all responses to test questions on the answer sheet. Make no marks in the
test booklet.

Suggestions for Taking the Test

o Be sure you mark the space on your answer sheet that has the same number as the
question in the test booklet.

o Keep your answer sheet on a hard surface while you are marking an answer.

o Firmly press down the pencil point until you completely darken the circle on the
answer sheet. Do not use any other means of marking your answer sheet.

o If you wish to change your answer, you may do so, but be sure to erase your first
answer completely.

o It is to your advantage to answer all questions. If it takes an unreasonable amount of

time to answer a question, it is better to skip it and go back to it after the other
questions have been answered.

o Read and consider all choices to each question before deciding which one is correct.

4
 CLARITY

Instructions:

In the following pairs of sentences, identify the sentence which is most clearly written. If
sentence "a" is more clear than sentence "b," mark "a" on your answer sheet. If sentence "b" is
more clear than sentence "a," mark "b" on your answer sheet. Make no marks in the test booklet.

1. a. The officer was hoping to get a new partner, one that had a great deal of
experience.

b. The officer was hoping to get a new partner. One that had a great deal of
experience.

2. a. Bullet fragments were gathered by officers in envelopes.

b. Bullet fragments were gathered in envelopes by officers.

3. a. The suspect disliked the officer as did the judge.

b. The suspect disliked the officer as much as the judge.

4. a. The officer had probable cause to arrest the suspect when he arrived at the scene.

b. When the officer arrived at the scene, he had probable cause to arrest the suspect.

5. a. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but they do get their basic necessities met.

b. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but prisoners do get their basic necessities met.

Correct Answers:

1, a; 2, b; 3, a; 4, b; 5, b

Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:

In item #1, alternative "b" is incorrect because "One that had a great deal of experience" is a
sentence fragment.

In item #2, alternative "a" is incorrect because it contains a misplaced modifier. The way this
sentence is written, it sounds like the officers collecting the bullet fragments were themselves
in the envelope.

In item #3, alternative "b" is incorrect because it is confusing and ambiguous. Does the
suspect dislike both the officer and the judge, or does the judge dislike the officer as much as
does the suspect? One can't tell the way the sentence is written.

5
 In item #4, alternative "a" is incorrect because it has an unreferenced pronoun. The way the
pronoun "he" is used in this sentence makes it unclear if "he" is referring to the officer or the
suspect.

In item #5, alternative "a" is incorrect because it is unclear who is referred to by the pronoun
"they." In sentence "b", the noun "prisoners" makes the sentence clear.

Things to study:

This is the only sub-test where studying can markedly improve your test score. The clarity test
measures your ability to identify clear, as opposed to unclear, writing. The writing faults that
are included in this test relate to modification, reference and sentence boundaries. No obscure
writing faults are included. To maximize your test score, you should review the rules
regarding:

1. Modification

Example 1:

a. "In rural areas, more deer are killed by automobiles than by hunters."

b. "In rural areas, automobiles kill more deer than hunters."

Explanation:

Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that more deer are killed by
automobiles than are killed by hunters. Choice "b" is an example of improper
modification. The way the sentence is written automobiles are killing both deer and
hunters.

Example 2:

a. Beginning to run before stretching is frequently the cause of shin splints.

b. Beginning to run before stretching frequently is the cause of shin splints.

Explanation:

Choice "a" is correctly written. The reader knows that beginning to run before stretching
can frequently cause shin splints. Choice "b" is written incorrectly. The way this sentence
is worded, "frequently" incorrectly modifies stretching thus causing confusion or error.

6
2. Vague or Indefinite Reference

Example 1:

a. The next time Mary was in town, she agreed to have lunch with Sue.

b. Mary agreed to have lunch with Sue the next time she was in town.

Explanation:

Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows who is having lunch, with whom, and
when. Choice "b" suffers from an ambiguous reference. The sentence is ambiguous
because the way it is worded does not make clear whether Mary will have lunch with Sue
the next time Mary is in town or the next time Sue is in town.

Example 2:

a. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in commercials, even though he

didn't know exactly what the toys were.

b. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in the commercials, even though
he didn't know exactly what they were.

Explanation:

Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that what were advertised in the
commercials were toys. Choice "b" is incorrect because the "they" at the end of the
sentence is unreferenced. The reader does not know what was in the commercials that the
child wanted.

3. Run-on Sentences

Example:

a. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now
ready to be printed. The publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign.

b. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now
ready to be printed the publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign.

Explanation:

Choice "a" is correctly written. Choice "b" is a run-on because it consists of two complete
sentences that are not separated by a semi-colon, a period, or a comma and a coordinating
conjunction.

7
4. Sentence Fragments

Example:

a. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense
claims in addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization.

b. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense
claims. In addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization.

Explanation:

Choice "a" is correctly written. Sentence "b" is incorrect because the phrase "in addition
to acting as the receptionist for the organization" is not a complete sentence.

