Module 07 MCQ
Module 07 MCQ
17. The most appropriate fire extinguisher 1. On a hollow tube where would a small
for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would indentation normally be unacceptable?.
be. A) Nowhere on the tube is an indentation
A) carbon dioxide. acceptable.
B) dry powder. B) In the mid 1/3 section.
C) water. C) In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the
Ans : dry powder. tube.
Expl : AL/3-19 10.4. Ans : In the mid 1/3 section.
Expl : CAAIP s Leaflet 6-4 Para 7.2.
36. Why are some components torque 40. What is the minimum number of
loaded?. hacksaw blade teeth that should be in contact
A) To ensure that their elastic limit is not with the material being cut?.
exceeded. A) 2.
B) To ensure they do not vibrate loose. B) 4.
C) To ensure that they are tightened to their C) 3.
yield point. Ans : 3.
Ans : To ensure that their elastic limit is not Expl : NIL.
exceeded.
Expl : NIL.
41. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is
given as 4.387 inches + 0.005-0.002. Which
37. When using a reamer, in which direction statement is true?.
should it be turned?. A) The maximum acceptable size is 4.385
A) Anti-clockwise when Cutting and inches.
removing. B) The minimum acceptable size is 4.385
B) Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise inches.
when removing. C) The maximum acceptable size is 4.389
C) Clockwise when cutting and removing. inches.
Ans : Clockwise when cutting and Ans : The minimum acceptable size is 4.385
removing. inches.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician Expl : NIL.
Textbook Page 9-19.
42. Chalk when used with a fine file C) 0.000 002 inch.
produces. Ans : 0.002 mm.
A) a finer finish. Expl : 1 micron = 0.001 mm.
B) a milled type surface.
C) a ground type surface.
Ans : a finer finish. 47. The edge or surface of a part from which
Expl : NIL. dimensions are measured from is called
the.
A) water line.
43. When using a hand file correctly, the B) reference plane.
downward pressure should be used only. C) datum.
A) on a return stroke. Ans : datum.
B) on the forward stroke. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.5.1.
C) on the forward and return stroke.
Ans : on the forward stroke.
Expl : NIL. 48. Water Lines are.
A) front to rear measurements on the
fuselage.
44. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers B) vertical measurements on the fuselage.
can be ascertained by. C) left and right measurements on the fuselage.
A) using the standard of 0.693 inches. Ans : vertical measurements on the
B) measuring the steel rule. fuselage.
C) noting the dimension engraved on the Expl : AL/7-2 fig 15.
instrument.
Ans : noting the dimension engraved on the
instrument. 49. When clamping cable looms containing
Expl : BL/3-4 3.5. co-axial cables.
A) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed
providing the inner cable is not affected.
45. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 inches B) the clamps must be no more than 1 metre
+/- 0.003 inches followed by 'MMC' should be apart.
manufactured to what size?. C) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to
A) 1.228 Inches. maintain the dielectric constant.
B) 1.222 Inches. Ans : avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to
C) 1.225 Inches. maintain the dielectric constant.
Ans : 1.228 Inches. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.11.3.
66. Reaming light alloy tube is done 69. When carrying out soldering to an end
with. termination and a wire, you should tin.
A) no lubricant. A) only the end of the wire.
B) the same oil and lubrication as used for B) neither the wire or the termination as
cutting. tinning is not required.
C) hard base lubricant. C) both the end of the wire and the
Ans : the same oil and lubrication as used for termination.
cutting. Ans : both the end of the wire and the
Expl : Reaming is lubricated with the same fluid termination.
as cutting (drilling). Expl : BL/6-1 13.2.
4. How many teeth per inch are there on a 8. To carry out an insulation test on a wire
fine hacksaw blade?. rated at 115 volts you would use.
A) 64. A) a 250 volt megger.
B) 16. B) a 115 volt megger.
C) 32. C) a 500 volt megger.
Ans : 32. Ans : a 250 volt megger.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.4.2 As a rule of
Textbook Page 13. thumb, the megger should be twice the voltage
of the system under test.
137. In a moving coil meter the deflecting 141. The resistance of a voltmeter must
force is provided by. be.
A) a soft iron permanent magnet. A) high so that little current passes through it.
B) low to prevent overloading the circuit. 3. The maximum value of bonding of a
C) low to provide a parallel path for the circuit secondary structure is.
current. A) 1 megohm.
Ans : high so that little current passes through B) 1 ohm.
it. C) 1 kilohm.
Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Ans : 1 ohm.
5th Edition page 164. Expl : CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 3-8.
142. When operating a grease gun, 4. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried
you. out in the following order:
A) verify grease fitting can accept grease by A) bonding, continuity, insulation, functional.
hand feel. B) continuity, bonding, functional, insulation.
B) apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi. C) functional, bonding, continuity, insulation.
C) clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth Ans : bonding, continuity, insulation,
beforehand. functional.
Ans : clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth Expl : Code to remember, B C I F.
beforehand.
Expl : NIL.
5. Before using a dead weight tester you
04. Avionic General Test Equipment. would.
A) calibrate the tester using a standard
weight.
1. A fuel quantity test set has an externally B) pressurize the tester to the required
adjustable. pressure.
A) capacitor. C) replace the oil.
B) inductor. Ans : pressurize the tester to the required
C) resistor. pressure.
Ans : resistor. Expl : The dead weight tester is first pumped
Expl : AL/10-3 8.2.6. up to the required pressure (platform/weights
floating) then gauge under test is
connected.
2. How would you test a mach switch in-
situ?.
A) Use built in test equipment. 6. How should a dead weight tester be
B) Use an external test kit. used?.
C) It is not possible to test a mach switch in A) The pressure increasing handle should be
situ. screwed in before the addition of fluid and
Ans : Use built in test equipment. screwed out when fluid is added.
Expl : NIL. B) The outlet should not be connected to the
instrument until the required weights are raised
by the platform.
