BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering PDF
BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering PDF
E&TC
Radiation and Microwave Techniques
B.E. (E&TC)
TEST MCQS
2
c) Constant R and constant X circles
d) Variable R and variable X circles
19) The circles in the Smith chart pass through which point? d
a) (0,1)
b) (0,-1)
c) (-1,0)
d) (1,0)
20) Moving towards the clockwise direction in the Smith chart implies moving a
a) Towards generator
b) Towards load
c) Towards stub
d) Towards waveguide
21) The best stub selection for the transmission line will be d
a) Series open
b) Series short
c) Shunt open
d) Shunt short
22) The phenomenon employed in the waveguide operation is c
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Total internal reflection
d) Adsorption
23) The dominant mode in waveguide is the mode which has b
a) Highest frequency
b) Highest wavelength
c) Lowest phase constant
d) Highest attenuation
24) The modes are calculated from which parameter? d
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) V number
25) The circular waveguides use which function in the frequency calculation? c
a) Laplace function
b) Schottky function
c) Bessel function
d) Transfer function
26) The scattering parameters are used to indicate the c
a) Permittivity and permeability
b) Electric and magnetic field intensities
c) Reflection and transmission coefficients
d) Frequency and wavelength
27) Which of the following two parameter models cannot be used to represent a a
transmission line?
a) H parameter model
b) T parameter model
c) ABCD parameter model
3 P.T.O.
d) S parameter model
28) For the matched line, the parameters S12 and S21 are b
a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) ∞
29) The waveguides are materials with characteristics of a
a) Low bulk resistivity
b) High bulk resistivity
c) High conductivity
d) Low conductivity
30) The parameters S11 and S22 indicate the transmission coefficients. State a
true/false.
a) True
b) False
31) The waveguides increase the transmission of the electromagnetic waves. a
State true/false.
a) True
b) False
32) The waveguide is employed in the transmission lines, when operated at the d
range of
a) Hz
b) KHz
c) MHz
d) GHz
33) In rectangular waveguides, the dimensions a and b represent the b
a) Broad wall dimensions
b) Broad wall and side wall dimension respectively
c) Side wall and broad wall dimension respectively
d) Side wall dimensions
34) The cut off frequency for a waveguide to operate is d
a) 3 MHz
b) 3 GHz
c) 6 MHz
d) 6 GHz
35) In transverse electric waves, which of the following is true? c
a) E is parallel to H
b) E is parallel to wave direction
c) E is transverse to wave direction
d) H is transverse to wave direction
36) The dominant mode in rectangular waveguide is b
a) TE01
b) TE10
c) TM01
d) TM10
37) The mode which has the highest wavelength is called a
a) Dominant mode
4
b) Evanescent mode
c) Generate mode
d) Degenerate mode
38) The propagation constant for a lossless transmission line will be d
a) Real
b) Complex
c) Real and equal to phase constant
d) Complex and equal to phase constant
39) Which of the following parameter is non zero for a lossless line? d
a) Attenuation
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Phase constant
40) The phase and group velocities does not depend on which of the following? d
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) Attenuation constant
41) The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a type beam a
amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
d) None of the mentioned
42) is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a b
reflector electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
43) A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is: b
a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
c) High source power
d) Design complexity
44) Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about a
80%.
a) True
b) False
45) Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field b
amplifiers.
a) True
b) False
46) . A PIN diode consists of number of semiconductor layers. a
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
5 P.T.O.
d) One
47) The material out of which PIN diode is made is: a
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) GaAs
d) None of the mentioned
48) The behavior of a PIN diode is entirely different from normal diodes at all b
frequency of operation.
a) True
b) False
49) GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because: d
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
50) GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. Gunn diode is: a
a) bulk device
b) sliced device
c) made of different type of semiconductor layers
d) none of the mentioned
51) . The modes of operation of a Gunn diode are illustrated in a plot of voltage b
applied to the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of Gunn diode.
a) true
b) false
52) The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is: a
a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) limited space charge accumulation mode
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode
53) In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity a
formed by a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
54) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to a
an IMPATT diode, it results in:
a) avalanche multiplication
b) break down of depletion region
c) high reverse saturation current
d) none of the mentioned
55) To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning, a constant bias source is used to a
maintain at safe limit.
a) average current
b) average voltage
c) average bias voltage
d) average resistance
56) The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is: c
a) two
6
b) three
c) four
d) none of the mentioned
57) Expression for the characteristic impedance of a transmission line(λ/4) used a
for impedance matching is:
a) Z1=√(ZₒR)L
b) Z1=√(Zₒ/R)L
c) Z1=√(Zₒ+R)L
d) None of the mentioned
58) If there is no standing wave on a transmission line, then the value of SWR is: a
a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinity
d) Insufficient data
59) When a λ/4 transmission line is used for impedance matching, then which of a
the following is valid?
a) Standing waves are present on the λ/4 transmission line
b) No standing waves on the λ/4 transmission line
c) Standing waves are not present both on the feed line and the matching λ/4
line
d) Standing waves are present on both the feed line and the matching λ/4 line
60) The lowest mode of TE mode propagation in a circular waveguide is: c
a) TE10 mode
b) TE00 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) TE11 mode
****************
7 P.T.O.
Model Question Paper
Sem:- VIII
(MCQs)
Answer: b
2) When a transmission line is exited by a source, total power supplied is delivered to the
load.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: d
6) If there is no standing wave on a transmission line, then the value of SWR is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinity
d) Insufficient data
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: a
11) The key difference between circuit theory and transmission line theory is:
a) circuit elements
b) voltage
c) current
d) electrical size
Answer: d
Answer: b
13) _________ and __________ contribute to the impedance of a transmission line in the
lumped element representation.
a) resistor, inductor
b) resistor, capacitor
c) capacitor, inductor
d) transistor, capacitor
Answer: a
Answer: b
15) The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance matching
techniques is:
a) Lumped elements are avoided
b) It can be fabricated as a part of transmission line media
c) It involves two adjustable parameters
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a
17) In shunt stub matching, the key parameter used for matching is:
a) Admittance of the line at a point
b) Admittance of the load
c) Impedance of the stub
d) Impedance of the load
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: a
20) In a double stub tuner circuit, the load is of _______ length from the first stub.
a) fixed length
b) arbitrary length
c) depends on the load impedance to be matched
d) depends on the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
Answer: b
Answer: a
22) The modes of wave propagation that a rectangular waveguide can support are:
a) TEM, TE, modes
b) TEM,TM, TE modes
c) TEM, TM modes
d) TE,TM modes
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: c
31) Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power
division or power combining.
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Linear
d) Non linear
Answer: a
Answer: b
33) If a device is passive and contains no anisotropic elements, then the device
is_______ network.
a) Reciprocal
b) Non reciprocal
c) Lossless
d) Lossy
Answer: a
34) If all the ports of a microwave network are matched, then the diagonal elements of the
S matrix of the network is zero.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
35) If a microwave network is lossless, then S matrix of the microwave network is:
a) Zero Matrix
b) Symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Unitary
Answer: d
36) A lossless reciprocal 3 port network can be matched at all the three ports.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a
38) The junction resistance and capacitance of the intrinsic region in a PIN diode are
connected______ in the equivalent circuit of PIN diode.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Connected across package capacitance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
39) The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Insufficient data
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: a
42) The width of depletion region of a varactor diode ________with increase in reverse
bias voltage.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
43) In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed
by a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
44) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode, it results in:
a) break down of depletion region
b) avalanche multiplication
c) high reverse saturation current
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: a
46) ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
47) Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
48) Klystrons operates on the principal of
a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Frequency Modulation
c) Pulse Modulation
d) Velocity Modulation
Answer: d
49) Which of the following can be used for amplification of microwave energy?
a) Magnetron
b) Reflex Klystron
c) Traveling Wave Tube
d) Gunn Diode
Answer:- c
Answer: b
51) When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric
field, the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Answer :b
Answer: b
54) A cavity resonator can be represented by
a) an LC circuit
b) an LCR circuit
c) a lossy inductor
d) a lossy capacitor
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: a
57) The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator klystron
amplifier is
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 58%
d) 85%
Answer: c
Answer: a
59) For the capacitors used in MMICs, the insulating dielectric films used are:
a) Air
b) SiO
c) Titanium
d) GaAs
Answer: b
Answer: a
Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: Radiation and Microwave Techniques
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
Answer: Option d
Q 27. A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to the two-
hole coupler
Answer: Option D
Q 29. A duplexer is used
b. to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or retransmission without mutual interference
c. to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
Answer: Option B
Q 30 In a waveguide, which of the following condition is true always?
a) phase velocity = c
b) group velocity = c
c) phase velocity > c
d) phase velocity < c
Answer: c
Q 31. The product of the phase and the group velocities is given by the
a) Speed of light
b) Speed of light/2
c) 2 x Speed of light
d) (speed of light)/4
Answer: d
Q 32. The phase and group velocities does not depend on which of the following?
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) Attenuation constant
Answer: d
Q 33The distance between two successive points in a waveguide is the
a) Guided wavelength
b) 2 x guided wavelength
c) Guided wavelength/2
d) (guided wavelength)/4
Answer: c
Q 34 Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word “waveguide”:
a. Elliptical
b. Flexible
c. Coaxial
d. Ridged
Answer: Option C
Q 35 For some applications, circular waveguides may be preferred to rectangular ones because
of
d. rotation of polarization
Answer: Option B
Q 36. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a. is greater than of free space
Answer: Option A
Q 37. For TE1ₒ mode, if the waveguide is filled with air and the broader dimension of the
waveguide is 2 cm, then the cutoff frequency is:
a) 5 MHz
b) 7.5 MHz
c) 7.5 GHz
d) 5 GHz
Answer: c
Q 38.For dominant mode propagation in TE mode, if the rectangular waveguide has a broader
dimension of 31.14 mm , then the cutoff wave number:
a) 100
b) 500
c) 50
d) 1000
Answer: a
Q39.A magic-tee is nothing but:
a.A modification of E-plane tee
b.A modification of H-plane tee
c.A combination of E-plane and H-plane tee
d.Two E-plane tees connected in parallel
Answer: c
b. coaxial magnetron
c. traveling-wave magnetron
d. CFA
Answer: Option D
Q 45.One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device. It is the
a. multicavity klystron
b. BWO
c. CFA
d. TWT
Answer: Option B
d. needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
Answer: Option A
Q 47. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier, because it
a. is more efficient
Answer: Option B
Q 48. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
c. ensure bunching
d. improve the phase-focusing effect
Answer: Option A
Q 49. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to
Answer: Option B
Q 50. The attenuator is used in the traveling-wave tube to
a. help bunching
b. prevent oscillations
c. prevent saturation
d. increase gain
Answer: Option B
Q 51. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube
because it is
a. capable of a longer duty cycle
c. more broadband
d. less noisy
Answer: Option A
Q52 . The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to
a. help focusing
b. provide attenuation
c. improve bunching
d. increase gain
Answer: Option B
Q 53. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
Answer: d
Q 54The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made of:
a) molybdenum
b) GaAs
c) gold
d) copper
Answer: a
Q 55The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer: c
Q 56. A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) One
Answer: a
Q 57The junction resistance and capacitance of the intrinsic region in a PIN diode are
connected______ in the equivalent circuit of PIN diode.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Connected across package capacitance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Q 58. The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Insufficient data
Answer: b
Q 59. Microstrip line can support a pure TEM wave.
a) True
b) False
c) Microstrip supports only TM mode
d) Microstrip supports only TE mode
Answer: b
Q 60. The effective dielectric constant ∈r for a microstrip line:
a) Varies with frequency
b) Independent of frequency
c) It is a constant for a certain material
d) Depends on the material used to make microstrip
Answer: b
Model Question Paper
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Technology
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
A. the product of load resistance and the characteristic impedance of the line
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
Ans.: C
Q4. Short circuited stubs are preferred over open circuited stubs because the
later
Ans.: A
Ans.: C
Ans.: D
A. Resistance
B. Attenuation constant
C. Capacitance
D. Conductance
Ans.: B
Q8. If the load impedance matches the characteristic impedance of the line,
there are ...... standing waves
A. more
B. less
C. no
D. 10
Ans.: C
Q9. The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage on the
transmission line is termed as
A. Reflection coefficient
C. loss
D. Standing waves
Ans.: A
A. Impedance inverter
B. Impedance doubler
C. Impedance tripler
D. Impedance quadrupler
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
A. (1 + j 2)
B. (2500 + j 5000)
C. (0.5 +j)
Ans.: A
A. 3 x 108 m/s
B. 3.75 m/s
Ans.: C
B. 22.8
C. 28.8
D. 20
Ans.: D
A. 25
B. 1.33
C. 7
D. 0.75
Ans.: B
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Zo
Ans.: C
Q17. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260V, while the
maximum voltage is 390V. The SWR is
A. 0.67
B. 1.2
C. 1
D. 1.5
Ans.: D
Q18. The reflection coefficient on a transmission line is 1/3, what is the SWR
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Ans.: C
A. 5 ohm
B. 50 ohm
C. 500 ohm
D. 5000 ohm
Ans.: B
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 3.14
Ans.: A
Q21. For air filled rectangular waveguide operating on 9.2 GHz, if internal
cross section area is 2.3 cm x 1 cm, what will be the phase velocity of wave -
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A. TE11
B. TM11
C. TE10
D. TM10
Ans.: C
A. stub
B. iris
C. screw
D. plunger
Ans.: B
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A. ridged
B. circular
C. rectangular
D. flexible
Ans.: A
A. bathe hole
B. two hole
C. rate race
D. magic hole
Ans.: D
Q29. The condition which will satisfy the dimensions of the waveguide is
A. a = b
B. a>b
C. a<b
D. ab=0
Ans.: B
Ans.: A
A. 377 ohm
B. 327 ohm
C. 227 ohm
D. 127 ohm
Ans.: C
A. 9.2 cm
B. 3.2 cm
C. 0.6 m
D. 12 cm
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
B. standing waves on the generator side and progressive wave on the matched
load side
C. progressive waves on the generator side and standing wave on the matched
load side
Ans.: D
A. 3 cm, 1.5 cm
B. 3.2 cm, 2 cm
C. 8 cm, 4 cm
D. none of above
Ans.: A
A. 10 log((p1+p2+p3)/P4)dB
B. 10 log((p1+p2+p4)/P3)dB
C. 10 log((p3+p4+p1)/P2)dB
D. 10 log((p2+p3+p4)/P1)dB
Ans.: D
A. -40 dB
B. -46 dB
C. -44.43 dB
D. -60 dB
Ans.: C
Q38. The cut off frequency of the rectangular waveguide operating with
dominant mode a and b as 2.5 cm and 1 cm respectively is
A. 4.5 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 5.5 GHz
D. 6 GHz
Ans.: D
Q39. The broad wall dimension of a rectangular waveguide with cut off
frequency of 7.5 GHz is
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm
Ans.: B
A. d = 1.5 cm
D. d = 3 cm
Ans.: A
B. Amplification method
D. Construction methods
Ans.: A
Q42. Following type of tube is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as
on oscillator by using a reflector electrode after the cavity.
