Professional Documents
Culture Documents
4 - 2019 Rgo Io PDF
4 - 2019 Rgo Io PDF
Advancement of motion
study, fatigue study and
work simplification.
Humanistic approach
Elton Mayo
Hawthorne Studies (1927)
• Western Electric Hawthorne
Plant
• Hawthorne Effect
Importance of psychological
and social factors to people at
work
A. Elton Mayo
B. James Cattell
C. Frederick Taylor
D. Walter Dill Scott
Frederick Taylor
Principles of Scientific
Management (1911)
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Flynn Effect
C. Spotlight Effect
D. Pygmalion Effect
Hawthorne Effect
When employees change their behavior due solely
to the fact that they are receiving attention or are
being observed.
Spotlight Effect
Refers to the
phenomenon of people
improving their
performance when
others have high
expectations of them.
4. Which of the following terms refers to the
procedure used to determine the duties
associated with job positions and the
characteristics of the people to hire for those
positions?
A. Job Description
B. Job Surveying
C. Job Analysis
D. Job Appraisal
Job Analysis
the systematic study of the tasks, duties, and
responsibilities of a job and knowledge, skills,
abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs)
needed to perform it
5. Which of the following lists a job's
specific duties as well as the skills and
training needed to perform a particular
job?
A. Job Description
B. Job Surveying
C. Job Analysis
D. Job Appraisal
Job description
A list of a job’s duties,
responsibilities,
reporting relationships,
working conditions,
and supervisory
responsibilities—one
product of a job
analysis.
6. Which section of a job description
influences a person’s perceptions of
the status and worth of a job?
A. Work context
B. Work activities
C. Job specifications
D. Job title
7. Which of the following is the most
common method of conducting a job
analysis?
A. Observation
B. Task analysis
C. Interview
D. Job participation
8. A university wants to hire a new lawyer. One
of the requirements stipulated in the job
competencies section is ―willingness to work
long hours‖. This requirement falls under?
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Ability
D. Other Characteristics
9. Which of the following is a proper
task statement?
A. Recruitment
B. Selection
C. Socialization
D. Orientation
EMPLOYEE RECRUITMENT
Recruitment
The process of attracting employees to an organization.
Attracting people with the right qualifications as
determined by job analysis
Internet – primary source
Factors : nature of job and size of organization
TYPES OF RECRUITMENT
1. External Recruitment
Recruiting employees from outside the organization.
2. Internal Recruitment
Recruiting employees already employed by the
organization.
Transferring or promoting
12. An organization has difficulty getting enough
qualified applicants from its existing employees to fill
a vacant position. As a result, the organization seeks
qualified applicants from outside the organization.
Which of the following is not a method they can use?
A. Job fair
B. Promotion
C. Newspaper ads
D. Employment agencies
INTERNAL RECRUITMENT
1. Noncompetitive Promotions
Involve “career progression” promotions in which employees move from
a position as they gain experience and knowledge.
Number of promotions in a year are not limited; employees don’t
compete
2. Competitive Promotions
Internal applicants (and sometimes with external applicants) compete
with one another for a limited number of higher positions.
EMPLOYMENT AGENCIES AND SEARCH FIRMS
1. Employment Agencies
An organization that specializes in finding jobs for applicants
and finding applicants in for organizations looking for
employees.
A. Peter Principle
B. Premack Principle
C. Ammerman Principle
D. Normative Principle
Peter Principle
The idea that organizations tend to promote
employees until they reach the level at which
they are not competent – in other words, their
highest level of incompetence.
Premack Principle
The idea that reinforcement is relative both
within an individual and between individuals.
14. Which of the following is the best
recruitment source, that is, one which tends to
result in attracting employees who experience
greater loyalty, tenure, and job satisfaction than
other recruiting sources?
A. Employee referrals
B. Job fair
C. Executive search firms
D. Advertisements
EMPLOYEE REFERRALS
A. Recruit internally
B. Recruit externally
C. Recruit nontraditional laborers
D. Recruit on the Internet
Recruit internally
Recruiting from qualified candidates from the
company and within the ranks of its present
employees. Its advantages include:
• Boosting the morale of other employees and encouraging
them to perform well;
• Career development and career mobility;
• Trigger a positive effect on employee’s performance;
• Less expensive of time and resources
• Best for supervisory or midlevel positions.