C) The platform should be removed and fluid Ans : Full scale right.
poured into the hole. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 a Infinity is full scale to
Ans : The outlet should not be connected to the right.
the instrument until the required weights are
raised by the platform.
Expl : Handle is wound in until the weights are 10. When using a megger to test insulation
floating, then the outlet pressure is slowly resistance, capacitive filters should be
released to the gauge under test. disconnected for what reason?.
A) Remove the risk of damage to the megger.
B) Remove the spurious readings caused by the
7. When testing thermocouples using a test capacitors charging and discharging.
set the ambient temperature. C) Prevent damage to the filters.
A) never needs to be considered. Ans : Prevent damage to the filters.
B) is considered every time. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.4.4 e AandP Mechanics
C) is only considered when temperatures of General Handbook Pg 351.
20°C or above.
Ans : is considered every time.
Expl : AL/10-3 11.11.1. To test the system the 11. When carrying out a serviceability check
test set has to be trimmed for ambient on a bonding tester - short together the three
temperature, as the system when in operation prongs of both probes and ensure which of the
is adjusted for ambient temperature by the following?.
compensating resistor. This is clearly stated in A) The meter reads 0.1 ohm.
the B 737 AMM. B) A zero reading.
C) A full scale reading is obtained.
Ans : A zero reading.
8. Electronic test equipment for fuel tank Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 (b).
contents systems usually incorporate
variable.
A) resistors. 12. If an insulation resistance tester is
B) inductors. operated and the leads are suspended in free
C) capacitors. air, what will the meter read?.
Ans : capacitors. A) Zero.
Expl : NIL. B) Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and
there is no current flowing in the external
circuit.
9. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot C) Infinity.
lead has the two prongs shorted together with a Ans : Infinity.
piece of metal. What would the indicator Expl : NIL.
read?.
A) Full scale left.
B) Full scale right.
C) Zero at the centre.
13. When using a digital meter to test a A) With the meter in series with the unit.
diode, a correct operation of the diode is B) With the unit disconnected.
indicated by a volt drop of. C) With the meter in parallel with the unit.
A) 0.3V to 0.7V. Ans : With the meter in series with the
B) 2.5V to 2.8V. unit.
C) 1.5V to 2V. Expl : A fuel metering unit is checked with the
Ans : 0.3V to 0.7V. fuel meter in series with the meter under test.
Expl : Forward voltage drop of a diode is 0.2V No reference found.
(germanium) or 0.6V (silicon).
14. Hatching lines are usually drawn 18. PFD' on an engineering drawing would
at:. indicate.
A) 60°. A) dye penetrant check.
B) 30°. B) ultra-sonic test.
C) 45°. C) repair and recondition.
Ans : 45°. Ans : dye penetrant check.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook fig 5-20 Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 4.
and Leaflet 2-1 5.4.1a.
50. In a first angle orthographic projection 59. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA
the plan view is placed. 100?.
A) above the front elevation. A) Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge
B) below the side elevation. of wing.
C) below the front elevation. B) Tip of horizontal stabilizer.
Ans : below the front elevation. C) Fwd of the wing rear spar.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 Figure 3. Ans : Tip of horizontal stabilizer
Expl : Zone 3xx is empennage.
61. The latest drawing is identified by C) 1 in 600.
the. Ans : 1 in 600.
A) issue number. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10.
B) amendment number.
C) date.
Ans : issue number. 5. Which of the following shafts would you
Expl : CAAIP\'s leaflet 2-1 pg 4 para 4.2. use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch
diameter?.
06. Fits and Clearances. A) 0.752 inch.
B) 0.748 inch.
C) 750 inch.
1. Tolerances are classified in two ways, Ans : 0.748 inch.
these are. Expl : NIL.
A) Dimensional and isometric.
B) Upper and lower.
C) Dimensional and geometric. 6. Which of the following is checked when
Ans : Dimensional and geometric. using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?.
Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 2-1 p16 para 5.11. A) Clearance.
B) Tolerance.
C) Allowance.
2. The maximum permissible bow in a steel Ans : Tolerance.
tube is. Expl : NIL.
A) 1 : 400.
B) 1 : 200.
C) 1 : 600. 7. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral
Ans : 1 : 600. Tolerance'?.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4. A) 2 inches -0.002.
B) 2 inches +0.002.
C) 2 inches ±0.002.
3. The equipment required to carry out a Ans : 2 inches ±0.002.
run-out check on a shaft would be. Expl : NIL.
A) a DTI and 'V' blocks.
B) a ball bearing and a micrometer.
C) a surface plate and a three leg trammel. 8. A tolerance is.
Ans : a DTI and 'V' blocks. A) a permitted difference between new and
Expl : AC43.13-1B Page 4-20. worn dimensions.
B) a permitted variation on a dimension to
allow for inaccuracy of equipment.
4. What is the maximum bow allowed in a C) a required difference in dimension between
strut?. mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit.
A) 1 in 200. Ans : a permitted variation on a dimension to
B) 1 in 500. allow for inaccuracy of equipment.
Expl : NIL.
13. A press fit requires.
A) some sort of driving force.
9. A transition fit is one in which the shaft B) the shaft to be shrunk by cooling.
is. C) the hole to be expanded by heat.
A) larger than the hole. Ans : some sort of driving force.
B) smaller than the hole. Expl : A press fit is a small interference
C) the same size as the hole. only.
Ans : the same size as the hole.
Expl : BS 4500 Datasheet 4500A., External
document. 14. What is the typical acceptable limit of a
www.tech.plym.ac.uk/sme/disnotes/tola.pdf dent on a frame member?.
A) One and a half times the skin thickness.
B) Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch
10. The length of a blended repair of diameter.
corrosion should be no less than. C) One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter.
A) 10 times its depth. Ans : One gauge depth and 0.75 inch
B) 20 times its depth. diameter.
C) 5 times its depth. Expl : NIL.
Ans : 20 times its depth.