D. Magnetrons
Ans.: B
B. Low bandwidth
D. Design complexity
Ans.: B
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Ans.: A
Q45. The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Insufficient data
Ans.: B
Ans.: D
Q47. When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the
threshold electric field, the current in the material
A. increases linearly
B. decreases linearly
C. increases exponentially
D. decreases exponentially
Ans.: A
Q48. When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons
absorb more energy from the field and become
A. hot electrons
B. cold electrons
C. emission electrons
Ans.: A
Q49. The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs Gunn diode is
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Ans.: C
A. avalanche multiplication
Ans.: A
A. two
B. three
C. four
Ans.: C
B. in a reflect klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
C. Inter-electrode capacitance
Ans.: D
Q55. As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space
Ans.: B
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
Ans.: C
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
Ans.: B
Model Question Paper
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The networks in which R,L and C are individually concentrated or lumped at
discreet point in the circuit are called
A lumped
B distributed
C parallel
D paired
Ans.: A
A resistance
B radiation
C conductance
D polarization
Ans.: C
Ans: D
Ans: D
A resistance
B inductance
C capacitance
Ans: D
Q6. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is
terminated in
A a short circuit
B an open circuit
C a complex impedance
D pure reactance
Ans: C
A proper matching
B high gain
Ans: C
Q8. The reactances associated with the transmission line due to discontinuities:
A can be ignored
B have to be matched
C discontinuities do no exist
D none of the above
Ans: C
A 50 Ω
B 10 Ω
C 22.36 Ω
D 100 Ω
Ans: C
A 377 Ω
B 345 Ω
C insufficient data
Ans: A
A 10
B 2
C 1
D infinity
Ans: D
A 1.5 GHz
B 2.5 GHz
C 2.0 GHz
D 3.0 GHz
Ans: A
Q13. Indicate which one of the following modes do not exist in a rectangularresonant
cavity
A TE110
B TM110
C TE011
D MT111
Ans: A
Ans: C
Q15. The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is TE10 because this mode has
A No attenuation
B No cut off
Ans: D
Q16. The phase velocity for the TE10 mode in an air filled rectangular waveguide is
A Less than c
B Greater than c
C Equal to c
Ans: C
Q17. The phase velocity of an electrometric wave propagating in a hollow metallic
rectangular waveguide in the TE10 mode is
Ans: C
Q18. The modes of rectangular waveguide are denoted by TEmn / TMmn where m and
n are Eigen numbers along the larger and smaller dimensions ofthe waveguide
respectively. Which one of the following statement is true.
C The TM10 and TE10 modes both exist and have same cut off frequency.
D The TM11 and TE11 modes both exist and have same cut off frequency.
Ans: A
Q19. . Consider an air filled rectangular waveguide with a cross – section of5 cm × 3 cm.
For this waveguide, the cut off frequency (in MHz) of TE21mode is
A 7.81 GHz
B 9.01 GHz
C 11.2 GHz
D 6.89 GHz
Ans: A
Ans: A & B
Q21. A rectangular metal wave guide filled with a dielectric material of relative
permittivity = 4 has the inside dimensions3.0 × 1.2 .The cut off frequency for
the dominant mode is
A 2.5 GHz
B 10 GHz
C 5 GHz
D 12.5 GHz
Ans: A
A 308 Ω
B 400 Ω
C 355 Ω
D 461 Ω
Ans: B
B they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
Ans: B
Q24. The main difference between the operation of transmission lines and waveguides is
that
B the former can use stubs and quarter-wave transformers, unlike the latter
C terms such as impedance matching and standing-wave ratio cannot be applied to
waveguides
D transmission lines use the principal mode of propagation, and therefore do not suffer
from low-frequency cut-off.
Ans: D
Q25. Which of the following waveguides tuning components is not easily adjustable?
A screw
B stub
C iris
D plunger
Ans: C
Q26. A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to
the two-hole couple
Ans: C
Q27. A ferrite is
Ans: A
Ans: C
B to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or retransmission without mutual
interference
C to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
Ans: B
Q30. A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field.
This is the
A reflex klystron
B coaxial magnetron
D CFA
Ans: B
Q31. Indicate the false statement. Transit time in microwave tubes will be reduced if
Ans: C
D needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
Ans: A
C ensure bunching
Ans: A
Ans: B
Q36. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output
tube because it is
C more broadband
D less noisy
Ans: A
A coaxial magnetron
B dither-tuned magnetron
D VTM
Ans: D
Q38. A disadvantage of microstrip compared with strip line is that micro strip
A does not readily lend itself to printed circuit techniques
C is bulkier
Ans: A
Q39. For best low-level noise performance in the X-band, an amplifier should use
A a bipolar transistor
B a Gunn diode
C a step-recovery diode
D an IMPATT diode
Ans: C
Q40. Considering a coaxial transmission line, maximum voltage on the line divided by
the minimum voltage equals the
A Characteristic impedance
B ISWR
C VSWR
D Inductive reactance
Ans: C
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Ans: D
Q42. The load is properly matched with the transmission line if the standing wave ratio
is equal to
A 50
B 10
C 5
D 1
Ans: D
A multimeter
B spectrum analyzer
C reflectometer
D oscilloscope
Ans: C
Ans: B
Q45. A measure of the mismatched between line and load impedance is called as
A reflection coefficient
C loss
D standing waves
Ans: B
A reflected
B radiated
C diffracted
D refracted
Ans: B
A short waves
B micro waves
Ans: B
B helical antennas
C dipoles
Ans: C
A paraboloid surfaces
B polystyrene
Ans: B
C that converts guided electromagnetic waves into free space electromagnetic waves
and vice versa
Ans: C
Q51. One of the following antenna types is best excited from a waveguide
A horn antenna
B helical antenna
C biconical antenna
Ans: A
A SW
B MW
C microwaves
D al of the above
Ans: C
A photolithographic process
B electrochemical process
C mechanical methods
Ans: A
A UHF
B VHF
Ans: D
Q55. The radar in which both transmission and reception is done using the same
antenna are called:
A monostatic
B bistatic
C dipole radar
D monopole radar
Ans: A
Q56. Pulse radar operating at 10GHz frequency has an antenna with a gain of 28 dB
and a transmitted power of 2kW. If it is desired to detect a target of cross section 12m2,
and the minimum detectable signal is -90 dBm, the maximum range of the radar is:
A 2348 m
B 8114 m
C 1256 m
D 4563 m
Ans: A
A radar
B sonar
C radiometer
Ans: A
Q58. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
A beam area
B effective area
C aperture area
D beam efficiency
Ans: A
Q59. Which one of the following device behaviour is governed by bulk effect?
A IMPATT diode
B Gunn diode
C Tunnel diode
D PIN diode
Ans: B
Ans: D
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Q60 =
a. = + − − − −
b. = + − − −
c. = + − − −
d. None of these
Ans: a
Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: SATELLITE COMUNICATION
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
Q.8.Argument of perigee?
a) The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at
the earth’s center, in the direction of satellite motion.
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above
ANS C
Q.9. True anomaly?
a) The true anomaly is the angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured
at the earth’s center.
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
d) None of the above
ANS B
Q.10. The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
(A) 6 GHz
(B) 4 GHz
(C) 14 GHz
(D) 11 GHz
ANS B
Q.11. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
(A) Effective Isotropic Radiated power
(B) Bandwidth.
(C) Free space path losses
(D) All of them
ANS D
Q.12. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
(A) TDMA
(B)FDMA
(C)Both (A)and (B)
(D)Packet Access
ANS B
Q.13.What is application of satellite systems?
a) whether forecasting
b) Terrestrial communication
c) point to point communication
d) None of the above
ANS A
Q.14. Mention the different services of satellite systems.
a)Broadcasting satellite services
b) Signal transmission
c) Information transmission
d) None of the above
ANS A
Q.15. Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
(a) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north & south Polar
Regions.
b) Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar Regions
c) Either (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
ANS A
Q.16. Mention the apogee height.
(a) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
(b) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
(c) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
(d) None of above
ANS A
Q.18. Irregular gravitational force around the earth due to non-uniform mass distribution.
Earth’s magnetic field these effect is called as
a) Circular Perturbations
b) Eleptical Perturbations
c) Orbital Perturbations
d) None of the above
ANS B
a)The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.
b) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings
c) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
electric declination used in correcting compass readings.
d) None of above
Ans a
23)Define the terms in Eclipse.
(a) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result
that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the satellite solar cells.
(b) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result
that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to reach the satellite solar
cells.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
24) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods………….
(a) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about four weeks & the maximum daily
eclipse duration is about 1.20hours.
(b) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about one weeks & the maximum daily
eclipse duration is about 12 hours.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
25) What is meant by transponder?
(a) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the connecting link between
the satellite’s transmit & receive antennas is referred to as the transponder.
(b) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the power supply is referred
to as the transponder.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
26) A satellite transponder receives a ___ beam width to ___ the amount of energy received.
In the downlink direction a ___ beam width is used to provide an adequately sized ___. a)
narrow; maximize; wide; footprint b) narrow; minimize wide; footprint c) wide; maximize;
wide; footprint d) none of these
Ans a
27) A satellite earth station has
a) Receiving facilites only
b) Transmitting only
c) A and C
d) A , c and attenuating
Ans c
28) The transponder forms one of the main sections of the payload, the other being:
(a) The antenna subsystems.
(b) The earth station is receiving the signal and the satellite is transmitting it.
(c) signal transmission
(d) none of these
Ans a
29) The payload refers to:
A) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has
been launched.
B) Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld
terminals.
C) data communications
D) none of the above
Ans A
30) During eclipse, power is provided by two nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cd) long-life batteries,
which will deliver _______. (a) 800 W (b) 830 W (c) 880 W (d) None of these
Ans b
31) A satellite may carry ______ transponders.
(a) 32
(b) 41
(c) 24
(d) None of these
Ans a
32) A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
33) The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..
a. 17.34°
b. 51.4°
c. 120°
d. 60°
Answer : a
34)The main disadvantages of the offset feed are that a stronger mechanical support is
required to maintain the reflector shape and because of the asymmetry, the cross-polarization
with a linear polarized feed is worse compared with the centre fed antenna.
1 true
2 false
ans true
35) Parabolic reflectors are widely used in satellite communications systems to enhance the
gain of antennas
1 true
2 false
Ans true
36)What is an OMT?
(a) The polarization seperation takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or
orthogonal
mode transducer.
(b) The polarization combiner takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or
orthogonal mode
transducer.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans a
37)What is an TWTA?
(a) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to
the
trans tube & its power supplies.
(b) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to
the trans tube
& its power supplies.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans a
38) Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Yagi antenna
d) Chicken-mash a
Ans b
1 true
2false
Ans True
1 true
2false
Ans True
45) The cross polar discrimination is defined as a ratio of the copolar component of the
specified polarization compared to the orthogonal cross-polar component over the sector or
beamwidth angle.
1 true
2false
Ans True
46. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
Answer b
48. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?
a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel
c) Most efficient geometry
d) Better coverage on earth
Ansa
49. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
Ansb
51. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from
earth.
a) True
b) False
Ans b
52. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
Ans c
53. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given
meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
Ans a
54. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Ans a
55. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
a) Angle of inclination
b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
Ans b
56. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be
the best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
Ans c
58. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
Ans b
Ans:a
60. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam signals
directly to every home?
a) Direct broadcast satellite
b) Mobile satellite service
c) Broadcasting satellite service
d) Fixed satellite service
Ans:a
Model Question Paper
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communications(SMC)
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. A
Q4. Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
A. 42.241Km
B. 42.241m
C. 4.241Km
D. 2.241Km
Ans.A
Q5. Apogee?
Ans. A
Q6.Perigee?
Ans. C
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from
south to north
B. The point longest from earth
Ans. A
A. 6 GHz
B. 4 GH
C. 14 GHz
D. 11 GHz
Ans.B
Q9. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.D
Q10. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both
D. CDMA
Ans. A
A. whether forecastingB
B. Terrestrial communication
C. point to point communication
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the
north & south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east &
west Polar Regions
C. Either (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
C. ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
D. None of above
Ans.A
A. rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B. rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
C. rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D. None of above
Ans. A
A. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks.
B. It is the time used for all private time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks.
C. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards
as a standard for setting clocks.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. transformer
B. transistor
Ans. A
A. amplitude modulate
B. dc modulated
C. frequency modulated
D. a and c
Ans. C
A. Amplitude modulated
B. de-modulated
C. Frequency modulated
D. None of these
Ans. C
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliabilit
D. High band width
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
A. Modulation method
B. Overall costs
C. Available technology
D. Ionospheric characteristics
Ans. D
Q26. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The
number of times it would sound stronger to a listener will be
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 30
D. 3
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 24 hoursB
B. 12 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 1 hours
Ans. A
A. 1255 km/hr
B. 6757 km/hr
C. 9422 km/hr
D. 12644 km/hr
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. Circular path
B. Elliptical path
C. Inclined path
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Ans. C
A. Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
D. None of the above
Ans. B
A. COMA
B. DOMSA
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
Ans. C
Ans. C
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliability
D. High band width
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
A. FM
B. Digital modulation
C. Analoge modulation
D. All of above
Ans. C
Ans. A
Q. 43 What is an OMT?
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is
sometimes referred to as the post detector.
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is
sometimes referred to as the post detector.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. C
A.Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
A. COMAT
B. DOMSAT
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
Q51.A satellite earth station has
B. Transmitting only
C. A and C
D. A , C and attenuating
Ans. C
Ans. C
Q53. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the
same gain at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be
A. 100
B. 80 m
C. 20 m
D. 4m
Ans. D
Q54.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Horn antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Chicken-mash antenna
Ans. B
Q55. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A. Satellite surface area
B. Bandwidth
Ans. A
A. AM
B. FM
C. TDM
D. FDM
Ans. D
Q57. A satellite transponder receives a ___ beam width to ___ the amount of
energy received. In the downlink direction a ___ beam width is used to
provide an adequately sized ___.
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q58. An offset focus receiving antenna has the advantage that the LNB/C is
so mounted as to not block any of the incoming radio waves.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. A
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. B
A. geostationary satellites
B. MEO
C. LEO
D. None of these
Ans.A
Model Question Paper
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Ans. A
Ans. A
Ans. A
Q4. Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
A. 42.241Km
B. 42.241m
C. 4.241Km
D. 2.241Km
Ans.A
Q5. Apogee?
Ans. A
Q6.Perigee?