Recruit externally
Hiring from outside source when
• No one from within among the next rank of
employees can successfully perform the job
A. Psychological tests
B. Letters of recommendation
C. Employment interview
D. Physical tests
EMPLOYMENT INTERVIEWS
A method of selecting employees in which an interviewer asks
questions of an applicant and then makes an employment decision
based on the answers to the questions as well as the way in
which the questions were answered.
TYPES OF INTERVIEWS (ON 3 MAIN FACTORS):
1. Structure
2. Style
3. Medium
17. Which of the following terms refers to
hiring workers who have criminal
backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A. Adverse impact
B. Negligent hiring
C. Negligent training
D. Invalid screening
© 2010 Cengage Learning
157
18. Which of the following methods for gathering background
information about a job applicant is not recommended
because of potential legal violations?
A. Disqualifier
B. Clarifier
C. Situational question
D. Patterned behavior question
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Clarifiers
Clarifies the information on the résumé, cover letter, or application
2. Disqualifiers
A wrong answer will disqualify the applicant from further
consideration
3. Skill-level Determiner
Designed to tap an applicant’s knowledge or skill; tap level of
expertise
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
4. Future focused Question
Applicants are given a situation and asked how they would
handle it
Also called as Situational Questions – applicants are presented with
series of situations and asked how they would handle each one.
5. Past-focused Questions
Taps an applicant’s experience
Also called Patterned-behavior description interview (PBDI) –
focus on behavior on previous jobs
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
6. Organizational-fit Questions
Taps how well an applicant’s personality and values will
fit with the organizational culture (or with the
leadership style of a particular supervisor)
20. Which of the following factors sees to
have the strongest relationship with
scores on a traditional interview?
A. Primacy effects
B. Contrast effects
C. Negative information bias
D. Nonverbal cues
PROBLEMS WITH INTERVIEWS
Negative-Information Bias
The fact that negative information receives more weight
in an employment decision than does positive
information
Nonverbal Communication
Factors such as eye contact and posture that are not
associated with actual words spoken
PROBLEMS WITH INTERVIEWS
Primacy Effects
The fact that information presented early in an
interview carries more weight than information
presented later.
Contrast Effects
When the performance of one applicant affects the
perception of the performance of the next applicant
21. Which of the following statements is representative of
what might be asked in a behavioral interview?
A. Situational
B. Behavioral
C. Stress
D. Puzzle
• Stress interview
An interview in which the applicant is made
uncomfortable by a series of often rude questions .
This technique helps identify hyper-sensitive applicants
and those with low or high stress tolerance.
Puzzlequestions: Adis and Haris have 21KM
between them. Adis has 20KM more than Haris. How
much money has Adis and how much money has
Haris?
23. Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public
relations specialist in a communications firm. He first
meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets
with the department manager. Finally, he meets with
the company president. Which type of interview is
Kevin is most likely experiencing?
A. Face-to-face interview
B. Panel interview
C. Serial interview
D. Group interview
One-on-one interviews
One interviewer, one applicant
Serial interviews
Series of single interviews
Return interviews
Similar to serial interviews with the difference
being a passing of time between the first and
subsequent interview
Panel Interviews
Multiple interviewers asking questions and
evaluating answers of the same applicant at
the same time
Group Interviews
Multiple applicants answering questions during
the same interview
Serial-Panel-Group Interview
Putting together several combinations
24. Which refers to the process of
confirming the accuracy of information
provided by an applicant?
A. Reference check
B. Reference
C. Recommendation letter
D. Applicant evaluation
Reference Check – process of confirming the accuracy of
information provided by an applicant
A. Discrimination
B. Adverse impact
C. Disparate treatment
D. Defamation
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
26. Which of the following applicant
assessment methods would most likely
have the least adverse impact on
minorities?