8
 VOCABULARY

Instructions

In each of the following sentences, choose the word or phrase that most nearly has the same
meaning as the underlined word.

Mark on your answer sheet the letter that identifies the correct choice.

1. The witness corroborated the suspect's story.

a. verified
b. contradicted
c. added to
d. questioned

2. It was not a very pragmatic plan.

a. plausible
b. serious
c. practical
d. sensible

3. The police sequestered the suspect.

a. caught
b. isolated
c. arrested
d. released

4. In order to conceal her guilt, Linda told a blatant lie.

a. harmless
b. subtle
c. careless
d. obvious

5. He was ignorant of the proper procedures.

a. unaware
b. conscious
c. uncertain
d. cognizant

Correct Answers:

1, a; 2, c; 3, b; 4, d; 5, a

9
Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:

In item #1:
verify means to corroborate, confirm, or attest to
contradict means to express the opposite
added to means to augment
question means to cast doubt on

In item #2
plausible means apparently valid or likely
serious means earnest or sincere
practical means pragmatic
sensible means reasonable or wise

In item #3
caught means to seize or trap
isolate means to sequester
arrest means to seize or bring into custody
release means to let go

In item #4
harmless means not harmful, inoffensive
subtle means not obvious
careless means done without care or concern
obvious means blatant

In item #5
unaware means ignorant
conscious means aware
uncertain means having questions regarding
cognizant means aware

Things to study:

The best way to improve vocabulary is to read, read, read and read some more. It is only
through using and interacting with language that real mastery is achieved. To learn words
in isolation is very difficult. One can study word lists and attempt to memorize them, but
this tends to be less than optimal as a means of improving vocabulary. Words will be
remembered for awhile and then forgotten. One can also study the Latin and Greek roots,
prefixes, and suffixes on which many of our English words are based. Research has not
demonstrated, however, a substantial carry over between learning these roots, prefixes,
and suffixes and actually improving one's vocabulary. Thus, there is probably not much
that can be done in a short period of time to improve vocabulary. Any real improvement
will come only after extensive use of the language. This said, it is useful and interesting
to see how words can be built from roots, prefixes, and suffixes. Below are some
examples of words that derive their meaning from their roots, prefixes, and suffixes.

10
Roots Meaning Example

bas low basement, debase

bio life biology, biopsy
cent hundred century, centipede
dec ten decade, decimal
ego I egoism, egomaniac
equ equal equity, equanimity
fort strong fortitude, fortify
graph write autograph, graphic
loc place location, dislocate
mort death mortal, mortician
ped child pediatrician, pedagogy
phob fear claustrophobia, homophobia
poten powerful impotent, potentate
soph wisdom philosophy, sophisticated
term end terminate, terminal
urb city suburban, urban

Prefixes Meaning Example

anti against antidote, antislavery

in, il, im, ir not indiscrete, illegal, impossible, irresponsible
inter among, between intercede, interject
non not nonconformist, nonentity
re back recur, rebound
pre before precede, preempt
sub under subvert, submarine
trans across transmit, transcend
un not un-American, unaware

Suffixes Meaning Example

ance, ence state of indulgence, abundance

ate one who candidate, advocate
il, ile capable of being evil, servile
ness quality of willingness, shrewdness
ory a place for factory, depository
some characteristic of loathsome, fearsome

11
Test strategies:

1. Put the word in context.

If you do not know the word itself, attempt to figure out the meaning
based on the meaning of the sentence in which it is used.

2. Be aware of subtle differences in meaning.

There will be occasions when two words seem to be correct. Before

making your decision regarding which word to indicate as the correct
choice, attempt to identify the differences between the words. This will
help you decide which word is most correct in the context in which it is
presented in the test.

12
 SPELLING

Instructions

In the following sentences, choose the correct spelling of the missing word. Mark on your
answer sheet the letter that identifies the correct choice.

1. His ______________ of the situation was incorrect.

a. analisys
b. annalysis
c. analysis
d. anallysys

2. It was not _____________ who committed the crime.

a. apparent
b. apperant
c. aparent
d. aperant

3. She was a ____________ worker.

a. conscienteous
b. consceintious
c. consceinteous
d. conscientious

4. She did not actually _____________ the stolen goods.

a. receive
b. recieve
c. receve
d. recive

5. There was only one witness to the boy's ______________.

a. abducton
b. abducsion
c. abduction
d. abduckion

Correct Answers:

1, c; 2, a; 3, d; 4, a; 5, c

13
Things to study:

It is difficult to prepare for the spelling portion of the test. There were no specific word lists
utilized to identify the words that comprise the spelling test and, therefore, no specific words
to study. The words that comprise the test are words that could likely find themselves in
police reports or in the other writing done by officers. There are rules that govern spelling, but
they are many and complex.

The complete set of rules that govern spelling is quite extensive, and there are numerous
exceptions to the rules. The following includes just a few of the more important rules that
govern spelling.