Ans. C
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from
south to north
B. The point longest from earth
Ans. A
A. 6 GHz
B. 4 GH
C. 14 GHz
D. 11 GHz
Ans.B
Q9. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.D
Q10. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both
D. CDMA
Ans. A
A. whether forecastingB
B. Terrestrial communication
C. point to point communication
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the
north & south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east &
west Polar Regions
C. Either (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
C. ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
D. None of above
Ans.A
A. rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B. rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
C. rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D. None of above
Ans. A
A. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks.
B. It is the time used for all private time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks.
C. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards
as a standard for setting clocks.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. transformer
B. transistor
Ans. A
A. amplitude modulate
B. dc modulated
C. frequency modulated
D. a and c
Ans. C
A. Amplitude modulated
B. de-modulated
C. Frequency modulated
D. None of these
Ans. C
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliabilit
D. High band width
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
A. Modulation method
B. Overall costs
C. Available technology
D. Ionospheric characteristics
Ans. D
Q26. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The
number of times it would sound stronger to a listener will be
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 30
D. 3
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 24 hoursB
B. 12 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 1 hours
Ans. A
A. 1255 km/hr
B. 6757 km/hr
C. 9422 km/hr
D. 12644 km/hr
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. Circular path
B. Elliptical path
C. Inclined path
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q32. Geostationary satellite are generally put in… .... orbit and domestic
satellite in ...... orbit
Ans. C
A. Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
D. None of the above
Ans. B
A. COMA
B. DOMSA
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
Ans. C
Ans. C
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliability
D. High band width
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
A. FM
B. Digital modulation
C. Analoge modulation
D. All of above
Ans. C
Ans. A
Q. 43 What is an OMT?
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is
sometimes referred to as the post detector.
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is
sometimes referred to as the post detector.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Ans. A
Q48. Geostationary satellite are generally put in… .... orbit and domestic
satellite in ...... orbit
Ans. C
A.Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
A. COMAT
B. DOMSAT
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
Q51.A satellite earth station has
B. Transmitting only
C. A and C
D. A , C and attenuating
Ans. C
Ans. C
Q53. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the
same gain at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be
A. 100
B. 80 m
C. 20 m
D. 4m
Ans. D
Q54.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Horn antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Chicken-mash antenna
Ans. B
Q55. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A. Satellite surface area
B. Bandwidth
Ans. A
A. AM
B. FM
C. TDM
D. FDM
Ans. D
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q58. An offset focus receiving antenna has the advantage that the LNB/C is
so mounted as to not block any of the incoming radio waves.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. A
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. B
A. geostationary satellites
B. MEO
C. LEO
D. None of these
Ans.A
60 MCQs of each subject in the above format.
Model Question Paper
Subject :- Satellite & Mobile Communication
Sem:- VIII
ANS a
a) = +
b) = −
c) = +
d) = −
ANS d
ANS a
4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Prograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
ANS b
5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?
a) Retrograde
b) Apogee
c) Prograde
d) Perigee
ANS d
6. What is Apogee?
a) The point farthest from earth
b) The point smallest from earth
c) The point nearest from earth
d) None of the above
ANS c
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
ANS c
ANS d
ANS c
10. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
a) Ku
b) X
c) Cd
d) MF
ANS d
11. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
ANS b
12. The international space station is in a “372 x 381 km orbit”, what is the eccentricity of the
orbit? Consider Ra=6378.1363km
a) 6.7
b) 0.067
c) 0.0067
d) 0.00067
ANS d
ANS a
14. In which of the orbit the satellite passes over any given point of the planet's surface at the
same local mean solar time
a) Geostationary orbit
b) Geosynchronous orbit
c) Sun synchronous orbit
d) None of the above
ANS c
15. The point on the surface of the Earth directly below the satellite.
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Apogee
d) Perigee
ANS b
16. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
ANS b
ANS c
ANS d
19. The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of the satellite
measured counterclockwise is called______.
a) Angle of elevation
b) Angle of azimuth
c) Angle of inclination
d) Angle of tetrahedron
ANS c
20. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the north and south polar regions, the
type of orbit is called ____.
a) Geosynchronous satellite
b) Polar orbit
c) Synchronous orbit
d) Equatorial orbit
ANS b
21. The line joining the ascending and descending node is called ____.
a) Line of apside
b) Line of sight
c) Line of nodes
d) None of these
ANS c
ANS c
23. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Economically viable
d) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
ANS d
ANS d
25. For a circular orbit, the semi-major axis, denoting the radius of geostationary orbit is
given by
µ
a) =
µ
b) =
µ
c) =
µ
d) =
ANS a
26. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as ____.
a) Antennas keep angles
b) Antennas see angles
c) Antennas look angles
d) Antennas satellite angles
ANS c
ANS b
28. The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of
a) Sky noise
b) Antenna and feeder noise
c) Parametric amplifier noise
d) All of the above
ANS d
ANS c
ANS a
32. the equatorial plane is tilted at an angle of _______° to the ecliptic plane
a) 22.4°
b) 23.4°
c) 24.3°
d) 25.3°
ANS b
ANS c
34. What determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the
earth station’s longitude
a) Radio horizon
b) Optical horizon
c) Terrestrial limits
d) Limits of visibility
ANS d
35. The atmospheric absorption loss varies with frequency. At what frequency the first peak
of absorption loss is observed?
a) 21.3 GHz
b) 22.3 GHz
c) 23.3 GHz
d) 24.3 GHz
ANS b
36. For a parabolic antenna of 3 m diameter transmitting wave with wavelength of 5cm the
far field zone begins at approximately
a) 360 m.
b) 340m
c) 320m
d) 300m
ANS a
ANS c
ANS b
b) = 20 log
c) = 10 log
d) = 40 log
ANS a
ANS c
ANS c
ANS b
43. What happens when the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line?
a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
ANS d
ANS b
45. A satellite downlink at 12GHZ operates with a transmit power of 6w & an antenna gain
of 48.2db. Calculate the EIRP in dBw.
a) 56dBw
b) 16dBw
c) 56dB
d) None of above
ANS a
46. Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Yagi antenna
d) Chicken-mash antenna
ANS b
47. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
a) Satellite surface area
b) Bandwidth
c) Free space path losses
d) Effective isotropically radiated power
ANS c
48. The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the free space
loss a frequency of 6GHZ.
a) 2.4db.
b) 20.4db.
c) 200.4db.
d) None of above
ANS c
ANS c
ANS c
51. The losses for clear-sky conditions are
a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
d) None of these
ANS c
ANS a
53. In analog technique of modulation in satellite, the most commonly employed system is
a) AM
b) FM
c) PAM
d) PWM
ANS b
54. The frequencies for direct broadcast satellites vary from region to region throughout the
world, although these are generally in the_____________.
a) Ka band
b) Ku band
c) C-band
d) None of the above
ANS b
ANS a
56. Calculate the gain of a 3-m paraboloidal antenna operating at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Assume an aperture efficiency of 0.55.
a) 49.8dB
b) 50.8dB
c) 48.9dB
d) 51.8dB
ANS c
57. A satellite link operating at 14 GHz has receiver feeder losses of 1.5 dB and a free-space
loss of 207 dB. The atmospheric absorption loss is 0.5 dB, and the antenna pointing loss
is 0.5 dB. Depolarization losses may be neglected. Calculate the total link loss for clear-
sky conditions
a) 205.9dB
b) 209.5 dB
c) 208.5 dB
d) 207.8 dB
ANS b
b) &' = ) = *+,
(
(
./(
c) &' = )(
d) None of the above
ANS b
ANS c
ANS b
Model Question Paper
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communication
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
A. 100 GHz
B. 10 GHz
C. 30 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
Ans.: B
D. None of above
Ans.: B
D. All of above
Ans.: A
Q4. Kepler’s first law states that
d. None of above
Ans.: C
Ans.:A
D. None of above
Ans.: C
D. None of above
Ans.: C
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south
tonorth
D. No such Terminology
Ans.: A
D. All above
Ans.: D
B. None of above
C. Terrestrial communication
D. Whether forecasting
Ans.: D
A. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard
for setting clocks
B. It is the time used for all private time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard
for setting clocks.
C. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks
D. None of above
Ans.: A
D. None of above
Ans.: A
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from north to
south.
D. No such Terminology
Ans.: A
Q14. State True or False Polar orbiting satellites orbit the earth in such a way
as to cover the north and south polar regions.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
D. All above
Ans.: A
Q16. Earth curves approximately 5 meters downward for every ---------- along
its horizon
A. 5000 meters
B. 6000 meters
C. 9000 meters
D. 8000 meters
Ans.: D
B. Tangent path
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q18. An orbit in which satellite moves in the same direction as theEarth‟s
rotation is called as
A. Retrograde orbit
B. Prograde orbit
C. Circular orbit
D. Elliptical orbit
Ans.: B
Q19. An orbit in which satellite moves in the opposite direction as the Earth’s
rotation is called as
A. Retrograde orbit
B. Prograde orbit
C. Circular orbit
D. Elliptical orbit
Ans.: A
A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Mean anomaly
D. Ascending node
Ans.: A
A. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left
hand circular & right hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable
levels. This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
B. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left
hand flat & right hand elliptical to reduce interference to acceptable levels.
This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
C. Either A or B.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.: D
Ans.: C
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north &
south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west
Polar Regions
C. Either (A) & (B)
Ans.: A
Q 25. What is declination?
A. The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be
C. The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be
Ans.: A
D. None of these
Ans.: A
A. GEO
B.MEO
C. LEO
Ans.: B
Q 28. What do you call of a satellite used to provide satellite services within a
single country?
A. Orbital satellite
B. Geostationary satellite
C. Nonsynchronous satellite
Ans.: D
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
Ans.: C
B. Fall back
Ans.: B
Q 31. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter
to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
Ans.: C
Q 38. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that
are far away from earth.
a) True
b) False
Ans.: B
Q 39.The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the
satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the
earth’s horizon is called as ___________
A. Angle of inclination
B. Angle of elevation
C. Apogee angle
D. LOS angle
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
Q41. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.: D
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans.: A
A. Losses=[FSL]+[RFL]+[AML]+[AA]+[PL]
B. Losses= [FSL]+[RFL]
D. None of above
Ans.: A
A. sky noise
B. Antenna losses
Ans.: D
D. None of above
Ans.: A
C.Both A & B
D. None of above
Ans.: A
D. None of above
Ans.: A
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of
signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes
referred to as the post detector.
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of
signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes
referred to as the post detector.
C Either a or b.
D None of above
Ans.: A
D. None of these
Ans.: A
D. None of Above
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A. Dipole Antennas
B. Aperture Antennas
C. Reflector Antennas
D. Both B and C
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
D. None of above
Ans.: B
Q56. The most common aperture antenna is Horn Antenna and Reflector
Antenna
A. Horn Antenna
B. Reflector Antenna
C. Both A and B
D. only A
Ans.: C
A. Cassegrain Antenna
B. Gregorian Antenna
C. both A and B
D. only A
Ans.: C
A. Outdoor unit
B. Indoor unit
C. TV unit
D. None of these
Ans.: A
Q59. The IDU must be able to receive any of the 32 transponders, although
only _____ of these will be available for a single polarization.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 24
D. None of these
Ans.: A
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Spiral
Ans.: A
Model Question Paper
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communication
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
Ans.: The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
Q3. Apogeemeans?
A) The point farthest from earth
Ans.:The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
Ans.:The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at the earth’s
center, in the direction of satellite motion.
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 12-18GHZ
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 40-75GHZ
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 2-4GHZ
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 8-12GHZ
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 18-27GHZ
Ans.: 18-27GHZ
B) e= 0
C) e =1
A) 0 < e< 1.
B) e= 0
C) e =1
Ans.:e=0
A) Eccentricity (e)
A) Eccentricity (e)
D) polarity
Ans.:polarity
B) Inclination (i)
A) Eccentricity (e)
B) Semi-major axis (a)
D) sputnik
Ans.:sputnik
A) GPS
B) GSM
C) polarity
A) 40-75 GHZ
B) 2-4 GHZ
C) 12-18 GHZ
D) 1-2 GHZ
A) 40-75 GHZ
B) 2-4 GHZ
C) 0.3-1.0GHZ
D) 8-12 GHZ
Ans.: 0.3-1.0GHZ
B) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rP
C) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra -R
D) None of above
Ans.:ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-rA
C) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D) None of above
A) Apogee.
B) Perigee
C) Azimuth
D) None of these
Ans.:Azimuth
A) Apogee.
B) Perigee
C) Elevation
D) None of these
Ans.: Elevation
A) Rain attenuation
B) Ionospheric losses
C) Atmospheric Absorption
D) None of these
Ans.:Atmospheric Absorption
Q27 Ionosphere layer is situated ----- km to --- km above the surface of Earth
A) 90-400 km
B) 400-800 km
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Ans.:90-400km
B). MEO
C). LEO
D) None of these
Ans.:geostationary satellites
B). MEO
D) None of these
Ans.:LEO satellites below about 1000 km.
A). The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles,
a shape described as an oblate spheroid
B). The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles, a
shape described as an oblate spheroid
D) None of these
Ans.:The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the
poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
Q32 . [EIRP] is
A) [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dBW
Ans.:[EIRP] = [PS]+[G]Dbw
Q33 [FSL]=?
D) none of these
Q34 [PR]=?
A) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]
B) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]
C) [PR]=[EIRP]+[ FSL]
D) none of these
Ans.:[PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]
D) none of these
D) none of these
Q39 The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A) Satellite surface area
B) Bandwidth
C) Free space path losses
D) Effective isotropically radiated power
B) Low distortion
C) High reliability
Ans.:High reliability
A) COMAT
B) DOMSAT
C) INTELSAT
D) EARSAT
Ans.:INTELSAT
B) Transmitting only
C) A and C
D) A , c and attenuating
Ans.:A and C
Q44Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in …….orbit
A) Polar, inclined orbit
B) Polar, equatorial
C) Equatorial, polar
D) Inclined , polar
Ans.:Equatorial, polar
B) Polar region
C) A and C
Ans.:Polar region
B) Elliptical path
C) Inclined path
D) none of these
Ans.:Elliptical path
Q48 In the C band and, more especially, the Ku band, rainfall is the most significant cause of:
A) Signal fading.
B) Signal spreading
C) Attenuation
D) none of these.
Ans.:Signal fading
Q49 The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around
the Earth, is determined by _________ law.
A) Kepler's
B) Newton's
C) Ohm's
Ans.:Kepler's
Q50 The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________.
A) path
B) effect
C) footprint
Ans.:footprint
Q51 AMLstandsfor?
A) Amplitude modulation limiter
B) Amplified modulated LAN
C) Antenna mis-alignment loss
D) None of these
Q52RFLstandsfor?
Q53AAstandsfor?