A. Aptitude tests
B. Cognitive ability tests
C. Work sampling technique
D. Job knowledge tests
Work Samples
• Applicants perform tasks that replicate
actual job tasks
• Advantages
– Directly related to the job
– Good criterion validity
– Good face validity
– Less adverse impact than cognitive ability
– Provide realistic job previews
• Disadvantages
– Can be expensive to develop and maintain
Cognitive Ability Tests
• Taps
–Learnability or coachability of the applicant
–Better decision making by better information
processing
• The more complex the job, the better
cognitive ability tests predict performance
Job Knowledge Tests
A. Personality test
B. Psychological test
C. Cognitive ability test
D. Job knowledge test
28. A manager has a number of selection
tools at his/her disposal. A commonly used
tool that generally has a poor relation to
actual job performance is?
A. Application forms
B. Ability tests
C. Letters of recommendation
D. Physical ability tests
29. Which assessment center technique is
designed to simulate the types of daily
information that appear on a manager’s or
employee’s desk?
A. Simulation
B. Work sample
C. Leaderless group discussion
D. In-basket technique
In-Basket Technique – designed to
simulate the types of information that
daily come across a manager’s or
employee’s desk in order to observe
applicant’s responses to such
information
A. Construct validity
B. Differential validity
C. Single-group validity
D. Face validity
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
Differential validity
The characteristic of a test that significantly
predicts a criterion for two groups, such as both
minorities and non-minorities, but predicts
significantly better for one of the two groups.
Single-group validity
The characteristic of a test that significantly
predicts a criterion for one class of people but not
for another.
31. Which of the following are designed to
estimate the percentage of future employees
who will be successful on a job if an
organization uses a particular test?
A. Taylor-Russell tables
B. Expectancy charts
C. Lawshe tables
D. Brodgen-Cronbach-Glasser formula
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Utility Analysis
Taylor-Russell Tables
• Estimates the percentage of future employees that will be
successful
According to Taylor-Rusell Tables, a test will be useful to an
organization if:
a.) the test is valid
b.) the organization can be selective in its hiring because it has
more applicants than openings
c.) there are plenty of current employees who are not performing
well
© 2010 Cengage Learning
248
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Lawshe Tables
• Gives you probability of a particular applicant
being successful.
– Validity coefficient
– Base rate
– Applicant score
249
32. Which approach in making a hiring
decision results in the highest levels of
adverse impact?
Compensatory Approach
• Low score one test can compensate for high score on
another.
• GPA vs GRE
• Should make conceptual sense
• Use of Regression Analysis
266
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Rule of 3
• Top 3 candidates are given to
hiring authority Applicant Sex Test Score
• Gives more flexibility to the Drew M 99
selectors Eric M 98
• Rules of “three or five” allow a Lenny M 91
supervisor to choose one applicant Omar M 90
from the top three or five highest Jerry F 88
scores based on secondary Morris M 87
criteria.
33. A manager wants to combine selection tools
to help him make a decision. He wants to make
a preliminary selection after administering each
instrument. Which strategy is he using?
A. Banding
B. Multiple hurdle approach
C. Multiple cut-off approach
D. Top-down selection
© 2010 Cengage Learning
0 0
0
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Banding
• It is a compromise between top down hiring and passing
scores
• Banding attempts to hire the top scorer while allowing
flexibility for AA
• SEM banding (standard error of measurement)
• Testing differences between scores for statistical significance.
• How many points apart do two applicants have to be so their tests
scores are significantly different?
275
34. Reyes Construction Company does not have any female employees.
Ana Rivera applied for a job as a machine operator. Though she did not
obtain the minimum score of 40 on the machine operator test, Reyes
Construction Company plans to hire her as part of their new affirmative
action plan. There are 12 men who passed the test who did not get
hired. Is this legal?