1. Prefixes

A prefix is a syllable or syllables added to the beginning of a word to change its meaning.
The word prefix means "to fix to the beginning of a word." A prefix does not change the
spelling of the original word, it is simply added to the beginning of that word.

Examples:
dis approve, dis continue, mis understand, over extend, un happy.

2. Suffixes

A suffix is a syllable or syllables added to the end of a word to change its meaning.
Suffix is defined as meaning "a letter, syllable, or group of syllables added at the end of a
word or word base to change its meaning."

There are a number of rules that govern spelling when adding a suffix.

A. When adding the suffix ness or ly, don't change the spelling of the base word.
However, when the root word ends in y, the y is usually changed to i before the ly
or ness.

Examples: sure, surely; cool, coolness; happy, happily; friendly, friendliness.

B. When a one syllable word ends in a single consonant preceded by a single vowel,
double the consonant before adding ing, ed, er, est.

Examples: wrap, wrapping; tap, tapped; big, biggest.

C. When a word with more than one syllable ends in a single consonant preceded by
a single vowel, and when the accent is on the last syllable, double the consonant
before adding ing, ed.

Examples: occur, occurring; submit, submitted.

14
 D. When a word ends in a consonant followed by a silent e, drop the e before adding
ing.

Examples: hide, hiding; save, saving.

E. When a word ends in y preceded by a consonant, keep the y before adding ing.
When adding either es or ed, change the y to i.

Examples: cry, crying; cry cries; cry, cried.

3. Plural forms of nouns

A. To form the plural form of most nouns, add s.

Examples: truck, trucks; cat, cats.

B. To form the plural form of nouns ending in s, x, z, ch, or sh, add es

Examples: box, boxes; patch, patches; fox, foxes.

C. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus y, change the y to i
and add es.

Examples: county, counties; cherry, cherries.

D. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus y, add s.

Examples: turkey, turkeys; boy, boys.

E. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus o, add es.

Examples: tomato, tomatoes; veto, vetoes.

F. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus o, add s.

Examples: rodeo, rodeos; stereo, stereos.

4. "I" and "E" Rule

The general rule is that i precedes e (e.g., believe etc.) except after c when e precedes i
(e.g., receive).

15
 THE MULTIPLE-CHOICE READING COMPREHENSION TEST

Instructions

Officers must read and understand a wide range of materials. This test is designed to measure
your ability to read and understand various types of written material. Read each paragraph or
passage and choose the statement which best answers the question. All questions pertain only to
the material in the passage which precedes them. Therefore, you are to choose your answer
solely on the basis of the material contained in the passage. Mark the letter which identifies your
choice in the space on your answer sheet. Do not spend too much time on any one item.

1. The case of Gideon v. Wainwright, decided by the Supreme Court in 1962, granted court-
appointed counsel to people charged with felonies who could not afford to pay for their
own attorneys. In a more recent case, the Supreme Court declared that the right extends
to persons who are charged with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty.
According to these court decisions, a defendant may waive his or her right to be
represented by counsel at trial, but the state must at least provide the defendant with the
opportunity to have free counsel.

Based on the above passage, which of the following statements is most correct regarding
defendants who cannot afford an attorney?

a. Anyone who must appear in court has the right to a free attorney.

b. Anyone whose charges may result in prison must have an attorney representing
him or her at trial.

c. Anyone charged with a felony must have an attorney present for his or her trial.

d. Anyone charged with an offense that could lead to prison must have the option of
a free attorney.

2. During the 1970s rural America registered a population gain of almost 14 percent, while
metropolitan growth was just under 10 percent. The surprising spurt in rural growth had
nothing to do, however, with prolific reproduction. On the contrary, rural areas were
mired in aging townsfolk. This fact, combined with the trend toward smaller families,
actually resulted in a 10 percent decline in the existing rural population between 1965 and
1970. Newcomers more than made up for that loss. The latest census tells us that one
sixth of the U.S. population now lives in rural areas and 40 percent of all new housing in
the 1970s was built on rural land. The rural areas are now growing faster than the
metropolitan areas for the first time since the early 1800s.

Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Rural areas were mired in aging townsfolk because the young and farmers were
immigrating to the cities.

16
 b. There has been more than a 10 percent increase of newcomers to rural areas.

c. The overall gain in the American population was almost 14 percent.

d. The trend toward small families contributed to the decrease in the urban
population growth rate.

3. Entrapment is defined as officers or agents of the government provoking a person to

commit a crime that he did not originally contemplate in order to prosecute him. The goal
of law enforcement is not to encourage nor to create an offense, but to prevent people
from committing crimes and/or arrest people when they do commit offenses.

Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements describes an instance
of entrapment?

a. Property that has been marked by police so that they can trace it at a later time.

b. A victim, learning that a person intends to rob him, does nothing to stop the
crime, but instead allows the robber to carry through with the crime so that police
will catch him in the act.

c. A door to a warehouse containing valuable merchandise is purposely left open by

police.

d. An undercover officer approaches a known drug dealer and tries, unsuccessfully,

to purchase drugs.