A) Amplitude Amplifier
B) Amplifier Amplitude
C) Atmospheric Absorption
D) None of these
Ans.:Atmospheric Absorption
Q54FSLstandsfor?
A) Azimuth mount
B) Elevation mount
C) X-Y mount
D) None of these
Ans.:X-Y mount
A) Azimuth-Elevation mount
B) Azimuth mount
C) X-Y mount
D) None of these
Ans.:Azimuth mount
Q58In the maximum performance some dominating factors related to the design are
A) Weight of the satellite
B) DC power generated on board
C) Frequency band allocation for satellite communication
D) None of these
A)1 B)2 C) 3 D) 4
3) In Fixed satellite services provides link for ……….network. D
2
21) The look angles for the earth station antenna are ….and elevation A
angles.
A) Azimuth B) Right C) Tangent D) Normal
22) Polar mount antenna pointing accurately……..satellites. A
3 P.T.O.
31) Ionosphere is the layer situated between ……Km above surface of B
the Earth
A) 0 to 90 B) 90 to 400 C) 400 to 600 D)above 600
32) To calculate absorption loss D
[AA]=[AA]90…….θ
A) sin B) cos C) Tan D) Coses
33) A fading phenomenon , which causes the radio waves to focus and D
defocus because of the difference in the atmospheric refraction index is
seen is called …………
A) Refraction B) Absorption C) Diffraction D) Scintillation
34) Electromagnetic waves are absorbed in the atmosphere Two compound A
are responsible one is water and other is ……..
A)Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Hydrogen D) Nitrogen
35) The signals are distributed over a wide area is known as ……. C
A) Refraction B) Absorption C) Dispersion D) Diffraction
36) The rate at which the rainwater would be accumulated in a rain guage in A
the area is called rain rate. ……..is the function of rain rate.
A)rain attenuation B)absorption C)Rain Depolarization
D) Ice Depolarization
37) In ionosphere travelling ionosphere disturbances generated due to A
charged
A) Electronics B) Protons C) Neutrons D) photons
38) When horizontal and vertical dipoles are mounted close to each other at A
right angles they produce a …….. polarized wave.
A) circularly B)Squarely C)Triangularly D) Hexagonally
39) To calculate the effect of depolarization two measures are used one is A
cross polarization discrimination and second is ………
A) polarization isolation B)vertical polarization C) Horizontal
Polarization D) Polarization vector
4
40) A geostationary earth orbiting satellite transmitting ………. Polarized C
wave
A) Horizontal B) Vertical C) Linear D) Non linear
41) …….is used to radiate electromagnetic energy efficiently and in desired A
direction.
A) Antenna B) solar cell C) Satellite D) Others
42) ……….reflector is a good example of reflectors at microwave A
frequencies.
A) Parabolic B) Hyperbolic C) Elliptical D) other
5 P.T.O.
49) ……….loss is due to the connection between the satellite receiver A
antennas improper.
A)Feeder B) Free space Transmission C) Antenna D) Ionosphere
50) The gases present in atmosphere absorb the signals ,this kind of loss is C
known as
A) feeder B) Antenna C) Fixed Atmospheric D) ionosphere
51) EIRP stands for equivalent ……Radiated Power. A
6
59) ……..defines the theoretical concept of an ideal antenna. A
7 P.T.O.
Model Question Paper
Subject: Satellite & Mobile Communication
Branch: E & TC
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q2. Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
A) 42.241Km
B) 42.241m
C) 4.241Km
D) 2.241Km
Ans: A
Q3. Apogee?
A) The point farthest from earth
B) The point nearest from earth
C) The point smallest from earth
D) None of the above
Ans: A
Ans: A
Q11. Mention the Julian dates.
A) JD = JD010 + Utday
B) JD = JD010 + day number + Utday
C) JD = JD010 + day number
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q13. The optimum working frequency for satellite systems lies between
A) 20 MHz and 100 MHz
Ans: D
Q15. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in …….orbit
A) Polar, inclined orbit
B) Polar, equatorial
C) Equatorial, polar
D) Inclined, polar
Ans: C
B) Elliptical path
C) Inclined path
D) Cycloidal path
Ans: B
Q.17.A geostationary satellite is one which
Q18. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital
plane, focused at the barycenter.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Ans: C
Q19. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body
of solar systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above
Ans: A
Q20. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Ans: D
Q26.Define diplexer.
A) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer
B) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: B
A) sky noise
B) Antenna losses
D) all of these
Ans: D
Q34.The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the free space loss a
frequency of 6GHZ.
A) 20.4db.
B) 200.4db.
C) 2.4db.
D) None of above
Ans: B
B) VHF
C) EHF
D) SHF
Ans: D
Q39. The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of
A) Sky noise
B) 12 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 1 hours
Ans: A
Q41. Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A) Dipole antenna
B) Horn antenna
C) Yagi antenna
D) Chicken-mash antenna
Ans: B
Q42. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A) Effective isotropically radiated power
B) Bandwidth
Ans: D
B) Downlink
C) Terrestrial
D) Earthbound
Ans: B
Q44. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
A) Electric flux density
B) Magnetic flux density
C) Saturation flux density
D) Photon flux density
Ans: C
Q45. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than the down-
link because it
A) gives a narrow beam shining into space
B) results in lesser signal attenuation
C) gives better beam-shaping
D) is easier to polarize a high frequency beam
Ans: A
Q46. Satellite position has an/a ___________ angle with respect to the horizon.
A) Azimuth
B) Depression
C) Elevation
D) Critical
Ans: C
A) Ex
B) Ey
C) Both Ex & Ey & in phase
D) Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
Ans: D
A) Reflected
B) Refracted
C) Radiated
D) Diffracted
Ans: C
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Klystrons
D) Magnetrons
Ans: A
Q52. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as
Ans: A
A) 6 degrees
B) 4 degrees
C) 5 degrees
D) 7 degrees
Ans: C
Q54. It is the horizontal angular distance from a reference direction either the southern or northern
most point of the horizon.
A) Angle of elevation
B) Latitude
C) Longitude
D) Azimuth
Ans: D
Q55. Determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the earth station’s
longitude
A) Radio horizon
B) Optical horizon
C) Terrestrial limits
D) Limits of visibility
Ans: D
Q56. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
B) Bandwidth
Q57. In the C band and, more especially, the Ku band, rainfall is the most significant cause of:
A) Attenuation
B) Signal spreading
C) Signal fading
D) none of these.
Ans: C
Ans: A
Q59. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in circular pattern. This
type of orbit is called ____.
A) Polar orbit
B) Synchronous orbit
C) Geosynchronous satellite
D) Equatorial orbit
Ans: D
Ans: D
Model Question Paper
Subject: Telematics
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q.1) SPC stands for (b)
a) Edward Jenner
b) Alexander Graham Beli
c) Samuel Morse
d) Marcony
Q.3) A local telephone network is an example of a …………….network. (b)
a) Packet-switched
b) Circuit-switched
c) Message-switched
d) None of the above
Q.4) Grade of Service (GOS) is measured from ……… point of view. (d)
a) Switched b) Standard
c) Selected d) Subscriber
Q.5) Two types of space division electronic switching system using SPC are : (c)
a) Simplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Automatic
Q.7) In Electronics Switching Centre (ESC) , the transmission rate of X.25 protocol is …….9.6
Kbps. (c)
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 5
a) Mesh b) Star
c) Bus d) Ring
Q.11) Distributed SPC has separate small processors called ….? (a)
a)Regional b) Carrier
c) Functional d) Directed
Q.12)The electronics switching is based on the ………. Stored in the memory, hence it is
known as stored program control. (a)
a) Program b) Device
c) Speed d) Measurement
Q.13) ………….is referred as call congestion. (c)
a) Blocking probability
b) Centralized SPC
c) GOS
d) Traffic Usages
a) Non-zero b) Standard
Q.15) The ratio of number of successful calls to the number of call attempts is known……(c)
a) Links b) Media
c) Nodes d) Lines
Q.17) What is the hardware ,used to established connection as an electrical path between
inlet and outlet pair in switching system, known as ? (c)
a) Switching Matrix
b) Switching Network
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q.18) In folded type of network,…………… (b)
a) Local call
b) Outgoing call
c) Incoming call d)Transit call
Q.20) An exchange servers 2000 subscribers. The average BHCA is 1000 and CCR is 60%.
Calculate BHCR? (b)
a) 5 b) 7
c) 6 d) 3
Q.21)What is the full form of WLAN? (b)
a) 1 km b) 10 m
c) 1 m d)10 km
Q.23) Which of the following is the drawback for cordless telephones? (b)
Q.24) In which frequency range do the cordless phones mostly work? (a)
a) 43-50 MHz
b) 88-108 MHz
c) 540-1600 KHz
d) 200-540 KHz
Q.25) Paging system uses which mode of transmission? (b)
a) Full duplex
b) Simplex
c) Half duplex
d) Duplex
Q.26) What is the paging access number? (c)
a) An email id
b) A username
c) A toll free telephone number
d) A registration number
Q.27)Which of the following is an example of local wireless system? (b)
a) GSM
b) Cordless telephone system
c) UMTS
d) EDGE
Q.28) What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system ? (b)
a) HIPER-LAN
b) HIPERLAN/2
c) IEEE 802.11b
d) AMPS
Q.30) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is …..(c)
a) MSC
b) Roamer
c) Handoff
d) Forward channel
a) GSM
b) IS-136
c) AMPS
d) PDC
Q.32)Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular telephone system? (C)
Q.33) What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system? (d)
a) Circular b) Square
c) Triangular d) Hexagonal
Q.34) A wireless local loop (WLL) system uses …… technology. (a)
a) Radio b) Personal
c) Artificial d) Cellular
a) IEEE 802.11b
b) IEEE 802.15
c) IEEE 802.11g
d) IEEE 802.16
Q.37) Which type of handoff used in CDMA? (a)
a) Soft handoff
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard hand off
d) None of the above
Q.38) The type of access used in GSM technology is (a)
a) FDMA/TDMA b) CDMA
a) 1850-1910 MHz
b) 1710-1785 MHz
c) 890-915 Mhz
d) None of the above
Q.40) The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ………. Types of frames. (d)
a) four b) five
c) six d) none of the above
Q.41) In frequency reuse ,some interference may occur due to common use of same channel is
called…..(b)
a) Channel interference
b) Cochannel interference
c) Call termination
d) Fixed network
Q.42) The process of subdividing a original cell into smaller cell ,is called….(c)
Q.44) The system divide radio spectrum into time slots , is called……. (a)
a) TDMA b) FDMA
c) CDMA d) LMDS
Q.45) Which of the following measures spectrum efficiency of a wireless system? (b)
a) Channel capacity
b) Radio capacity
c) Spectral capacity
d) Carrier capacity
Q.46) The SI unit for bandwidth is? (a)
a) Hz b) Watt
c) KHz d) KW
a) Half power
b) Full power
c) Double power
d) wattless
Q.48) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war
II was (b)
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) ASK
d) FSK
Q.49) World’s first cellular system was developed by (a)
a) TDMA
b) FDMA
c) TDD
d) FDD
Q.52) ……… introduced frequency modulation for mobile communication systems in
1935.(a)
a) Edwin Armstrong
b) Albert Einstein
c) Galileo Galilei
d) David Bohm
Q.53) DECT stands for(c)
a) 5 MHz
b) 2 MHz
c) 500 KHz
d) 100 KHz
Q.55) Centre excited hexagonal cells use(b)
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
Q.58) Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ……..channels to …….users.(a)
a) Individual ,individual
b) Many , individual
c) Individual ,many
d) Many ,many
Q.59) What is the time duration of a bit if data is transmitted at 270.833 kbps in the
channel? (c)
a) 270.833 s
b) 3 us
c) 3.692 us
d) 3.692 s
Q.60) All users in CDMA systems uses …………….. carrier frequency. (d0
a) Different
b) Two
c) Ten
d) d)Same
Model Question Paper
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q. 1. INTELSAT stands?
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
Q. 4. Perigee is -----
A)The point farthest from earth
B) The point longest from earth
C) The point closest approach to earth
D) None of the above
Ans.: C
Ans.: A
B) Bandwidth.
D) All of them
Ans.: D
A)whether forecasting
B) Terrestrial communication
C) point to point communication
D) None of the above
Ans.: A
A) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)
B) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)
C) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)
D) None of the above
Ans.: A
A)The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.
B) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans.: A
Q.10 Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
A) More bandwidth
B) More spectrum space
C) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
D) Economically viable
Ans.: C
Q.11 Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
A) MF
B) Ku
C) X
D) C
Ans.: A
Q.12 Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
A) Spatial isolation
B) Frequency reuse
C) Multiplexing
D) Modulation
Ans.: B
Answer : C
Q.14 A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
A) Uplink
B) Downlink
C) Terrestrial
D) Earthbound
Answer : B
Answer : A
Answer : D
Answer : C
Answer :A
Answer : D
A) backdown
B) backoff
C) power-down
D) EIRP drop
Answer: B
Q.22 VSAT stands for:
A) video satellite
Answer: D
B) low-earth orbit
Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: B
Q.26 What happens to the satellite signals as the density of the ionosphere is high?
A) Velocity increases
B) Velocity decreases
C) Signal strength increases
D) Frequency reduces
Answer: A
Q.27 ---------- detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A) Horn antenna
B) LNA
C) Satellite receiver
D) Satellite dish
Answer: B
Answer: B
A) 6 GHz
B) 4 GHz
C) 14 GHz
D) 11 GHz
Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: D
Q.32 . Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on -----
Answer: A
Answer: A
Q.34. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on-----
B) Bandwidth
Answer: A
A) 41
B) 32
C) 24
D) None of these
Answer: B
Q.36The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is------
A) 100 miles
B) 6800 miles
C) 22,300 miles
D) 35,860 miles
Answer: C
A) Repeater
B) Reflector
C) Beacon
D) Observation platform
Answer: A
A) 30 to 300 MHz
C) 3 to 30 GHz
Answer: C
A) Batteries
B) Solar cells
C) Fuel cells
D) Thermoelectric generators
Answer: B
Q.40 The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the------
A) Perigee
B) Apex
C) Zenith
D) Apogee
Answer: D
Q.41 How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A) Frequency reuse
B) Multiplexing
C) Mixing
D) They can’t
Answer: A
A) A group of cells
B) A group of subscribers
C) A small geographical area
D) A large group of mobile systems
Answer: A
Answer: A
A) 1987
B)1988
C)2000
D) None of these
Answer: A
Q.45 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of-------
A) Circular polarization
B) Maneuverability
C) Beamwidth
D) Gain
Answer: A
A) Jet propulsion
B) Ion propulsion system
C) Liquid fue
D)None of these
Answer: B
A) Earth-to-satellite link
B) Satellite-to-earth link
C) Satellite-to-satellite link
D None of these
Answer: C
Q. 48---------- is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular
pattern.