A. Employee selection
B. Performance appraisal
C. Employee orientation
D. Organizational development
Performance appraisal
• Determination and documentation of individual's
performance
• Should be tied directly to criteria
Uses
• Administrative decisions (promotion, firing, transfer)
• Employee development and feedback
• Criteria for research (e.g., validation of tests)
• Documentation for legal action
• Training
9 Step Process
A. Employee compensation
B. Employee promotion
C. Employee training and feedback
D. Personnel research
Employee training and feedback
A. 360-degree feedback
B. Team appraisals
C. Upward feedback
D. Rating committee
360 Degree Feedback
• So who gives the evaluations?
o Supervisors
• More than 90% of organizations use some form of supervisor’s rating for
performance. They see results
o Peers
• Successful in predicting the future success of promoted employees. They see the
behavior.
o Subordinates
o Customers
• Filing complaints, notifying manager, secret shoppers, company surveys,
o Self Appraisal
• Rare
• Employee self-appraisals tend to suffer from leniency
• U.S. (leniency) versus Japan and Korea (too modest)
o More research is needed
38. SMART goals are best described as _____?
Job Knowledge
1. ___ Is aware of current interest rates.
2. ___ Offers suggestions to customers about how they can
make the most interest
3. ___ Knows various strategies for converting IRAs.
Employee Relations
1. ___ Offers to help other employees when own workload is down.
2. ___ Praises other employee when they do well
311
• Graphic Rating Scales
o Rating each dimension on either a 5 or a 10 point
scale. (poor to excellent)
o Disadvantage: susceptible to error (halo &
leniency)
𝑛(𝑛 − 1)
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑠𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑛 =
2
How many comparisons we need to do with 20 employees?
315
Example of a Forced Distribution
Zellweger
Bullock
316
40. Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She
makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each
trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better
employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart.
Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each
employee. Which method of performance appraisal has
Kendra most likely used?
A. Contrast error
B. Halo error
C. Proximity error
D. Strictness error
Completing the Rating Forms
• 1. Distribution Error- Occurs when the rater only uses part
of the scale instead of rating using the full range of numbers
oExample: a supervisor rates his employees all out of 4 or 5
oTypes of Distribution Errors:
• Leniency error
• Central tendency error
• Strictness error
Completing the Rating Forms
2. Halo Error- occurs when a rater believes the one being rated is high in
one attribute which convinces them to rate other attributes high as well
o Ex: teacher assuming creative is smart
A. Recruitment
B. Selection
C. Orientation
D. Development
Orientation
A. Onboarding
B. Outsourcing
C. Organizing
D. Offshoring
46. Which refers to the systematic
acquisition of skills, rules, concepts, or
attitudes that result in improved
performance?
A. Development
B. Training
C. Management
D. Orientation
Training
Training is the “systematic acquisition of skills, rules,
concepts, or attitudes that result in improved performance”
(Goldstein & Ford, 2002 in Aamodt, 2007).
Training can also be defined as “an organized efforts by an
organization to provide employees with structured
opportunities to learn and to develop within their work-
roles”(Arnold, 2005).
47. What is the first step in the ADDIE
training process?
A. Organizational analysis
B. Person analysis
C. Task Analysis
D. Operations analysis
Training Needs Assessment Process
49. Which of the following is the best training
objective? ―By the end of this training, the
employee:‖
A. Apprentice training
B. Simulations
C. On-the-job training
D. Role playing
Simulations
Allowing the trainee to work with equipment
under actual working conditions without the
consequences of mistakes
Apprentice training
usually found in the craft and building trades,
in which employees combine formal
coursework with formal on-the-job training.
On-the-job training
Learning while actually working on the job
makes workers acquire skills and learn new
technique
Role playing
Enactment of real-life scenario to enable the
participants to practice job-related
interaction skills
53. Which of the following training
methods is best for learning
interpersonal skills?
A. Role play
B. Behavior modeling
C. Job rotation
D. Coaching
Behavior Modeling
A training technique in which employees
observe correct behavior, practice it, and
receive feedback about their performance.
Job Rotation
A system in which employees are given the
opportunity to perform several different jobs
in an organization.
54. RCD Enterprises failed to provide adequate
safety training to one of its employees. As a
result, the employee harmed a customer. In
this scenario, RCD Enterprises may most likely
be held accountable for?