4. Community policing has gained increased acceptance during the past 10 years. The
community policing model places service to the public and prevention of crime as the
primary role of police in society and emphasizes problem solving, with active citizen
involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community, rather than
crime fighting and arrest statistics. Officers at the patrol level are required to spend less
time in their cars communicating with other officers and more time on the street
communicating with citizens. Proponents of this style of policing insist that addressing
the causes of crime makes police officers more effective and at the same time enhances
the quality of life in the neighborhood. Community policing concepts, if successfully
implemented, offer the prospect of effective crime prevention and substantially improved
community relations. Although community-based policing is not a panacea for the
problems of crime in society, it does offer valuable opportunity to both reduce crime and
enhance the police image.

According to the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Community policing is expected to increase the number of arrests made by patrol

officers.

b. Implementing community policing is expected to decrease the amount of crime.

17
 c. Community policing is not designed to lessen crime.

d. The community policing model defers decision-making to citizens and

community members.

5. GENERAL ORDER 62 (Radio Codes)

The purpose of this general order is to describe the coding system that identifies the
various departmental and non-departmental units. Below you will find three components
of police radio codes (A, B, and C). When a dispatcher sends officers out on a call, these
3 code components are used.

Each call number shall be comprised of three components:

1. the first digit identifies shift

2. the alpha digit describes the operational assignment
3. the last two digits identifies unit or area

Call numbers shall be assigned as follows:

A. Shift designation

1 – Day
2 – Swing
3 – Graveyard

B. Operational assignments

A – Patrol Division, Platoon 1

B – Patrol Division, Platoon 2
C – Patrol Division, Special Activities
D – Patrol Division, Gang Unit
E – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 1
F – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 2
G – Traffic Division, Administration
H – Investigation Division, Fraud
I – Investigation Division, Drugs
J – Administration Division

C. Unit or Area

1-12 – Metropolitan area

13-20 – Airport
21-40 – Industrial parks
41-45 – Residential areas

18
 Using the above coding system, the call number 2-B-12 would identify

a. swing shift, platoon 2, metropolitan area

b. graveyard, platoon 1, airport
c. swing shift, administration, residential
d. day, traffic unit 1, airport

Correct Answers:

1, d; 2, b; 3, c; 4, b; 5, a

Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:

Item #1: Alternative "a" is incorrect because it states that "anyone who must appear in
court has the right to a free attorney" while the text states that "persons who are
charged with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty" have a right to a
free attorney.

Alternative "b" is incorrect because it states that "anyone…must have an attorney

representing him or her at trial." The passage, however, states that "a defendant
may waive his or her right to be represented."

Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that "anyone charged with a felony
must be represented for his or her trial" while the passage only addresses
individuals charged with a crime "for which prison is a potential penalty."

Item #2: Alternative "a" is incorrect because the passage says nothing about "the young
and farmers….immigrating to the cities."

Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that an "overall gain in the American
population" but the passage speaks about rural and metropolitan growth, not
overall growth.

Alternative "d" is incorrect because the passage states that the trend toward
smaller families resulted in a "decline in the existing rural population" not a trend
toward smaller families affecting urban growth.

Item #3: Alternative "a" does not constitute entrapment because there is no government
provocation to steal the marked items.

Alternative "b" is not entrapment because the activity described is undertaken by

a "victim" not by the government.

Alternative "d" is not entrapment because the officer is not provoking an

individual to commit a crime that they were not already contemplating
committing.

19
 Item #4: Alternative "a" is incorrect because community policing is not focused primarily
on enhancing arrest statistics but rather "places service to the public and
prevention of crime as the primary role of police in society."

Alternative "c" is incorrect because community policing is intended to lessen

crime. Unlike traditional policing, however, this goal is to be achieved through
crime prevention, not crime fighting.

Alternative "d" is incorrect because decision-making is not deferred to the citizens

and the community. Community policing does, however, stress "active citizen
involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community."

Item #5: Alternatives "b", "c", and "d" are immediately recognized as incorrect because the
last element of the code (12) refers to the metropolitan area, and only one of the
choices, "a," meets this condition.

Test strategies:

Strategy 1: Read the question and the alternative responses before reading the passage.

The issue of whether to read the passage or the question first is debated. Some contend
that the passage should be read carefully before the question and alternative answers.
Such a tactic, however, inevitably requires the reader to go back to the passage after
reading the passage and question. It also precludes the reader from reading with a
purpose or a goal, both of which improves reading efficiency. Most recommend reading
the question and alternative answers first, and then reading the passage. This strategy has
the advantage of having the test-taker read the passage while looking for the specific
information that will correctly answer the question.

Strategy 2: Don't answer a question based on your opinions or knowledge; answer the
question based on what is in the passage.