A) Geosynchronous satellite
B) Nonsynchronous satellite
C) Prograde satellite
D Retrograde satellite
Answer: B
Q.49 ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be
an ellipse
Answer : B
Q.50 India’s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to launch
1000 kg spacecraft into --------- orbit.
A) geostationary
B) equatorial
C) polar
D) sun-synchronous polar
Answer : D
Answer : C
A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
B) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
D) None of above
Answer : A
A) Modulation method
B) Overall costs
C) Available technology
D) Ionospheric characteristics
Answer : D
Q.54 Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on --------
Answer : A
Q. 55 ---------occurs where multiple carriers pass through any device with nonlinear
characteristics .
A) Modulation
B)Demodulation
C) Intermodulation
D None of these
Answer : C
A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
B)An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q. 57 What is an TWTA?
A) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to
the trans tube & its power supplies.
B) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to
the trans tube & its power supplies.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q. 58 What is SCPC?
A) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36MHz) may be occupied by a no. of single
carriers, each associated with its own voice circuit.
B) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36mhz) may be occupied by a no. of double
carriers, each associated with its own voice circuit.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Answer : A
A) key leverage
B) Frequency hopping
C) Once-only key
D) Frequency-spectrum modulation
Answer : B
Q. 60 The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of-------
A) Sky noise
Answer : D
Model Question paper
Class: -BE
Semester:-VIII
Q1.Accounting management could include the use of---------------
A) Individual host
B) Administrative segments
C) External traffic
Ans.: D
A)Most Complex
B)Object oriented
Ans.:D
A)Risk Management
B)Fault Management
C)Security Management
D)Configuration Management
Ans.:B
Q 4)The structure or format of data is called ___________
A) Syntax
B) Semantics
C) Struct
D) Formatting
Ans.:A
Ans.:A
Ans.:B
Ans.:B
Q 8)In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection
to the _________
A) IP Server
B) Domain
C) Network
D) Data
Ans.:C
Ans.:B
Ans.:D
Q12)To define packets to be sent from manager to agent and vice versa the term is used
name ---------
A)SNMP
B)SMTP
C)HTTP
D)URL
Ans.:A
Ans.:D
Ans.:C
Q15) Configuration Management can be divide into two sub system Reorganization and ------
A) Documentation
B) Accounting
C) Performance
D) Security
Ans A
Ans.:A
Ans.:B
Ans.:A
Ans.:D
Ans.:B
Q21)In codebook correlation model_____ capture alarm events
A)correlator
B)tracker
C)monitors
D)configuration
Ans.:C
Ans.:D
A) Organisation Model
B) Information Model
C) Communication Model
D) None of the above
Ans.:B
Ans.:D
Ans.:D
Ans.:A
Q28) CMISE is _____________.
A)Common Management Internet Service Element
B)Common Management Information Service Element
C)Common Management Internal Service Element
D)None of these
Ans.:B
Ans.:A
Ans.:B
Ans.:D
Ans.:D
A) MIB
B) MIS
C) MIP
D) None of the above
Ans.:D
A) UMO
B) MO
C) MDB
D) B&C
Ans.:D
A) Actual Database
B)Wrong Database
C) Non virtual database
D) None of the above
Ans.:D
Ans.:A
Ans : C
Q39)ASN.1 is group of --------
A)Number
B)Assignments
C)Alphabets
D)Character
Ans : B
Ans: C
Ans: D
A)Structured
B)Simple
C)Both
D)Non structured
Ans : B
Q43)_______ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode object and values.
A)MIB
B)BER
C)SMI
D)SNMP
Ans: C
Ans.:A
Ans.:A
Ans.:C
Ans :C
Ans :B
Q 51) CMIS stands for ----------
A) Central Management Information Service
B) Client Management Information Service
C) Cumulative Management Information Service
D) None of the above
Ans : D
Ans: A
Ans : D
Ans :D
Q 57)No. of Event Correlation Techniques are---------------
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Ans : D
Ans :C
Ans :B
Ans C
Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: Telecommunication Network Management
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
1)A MIB object has access defined as read-only in its MIB definition. What, among the
following, is the right SNMP access level that should be specified in the SNMP community,
so that the manager can write into the object?
1.Read-write
2.Write only
3.Manager cannot write
4.Read-only
ANS 2
1.SNMP traps
2.SNMP get next
3.SNMP get
4.SNMP get-bulk
Ans 1
1.CMIP
2.Communication model
3.Organization The model that model
4.SNMP
Ans 2
1.UDP MIB
2.Interfaces MIB
3.IP MIB
4.TCP MIB
Ans 1
6)The OSI NM Model that deals with user oriented requirements of network management is
the _________ model
1.Functional
2.Organization
3.Communication
4.Information
Ans 1
7)The model that specifies the relationship between network element, agent, and manager is
ANS b
8)For SNMP, defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode objects and values.
Ans C
9) The layer of the OSI model can use the trailer of the frame for error detection.
Ans b
a) host and dig tools b) netstat and arp. c) traceroute d) None of the above
Ans d
Ans b
12) In Telecommunication management Network (TMN) system, the role of the manager is
to issue commands and requests to the agent. These commands and requests are known as
Ans C
13) In TMN terminology, the switching systems, circuits, terminals, etc., which comprise a
telecommunications network, are known as
Ans b
14) UPnP stands for
a) Uniform Plug and Play b) Universal Plug and Play c) Unidirectional Plug and Play d)
Unintended Plug and Play
Ans b
15) SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the
network.
A) MIB
B) ANS.1
C) BER
Ans C
16) . We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is handled by _________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
Ans B
17) We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by ___________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
Ans C
C) a and b
D) none of the above
Ans C
19) To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier
based on a _______ structure.
A) linear
B) tree
C) graph
Ans C
20) INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object Identifier are _______ definitions used by
SMI.
A) MIB
B) SNMP
C) ASN.1
Ans C
21) SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and _________.
Ans C
22) SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________.
A) sequence; atomic
B) sequence; sequence of
Ans B
23) To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new
definitions.
A) AMS.1
B) ASN.1
C) ASN.2
ANS B
24) ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode objects and values.
A) MIB
B) BER
C) SMI
Ans C
ANS b
26) Configuration Management can be devide into two sub system Recognization and
a)Documentation b) Accounting c) Performance d)Security
Ans a
27) Based on predefine policy of network management, controlling access to the network is
the task of
Ans C
28) The control of users, access to network resourses through charges are the main
responsibilities of
Ans A
ANS b
Ans a
Ans d
33) To create collection of named object their type their relationship to each other in an entity
to be managed, we use
Ans d
34) To define packets to be sent from manager to agent and vice versa the term is used name
Ans a
36) Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of
_________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities
Ans b
37) In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection
to the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
Ans C
Ans C
Ans b
a)Informatinal Model
b)Organizational Model
c)Fundamental Model
d)Communication Model
Ans C
b) Containment Tree
c) Registration Tree
d)None of these
Ans D
42)ASN.1 is the
1) Only syntax
2)Language
3)Data base
4)None of these
Ans 2
d)None of these
Ans a
D) None of these
Ans b
And d
46)_____________ selects objects to be operated upon within the managed object
containment tree
A) Scoping
B)Filtering
c)MIB
D)All of these
Ans B
2)NEs
3)MDs
4)Q Adapter
Ans 2
50) Most TNM functions blocks can function as both managers and agents
1)True
2)False
3) Can’t say
Ans 1
51)Detection and isolatiopn of problem causing failure in the network is_____________
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Network manaement
Ans 2
52) The monitoring and Management of performance parameters of network and the network
components is_____________
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Network manaement
Ans 3
53) Operation,Administration maintenance and provising of network and services is________
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Network manaement
ANS 4
54)____________ allows a network manager to track ,which devices are on the managed
network and the hardware,and software configurations of these devices.
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Configuration Management
Ans 4
55)_______ is designed to manage the telecommunications network and is oriented towards
the needs for telecommunication service provided.
1)Telecommunication Management Network
2) OSI Model
3)IEEE Standard
4) None of above
56)ICMP Stands for
1)Internet control message protocol
2)Information Control protocol
3)Internet carrier message protocol
4)Information carrier message protocol
ANS 1
57)_______________allows the network manager to specify ,log and control uses and device
accss to network resourses.
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Accounting Management
Ans 4
58)Two major network management standards are Internet and OSI standard
1)True
2)false
3)Can’t say
Ans 1
59)A network consist of network components and their interconnections
1)True
2)false
3)Can’t say
Ans 1
60)The application function are divided into _______ categories
1)3
2)4
3)5
4)6
Ans 3
Model Question Paper ANS
1 P.T.O.
10) SMI stands for …….of Management Information. C
A) Simple B)Standard C) Structure D) subject
11) The managed elements have a management process running in them A
called an ………
A) Agent B) Information C) Alarm D) Objects
12) MoM stands for ………..of manager. B
A) Management B) Manager C) Message D) Monitor
13) The organization model describes the ……of network management A
and their relationship.
A) Components B) Nature C) Objects D) Information
14) An information model is connected with the structure and the storage C
of………..
A) Data B) Instruction C) Information D) Book
15) ISBN stands for International Standard ………..Number. A
A) Book B) Binary C) Base C) Bridges
16) MDB stands for management …………. A
A)Data Base B)Data Binary C) Double Base D)Double Binary
17) BER stands for Basic……..Rules. B
A) Error B) Encoding C) Element D) Enterprise
18) The ASN.1 syntax containing the management information is encoding C
using BER defined for………
A)Text Data B) bit oriented data C) Transfer syntax D) Length
2
19) The ………micro is used to define information about an OBJECT A
IDENTIFIER assignment.
A) OBJECT-IDENTITY B) STATUS C) Description D)Value
notation
20) The functional model is the component of an …….model address user B
oriented application.
A) ISO B)OSI C) Accounting D) Encoding
21) ………management in network management is normally used in the A
context of discovering network topology mapping the network and
setting up the configuration permanents in management agents and
management system.
A) Configuration B) Inventory C) Fault D) Performance
22) In the telephone industry network provisioning also called B
……provisioning.
A) Design B) Circuit C)Telephone D) Inventory
23) An efficient ….system is an essential part of the inventory C
management system.
A)Data B) Circuit C) Database D)Component
24) Network management is based on knowledge of network……… C
A) Criteria B) Technology C) Topology D) Database
25) …… in a network is associated with failure of network component A
and subsequent loss of connectivity,
A) Fault B) Problem C)Trouble D)Ping
26) ………is accomplished using either a polling scheme or by the A
generation of traps
A) Fault Detection B) fault Correction C) Fault Location
D)Isolation Technique
3 P.T.O.
27) ………using a simple approach would be to detect all the network C
component that have failed.
A) Fault Detection B)Fault correction C) Fault location
D)isolation Technique
28) One of the advantages of traps is that ….detection is accomplished A
faster with less traffic overhead.
A) Failure B)Error C) code D) Message
29) The ideal solution to locating and isolation the fault is to have an C
…………. solution.
A) Image Processing B) Signal Processing C)Artificial
Intelligence D) Neural Network
30) The …….as a system tool to measure traffic monitoring on Ethernet A
LANs
A)Protocol Analyzer B) Spectrum analyzer C) CRO D)DSO
31) When a centralized NMS receives a trap or a notification it is A
called…………….
A) receiving an event B) event correlation technique C) rule
based reasoning D) model based reasoning
32) It is important that the management systems correlates all event and B
isolates the root causes of the problem .The techniques used for
accomplishing this are called ………………..
A) Receiving on event b) Event correlation technique
c) case based reasoning d) code book
33) Rule based reasoning (RBR) is the earliest form of A
…………………… technique.
A) correlation b) correction c) detection d) production
4
34) Model-based reasoning is built on an …………… model associated C
with each managed object
A) attributes B) behaviours C) object – oriented D) router
35) ………………. Overcomes many of the deficiencies of Rule based A
Reasoning
A) case – based reasoning B) model – based Reasoning C)code book
D)finite state machine model
36) ……management is both a technical and an administrative issue in D
information management.
A) Configuration B) Performance C) Accounting D)security
37) The …….security subsystem is the user based security model. A
A)SNMPV3 B) RFC2196 C) NIST1994 D)NCSC
38) The main purpose of a ……is to protect a network from external B
attacks.
A)antivirus B) Firewall C)Gateway D) Filters
39) …….management is defined as the process of identifying services and A
characteristics associated with them, negotiating of SLA, deplaying
agents, to monitor &contro the performance of network, produce
service level report.
A) Performance B) security C) service Level D) Accounting
40) ......management is defined as the process of identifying services and C
characteristics associated with them. Negotiating as SLA ,deplaying
agents to monitor & control the performance at network , produce
service level report.
A)Performance B) Security C) Service level
D)Accounting
41) The model of ......is split into two aspects command interface to the D
managed resources and asynchronous reports from managed resources.
A) NMF B) ISO C) OSI D)CMISE
5 P.T.O.
42) The managed objects and their properties form a repository referred to A
as.............
A) MIB B) CMISE C)NMF D)ISO
43) .........provide the service fog report an occurrence of a event to another D
open system.
A)M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D)M-EVENT-
REPORT
44) ..........provide modifying attributes values of managed objects. A
A) M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D)M-DELETE
45) ..............Retrieve attributes end their values from managed objects. B
A) M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D) M-CREATE
46) .........is the request operation is not one of the CMIS defined services. A
A) Unrecognized operation B) No such event type C)
Processing failure D)No such attributes
47) ...........event type is not defined for the managed objects class referred B
in the request.
A) Invalid operator B) no such event type C) Processing failure
D)no such attributes
48) .........an error has occupied when processing the request. C
A) Invalid failure B) No such event type C) Processing failure
D)No such attributes
49) The managed object class definition is the part of the..........model. A
A) Information B) ISO C)OSI D) TCP/IP
50) Object ........techniques is called OMT. B
A) Management B) Modelling C)Methodology D) Manager
51) Object ..........group is called OMG. A
A) Management B)Modelling C) Methodology D)Manager
6
52) ......model defines the scheme for information visible across an A
interface the managing & managed system.
A) management information B) CMISE C) Network
D)Organization
53) .........model is an abstraction of the resources and their properties for B
the purpose of management
54) .......was defined in terms of relationship between the components of a A
system.
A) Schema B) CMISE C) Management Information D) TMN
55) ROSE is defined as remote ..........service element. B
A) Oriented B) Operations C) Objects D) Open
56) Exchanging the management information using the a fore mentioned C
services is defined as.......
A) ROSE B) CMIS C)CMIP D) ASN.1
57) ...........Define the parameters for transferring management information A
A) M-XXX B) N-XXX C) ACSE D)CMIS
58) The basic services are grouped together in to a functional unit is called D
as.........