A. Discrimination
B. Negligent training
C. Negligent hiring
D. Hazardous training
Negligent training
occurs when an employer fails to provide
sufficient training to allow an employee to
perform their job safely.
This may occur if a worker is under-trained,
or if their supervisor or trainer fails to follow
proper training procedures.
55. Which of the following is an effect
of overlearning?
A. Overlearning
B. Feedback
C. Incentives
D. Massed practice
Massed practice
Concentrating learning into a short period of
time.
Distributed learning
Training material presented in small, easily
remembered chunks distributed over a period
of time.
Accounts for better learning
57. Which of the following occupations
most likely does not use apprenticeship
training to prepare new employees?
A. Professional chef
B. Banker
C. Dental assistant
D. Fire medic
58. Janice sends all of her employees to a
self-esteem workshop. Which theory of
motivation does she believe in?
A. Consistency theory
B. Equity theory
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Expectancy theory
Korman’s Consistency Theory
Employees try to perform at levels
consistent with their self-esteem
level
1. Chronic self-esteem
• Overall feeling about
themselves
2. Situational self-esteem (self-
efficacy)
• Particular situation
3. Social influenced self-esteem
• Based on others’ expectation
59. Ruth believes that she can effectively
handle any customer complaint, whereas Jill is
worried that she will cry if a customer yells at
her. Which theory of motivation would predict
that Ruth will perform better than Jill?
A. Golem effect
B. Galatea effect
C. Pygmalion effect
D. Coaction effect
Galatea vs. Pygmalion Effect
Golem Effect
61. Leah is motivated by jobs in which she can
help others, whereas Miguel is motivated by the
desire to influence others. Leah has a high
need for ___ and Miguel has a high need for
____.
A. affiliation; power
B. affiliation; achievement
C. achievement; affiliation
D. achievement; power
Theory of Needs/Acquired Needs Theory
McClleland
nAch
High: challenging jobs that they have some control on
Low: Little challenge, high probability of success
nAff
Works with and helps other people
nPow
Desire to influence others
62. According to the two-factor theory,
which of the following is an example of
a hygiene factor?
A. Control
B. Responsibility
C. Growth
D. Pay
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
Hygiene factors
Results that do not involve the
job itself
• Pay
• Benefits
• Coworkers
• Security
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
Motivators
Job elements that do concern
actual tasks and duties
• Responsibility
• Growth
• Challenge
• Job control
63. Mr. Ocampo assigns task that are
challenging, yet achievable and specifically
tells employees what he expects from them.
Which theory of motivation does Mr. Ocampo
adhere to?
Extrinsic Motivation
• Receive rewards
• Avoid negative consequences
ERG Theory
Reduced Maslow’s five
needs to three:
• Existence
• Relatedness
• Growth
A. Pay-for-performance
B. Merit pay
C. Stock options
D. Profit sharing
Individual Incentive Plans
1. Pay for performance (earnings-
at-risk)
• According to how much they
individually produce
• Commissions (each unit sold)
• Piecework (each unit produced)
2. Merit pay
• Performance appraisal scores
• Productivity is difficult to
measure
65. Which of the following incentive
plans is not an organizational
incentive?
A. Gainsharing
B. Profit sharing
C. Stock options
D. Merit pay
Group Incentive Plans
1. Profit-sharing
• Percentage of profits above a
certain amount
• Results in greater employee
commitment
2. Gainsharing
• Bonus based on improvements in
group productivity
• Establish baseline, set goals
Group Incentive Plans
3. Stock options
• Purchase stock in the future,
typically at the market price on
the day of the options were
granted
Inputs
Personal elements we put into the
job
Outputs
Elements we receive from our job
Equity Theory
Possible Situations
1. Underpayment
• Work less hard
• Become more selfish
• Lower job satisfaction
2. Overpayment
• No guilt feelings
• Work harder
• Become more team oriented
3. Equal payment
68. After conducting a job evaluation, it is discovered
that Marie is underpaid by Php 1,000 and Lisa is
overpaid by Php 1,000. Which would probably be the
best course of action in this situation?