The reading passages come from a variety of sources, and they address a variety of
topics. In all instances, however, all of the information needed to answer the question is
contained in the passage. In answering the questions, be guided by the information
contained in the passage, not by other information that you possess or opinions that you
may hold.

Strategy 3: Read the question very carefully.

It is very unlikely that you will identify the correct answer if you have misread the
question.

20
NAME: ___________________________________________________________________
(Last) (First) (MI)

SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____

TEST LOCATION ___________________________________________________________

DATE _____________________________________________________________________
(Month) (Day) (Year)

ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY

TEST BOOK B
Form Version: 220

CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON
PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING
1601 ALHAMBRA BOULEVARD
SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95816-7083
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED

CONTROL NUMBER ______________________

21
 CLOZE READING TEST

This is a test of how well you can read. The test is completed by supplying missing words in
sentences and then coding those words on your answer sheet.

Every place you see a dashed blank line, you have to supply the correct word. Notice that there
are different numbers of dashes in each blank space. The dashes tell you how many letters make
up the word that has been deleted. For a word to be scored as being correct, it must make sense
in the passage and it must have the same number of letters as there are dashes. All words that
meet these two conditions will be scored as being correct.

For example, a sentence in the test might read, "The driver was injured when his
1) _ _ _ crashed into the tree." You would complete the sentence by printing "CAR" in the
blank space provided: "The driver was injured when his 1) C A R crashed into the tree."
The word B U S could have been used, as it both makes sense in the blank space, and has the
proper number of letters. The words truck, auto and vehicle are incorrect, because, even
though they make sense in the blank, they have the wrong number of letters. There were three
dashes in the blank space. Therefore, only words with three letters can be used. Also, only one
word has been deleted in each blank space, so make sure that you put only one word in each
blank space with a dashed line.

Once you have completed the passage, you then code your answers onto Page 2, side 2 of the
answer sheet. On Page 2, you will find the alphabet printed many times. Each numbered column
represents one item. To code a word on the answer sheet, write the FIRST LETTER of the
word that you wrote in the blank, in the box directly under the appropriate item number. Then,
blacken the circle in the column of letters that is the same as the letter you wrote in the box.
ONLY THE RESPONSES CODED ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET WILL BE SCORED,
SO MAKE SURE YOU CODE YOUR ANSWERS CORRECTLY. As you are coding your
answer sheet, check to ensure that:

• the item number on the answer sheet, where you are coding your responses,
corresponds with the item number in the passage.

• you have written the correct letter in the box.

• you have blackened the correct circle below the box.

The sample paragraph on the following page demonstrates how the coding is done.

22
First, complete the blanks.

The juvenile justice system encounters many types of people. Here is one example.

Mary was 15 when 1) _ _ _ was first arrested. Mary was a popular girl. 2) _ _ the

time of her first arrest, 3) _ _ _ was doing well in school. According to

4) _ _ _ teacher, she was a hard working 5) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and made excellent grades.

Mary also had 6) _ good attitude toward school. Mary lived with her parents 7) _ _ a

middle class neighborhood.

Acceptable words for the above example are: 1) she, 2) at, 3) she, 4) her, 5) student, 6) a,
and 7) in.

Then, code the answers on the answer sheet.

23
The ability to write clear, well-developed reports is a necessary prerequisite to being a good law

enforcement officer. Writing good 1)_ _ _ _ _ _ _, however, has been, and continues to 2)_ _ one

of the primary weaknesses of 3)_ _ _ _ officers. Writing skills can be improved 4)_ _ _ _ _ _

through raising entrance standards, improving training, 5)_ _ a combination of the two.

Accepting 6)_ _ _ _ there are limits on how high 7)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ standards be set, one is

realistically 8)_ _ _ _ with training as a means of 9)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ writing skills.

POST has developed a 10)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ course for the basic academy that 11)_ _ designed to

teach students how to 12)_ _ _ _ _ clearly and effectively. The curriculum is 13)_ _ _ _ _ _ by

established principles of teaching and 14)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _. A basic premise underlying the

curriculum 15)_ _ that writers learn best by writing, 16)_ _ _ by writing frequently. A second

premise 17)_ _ that students learn best when they 18)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ information through more than

a single 19)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ mode.

Correct Answers:

1) reports
2) be
3) many
4) either
5) or
6) that
7) entrance
8) left
9) improving
10) writing
11) is
12) write
13) guided
14) learning
15) is
16) and
17) is
18) receive
19) sensory

24
Test Strategy:

As can readily be seen from the list of correct words, some of the words are very easy to
identify and others are considerably more difficult. On this type of test it is extremely rare
for a test-taker to get all of the words correct. Therefore, you should not worry if you do
not know all of the words. To do your best on this type of examination, it is important
that you read through the entire passage before you write, and then continue to re-read the
passage as you enter more words.