A) Cancel get B) filter C) Extended service D) Kernel
59) Linked identifier parameter may be used. This allows several replies C
be sent for a single request.
A) cancel get B)Kernel C)Multiple reply
D) Multiple object selection
60) The request/reply paradigm of ROSE is defined using four protocol A
data unit these are Invoke, Reply,........, Reject
A) Respond B) Send C) Receive D)Acknowledge
7 P.T.O.
**********
8
Model Question Paper
Subject: - VLSl Design
Branch: - Electronics
Class: - BE
Semester: - VII
6. Which among the following is a process of transforming design entry information of the
circuit into a set of logic equations?
a. Simulation
b. Optimization
c. Synthesis
d. Verification
Answer: c. Synthesis
7. Among the VHDL features, which language statements are executed at the same time in
parallel flow?
a. Concurrent
b. Sequential
c. Net-list
d. Test-bench
ANSWER: a. Concurrent
9. In VHDL, which object/s is/are used to connect entities together for the model
formation?
a. Constant
b. Variable
c. Signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Signal
10. Which type of simulation mode is used to check the timing performance of a design?
a. Behavioural
b. Switch-level
c. Transistor-level
d. Gate-level
ANSWER: d. Gate-level
12. Which type of digital systems exhibit the necessity for the existence of at least one
feedback path from output to input?
a. Combinational System
b. Sequential system
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Sequential system
13. In logic synthesis, ________ is an EDIF that gives the description of logic cells & their
interconnections.
a. Netlist
b. Checklist
c. Shitlist
d. Dualist
ANSWER: a. Netlist
14. Which among the following is pre-defined in the standard package as one-dimensional
array type comprising each element of BIT type?
a. Bit type
b. Bit_vector type
c. Boolean type
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Bit_vector type
15. In composite data type of VHDL, the record type comprises the elements of
_______data types.
a. Same
b. Different
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Different
22. Which of the following modeling style follows the sequential processing of instructions?
a) Dataflow modeling
b) Behavior modeling
c) Structural modeling
d) Component modeling
ANSWER: b. Behavior modeling
23. __________ modeling uses logic gates and basic blocks to describe the functionality of
system.
a) Behavioral
b) Structural
c) Dataflow
d) Component
ANSWER: c. Dataflow
28. SIGNED and UNSIGNED data types are defined in which package?
a) std_logic_1164 package
b) std_logic package
c) std_logic_arith package
d) standard package
ANSWER: c. std_logic_arith package
32. The statements in between the keyword BEGIN and END are called _______
a) Concurrent statements
b) Netlist
c) Declaration statement
d) Entity function
ANSWER: a. Concurrent statements
33. Which of the following can’t be declared in the declaration part of the architecture?
a) Signals
b) Subprograms
c) Components
d) Libraries
ANSWER: d. Libraries
38. On which side of assignment operator, we can use the IN type signal?
a) Left
b) Right
c) Both
d) Can’t be used
ANSWER: b. Right
43. Which of the following describes the structure of VHDL code correctly?
a) Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration; Configurations
b) Entity Declaration; Configuration; Library Declaration; Architecture Declaration
c) Configuration; Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration
d) Library Declaration; Configuration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration
ANSWER: a. Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration;
Configurations
47. What is the advantage of using VHDL instead of any other HDL?
a) Week typing
b) Based on ADA
c) Portability
d) Easy to code
ANSWER: c. Portability
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of Verilog HDL?
a) Strongly typed language
b) Case sensitive
c) Better library
d) Not portable
ANSWER: b. Case sensitive
51. Which of the following could be the objects in the parameter list of a procedure?
a) CONSTANTS, VARIABLES
b) VARIABLES, SIGNALS
c) CONSTANTS, SIGNALS
d) CONSTANT, SIGNALS, VARIABLES
ANSWER: d. CONSTANT, SIGNALS, VARIABLES
53. Which of the following is true about both functions and procedures?
a) WAIT statement can’t be used
b) When declared in a package, both require package body
c) SIGNALs can’t be declared
d) RETURN is used in both
ANSWER: b. when declared in a package, both require package body
54. A procedure is called concurrently. It will execute when ________
a) Any of its parameters change
b) Any of its OUT parameters change
c) Any of its IN parameters change
d) Any of its IN or INOUT parameter change
ANSWER: d. Any of its IN or INOUT parameter change
57. A 4 to 16 decoder can be used as a code converter. What will be the inputs and outputs
of the converter respectively?
a) Binary, Octal
b) Octal, Binary
c) Hexadecimal, Binary
d) Binary, Hexadecimal
ANSWER: c. Hexadecimal, Binary
58. In designing a 2 to 1 demultiplexer with input d, output y and select line s, which of the
following is a correct process statement?
a) PROCESS(d)
b) PROCESS(d(0), d(1), s)
c) PROCESS(d(0), d(1))
d) PROCESS(d, s, y)
ANSWER: a. PROCESS (d)
59. In the implementation of following function by using NAND keyword only, can be done
in _____ operations. X = A'B + AB'
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
ANSWER: c. 4
60. The maximum number of parameters in port map() function while implementing logic
function using gates only, is equal to ____________
a) Number of inputs
b) Number of outputs
c) Number of inputs + number of outputs
d) Infinite
ANSWER: c. Number of inputs + number of outputs.
Model Question Paper
Subject: - Wireless Communication
Branch: - Electronics and Telecommunication
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII
2. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications
for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15
Answer: c) IEEE 802.11
5. What is WISP?
a) Wideband Internet Service Protocol
b) Wireless Internet Service Provider
c) Wireless Instantaneous Source Provider
d) Wideband Internet Source Protocol
Answer: b) Wireless Internet Service Provider
6. Which of the following is not an open standard?
a) Bluetooth
b) WWW
c) HTML
d) VPN
Answer: d) VPN
11. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
Answer: b) WAN
12. Sampling theorem is used for converting
a) Continuous time signal to discrete
b) Discrete to continuous time signal
c) Continuous time signal to discrete & vice versa
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) Continuous time signal to discrete & vice versa
13. Why neighbouring stations are assigned different group of channels in cellular system?
a) To minimize interference
b) To minimize area
c) To maximize throughput
d) To maximize capacity of each cell
Answer: a) To minimize interference
18. What is the main reason to adopt hexagon shape in comparison to square and triangle?
a) Largest area
b) Simple design
c) Small area
d) Single directional
Answer: a) Largest area
23. In dynamic channel assignment strategy, base station requests channel from ____________
a) MSC
b) Neighbouring cell
c) Neighbouring cluster
d) Neighbouring base station
Answer: a) MSC
26. The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is called _________
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
Answer: c) Dwell time
27. MAHO stands for ______
a) MSC assisted handoff
b) Mobile assisted handoff
c) Machine assisted handoff
d) Man assisted handoff
Answer: b) Mobile assisted handoff
30. Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced termination of a call
due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect
Answer: a) Queuing
36. Multiple access schemes are used to allow ________ mobile users to share simultaneously a finite
amount of radio spectrum.
a) Many
b) One
c) Two
d) Ten-Fifteen
Answer: a) Many
37. The technique that makes possible the task of listening and talking in communication system is called
________
a) Simplexing
b) Duplexing
c) Modulating
d) Multiple access technique
Answer: b) Duplexing
38. Frequency division duplexing provides ________ distinct bands of frequencies for _________ user.
a) Two, two
b) One, two
c) Two, one
d) Two, many
Answer: c) Two, one
39. Time division duplexing uses ________ to provide both a forward and reverse link.
a) Frequency
b) Time
c) Time and frequency
d) Cell spacing
Answer: b) Time
40. In wideband systems, the transmission bandwidth of a single channel _________ coherence
bandwidth of the channel.
a) Equal to
b) Not related to
c) Larger than
d) Smaller than
Answer: c) Larger than
46. DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a PN sequence.
a) Adding
b) Subtracting
c) Multiplying
d) Dividing
Answer: c) Multiplying
47. The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed _____ symbols.
a) 2m
b) m
c) 2m
d) 2m-1
Answer: d) 2m-1
48. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ______ channels to _______ users.
a) Individual, individual
b) Many, individual
c) Individual, many
d) Many, many
Answer: a) Individual, individual
54. ___________ of TDMA system is a measure of the percentage of transmitted data that contains
information as opposed to providing overhead for the access scheme.
a) Efficiency
b) Figure of merit
c) Signal to noise ratio
d) Mean
Answer: a) Efficiency
56. If the rate of change of the carrier frequency is greater than the symbol rate, then the system is
referred as ___________
a) Fast frequency hopping system
b) Slow frequency hopping system
c) Time division frequency hopping system
d) Code division multiple access system
Answer: a) Fast frequency hopping system
57. In CDMA, symbol duration is ___________ than channel delay spread.
a) Equal
b) Greater
c) Slightly greater
d) Much less
Answer: d) Much less
59. In wideband systems, the transmission bandwidth of a single channel _________ coherence bandwidth
of the channel.
a) Equal to
b) Not related to
c) Larger than
d) Smaller than
Answer: c) Larger than
1 P.T.O.
9) WMAN has standard __________ B
(A) IEEE 802.11
(B) IEEE 802.16
(C) IEEE 802.15
(D) None of above
10) WLAN has a range of ____ . C
(A) 1 meter
(B) 10 meter
(C) 100 meter
(D) none of above
11) Which of the following is/are the main part(s) of basic cellular system. D
A) A mobile Unit
B) A cell Site
C) A mobile Telephone Switching Office
D) All of the above
2
17) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is D
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
18) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because D
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
19) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, B
the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
20) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are D
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
21) In .............. Frequency Spectrum is divided into smaller spectra and is allocated C
to each user.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) FGMA
22) 5. In ................ multiple access is achieved by allocating different time slots for A
the different users.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) FGMA
23) 6. State whether True of False. C
i) In GSM only TDMA is used.
ii) There is zero inter-channel interference in CDMA.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True
3 P.T.O.
25) FDMA demand assignment uses A
1. Single channel per carrier
2. Multi channel per carrier
3. Single transmission in one time slot
4. Multi transmission in one time slot
4
32) Coax cables are highly resistant to _______ due to the shielding, B
(A) EM Energy (B) noise
(C) current (D) none of these
33) Advantage of wired system over wireless communication system is _______ A
(A) higher immunity to outside interference and noise
(B) higher immunity to inner noise
(C) lower immunity to inner interference
(D) None of these
34) Which mode is used for installing networks in wireless communication device C
characteristics?
(A) Fixed and wired (B) Mobile and wired
(C) Fixed and wired (D) Mobile and wireless
35) Fading of the received radio signals in a mobile communication environment B
occurs because of .....
A) Direct propagation
B) Multipath Propagation
C) Bi-path Propagation
D) None of the above
36) WLANs use high power levels and generally require a license for spectrum use. B
(True or False)
a) True
b) False
5 P.T.O.
41) ..................... are typically characterized by very small cells, especially in densely C
populated areas.
A) 2G system.
B) 3G system.
C) 2.5G system.
D) 3.5G system.
42) The technique for separate but parallel signalling channel is called ________ A
a) Common channel signalling
b) Forward channel signalling
c) Reverse channel signalling
d) Separate channel signalling
6
50) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy, D
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
51) Which type of handoff used in CDMA? A
a) Soft handoff
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard handoff
d) None of the above
7 P.T.O.
56) CDMA is C
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. Each user has unique PN code
**********
8
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques (188113/238113)
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication/ Electronics and Communication Engg.
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
B.
C.
D.
2
Ans: B
Q10 For a matched line, the input impedance will be equal to
A. Load impedance
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Output impedance
D. Zero
Ans: B
Q11 In shunt stub matching, the key parameter used for matching is:
A. Admittance of the line at a point
B. Admittance of the load
C. Impedance of the stub
D. Impedance of the load
Ans: A
Q12 If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is to be matched to a load of
100Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the λ/4 transmission line to be used is:
A. 50 Ω
B. 100 Ω
C. 70.71 Ω
D. 75 Ω
Ans: C
Q13 To get an admittance chart from an impedance chart:
A. Smith chart has to be rotated by 90⁰
B. Smith chart has to be rotated by 180⁰
C. Admittance chart cannot be obtained from the impedance chart anyway.
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B
Q14 The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is
infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
3 P.T.O.
D. Short circuit impedance
Ans: C
Q15 The characteristic impedance of a quarter wave transformer with load and input
impedances given by 30 and 75 respectively is
A. 47.43
B. 37.34
C. 73.23
D. 67.45
Ans: A
Q16 The reflection coefficient lies in the range of
A. 0 < τ < 1
B. -1 < τ < 1
C. 1 < τ < ∞
D. 0 < τ < ∞
Ans: A
Q17 The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with impedance and admittance
of 16 and 9 respectively is
A. 25
B. 1.33
C. 7
D. 0.75
Ans: B
Q18 Normalized impedance of 0.3+j0.4 lies in the:
A. Upper half of the impedance smith chart
B. Lower half of the impedance smith chart
C. Horizontal line of the chart
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: A
Q19 Standing waves occurs due to
A. Impedance match
B. Impedance mismatch
4
C. Reflection
D. Transmission
Ans: B
Q20 Smith chart is based on the polar plot of:
A. Reactance
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. Voltage reflection co-efficient
Ans: D
Q21 For any mode of propagation in a rectangular waveguide, propagation occurs:
A. Above the cut off frequency
B. Below the cut off frequency
C. Only at the cut-off frequency
D. Depends on the dimension of the waveguide
Ans: A
Q22 In case of TEmn and TMmn, the letter m indicates
A. Number of half wave variations in the narrower dimension
B. Number of half wave variations in the broader dimension
C. Number of full wave variations in the narrower dimension
D. Number of full wave variations in the broader dimension
Ans: B
Q23 A hollow rectangular waveguide cannot propagate TEM waves because:
A. Of the existence of only one conductor
B. Of the losses caused
C. It is dependent on the type of the material used
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: A
Q24 In case of TM wave
A. There is no component of electric field in the direction of propagation
B. There is no component of magnetic field in the direction of propagation
C. None of the mentioned
5 P.T.O.
Ans: B
Q25 The scattering parameters are used to indicate the
A. Permittivity and permeability
B. Electric and magnetic field intensities
C. Reflection and transmission coefficients
D. Frequency and wavelength
Ans: C
Q26 The distance between two successive points in a waveguide is the
A. Guided wavelength
B. 2 x guided wavelength
C. Guided wavelength/2
D. (guided wavelength)/4
Ans: C
Q27 Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power
division or power combining.
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Linear
D. Non linear
Ans: A
Q28 An isolator is a ___ port device
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: B
Q29 The phase and group velocity does not depend on which of the following?