Expl : NIL.
15. A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch
diameter bolt and hole, on a drawing would be
11. If there is a positive allowance between shown as.
the smallest possible hole and the largest A) 0.005 Inches.
possible shaft, the fit is known as. B) 0.0015 Inches.
A) a transition fit. C) 0.0025 Inches.
B) a clearance fit. Ans : 0.0015 Inches.
C) an interference fit. Expl : AC43 says 0.0006 for a 3/8 in. bolt, so
Ans : a clearance fit. 0.0015 is the closest (and reasonable for a 3/4
Expl : NIL. in. bolt).
2. A wire clamped vertically at one end and 6. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic
horizontally at the other end should have a insert/extract tool be used on?.
bend radius of no less than. A) 16 - 14.
A) 3 times the diameter of the wire. B) 12 - 10.
B) 5 times the diameter of the wire. C) 22 - 18.
C) 10 times the diameter of the wire. Ans : 12 - 10.
Ans : 3 times the diameter of the wire. Expl : NIL.
Expl : CAIP S AL/3-2 6.4.
11. The international marking for a water 15. The maximum distance between end
injection pipeline is a series of. fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to
A) chevrons. be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose
B) squares. length should be.
C) dots. A) 51 inches.
Ans : chevrons. B) 51½ inches.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician C) 3 inches.
Textbook Page 10-13. Ans : 51½ inches.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 6.5.
19. Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried 23. The flare angle on an AGS pipe
out using a suitable ball or bobbin of. is.
A) 90% of the diameter of the end fittings. A) 90 degrees.
B) 85% of the diameter of the end fittings. B) 45 degrees.
C) 25% of the diameter of the end fittings. C) 32 degrees.
Ans : 90% of the diameter of the end Ans : 32 degrees.
fittings. Expl : BL/6-15 6.1.
Expl : Leaflet 5-5 9.5.3 (a) (ii).
10. Springs.
1. Needle roller bearings.
A) are susceptible to brinelling.
1. Springs are manufactured B) can accept a small amount of misalignment.
from. C) are designed to carry axial loads.
A) high carbon alloy steel with high strength Ans : are susceptible to brinelling.
requirements. Expl : CAIP BL/6-14 para 2.3.1 ii.
B) low carbon alloy steel with high strength
requirements.
C) high carbon alloy steel with low strength 2. When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a
requirements. regular click indicates.
Ans : high carbon alloy steel with high strength A) damage to the balls.
requirements. B) intergranular corrosion in the outer ring.
Expl : Springs are made from high carbon steel C) a cracked ring.
with high strength requirements. Ans : a cracked ring.
Expl : NIL.
21. Solders are available in two 25. Silver solder melts within the
forms:. range.
A) stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a A) 400°C - 550°C.
wire form having a rosin core. B) 200°C - 400°C.
B) Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux C) 600°C - 850°C.
and stick solder needing no flux at all. Ans : 600°C - 850°C.
C) stick solder needing a separate flux and Expl : BL/6-2, Para 1.1.
solder in wire form having a rosin core.
Ans : stick solder needing a separate flux and
solder in wire form having a rosin core. 26. The term 'dry joint' is usually applied
Expl : BL/6-1 4.1. to.
A) a metal being lightly heated.
B) a defect associated with a soldered joint.
C) a water tight joint.
Ans : a defect associated with a soldered 2. The shielding gases generally used in the
joint. Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium
Expl : NIL. consist of.
A) nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of
nitrogen and hydrogen.
27. Silver soldering is suited for. B) a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
A) electronic component soldering. C) helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and
B) high temperature applications. argon.
C) general soldering work. Ans : helium or argon, or a mixture of helium
Ans : high temperature applications. and argon.
Expl : BL/6-1 Para.4.1.2. Expl : NIL.
28. Silver solder is made from. 3. Which items listed below is the most
A) tin, copper and zinc. important consideration when selecting a
B) copper, tin and silver. welding rod?.
C) copper, zinc and silver. A) Thickness of the metal to be welded only.
Ans : copper, zinc and silver. B) Type of torch.
Expl : Workshop Technology WAJ Chapman C) Type and thickness of the metal to be
Page 105. welded.
Ans : Type and thickness of the metal to be
welded.
29. The materials most commonly soldered Expl : BL/6-4 2 & 4.1.
in soft soldering are.
A) brass and mild steel.
B) stainless steel and titanium. 4. What is a good weld?.
C) aluminium and magnesium. A) Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the
Ans : brass and mild steel. weld.
Expl : NIL. B) An oxide coating on the base metals.
C) Sides sloping to the base metals.
15b. Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding. Ans : Sides sloping to the base metals.
Expl : Jeppesen A & P airframe technician
textbook p 4-9.
1. What purpose does flux serve in welding
aluminium?.
A) Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod. 5. Brazing material is made
B) Removes dirt, grease, and oil. from.
C) Minimises or prevents oxidation. A) copper zinc and silver.
Ans : Minimises or prevents oxidation. B) copper and tin and lead.
Expl : NIL. C) copper, silver and tin.
Ans : copper zinc and silver.
Expl : Workshop Technology WAJ Chapman 9. After welding you would normalise
Page 103. to.
A) remove oxidation from the welded joint.
B) remove carbon build up from the welded
6. Filing or grinding a weld joint.
bead. C) release the stresses from the material.
A) may be necessary to avoid adding excess Ans : release the stresses from the material.
weight or to achieve uniform material Expl : Normalising removes local stresses set
thickness. up by the heat, and in turn prevents corrosion.
B) may be performed to achieve a smoother
surface.
C) reduces the strength of the joint. 10. The flux used during brazing is a mixture
Ans : reduces the strength of the joint. of water and.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3. A) zinc chloride.
B) hydrochloric acid.
C) borax powder.
7. The primary reason for using flux when Ans : borax powder.
welding aluminium is to. Expl : NIL.
A) prevent oxides from forming ahead of the
weld.