25
 THE ESSAY EXAM

Preparing for the Law Enforcement Essay Exam

The best way to prepare for the Essay Exam is, of course, to write. The following information
provides the scoring guide, a group of example essays, and four sample essay prompts. The
sample prompts should let you know what is expected of you and provide you with some
samples for practice. The essay exam is a 40-minute exam, so you should practice by giving
yourself timed writings. As you read the example essays, you should remember that typing the
sample essays makes the errors and other problems more noticeable than they would be when
handwritten.

If you have not written for a very long time, or if you feel that your knowledge of grammar is
insecure, you might find it useful to take a writing course at a local college. A number of
grammar handbooks exist, which you can locate at almost any bookstore, especially college
bookstores. One very popular handbook is called Easy Access: The Reference Handbook for
Writers, by Katherine Adams and Michael Keene (Mayfield Publishing). This text includes a
good section on English as a Second Language. One caution: studying grammar without
practicing writing seldom improves writing skills.

Why Essays Fail

Essays fall into the lower half of the scoring range for a variety of reasons. The scoring guide
should make clear why essays fail. But more discussion might be helpful. Listed below are some
examples of why essays fail.

1) Some essays are difficult to follow. The writer may know what he or she means, but a reader
has difficulty following. The essay with a score of 3 not only contains a number of errors, but
seems to leave out details and reasons that would make the essay more clear.

2) Some essays are filled with errors, especially errors that obscure meaning. One common
problem that is readily corrected is the shifting from one tense to another (e.g., "He got out of his
car and then he starts to yell."). Usually, writers who take time to proofread their work can get
rid of many errors.

3) Some essays do not provide sufficient relevant detail or fail to explore ideas in any depth. The
general instructions for the essay exam call for a fully developed essay. Exams that are only a
handwritten half page will probably not have sufficient development.

4) The prompts ask the candidates to write about a specific incident; some candidates choose,
instead, to write about a more generalized situation, which misses the point of the topic (e.g.,
"Whenever I teach, I follow these rules."). The essay with a score of 2 exemplifies this
generalized approach. The purpose in asking for a specific incident is that this task most nearly
replicates the body of a police report: the prompt asks for a chronology of events and a
conclusion.

26
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Below are four practice prompts. They are typical of the kind of question you will face on the
exam: these prompts ask you to write about a specific incident and then to reflect upon the
experience.

These prompts are intended to test the candidates' ability to write a clear, coherent narrative--
much like what one expects in good police report writing: the ability to provide ample and
appropriate detail and to draw well-reasoned conclusions.

The prompts below will provide you with a good deal of practice. You should try each prompt as
a timed writing experience. You should be able to use each prompt more than once if you discuss
a different incident with each attempt.

1. All of us have had experiences when everything went right, when we succeeded at something
we tried, in spite of odds against success.

Describe a difficult task that you carried out successfully or a difficult goal that you achieved.
Explain how you went about it and what you learned from the experience of overcoming the
odds.

2. Events or situations in our lives often produce unexpected responses. We may find ourselves
reacting in better or worse ways than we would have thought.

Write about a time when your reactions to an event or a situation in life were not what you would
have expected. Describe the event and explain how your response surprised you.

3. Write an essay about a point in your own life when you felt that you did not receive proper
recognition or praise for something you did. Describe the situation, indicating what rewards you
anticipated, why you expected them, and why you felt you were not properly rewarded.

4. Write about a potentially explosive situation, where the involved parties were irate. Describe
the situation and explain what you did to neutralize it.

Some Specific Language Problems:

In hurried, first-draft writing, most people make some errors. A few errors will not cause failure
on the exam. If, however, the essay contains a large number of errors or a great variety of errors,
the essay will receive a lower score.

It is important to give yourself time (at least a few minutes) to proofread your essay.

In addition to tense shifting, mentioned earlier, a number of other specific grammar or language
problems need to be mastered. Below are some examples of common errors.

1) Sentence fragments: groups of words that do not form a complete sentence: "Which is what I
meant."

27
2) Running two sentences together without any punctuation: "We entered the house without
making any noise we heard a scuffling noise from the bedroom."

3) Connecting two sentences with a comma: "We entered the house without making any noise,
we heard a scuffling noise from the bedroom."

4) Loss of past tense endings: "Yesterday we reach our destination and then we call home."

5) Subject-verb agreement: "The boys was going to the beach that afternoon."

6) Spelling: Repeated spelling errors will lower the score on an essay. Writers should be able to
spell commonly used words. Make a list of words that you find difficult to spell so that you can
master the spelling of those specific words. Some confused spellings are the following:
there/their/they're, your/you're, its/it's, hear/here, our/are.

SCORING GUIDE

Candidates are asked, first, to narrate or describe an event or situation from personal experience
or observation. In the last part of the question, they are directed to provide some sort of analysis
of the experience. Below is the essay grading scale used by raters. Also provided is a description
of writing elements that are associated with each score.