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Phase constant
D. Attenuation constant
6
Ans: D
Q30 A circulator is a 3 port network that allows energy flow in clockwise direction only.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q31 A rectangular waveguide has dimensions 1 × 0.5 . Its cut off frequency is
A. 5 GHz
B. 10 GHz
C. 15 GHz
D. 20 GHz
Ans: C
Q32 A circulator device can also used as an isolator with a few modifications.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q33 In case of a waveguide the signal propagation is by
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Air pressure
Ans: C
Q34 Two modes with same cut off frequency are said to be
A. Generate modes
B. Dominant modes
C. Degenerate modes
D. Regenerate modes
Ans: C
Q35 The waveguide is employed in the transmission lines, when operated at the range of
A. Hz
B. KHz
C. MHz
7 P.T.O.
D. GHz
Ans: D
Q36 The phase velocity refers to a group of waves and the group velocity refers to a single
wave.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q37 If all the ports of a microwave network are matched, then the diagonal elements of
the S matrix of the network are zero.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q38 The dominant mode in the TM waves is
A. TM01
B. TM10
C. TM20
D. TM11
Ans: D
Q39 In rectangular waveguides, the dimensions a and b represent the
A. Broad wall dimensions
B. Broad wall and side wall dimension respectively
C. Side wall and broad wall dimension respectively
D. Side wall dimensions
Ans: B
Q40 Bethe hole directional coupler has _____ number of holes for coupling power from
main waveguide to auxiliary waveguide.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: A
8
Q41 ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
A. Backward wave oscillator
B. Reflex klystron
C. Travelling wave tube
D. Magnetrons
Ans: B
Q42 In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is
parallel to the electric field.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q43 Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator?
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
Ans: B
Q44 The material out of which PIN diode is made is:
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. GaAs
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: A
Q45 A reflex klystron is used as:
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Mixer
D. Frequency multiplier
Ans: B
Q46 For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used
9 P.T.O.
A. Magnetron
B. Reflex Klystron
C. Travelling Wave Tube
D. Gunn Diode
Ans: C
Q47 The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
A. Linear beam
B. Crossed field
C. Parallel field
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: A
Q48 Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
A. Coax
B. Parallel wires
C. Twisted pair
D. PCBs
Ans: D
Q49 The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined by
A. The flux density of the external magnet
B. The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density
C. The number of the cavity resonators
D. The dimension of each cavity resonator
Ans: D
Q50 What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a travelling wave
tube?
A. To accelerate the electron
B. To velocity modulate the electron beam
C. To keep the electrons from spreading out
D. To slow down the signal on the helix
Ans: C
Q51 For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used?
10
A. Travelling wave tube
B. Magnetron
C. Reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
Ans: A
Q52 When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode, it results in:
A. avalanche multiplication
B. break down of depletion region
C. high reverse saturation current
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: A
Q53 A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Ans: A
Q54 A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of
A. The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream
B. The effect of an external magnetic field
C. The energy contained the cavity resonators
D. The energy liberated from the collector
Ans: A
Q55 ______is not a microwave tube.
A. Cathode ray tube
B. magnetron
C. travelling wave tube
D. None of the above
Ans: A
Q56 Reflex klystron oscillator is essentially a low power device
11 P.T.O.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q57 _____ devices use a helix?
A. TWT
B. Klystron oscillator
C. Klystron amplifier
D. None of the above
Ans: A
Q58 Skin effect is more pronounced at high frequencies
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q59 The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator klystron
amplifier is
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 58%
D. 56%
Ans: C
Q60 Which of the following devices uses a slow wave structure?
A. Klystron two cavity amplifier
B. Klystron multi cavity amplifier
C. Reflex klystron oscillator
D. TWT
Ans: D
**********
12
Model Question Paper
Ans:- d
A
N
Model Question paper
S
Radiation & Microwave Techniques
B. 750 MHz
C. 0.98 GHz
D. 22 GHz
B. Simpler equipment
1 P.T.O.
4) Which of the following is not a common microwave application? C
A. Radar
B. Mobile radio
C. Telephone
D. Satellite communications
A. Resistance (R)
B. Inductance (I)
C. Conductance (G)
D. Capacitance (C)
7) The constant x-circles of Smith chart becomes smaller due to increase in the value D
of 'x' from
A. 0 to π
B. 0 to 2π
C. 0 to π /2
D. 0 to ∞
2
8) If the quarter line is short-circuited, then it acts as _______ B
A. Conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semiconductor
D. Power regulator
11) A 50 ohm lossless line connects a matched signal of 100 kHz to a load of 100 ohm.D
What is the position of first Vmin and Vmax.
A. First Vmin is located at the load and first Vmax is located at 100m
away from load.
B. First Vmax is located at the load and first Vmin is located at 100m
away from load.
C. First Vmin is located at the load and first Vmax is located at 750m
away from load.
D. First Vmax is located at the load and first Vmin is located at 750m
away from load.
3 P.T.O.
12) Transmission line is a _________ parameter network. B
A. Lumped
B. Distributed
C. Active
D. none of the mentioned
13) For a lossless transmission line the value of α is: A
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. Insufficient data
14) After what wavelength does the nature of graph get reversed for the input B
impedance of open-circuited line
A. λ/2
B. λ/4
C. λ/8
D. λ/16
15) What is the phase variation range for reflection coefficient in the transmission C
lines?
A. 0° to 90°
B. 90° to 150°
C. 0° to 180°
D. 90° to 360°
16) According to Smith diagram, where should be the position of reflection coefficient A
value for a unity circle with unity radius?
4
17) A transmission line having characteristic impedance of 50 Ω is terminated in load C
impedance of 250+j300 Ω. What is the value of normalized load impedance:
A. 1+j
B. 1-j
C. 5+6j
D. 5-6j
19) For a transmission line with propagation constant γ = 0.650 + j 2.55, what will be C
the value of phase velocity for 1 kHz frequency?
20) If the inductance and capacitance of a loss less transmission line are 45 mH/m B
and10 µF/m, the characteristic impedance of the transmission line is:
A. 50Ω
B. 67.08Ω
C. 100Ω
D. none of the mentioned
5 P.T.O.
21) How does the short-circuited line behave for the first λ/4 distance if input A
impedance is purely reactive?
A. As an inductance
B. As a resistance
C. As a capacitance
D. As a conductance
22) What would be the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) for a line with reflection C
coefficient equal to 0.49?
A. 0.01
B. 2.12
C. 2.921
D. 3.545
23) The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is C
infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Short circuit impedance
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Infinite
D. None of the above
6
25) In case of a waveguide the signal propagation is by C
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Air pressure
27) When the electric field of the signal is perpendicular to the direction propagation C
through waveguide, the mode is said to be
A. Vertical polarization
B. Transverse electromagnetic
C. Transverse electric
D. Transverse magnetic
28) A waveguide is a B
A. Low pass filter
B. High pass filter
C. Band pass filter
D. Band stop filter
7 P.T.O.
29) The co-axial cable belongs to A
A. TEM mode of transmissionlines
B. Quasi-TEMmode of transmissionlines
C. NonTEM mode of transm ission lines
D. None of these.
30) In case of two hole directional coupler the separation between the two holes is B
equal to:
A. λg
B. λg/2
C. λg/3
D. λg/4
8
34) An advantage of strip line over waveguide is its B
A. Small bulk
B. Greater bandwidth
C. High power handling capacity
D. Greater compatibility with solid state devices
35) When an electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide B
E. they travel along a broader walls of the guide
F. they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
G. they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
H. they travel along all four walls of the waveguide
9 P.T.O.
39) in TM mode, if the direction of wave propagation is in ‘z’ direction, then: A
A. HZ=0
B. EZ=0
C. EY=0
D. HY=0
40) hen electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wavelength D
along the wall is
41) When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, three appears an extra electric B
component, in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
A. transverse-electric
B. transverse-magnetic
C. longitudinal
D. transverse-electromagnetic
10
43) A signal propagation in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change D
between the two further walls, and no component of the electric field in the
direction of propagation. The mode is
A. TE1,1
B. TE1,0
C. TM2,2
D. TE2,0
44) The phase velocity (Vp) and group velocity(Vg) are related as A
A. Vp. Vg=C2
B. Vp./Vg.=C
C. Vg./Vp =C
D. Non of above
45) For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used C
A. Magnetron
B. Reflex Klystron
C. Travelling Wave Tube
D. Gunn Diode
11 P.T.O.
46) The principle on which Klystron work B
A. Amplitude Modulation
B. Velocity Modulation
C. Frequency Modulation
D. Pulse Modulation
49) At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube? A
A. At the cathode end of the helix
B. At the collector
12
50) Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a D
A. Waveguide match
B. Cavity match
51) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an B
IMPATT diode, it results in:
B. magnetron
C. reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
53) As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space B
A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
B. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the
output cavity
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity.
13 P.T.O.
54) The kinetic energy of the beam remains unchanged in the interaction between an
electron beam and an RF wave in a
C
(A) Multi cavity klystron
(B) Crossed field amplifier
(C) Travelling wave tube
(D) Step recovery diode
55) The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined D
by
56) If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of A
opposite polarity, the operation is in the
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
14
57) The Gunn diode oscillator D
A. Is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt
58) Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of B
A. 300 to 3000 MHz
C. 30 to 30000 MHz
D. 10 to 10000 MHz
15 P.T.O.
60) Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator? B
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
61) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown, voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode ,its results in
A
(A) Avalanche multiplication
(B) Breakdown of depletion layer
(C) High reverse saturation current
(D) None of the above
62) To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning , a constant bias source is used to A
maintain at the safe limit
(A) Average current
(B) Average Voltage
(C) Average Bias voltage
(D) Average resistance
**********
16
Model Question Paper
Subject: Embedded System
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1 Which parameter/s is/are included in ‘Time to market’ design metric of embedded system?
(A) Time to prototype
(B) Time to refine
(C) Time to produce in bulk
(D) All of above
Ans D
2 Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
(A) 8- bit
(B) 16-bit to 32-bit
(C) 64-bit
(D) All of above
Ans B
3 What are essential constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
(A) Ability to fit on a single chip
(B) Low power consumption
(C) Fast data processing
(D) All of above
Ans D
5 Zigbee uses
(A) FHSS
(B) DSSS
(C) TDMA
(D) CDMA
Ans B
6 A communication protocol specifies (i) the ways of communication of signals on the bus
(ii) ways of arbitration when several devices need to communicate through the bus or the
ways of polling from the devices need of the bus at an instance (iii) memory requirement
during communication (iv) minimum rate of data transfer during communication (v) interrupt
service mechanism
(A) i, ii, iii and iv
(B) i, iii, iv and v
(C) i and ii
(D) i, ii and iii
Ans C
7 For a product being manufactured, the non-recurring cost is X, and the unit cost of the
product is Y. If we manufacture N units of the product, what will be the per-unit cost?
(A) (X + N.Y) / N
(B) X + Y
(C) X + N.Y
(D) None of these.
Ans A
8 Consider the typical triangle-shaped revenue model. Suppose that a product is supposed to
enter the market at time 0, with the peak revenue of S units at time W, and the product life is
2W. However, the launch of the product gets delayed by a time D. For W = 13 weeks, and D
= 1 week, what will be the percentage revenue loss due to the delayed launch of the product?
(A) 15.1 %
(B) 11.2 %
(C) 8.7 %
(D) None of these.
Ans B
9 A system might be connected to a number of other devices and systems. (i) A bus consists
of a common set of lines to connect multiple devices, hardware units and systems (ii) A bus is
used for communication between two of these at any given instance. (iii) A bus is used for
communication between all of these at the same instance (iv) A bus may be serial bus or
parallel bus to transfer one bit or multiple data bits at an instance, respectively.
(A) i, ii and iv correct
(B) iii correct
(C) iii and iv correct
(D) all are correct.
Ans A
12 Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel shifter?
(A) ADD R2, R5, R4
(B) MOV R5, R4, LSL #2
(C) MOV r5, R4, LSR #2
(D) MOV r5, R4, ROR #2
Ans A
13 If three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would be the speed of
execution?
(A) Higher
(B) Moderate
(C) Lower
(D) Unpredictable
Ans A
14 Which type of non-privileged processor mode is entered due to raising of high priority of
an interrupt?
(A) User mode
(B) Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
(C) Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
(D) Supervisor Mode (SVC)
Ans B
15 The average time for a particular task is constrained as well as is the number of instances
when some maximum time is exceeded, the stated approach is known as
(A) Hard real-time systems
(B) Real-data constraints
(C) Real-time constraints
(D) Soft real-time systems
Ans C
17 Which of the following ARM instructions can be used to load a byte into a register?
(A) LDR
(B) LDRB
(C) LDRSH
(D) LDRBYTE
Ans B
18 If register r2, r5,r8 contains (decimal) numbers 3,7 and 8 respectively, the value of r10
after execution of the following instruction will be: ADD r10,r8,r5,LSL r2
(A) 56
(B) 60
(C) 64
(D) None of these
Ans C
19 An instruction that is used to move data from an ARM Register to a Status Register
(CPSR or SPSR) is called
(A) MRC
(B) MRS
(C) MSR
(D) MCS
Ans C
27 Evaluate the following statements and select the appropriate answer given from the
choices below. I. Von Neumann Architecture shares common memory for Data and
Instructions II. Harvard Architecture has separate physical memories for Data and
Instructions
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Both I and II are true
(D) None of them is true
Ans C
28 Consider a four bit ALU which does four bit arithmetic. When the following four bit
numbers are added, what is the status of NZCV flags? 1101 + 1011
(A) NZCV = 0111
(B) NZCV = 1000
(C) NZCV = 1001
(D) NZCV = 1010
Ans D
29 When the processor is executing simple data processing instructions, the pipeline enables
one instruction to be completed every clock cycle, this is also called as
(A) Throughput
(B) Latency
(C) Execution
(D) None of the above
Ans A
30 Instruction used to multiply R5 contents by R4 and to store the result into R6 is called .
(A) MUL R6, R5, LSL #2
(B) MUL R6, R5, R4
(C) MUL R6, R5, LSR #2
(D) None of the above
Ans B
31 If the initial register contents of R0, R1 and R2 were R0= 0x0000000 R1= 0x02040608
R2= 0x10305070 Assume
R0 is the result register, after one of the operations below was performed on R1 and R2,
which has been modified to R0 = 0x12345678 What was the operation performed on the
contents of R2 and R1?
(A) AND
(B) ORR
(C) BIC
(D) MUL
Ans B
34 The amount of power used during operation. This is extremely important, especially for
battery powered portable devices. A common metric used to compare the power requirements
of portable devices is
(A) EA = [Rn]
(B) EA = [Rn + Rm]
(C) EA = [Rn] + Rm
(D) EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans A
38 Stack is a form of
(A) Last In First Out (LIFO)
(B) First In First Out (FIFO)
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Ans A
39 In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition to R-2R
ladder and current switches?