A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Instrumentality
D. Valence
Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
Motivation = E (I * V)
Expectancy
• The perceived relationship between the amount of effort
an employee puts in and the resulting outcome.
Instrumentality
• The extent to which the outcome of a worker’s
performance, if noticed, results in a particular
consequence.
• Noticed behavior must be rewarded
Valence
• The extent to which an employee values a particular
consequence.
70. Which theory hypothesizes that
enriched jobs are the most satisfying?
A. ERG theory
B. Job characteristics model
C. Two-factor theory
D. Social information processing theory
Job characteristics theory
• Employees desire jobs that are meaningful, provide them with the
opportunity to be personally responsible for the outcome of their
work (autonomy), and provide them with feedback of the results of
their efforts
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
Social Information Processing Theory
71. Realistic job previews might
reduce turnover that is caused by
which factor?
A. Unavoidable reasons
B. Unmet expectations
C. Escape
D. Unmet needs
Realistic Job Preview
• Job expectations
• Employees compare what the organization
promised with what it actually does
72. Jack is an employee at a Best Western
Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering
group, and other weeks he assists the
reservations clerk or the parking attendant.
This is an example of ________.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job rotation
C. Job enrichment
D. Job specialization
73. An organization’s right to search an
employee’s locker is revoked when an
employee?
A. Signed a waiver
B. Placed name on lockers
C. Placed own locks on lockers
D. Organizations can never search lockers
74. Which of the following terms refers to
redesigning jobs in a way that increases the
opportunities for the worker to experience
feelings of responsibility, achievement,
growth, and recognition?
A. Job rotation
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement
D. Job enhancement
75. Nancy is angry about a promotion decision. She
is convinced that she was the best candidate and
cannot believe that she was not offered the job.
Nancy’s dissatisfaction is consistent with the
research on?
A. Distributive equity
B. Procedural consistency
C. Distributive justice
D. Procedural justice
Organizational Justice
76. Mika recently applied for a position with
Palma Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait
most likely has the strongest correlation to
Mika’s success as a pharmaceutical sales
representative?
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Openness to experience
D. Extraversion
77. Lorrie took the Self-Directed Search
Inventory to see what job she may be of best fit.
Scoring high on the conventional occupational
theme, which job may she opt to take?
A. Lawyer
B. Accountant
C. Teacher
D. Biologist
77. Lorrie took the Self-Directed Search
Inventory to see what job she may be of best
fit. Scoring high on the conventional
occupational theme, which job may she opt to
take?
A. Lawyer (Enterprising)
B. Accountant
C. Teacher (Social)
D. Biologist (Investigative)
78. Which of the following terms refers to a
one-time payment some employers
provide when terminating an employee?
A. Merit pay
B. Severance pay
C. Performance pay
D. Supplemental pay
79. Which of the following is job
satisfaction most related to?
A. Performance
B. Absenteeism
C. Organizational commitment
D. Tenure
80. Andres has been working for Diaz Manufacturing
for 29 years and has only one year left to be eligible
for full retirement benefits. He has a house ten
minutes away from work and his children all live
nearby. Which of the following would Andres be most
likely high in?
A. Affective commitment
B. Continuance commitment
C. Normative commitment
D. Volitional commitment
Types Of Organizational Commitment
81. Which of the following refers to the
rate at which employees leave a firm?
A. Downsizing
B. Retirement
C. Turnover
D. Lay-off
82. Two managers are talking about how they get the best out of their
employees:
Jo: "I tell my employees that times are tough and there is no way of telling
when the guys in head office might try to downsize. Let me tell you, a bit of
fear keeps them focused on the task at hand."
Chris: "I tell them that head office is making them more responsible for
deciding how to do their work. The increased sense of ownership they
have makes productivity go way up."
How would these managers be best characterized by Douglas McGregor?
A. power; affiliation
B. affiliation; power
C. achievement; power
D. power; achievement
84. Which of the following leadership
types is not high in task orientation?
A. Initiating structure
B. Impoverished
C. Theory X
D. Team
84. Which of the following leadership
types is not high in task orientation?