B) prevent molten metal from flowing too 11. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or
widely. metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when
C) promote better fusion of the base metal at a welding aluminium to use a.
lower temperature. A) solvent.
Ans : prevent oxides from forming ahead of B) filler.
the weld. C) flux.
Expl : BL/6-4 2. Ans : flux.
Expl : BL6-4 8.2.2.
13. When a helicopter lands, how does the 17. Which is bad practice for removing the
pilot signal to ground staff when it is safe to ice and snow in the cold weather?.
approach the aircraft?. A) Dry snow by hot air.
A) Turn the anti collision lights off. B) Deep ice by de-icing fluid.
B) Flash the landing lights. C) Use brush for deep wet snow.
C) Flash the Nav lights. Ans : Dry snow by hot air.
Ans : Turn the anti collision lights off. Expl : AL/11-3 5.0.
Expl : ANO Section 2 Rule 9.
18a. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Assembly Techniques.
14. When the park brake has been applied
on an aircraft which has a pressurized hydraulic
system and is reading maximum system 1. Taper pins resist what loads.
pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right A) compression.
main wheels will read. B) shear.
A) no indication. C) tension.
B) full system pressure. Ans : shear.
C) full scale deflection. Expl : A&P Technician General Textbook 8-29.
Ans : full system pressure.
Expl : NIL.
2. What test do you do on a bonded
join?.
15. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used. A) Shear.
A) for short holdover times. B) Peel.
B) where the ambient temperature is below C) Tension.
-10degrees Centigrade. Ans : Peel.
C) where holdover times are long. Expl : NIL.
Ans : for short holdover times.
Expl : AL/11-3 2.6. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 13-14. 3. What would you use to check the run-
out on a control rod?.
A) Micrometer + ball bearing.
16. When picketing a helicopter B) DTI + V blocks.
you. C) 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge.
A) tie down one blade. Ans : DTI + V blocks.
B) fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if Expl : NIL.
they strike the ground.
C) fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
Ans : fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
4. Taper pins are used in which of the C) with a dilute solution of sodium
following applications?. bicarbonate.
A) To take compression loads. Ans : with a dilute solution of sodium
B) To take shear loads. bicarbonate.
C) To take compression and shear loads. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-2 5.4.1.
Ans : To take shear loads.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 1-27.
9. After carrying out an identification test of
aluminium alloy with caustic soda, the caustic
5. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out soda should be neutralized with.
of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate A) Chromic anhydride solution.
a run-out of. B) Copper sulphate solution.
A) 0.025 inches. C) Phosphoric acid.
B) 0.020 inches. Ans : Chromic anhydride solution.
C) 0.040 inches. Expl : BL/4-2 Para 2-4-5 'Note'.
Ans : 0.020 inches.
Expl : CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2.
10. To neutralize spilled battery acid on
aluminium alloy, use.
6. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull A) sulphuric acid.
rod by. B) bicarbonate of soda.
A) passing a ball down its bore. C) caustic soda.
B) callipers and feeler gauges. Ans : bicarbonate of soda.
C) a steel ball and micrometer. Expl : BL/4-1 4.1.3.
Ans : a steel ball and micrometer.
Expl : NIL.
11. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile
steel is caused if it is treated with.
7. What is used on Magnesium to re- A) Zinc Chromate.
protect it?. B) Nitric acid.
A) Selenious Acid. C) Phosphoric acid.
B) Deoxidine. Ans : Phosphoric acid.
C) Chromic Acid. Expl : BL/4-2 3.2.2 (iii) BL/7-4 5.2.
Ans : Selenious Acid.
Expl : NIL.
12. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not
allowed.
8. In the procedure to be followed after A) anywhere on the rod.
spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried B) in the middle third of the rod.
out. C) in the end thirds of the rod.
A) by washing with distilled water. Ans : in the middle third of the rod.
B) by applying a coating of Vaseline. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Bonding - Continuity, Insulation,
Function.
13. When checking a diode forward bias
function, the positive lead of the ohmmeter
should be placed on the. 17. When an earth-return terminal assembly
A) cathode and the negative lead to the anode. has to be replaced which of the following
B) anode and the negative lead to the cathode. checks must be carried out?.
C) cathode and the negative lead the earth. A) Bonding and continuity tests.
Ans : anode and the negative lead to the B) Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
cathode. C) Bonding and insulation resistance tests.
Expl : Positive to the anode. Ans : Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
Expl : EEL/1-6 Para 3.7.2 & Leaflet 9-1 3.7.2.
27. On inspection of a critical bolted joint 31. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type
you witness black or grey dust or paste. What of.
type of corrosion has taken place and what type A) corrosion between two pieces of
of material is involved?. material.
A) Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys. B) plating process.
B) Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys. C) surface corrosion.
C) Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys. Ans : corrosion between two pieces of
Ans : Fretting corrosion in aluminium material.
alloys. Expl : AC43 6-20.
Expl : CAIP BL/4-1 3.1.5.
37. Control methods for galvanic corrosion 41. The usual manufacturer's anti corrosive
include. process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts
is.
A) cadmium plating.
B) anodising.
C) metal spraying. 45. How is damage classified on an aircraft
Ans : cadmium plating. skin?.
Expl : NIL. A) Negligible, repairable, replacement.
B) Negligible, allowable, replacement.
C) Negligible, allowable, repairable.
42. An intervention defect is one Ans : Negligible, repairable, replacement.
where. Expl : NIL.
A) the engineer has the discretion on whether
to intervene.
B) there is a requirement for the maintenance 46. When carrying out a millivolt drop test
engineer to intervene. on a terminal, the maximum value should
C) the defect occurred because of some be.
previous maintenance action. A) 50mV/10A.
Ans : the defect occurred because of some B) 10mV/10A.
previous maintenance action. C) 5mV/10A.
Expl : NIL. Ans : 5mV/10A.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.