RANGE OF SCORES

6: The "6" essay

--responds effectively to the writing task
--explores the issues thoughtfully and in depth
--is coherently and logically organized and fully developed
--has a fluent style marked by sentence variety and language control
--is generally free from errors in mechanics, usage, and sentence structure

5: The "5" essay

--responds clearly to the writing task
--explores the issues in some depth
--is clearly organized and well developed
--displays some sentence variety and facility in language
--may have a few errors in mechanics, usage, and sentence structure

4: The "4" essay

--responds adequately to the writing task
--may not explore the issues in depth
--is adequately organized and has sufficient development
--basic competence in mechanics, usage, and sentence structure

3: The "3" essay

--does not clearly respond to the writing task
--may not provide adequate development or may lack specificity
--may be poorly organized

28
--may have an accumulation of errors in mechanics, usage, and sentence

2: The "2" essay

--may indicate confusion about the topic
--may have weak organization or be seriously underdeveloped
--may lack focus or demonstrate confusion about the writing task
--may be marred by frequent errors in mechanics, usage, and sentence structure

1: The "1" essay

--suggests an inability to comprehend the question
--may be off topic
--is unfocused or disorganized
--is undeveloped
--may have serious and persistent errors in mechanics, usage, and sentence structure

Each essay is read by two raters, and the raters' scores are added. A total score of 6 or below is
failing. That is, an essay that receives two scores of "3" does not pass the written exam.

EXAMPLE ESSAYS

Below is a set of actual essays and the grades that they received. The essays were written in
response to the following issue/prompt:

Issue: We all have to make important decisions that may affect our own lives or the lives
of others.

Prompt: Write about a time when you made such an important decision. Describe the
issues that affected your decision and the results.

Score – 6

My present occupation is that of a manager in a large department store where I supervise

a number of employees of various life experiences and maturity levels. One such employee,
whom I'll call Scott, came to work for me some months ago. This was his first job and he seemed
immature but in a harmless, charming way. His earnest nature compensated for his immaturity
and I decided to hire him on a trial basis.
Through the months that we worked together, I could see him gaining confidence with
each new project he was assigned, whether it was meeting and greeting customers or moving and
merchandising new products. The improvements in his confidence and maturity were evident
every week and I was taking pride in his development.
As evidence of this new pride in his ability to earn a paycheck, Scott purchased a used car
and planned to make monthly payments until it was paid for. About the same time he made this
purchase he was given a raise in pay. When he received his next check, he noticed a sizable
increase in pay but attributed is all to his increase in hourly rate. What had happened though was
that he was given more money than he was entitled to but wasn't made aware of it until he had
spent it all.

29
 The unfortunate result was that he would be docked on his next few checks a sum that
would make up for the overpayment. Scott hadn't planned on such an occurrence and was not
prepared to make his car payments with his amended paychecks. Scott was not in a very
confusing situation and I understood this and suggested that perhaps once the payroll mess had
been resolved he would still have time to make the payment. He told me he would take care of it
and I assumed the matter was resolve. Much to my dismay, a few days later, Scott was caught
trying to steal a very expensive bread maker, presumably so that he could sell it and make
enough to settle his car payment.
I was very disappointed in him and brought this to his attention. For awhile, I even
considered turning him in to the police in order to impress upon him the seriousness of his act.
After some thought, I decided not to turn him in to the police.
Among my considerations affecting this decision was Scott's age and predicament. He
had extended himself to buy this car when he was encouraged by me and talk of an increase in
pay. Given his lack of experience with payroll procedures, he didn't understand the payroll snafu
and what steps would need to be taken to correct it. His car payment was coming due and this car
symbolized freedom and adulthood to him. All these contributing factors caused a somewhat
immature young man to act immaturely. I recognized his confusion and predicament and didn't
think adding a permanent blemish to his record, such as a criminal offense, would benefit
anyone.
Being that we had not lost any merchandise, there was no need for any formal charges.
Instead, I conveyed how disappointed he had mad me and I told him he would have a lot to prove
to me in the future to clear his name. To demonstrate my long-term confidence in him, we
arranged for an employee loan in order for him to make his car payment. In this way, it was clear
I was on his side and trying to support him.
Since all this confusion has been resolved, Scott has been an exemplary employee and a
benefit to all. He demonstrates to all the new employees the proper way to conduct their
respective responsibilities. His trust in me is also something I feel very good about as a result of
this incident. At this point, I can say that both Scott and I are better for having dealt with this
situation.