A. IMPACT theory
B. Fiedler’s contingency model
C. Path goal theory
D. Theory X and Theory Y
86. According to the IMPACT theory of
leadership, which of the following
behavioral styles works best in a situation
of despair?
A. Informational
B. Affiliation
C. Position
D. Magnetic
IMPACT Theory of Leadership
87. According to House, which behavioral
leadership style calls for planning,
organizing, and controlling the activities of
employees?
A. Supportive
B. Achievement-oriented
C. Instrumental
D. Participative
88. According to Situational Leadership
Theory, which is the most effective leader
behavior to use on staff who are unable
and unwilling to do a job?
A. Coaching
B. Delegating
C. Directing
D. Supporting
89. According to French and Raven, which
of the following types of power is inherent
in the position a person holds?
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
90. Which refers to the extent to which
group members like and trust one
another?
A. Group status
B. Group homogeneity
C. Group cohesiveness
D. Stability of membership
Group Homogeneity
• Extent to which its
members are similar
• Superiority of slightly
heterogeneous groups
• Dissimilar person
adding tension and a
different vantage point
Stability of Membership
• Greater stability,
greater cohesiveness
• Increase group
status difficult to
join
91. If four bank tellers are working side
by side, this arrangement will result to
which of the following?
A. Audience effects
B. Social inhibition
C. Social facilitation
D. Coaction effects
Coaction effects
The effect on behavior when two or more people are
performing the same task in the presence of each
other.
Audience effects
The effect on behavior when one or more people
passively watch the behavior of another.
• Strength of this effect have 3 factors as
hypothesized by Latane
• Audience size
• Physical proximity
• Status
Social inhibition
The negative effects that occur when a
person performs a task in the presence of
others.
Social Facilitation
The positive effects that occur when a person
performs a task in the presence of others.
92. Sophia is working on a group project with
three other honor students. Their project is
doing great, so Sophia decides to reduce her
effort. Which theory best explains her social
loafing?
A. Individual dominance
B. Distraction
C. Free-rider
D. Sucker-effect
Free-rider
When a group member realizes that his
efforts are not necessary and thus does not
work as hard as he would if he were alone.
Sucker effect
Social loafing occurs when a group member
notices that other group members are not
working hard and thus are ―playing him for a
sucker‖.
93. If a group becomes too cohesive and
insulated from outside help, which of the
following is likely to occur?
A. Social loafing
B. Group polarization
C. Group conflict
D. Group think
Group think
A state of mind in which a group is so
concerned about its own cohesiveness that it
ignores important information.
Group polarization
Enhancement of a group’s prevailing
inclination through discussion within a group.
94. If a person ignores the conflict and
hopes that it will eventually go away is
using which conflict managing style?
A. Forcing
B. Accommodating
C. Avoiding
D. Collaborative
95. Which stage of team development
is characterized by frustration of team
members with their roles?
A. Storming
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Performing
Group Life Cycle
Forming
› Team members get to know one another
› Everyone is on their good behavior
› Group clarifies its mission
Storming
› Disagreement and frustration set in
Norming
› Group members work at easing tension
› Acceptance of team member norms and team leader (if there is one)
Performing
› Goals get accomplished through task related behaviors (team
processes)
Adjourning
› Goals get accomplished through task related behaviors (team
processes)
96. Every memo that Joan receives indicates
that an immediate response is required. Joan
thinks these timelines are unnecessary. Which
of the following reflects Joan’s sentiments?
A. Meeting cow
B. Paper cow
C. Speed cow
D. Whining cow
Sacred Cow Hunt
Paper Cow
• Unnecessary paperwork—usually forms and reports that
cost organizations money to prepare, distribute, and
read
Meeting Cow
• Number and length of meetings
• Business as opposed to socializing
Speed Cow
• Unnecessary deadlines are another source for potential
change
97. Which of the following is most likely
to fight any organizational change?
A. Change analyst
B. Change agent
C. Receptive changer
D. Change resister
98. Which of the following can be used
to help make decisions in
organizational development?