9. On a composite repair the vacuum 2. The eddy current method of N.D.T.
should be. uses.
A) above required level. A) AC or DC.
B) below required level. B) Direct current.
C) at the required level. C) Alternating current.
Ans : at the required level. Ans : Alternating current.
Expl : NIL. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 1 para 2.1.
10. If bridging strips or bonding cords are 3. To measure the thickness of a paint
fractured, what action may be taken?. finish, what type of NDT inspection is used?.
A) A woodpecker. A) the dye should be applied to the outside and
B) Ultrasonic. the developer to the inside.
C) Radiographic. B) the dye should be applied to the inside and
Ans : Ultrasonic. the developer to the outside.
Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 para 1.4. C) both the dye and the developer should be
applied to the outside.
Ans : the dye should be applied to the inside
4. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, and the developer to the outside.
after the developer has been applied it should Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
be inspected.
A) after 30 minutes.
B) as soon as the developer is dry and again 8. When leak testing with a colour contrast
after approximately 10 minutes. field kit, the soak time for a component less
C) after 1 hour. than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be.
Ans : as soon as the developer is dry and again A) at least twice the normal soak time.
after approximately 10 minutes. B) at least 3 times the normal soak time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Paras 7-1 and 7- C) at least the normal soak time.
2. Ans : at least 3 times the normal soak time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-2.
7. When carrying out a colour contrast test 11. Magnetic particle testing detects
on a pressure vessel. faults.
A) transverse. A) the part to be inspected does not require
B) longitudinally. cleaning.
C) longitudinal and transverse. B) the defect must be opened to the surface.
Ans : transverse. C) the penetrant solution works on any non-
Expl : CAAIP 4-7, 2.2 The flaw must be between porous material.
45 degrees and 90 degrees to the flux lines. Ans : the penetrant solution works on any non-
porous material.
Expl : NIL.
12. Dye penetrant in a cold
climate.
A) takes longer to work. 16. To detect a minute crack using dye
B) is not affected. penetrant inspection usually requires.
C) works more quickly. A) the surface to be highly polished.
Ans : takes longer to work. B) a longer than normal penetrating time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. C) that the developer be applied to a flat
surface.
Ans : a longer than normal penetrating
13. If after spraying the developer, red time.
blotches appear, the part. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-1.
A) has sub-surface defects.
B) was not cleaned properly.
C) is porous. 17. When checking an item with the
Ans : is porous. magnetic particle inspection method, circular
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-3. and longitudinal magnetization should be used
to.
A) evenly magnetize the entire part.
14. What is the purpose of the developer in B) ensure uniform current flow.
a dye penetrant inspection?. C) reveal all possible defects.
A) It acts a s a blotter to draw out the Ans : reveal all possible defects.
penetrant that has seeped into the crack. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2 and leaflet 4-7, 4.5.
B) It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic
attraction.
C) It seeps into the crack and makes it show 18. Which type crack can be detected by
up. magnetic particle inspection using either
Ans : It acts a s a blotter to draw out the circular or longitudinal
penetrant that has seeped into the crack. magnetisation?.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para.6. A) 45°.
B) longitudinal.
C) transverse.
15. The main advantage of dye penetrant Ans : 45°.
inspection is. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-7 para 2.2.
C) high permeability and high retentivity.
19. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and Ans : high permeability and low
forgings may usually be detected by. retentivity.
A) submerging the part in a solution of Expl : NIL.
hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear
water.
B) gamma ray inspection. 23. The 'Dwell Time' of a dye-penetrant NDT
C) the use of dye penetrants and suitable inspection is the.
developers. A) time it takes for a defect to develop.
Ans : the use of dye penetrants and suitable B) time the penetrant is allowed to stand.
developers. C) amount of time the developer is allowed to
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 1.6.2. act.
Ans : time the penetrant is allowed to
stand.
20. Which of these metals is inspected using Expl : A&P General Textbook 12-3 Pg 447 Para
the magnetic particle inspection 2.
method?.
A) Magnesium alloys.
B) Aluminium alloys. 24. What non-destructive testing method
C) Iron alloys. requires little or no part preparation, is used to
Ans : Iron alloys. detect surface or near-surface defects in most
Expl : Leaflet 4-7 1.1. metals, and may also be used to separate
metals or alloys and their heat-treat
conditions?.
21. One way a part may be demagnetized A) Eddy current inspection.
after magnetic particle inspection is by. B) Magnetic particle inspection.
A) slowly moving the part out of an AC C) Ultrasonic inspection.
magnetic field of sufficient strength. Ans : Eddy current inspection.
B) slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic Expl : NIL.
field of sufficient strength.
C) subjecting the part to high voltage, low
amperage AC. 25. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion
Ans : slowly moving the part out of an AC chambers will show up.
magnetic field of sufficient strength. A) grey on white background.
Expl : Leaflet 4-7 4.9.2. B) black on lighter background.
C) light grey on black background.
Ans : light grey on black background.
22. The testing medium that is generally Expl : NIL.
used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a
ferromagnetic material that has.
A) low permeability and high retentivity. 26. Which of these non-destructive testing
B) high permeability and low retentivity. methods is suitable for the inspection of most
metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and B) on the inside, with developer on the outside.
subsurface defects?. C) on the inside with the developer on the
A) Eddy current inspection. inside.
B) Magnetic particle inspection. Ans : on the inside, with developer on the
C) Ultrasonic inspection. outside.
Ans : Ultrasonic inspection. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
Expl : NIL.
35. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the 39. When inspecting a component which is
detection of cracks or material defects are used being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process,
with. the examination for defects should be carried
A) a tungsten light source. out.
B) an ultra-violet radiation source. A) whilst the item is still quite hot.
C) an infra-red light source. B) immediately on removal of the item from
Ans : an ultra-violet radiation source. the chalk cabinet.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-3 Para 1-5. C) when the item is quite cool.
Ans : when the item is quite cool.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 3.
36. What is an isotope the power source
of?.