Score – 5

In May of 1990, I made a decision that has changed the course of my life. I chose to
return to college and pursue a degree in criminal justice. In making this decision, there were a
number of critical factors which played a role in influencing me.
To provide a little background information that is important, I dropped out of school in
Illinois because I didn't like it and was not doing well at all. I moved to California and began the
process of looking for an occupation. A friend suggested that I take a career counseling course at
University of California at Los Angeles. This proved to be the first factor influencing my
decision to return to college. During the career counseling course, I was given 25 hours of
aptitude and achievement tests. When I completed the tests, they were scored and evaluated by a
psychologist and career counselor. When I met with the counselor to review the results, I was
shocked. I had always believed myself to be athletic and not very intelligent. What the results
showed was that my IQ. was above average and I excelled on most of the tests. The counselor
advised that I return to school and pursue a career in a "people-oriented" field since that was
what I seemed to be drawn to.

30
 After I had time to slowly review the results, I realized that I had not done well in school
because I was afraid to try. It was an empowering feeling to have a completely neutral person tell
me I was smart. This began what became the biggest factor in my decision to return to school--
the growth of my self-confidence. I was appalled that I had let fear hold me back from trying and
I resolved to see what could happen if I tried.
I enrolled in a community college and met an instructor that became another factor in my
trek back to school. Dr. Meadows became my mentor and gave me my first A. I took four
courses that semester and earned a 4.0 grade point average. I don't believe I have ever been as
proud as I was that day. When that semester ended, Dr. Meadows encouraged me to enter a four-
year college.
One of the biggest factors that influenced me to return to college was the support of my
entire family. All along they encouraged me to return for my degree. When it came time for my
interview with the dean of admissions, my entire family went with me and gave moral as well as
physical support.
I entered college at California Lutheran University with my major as criminal justice and
found that this time I loved it! I looked forward to my criminal justice classes and found that my
grades reflected this. I studied more than I thought was possible and tried with every ounce of
my being.
On May 15, 1993, I walked up and received my degree in criminal justice. I made it
through with a grade point average of 3.85 and showed everyone (including myself) what I could
do.

Score – 4

One of the most important decisions I have made within the past year was to apply for a
position with the California Highway Patrol. I put a lot of thought and effort into coming to this
decision. Various things in my life have helped me to pursue a career with the California
Highway Patrol. I would like to elaborate on a few of these items.
Since my childhood, I have always known what is right and wrong. I have parents which
have helped me learn how to and how not to treat other people. I have always felt a need to help
others. Role models have also helped guide me to make the right decisions. My stepfather, who
is an LAPD detective, continues to set high standards which I attempt to meet.
Sports and self-discipline have been a part of my life since age 13. I have continually
sought to improve myself both physically and mentally. Football was my chosen sport through
high school, martial arts and weight-lifting continue to provide me with the self-discipline I
desire. Martial arts has also given me a great amount of self-esteem, which I feel is greatly
needed in any career, as well as in life.
A major event took place in my life, approximately four hears ago, which greatly
influenced my decision to apply for a highway patrol position. I was the victim of a random
violent crime. Needless to say, this changed my life as I knew it, to one of much deeper
awareness for not only life, but other people in general. Another situation affects my decision. I
am involved with a lady and her son. I truly want to make a better life not only for myself, but
also them. To me, this is a lifetime decision and commitment.
At this point in time, I do not know the final results of my decision. I continue to pursue
my goal. And with some drive, and a little luck, I will achieve my goal. If by chance my goal is
not achieved, I will utilize what I have learned in pursuit of it, and turn my focus to other career
choices which lie ahead of me.

31
Score – 3

The most important decision I made was getting an education and fulfilling that goal.
When I was younger in elementary school you sometimes took school litely and didn't think that
what was being hopefully instilled in your mind you would ever need. But as you get older, you
then realized that you would be responsible for your future, and the way to do that was to gain
knowledge from whatever was available.
I realized that I wanted to attend college when I was around 12 or 13 years old. But
before I could do that, I had to complete high school with average grades and pass the ACT
exam with a minimum score. Once I got into my junior year I took the exam to get an idea of
what it was and to see how well or bad I did. I took the exam again in my senior year and did
improve my score somewhat, but not to what I wanted it to be.
When I graduated from high school, I attend college and decided to major in Marketing,
because of my interest in business. Making that decision was also important, relative to fact that
there are many different areas of business you may concentrate on. Graduating from college,
getting a good education, I think has affected my life and my family's lives as well.

Score – 2

I am currently employed as a detention officer at the immigration building in San Pedro,

California. I deal with convicted felons in this facility. My duties are to supervice the movement
of these people, to enforced rules and regulations, follow policies and procedures and to write a
daily report. As a detention officer, I am constantly making decisions that affect the lives of the
people detained in my assigned post. For instance, when dealing with the television channel
selections, some times a group of five or more wants to see a particular program and another
group wants to see a different program, a conflict arises which sometimes lead to a physical
encounter among them. When or before a conflicts arises, I intervene and counsel them regarding
the situation at hand, once I established a reasonable agreement favorable to both side, the
security of my assigned post is again opeerating with eased. In my two years working in this
facility, I have made important decisions that have affected not only the life of the inmates but
that of a fellow officer and friends, and as a result have stablished the security and smooth
operation of the facility.

32