A) X-Rays. 40. Circular magnetization of a part can be
B) Ultra Violet Rays. used to detect defects.
C) Gamma Rays. A) perpendicular to the concentric circles of
Ans : Gamma Rays. magnetisation.
Expl : CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-6 para 2. B) parallel to the long axis of the part.
C) perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
Ans : perpendicular to the concentric circles of
37. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' magnetisation.
method of non-destructive testing is a mixture Expl : CAIP BL/8-5 para 2.1.
of.
A) lubricating oil and petrol.
B) lubricating oil and lard oil. 41. An indication of porosity when using a
C) lubricating oil and paraffin. penetrant dye crack detection method is.
Ans : lubricating oil and paraffin. A) areas where dye is not showing.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 Para 3-2. B) an area of scattered dots of dye.
C) closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line.
Ans : an area of scattered dots of dye.
38. Under magnetic particle inspection, a Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 7.3.
part will be identified as having a fatigue crack
under which condition?.
42. In a test for adequate demagnetization Expl : AandP Mechanics General Handbook Pg
of a component after a magnetic particle test, 474 para 2.
the test compass should not deflect.
A) more than 1° when standing due east of the
component. 46. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack
B) more than 1° when standing due south of test, before the dye is applied the surface being
the component. tested should be.
C) more than 1° when standing north-east of A) etch primed.
the component. B) thoroughly degreased.
Ans : more than 1° when standing due east of C) painted with developer fluid.
the component. Ans : thoroughly degreased.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-7 4.10.2. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 2-4.
43. If on application of developer it all turns 47. When carrying out a dye penetrant
to a pinkish hue, what has happened?. inspection, what time should elapse after
A) Thin porosity. applying the developer before inspecting the
B) The hue has pinked. component?.
C) Incorrect cleaning. A) Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed
Ans : Incorrect cleaning. by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 6-6. B) After 15 minutes.
C) After 10 minutes.
Ans : Initial inspection after 30 seconds
44. If dye penetrant inspection indications followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
are not sharp and clear, the most probable Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-2.
cause is that the part.
A) is not damaged.
B) was not correctly degaussed before the 48. When should the developer be applied
developer was applied. to the component?.
C) was not thoroughly cleaned before A) After excess penetrant has been removed
developer was applied. and the area completely dried.
Ans : was not thoroughly cleaned before B) Before applying penetrant.
developer was applied. C) Before the penetrant dries.
Expl : AC43 5.60 G. Ans : After excess penetrant has been removed
and the area completely dried.
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 1.5, 5.4.1.
45. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic
particle build-up forming.
A) a single line. 49. To check the structure of a
B) parallel lines. wing.
C) a fern-like pattern. A) ultrasound NDT is used.
Ans : parallel lines. B) high voltage X-rays are used.
C) low voltage X-rays are used. 53. Which of the following NDT methods
Ans : high voltage X-rays are used. requires that the surface of the test piece is
Expl : BL/8-4 2.1.6. cleaned down to bare metal?.
A) Eddy Current.
B) Magnetic Particle.
50. Which of the following NDT methods C) Dye-penetrant.
requires that the orientation (or direction) of Ans : Dye-penetrant.
the defect be known before the test can Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
commence?.
A) Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant.
B) Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic. 54. When using the colour contrast
C) X-Ray and Magnetic Particle. NDT.
Ans : Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic. A) the surface paint should be removed.
Expl : Leaflet 4-5 1.2. B) the surface should be lightly scuffed.
C) the surface should be bead blasted.
Ans : the surface paint should be removed.
51. Which of the following defects could not Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
be detected by Eddy Current NDT
inspection?.
A) A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic 55. When using dye penetrant field kit,
cowl. removal of excess penetrant is done by applying
B) A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting. the solvent by.
C) Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine A) spraying once direct on the part.
blade. B) spraying twice direct on the part.
Ans : A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic C) using a lint free cloth.
cowl. Ans : using a lint free cloth.
Expl : BL/8-8 2. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 5.3.
52. Which of the following methods could be 56. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to
used to detect the presence of tiny drops of detect.
Mercury in a large area of aircraft hull structure A) internal porosity in castings.
after an accident with a mercury B) corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes.
thermometer?. C) fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts.
A) X-Ray. Ans : fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy
B) Magnetic Particle. parts.
C) Ultrasonic. Expl : CAAIP Leaflet 4-2 2.3.
Ans : X-Ray.
Expl : NIL.
57. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ
from Post-emulsification penetrants in that
they.
A) do not need an emulsifier added. C) Magnetic Flaw.
B) need not be removed from surfaces prior to Ans : Radiographic.
development. Expl : NIL.
C) can only be used on aluminium alloys.
Ans : do not need an emulsifier added.
Expl : BL/8-2 1.3. 62. Magnetic Flux detection will show
defects which are.
A) transverse to the flux direction only.
58. When using a post-emulsification B) longitudinal to the flux direction only.
penetrant, the timing is most critical during. C) longitudinal and transverse to the flux
A) penetrant removal. direction.
B) emulsification. Ans : transverse to the flux direction only.
C) penetration. Expl : Leaflet 4-7 2.2.
Ans : emulsification.
Expl : BL/8-7 para 4.2.
63. A hairline crack would show up on a dye
penetrant inspection as.
59. A liquid penetrant test A) a continuous line of small dots.
cannot. B) a thin broken line or chain.
A) be used on porous materials. C) a group of dots spread over a wide area.
B) locate sub-surface discontinuities. Ans : a continuous line of small dots.
C) be used on non-metallic surfaces. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 7.4.
Ans : locate sub-surface discontinuities.
Expl : Leaflet 4-2, A&P Technician General
Textbook 12-4 Pg 448 Para 3 (B). 64. When carrying out an ultrasonic
inspection, what is the gel used
for?.
60. Hot air drying of articles during liquid A) To create a good sonic coupling between the
penetrant testing is carried out at a the probe and the test piece.
temperature of. B) To reduce the friction between the probe
A) 75°F. and the test piece.
B) 250°F. C) To prevent the test piece from becoming
C) 130°F. scratched by the probe.
Ans : 130°F. Ans : To create a good sonic coupling between
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 5.4.3. There is no reference in the the probe and the test piece.
old CAIP S. Expl : Leaflet 4-5 3.4.
61. To check the structure of a wing, which 65. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for
NDT is used?. what materials?.
A) Radiographic. A) Non magnetic non-ferrous materials.
B) Dye penetrant. B) Ferrous magnetic materials.
C) Plastics and non magnetic materials. Ans : two passes at 90 degrees to each
Ans : Non magnetic non-ferrous materials. other.
Expl : Leaflet 4-3 1.2. CAIP S BL/8-7. Expl : BL/8-5 2.1.
66. In film radiography, image quality 70. The substance used in ultrasound
indicators (IQI) are usually placed. inspection is.
A) between the intensifying screen and the A) a couplant to allow sound waves to travel.
film. B) a cleaning agent to keep the components
B) on the film side of the object. clean.
C) on the source side of the test object. C) a developer.
Ans : on the source side of the test object. Ans : a couplant to allow sound waves to
Expl : BL/8-4 3.3.1. travel.
Expl : Leaflet 4-5 4.5.2 BL/8-3 3.3.
68. When using dye penetrant NDT on a 72. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16 inch
tank, the penetrant should be applied. to 1/8 inch is being tested with dye penetrant.
A) on the inside, with developer on the inside. The penetrant should be left for.
B) on the outside, with developer on the A) 3 times longer than normal.
outside. B) less than normal.
C) on the inside, with developer on the outside. C) the same length of time as normal.
Ans : on the inside, with developer on the Ans : 3 times longer than normal.
outside. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 9.2.
Expl : BL/8-2 9.
75. The liquid applied to a component being 79. With dye penetrant how is the developer
checked by magnetic particle inspection is applied?.
for. A) Using a tank.
A) acting as a transmission medium for the test. B) As an even layer of chalk applied over the
B) to prevent corrosion occurring from contact area.
with the probe. C) At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several
C) to prevent scratching of the surface by the passes.
probe. Ans : At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with
Ans : acting as a transmission medium for the several passes.
test. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 6.
Expl : NIL.
77. A composite flap panel has corrosion. 81. A deep internal crack in a structural steel
What NDT method will you use to detect?. member is detected by.
A) Low voltage x-ray. A) x-ray or ultrasonic process.
B) fluorescent penetrant method. C) above 15°C.
C) magnetic flaw method. Ans : below 0°C.
Ans : x-ray or ultrasonic process. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 4.2.
Expl : Leaflet 4-6.
84. When using the fluorescent ink flaw 1. Where would you disconnect a
detection method, the component should be chain?.
inspected using an. A) At a bolted joint.
A) ultraviolet lamp. B) At an riveted joint.
B) infrared lamp. C) At a spring clip joint.
C) ordinary lamp and special glasses. Ans : At a bolted joint.
Ans : ultraviolet lamp. Expl : CAIP S EEL/ 3-1 Para 8-3-1 (b) & CAAIP S
Expl : Leaflet 4-3 1.5. Leaflet 5-4 3.4.
85. When using the dye penetrant method 2. How many times can a locking plate be
of crack detection, it should not normally be used?.
used at temperatures. A) 3 times, then discarded.
A) above 20°C. B) indefinitely providing it is a good fit around
B) below 0°C. the component to be locked.
C) once, then discarded. B) 100°C.
Ans : indefinitely providing it is a good fit C) 160°C.
around the component to be locked. Ans : 120°C.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-5 5.1. Expl : NIL.
3. A hi-lock collar should be. 7. What type of rivet would you use when
A) not lubed or washed because they are lubed there is access to only one side of the
at manufacture. work?.
B) washed in solvent before fitting. A) Blind.
C) lubricated before fitting. B) Pop.
Ans : not lubed or washed because they are C) Hilok.
lubed at manufacture. Ans : Blind.
Expl : NIL. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-28.
4. When drilling out a rivet, use a 8. Torque loading is carried out to
drill. provide.
A) larger than the hole. A) as tight a joint as possible.
B) same size as the hole. B) sufficient clamping without over-stressing.
C) smaller than the hole. C) flexibility.
Ans : same size as the hole. Ans : sufficient clamping without over-
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal stressing.
in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIP S Expl : NIL.
BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. We
chose the former, because it is current. Also
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-67. 9. What is generally the best procedure to
use when removing a solid shank rivet?.
A) Drill through the manufactured head and
5. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
metal together the joint should be protected and remove the rivet with a punch.
with. B) Drill through the manufactured head and
A) jointing compound. shank with a shank size drill and remove the
B) paint. rivet with a punch.
C) grease. C) Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet
Ans : jointing compound. head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
Expl : NIL. shank and remove the rivet with a punch.
Ans : Drill to the base of the manufactured
rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the
6. The maximum temperature for Nyloc rivet shank and remove the rivet with a
nuts is. punch.
A) 120°C.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal Ans : a special drill provided by the thread
in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIP S insert manufacturer.
BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. Both Expl : NIL.
documents say 'to the base of the head only'.
2. An Insulation test is carried out on a 5. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out
group of cables and a low reading obtained. on a heavy duty relay. The Millivoltmeter would
What action would you take?. be connected to the relay.
A) A low reading would be expected because A) when contacts closed and power is on.
the cables are in parallel. B) when contacts open and power off.
B) Change or renew all the cables involved in C) when contacts are open and power is on.
the test. Ans : when contacts closed and power is
C) Break the circuit down and carry out further on.
checks. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.3.
Ans : Break the circuit down and carry out
further checks.
Expl : EEL / 1-6 Para 4-4-2 & Leaflet 9-1 4.4.2. 6. Electrical cables installed on aircraft.
What is used to indicate a fault?.
A) Bonding test.
3. BITE systems to be used on the ground B) Continuity test.
only are deactivated by. C) Resistance test.
A) on take off. Ans : Continuity test.
B) the parking break. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.2.1.
C) by the undercarriage retraction.
Ans : on take off.
Expl : A proximity switch on the undercarriage 7. When checking resistance of a cable to
will signal a computer (Airbus) or a Proximity the starter motor what test is carried out?.
Sensor Control Unit (Boeing). This signal is then A) Millivolt drop test.
sent to all appropriate units. B) Safety Ohmmeter.
C) Time Domain Reflectometer. A) Reduce flare.
Ans : Millivolt drop test. B) Use reverse thrust.
Expl : NIL. C) Put flaps up.
Ans : Use reverse thrust.
19a. Abnormal Events. Expl : Aquaplaning is caused by excessive
speed on a wet runway. Reverse thrust slows
the aircraft and allows the wheels to continue
1. When inspecting an aircraft after a turning (rather than 'planing' which they do if
lightning strike, you should observe. they are locked by the brakes).
A) entry damage.
B) all signs of burning.
C) entry and exit damage. 5. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a
Ans : all signs of burning. wing is caused by.
Expl : AL/7-1 5.4. A) hogging.
B) tension.
C) sagging.
2. To ensure protection against HIRF Ans : hogging.
affecting audio and navigation aids. Expl : NIL.
A) ensure that all audio and navigation
equipment is adequately screened.
B) inspect and check all bonding leads to 6. After a report of flight through heavy
ensure their serviceability and replace if turbulence, you would.
defective. A) check the aircraft symmetry.
C) ensure that the correct number of static B) carry out a major overhaul.
wicks are fitted. C) not carry out any checks.
Ans : ensure that all audio and navigation Ans : check the aircraft symmetry.
equipment is adequately screened. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-3.
Expl : Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
45. What should be checked before a 49. When receiving new parts it is the
licensed engineer signs a CRS?. responsibility of the engineer to check.
A) That he/she has worked for 6 months on the A) it has a green serviceable label attached.
aircraft type within the previous 2 years. B) it is of the correct modification state and is
B) That he/she has worked for 4 months on the serviceable.
aircraft type within the previous 2 years. C) it was designed to acceptable standards.
Ans : it is of the correct modification state and A) the pilot, type rated on that particular
is serviceable. aircraft.
Expl : AWN 3. B) a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer.
C) a CAA surveyor or person approved within
the CAA.
50. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft Ans : a appropriate licensed aircraft
structural parts are graded as. engineer.
A) primary, secondary and tertiary. Expl : NIL.
B) class A, B and C.
C) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans : primary, secondary and tertiary. 54. An unauthorised repair has been carried
Expl : Primary, secondary and tertiary are the out.
three 'structure' classifications. A) sign a CRS for the repair.
B) apply for it as a modification.
C) carryout an approved repair.
51. If an unauthorized repair is carried Ans : carryout an approved repair.
out Expl : NIL.
A) the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of
Fitness for Flight.
B) the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized 55. A Part-66 licensed engineer, when
repair has been done. signing a CRS for a non-Part-145 company
C) the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is would need to have.
issued. A) maintenance experience for 6 months within
Ans : the Cof A is invalidated until an the last 24 months.
authorized repair has been done. B) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24
Expl : NIL. months.
C) maintenance experience for 4 months within
the last 24 months.
52. A C.of A. for export. Ans : maintenance experience for 6 months
A) does not give authority by it self for the within the last 24 months.
aircraft to fly. Expl : NIL.
B) gives authority for the aircraft to fly.
C) is required before aircraft registration in a
foriegn country. 56. A National UK licensed engineer, when
Ans : does not give authority by it self for the signing a CRS would need to have.
aircraft to fly. A) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24
Expl : NIL. months.
B) maintenance experience for 4 months within
the last 24 months.
53. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft C) maintenance experience for 6 months within
after a major modification by. the last 24 months.
Ans : maintenance experience for 6 months 2. When removing a piece of equipment
within the last 24 months. from an aircraft that supports the aircraft, what
Expl : AWN 3 (issue 20) pg 4 para 1.8. should you do?.
A) Go ahead and remove the part.
B) Wait for the new part to arrive before
57. Vital point inspections. replacing.
A) are points which require special certifying C) Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part.
LAEs. Ans : Fit a jury strut in place of the removed
B) are components which involve duplicate part.
inspections. Expl : NIL.
C) are lifed components.
Ans : are components which involve duplicate
inspections. 3. How do you prime a dead weight
Expl : BCAR A5-3 para 3 states: VITAL POINTS tester?.
are any point on an aircraft at which single mal- A) wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the
assembly could lead to catastrophe, ie. result in reservoir.
loss of aircraft and/or in fatalities. Hence the B) Remove the weights and pour fluid into the
need for duplicate inspections, AWN 3 pg 3 para hole.
1.6. C) wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the
reservoir.
Ans : wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the
58. On a pre flight check you notice an reservoir.
instrument glass is cracked. You should. Expl : It is normal to wind the handle (and
A) enter into technical log. plunger) fully in, fill the reservoir, then wind the
B) check MEL. handle out, to draw the fluid.
C) tell oncoming captain.
Ans : check MEL.
Expl : NIL. 4. When you change an EGT gauge, you
should.
A) do a test without considering ambient
temperature, as it is already accounted for by
1. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign the instrument.
a CRS for what?. B) do a test immediately, taking ambient
A) A task he has been locally trained for. temperature into consideration.
B) An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings C) do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30
for. minutes then do test taking ambient
C) A task that someone else has completed. temperature into consideration.
Ans : A task he has been locally trained Ans : do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30
for. minutes then do test taking ambient
Expl : NIL. temperature into consideration.
Expl : Correction factors for ambient
temperatures are usually found on the inside of
teh test instrument's lid.