(A) Voltage amplifier
(B) Current amplifier
(C) Transconductance amplifier
(D) Transresistance amplifier
Ans B
41 Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
(A) 8- bit
(B) 16-bit to 32-bit
(C) 64-bit
(D) All of above
Ans B
42 Which bit size of timer register bit determines the slowest frequency?
(A) counter size
(B) pre-scalar value
(C) counter
(D) timer
Ans A
43 Which of the following is an example for on-board interface in the embedded system
context?
(A) I2C
(B) Bluetooth
(C) SPI
(D) A and C
Ans D
44 Data transfer rate for CAN is
(A) 3M bits/s
(B) 5M bits/s
(C) 1M bits/s
(D) 2M bits/s
Ans C
47 ZigBee is an IEEE
(A)802.15.1
(B) 802.15.2
(C) 802.15.4
(D) 802.15.3
Ans C
50 In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition to R-2R
ladder and current switches?
(A) Voltage amplifier
(B) Current amplifier
(C) Transconductance amplifier
(D) Transresistance amplifier
Ans B
54 Which functional unit of ARM family architecture is responsible for upgrading the
address register contents before the core reads or writes the next register value from memory
location?
(A) Data bus
(B) Barrel Shifter
(C) Incrementer
(D) Instruction Decoder
Ans C
56 If the register r5 contains the hexadecimal number AA55AA55 the hexadecimal value of
the number stored in register r2 after executing the following instruction will be: MVN r2, r5
(A) AA55AA55
(B) FFFFFFFF
(C) 55AA55AA
(D) 00AA00AA
Ans C
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) i, iii, iv and vi
(C) Steps i, ii and iii
(D) i , ii and vi.
Ans C
58 Which of the following types of analog-to-digital converter has the fastest conversion
speed?
(A) Successive-approximation type
(B) Counter-type
(C) Flash-type
(D) Tracking-type
Ans C
Elective-II
A random
B vertex
C contour
D sampling
Ans.: D
Q2. What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?
A Sampling
B Interpolation
C Filters
Ans.: B
A line pairs
B pixels
C dots
Ans.: D
Q4. The most familiar single sensor used for Image Acquisition is
A Microdensitometer
B Photodiode
C CMOS
Ans.: B
Q5 The difference is intensity between the highest and the lowest intensity
levels in an image is ___________
A Noise
B Saturation
C Contrast
D Brightness
Ans.: C
Q6. The spatial coordinates of a digital image (x,y) are proportional to:
A Position
B Brightness
C Contrast
D Noise
Ans.: B
Q7. Among the following image processing techniques which is fast, precise
and flexible.
A Optical
B Digital
C Electronic
D Photographic
Ans.: B
A Height of image
B Width of image
C Amplitude of image
D Resolution of image
Ans.: C
Ans.: A
A Dynamic range
B Band range
C Peak range
D Resolution range
Ans.: A
A Saturation
B Hue
C Brightness
D Intensity
Ans.: B
A Interpretation
B Recognition
C Acquisition
D Segmentation
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A Quantization
B Sampling
C Contrast
D Dynamic range
Ans.: B
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
Q17. For pixels p(x, y), q(s, t), the city-block distance between p and q is
defined as:
B D(p, q) = |x – s| + |y – t|
Ans.: B
Q18. The domain that refers to image plane itself and the domain that refers
to Fourier transform of an image is/are :
Q19. Using gray-level transformation, the basic function Logarithmic deals with
which of the following transformation?
Ans.: A
As=L–1–r
Ans.: A
Q21. Which of the following transformations expands the value of dark pixels
while the higher-level values are being compressed?
A Log transformations
B Inverse-log transformations
C Negative transformations
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
A 1
B -1
C 0
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
A Blurring
B Noise reduction
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Ans.: D
Q26. A spatial averaging filter having all the coefficients equal is termed
_________
A A box filter
B A weighted average filter
C A standard average filter
D A median filter
Ans.: A
Q27. An image contains noise having appearance as black and white dots
superimposed on the image. Which of the following noise(s) has the same
appearance?
A Salt-and-pepper noise
B Gaussian noise
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q28. Which filter(s) used to find the brightest point in the image?
A Median filter
B Max filter
C Mean filter
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: B
Q29. In linear spatial filtering, what is the pixel of the image under mask
corresponding to the mask coefficient w (1, -1), assuming a 3*3 mask?
A f (x, -y)
B f (x + 1, y)
C f (x, y – 1)
D f (x + 1, y – 1)
Ans.: D
Ans.: C
Q31. Which of the following statement(s) is true for the given fact that
“Applying High pass filters has an effect on the background of the output
image”?
A The average background intensity increases to near white of black and white
B The average background intensity reduces to near black
C The average background intensity changes to a value average
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: B
A UV Rays
B Gamma Rays
C Microwaves
D Radio Waves
Ans.: B
A lumens
B watts
C armstrong
D hertz
Ans.: B
Q34. Which of the following is used for chest and dental scans?
A Hard X-Rays
B Soft X-Rays
C Radio waves
D Infrared Rays
Ans.: B
A c = wavelength / frequency
B frequency = wavelength / c
C wavelength = c * frequency
D c = wavelength * frequency
Ans.: C
Ans.: B
Ans.: A
A image enhancement
B image decompression
C image contrast
D image equalization
Ans.: B
A pixels
B matrix
C intensity
D coordinates
Ans.: C
A pixels
B matrix
C frames
D intensity
Ans.: D
Q41. Logic operations between two or more images are performed on pixel-
by-pixel basis, except for one that is performed on a single image. Which one
A AND
B OR
C NOT
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q42. How many bit RGB color image is represented by full-color image?
Ans.: B
A JPEG
B GIF
C BMP
D PNG
Ans.: B,D
Q44. Makes the file smaller by deleting parts of the file permanently (forever)
A Lossy Compression
B Lossless Compression
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
A Gaussian
B laplacian
C ideal
D butterworth
Ans.: B
Q48. A typical Fourier Spectrum with spectrum value ranging from 0 to 106,
which of the following transformation is better to apply.
A nonzero
B zero
C positive
D negative
Ans.: B
A intensity transition
B shape transition
C color transition
D sign transition
Ans.: D
A discontinuity
B similarity
C continuity
D recognition
Ans.: A
A audio
B sound
C sunlight
D ultraviolet
Ans.: B
A ultrasonic
B radar
C visible and infrared
D Infrared
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
Q54. The digitization process i.e. the digital image has M rows and N columns,
requires decisions about values for M, N, and for the number, L, of gray levels
allowed for each pixel. The value M and N have to be:
Ans.: A
Q55. After digitization process a digital image with M rows and N columns
have to be positive and for the number, L, max gray levels i.e. an integer
power of 2 for each pixel. Then, the number b, of bits required to store a
digitized image is:
A b=M*N*k
B b=M*N*L
C b=M*L*k
D b=L*N*k
Ans.: A
A bright
B dark
C colourful
D All of the Mentioned
Ans.: B
A Image enhancement
B Blurring
C Contrast adjustment
D None of the Mentioned
Ans.: A
A Intensive
B Local
C Global
D Random
Ans.: A
A Intensive
B Local
C Global
D Random
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
Model Question Paper
Subject :Digital Image Processing
Branch: E&TC
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
A)128
B)255
C)256
D)512
Ans:C
A) Slicing
B) Color Slicing
C) Enhancing
D) Cutting
Ans:B
3) A type of Image is called as VHRR image. What is the definition of VHRR image?
Ans:C
Ans:D
B)255
C)256
D)1
Ans:A
6) The Image sharpening in frequency domain can be achieved by which of the following method(s)?
Ans:B
7) The function of filters in Image sharpening in frequency domain is to perform reverse operation of
which of the following Lowpass filter?
D) None
Ans:C
8) The edges and other abrupt changes in gray-level of an image are associated with_________
C) Edges with high frequency and other abrupt changes in gray-level with low frequency components
D) Edges with low frequency and other abrupt changes in gray-level with high frequency components
Ans:A
A) |Gx|+|Gy|
B) |Gx|-|Gy|
C) |Gx|/|Gy|
D) |Gx|x|Gy|
Ans:A
10) Which of the following statement(s) is true for the given fact that “Applying Highpass filters has an
effect on the background of the output image”?
C) The average background intensity changes to a value average of black and white
Ans:B
A) Red Noise
B) White Noise
C) Black Noise
D) Normal Noise
Ans:D
A) Frequency
B) Time
C) Spatial
D) Plane
Ans:A
A) MRI
B) surgery
C) CT scan
D) Injections
Ans:A
14 Which one is not the process of image processing
A) high level
B) low level
C) last level
D) Mid level
Ans:C
15) Filters that replaces pixel value with medians of intensity levels is
C) Median Filter
Ans:C
A) Position
B) Brightness
C) Contrast
D) Saturation
Ans:B
17)Among the following image processing techniques which is fast, precise and flexible
A) Optical
B) Digital
C) Electronic
D) Photographic
Ans:B
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
C) Amplitude of image
D) Resolution of image
Ans:C
19)The range of values spanned by the gray scale is called
A) Dynamic range
B) Band range
C) Peak range
D) Resolution range
Ans:A
A) Saturation
B) Hue
C) Brightness
D) Intensity
Ans:B
A) law enforcement
B) lithography
C) medicine
D) voice calling
Ans:D
A) Interpretation
B) Recognition
C) Acquisition
D) Segmentation
Ans:A
A) 256 X 256
B) 512 X 512
C) 1920 X 1080
D) 1080 X 1080
Ans:B
24)The number of gray values are integer powers of
A) 4
B)2
C)8
D)1
Ans:B
A) Image restoration
B) Image enhancement
C) Image acquisition
D) Segmentation
Ans:C
26)In which step of processing, the images are subdivided successively into smaller regions?
A) Image enhancement
B) Image acquisition
C) Segmentation
D) wavelet
Ans:D
A) Wavelets
C) Segmentation
D) Morphological processing
Ans:D
28) What is the step that is performed before color image processing in image processing?
B) Image enhancement
C) Image acquisition
D) Image restoration
Ans:D
29)How many number of steps are involved in image processing?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 12
Ans:A
Ans:B
31)Which of the following step deals with tools for extracting image components those are useful in
the representation and description of shape?
B) Segmentation
C) Compression
D) Morphological processing
Ans:D
32)In which step of the processing, assigning a label (e.g., “vehicle”) to an object based on its
descriptors is done?
A) Object recognition
B) Morphological processing
D) Segmentation
Ans:A
A) Deals with extracting attributes that result in some quantitative information of interest
B) Deals with techniques for reducing the storage required saving an image, or the bandwidth
required transmitting it
C) Deals with property in which images are subdivided successively into smaller regions
D) Deals with partitioning an image into its constituent parts or objects
Ans:D
Ans:B
35) A structured light illumination technique was used for lens deformation
A) lens deformation
B) inverse filtering
C) lens enhancement
D)lens error
Ans:A
A) edges
B) slices
C) boundaries
D) illumination
Ans:B
37) Major use of gamma rays imaging includes
A) Radars
B) astronomical observations
C) industry
D) lithography
Ans:B
A) Image addition
B) Image Multiplication
C) Image division
D) None
Ans:B
39)What is the sum of the coefficient of the mask defined using HPF?
A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
Ans:C
A ) thumb prints
B) paper currency
C)mp3
Ans:C
A) spatial coordinates
B) frequency coordinates
C)time coordinates
D) real coordinates
Ans:A
42) Lithography uses
A) ultraviolet
B) x-rays
C)gamma
D) visible rays
Ans:A
A)color enhancement
B) Frequency enhancement
C)Spatial enhancement
D)Detection
Ans:D
A) microscopy
B) medical
C) industry
D) radar
Ans:B
A) 1048576
B) 1148576
C) 1248576
D) 1348576
Ans:A
46)The lens is made up of concentric layers of
A) strong cells
B) inner cells
C) fibrous cells
D) outer cells
Ans:C
A) audio
B) AM
C) FM
D) Both b and c
Ans:D
A) 2 levels
B) 4levels
C) 8 levels
D) 16 levels
Ans:C
A) values
B) numbers
C) frequencies
D) intensities
Ans:D
50)In MxN, M is no of
A) intensity levels
B) colors
C) rows
D) columns
Ans:C
51) Each element of the matrix is called
A) dots
B) coordinate
C) pixels
D) value
Ans:C
C) digitized image
D) analog signal
Ans:C
A) radiance
B) variance
C) sampling
D) quantization
Ans:C
A) pel
B) dot
C) resolution
D) digits
Ans:A
B) three
C) four
D) five
Ans:B
A) speed of light
B) light constant
C) plank's constant
D) acceleration constant
Ans:C
Ans:B
A) b = NxK
B) b = MxN
C) b = MxNxK
D) b = MxK
Ans: C
Ans:A
B) illuminance
C) sampling
D) quantization
Ans:D
Model Question Paper
Subject: Digital Image Processing Branch:E&TC
Class:BE Semester:VIII
(B) Segmentation
Ans: a
(A) Compression
(B) Quantization
(C) Sampling
(D) Segmentation
Ans: c
3. _____ is the total amount of energy that flows from light source.
(A) Radiance
(B) Darkness
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminance
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
6.The transition between continuous values of the image function and its digital equivalent is
called ______________
a) Quantisation
b) Sampling
c) Rasterisation
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:a
7. Images quantised with insufficient brightness levels will lead to the occurrence of
____________
a) Pixillation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
Ans:c
8.The smallest discernible change in intensity level is called ____________
a) Intensity Resolution
b) Contour
c) Saturation
d) Contrast
Ans:a
9. What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
Ans:b
10. The type of Interpolation where for each new location the intensity of the immediate pixel
is assigned is ___________
a) bicubic interpolation
b) cubic interpolation
c) bilinear interpolation
d) nearest neighbour interpolation
Ans:d
11. The type of Interpolation where the intensity of the FOUR neighbouring pixels is used to
obtain intensity a new location is called __________
a) Cubic interpolation
b) nearest neighbour interpolation
c) bilinear interpolation
d) bicubic interpolation
Ans: b
12. Dynamic range of imaging system is a ratio where the upper limit is determined by
a)Saturation
b) Noise
c) Brightness
d) Contrast
Ans:a
d) Contrast
Ans:c
14. Quantitatively, spatial resolution cannot be represented in which of the following ways
a) line pairs
b) pixels
c) dots
d) none of the Mentioned
Ans:d
Ans:b
16. The process of using known data to estimate values at unknown locations is called
a) Acquisition
b) Interpolation
c) Pixelation
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:b
Ans:c
18. In which step of processing, the images are subdivided successively into smaller regions?
a) Image enhancement
b) Image acquisition
c) Segmentation
d) Wavelets
Ans:c
Ans:a
Ans:b
21.The principal factor to determine the spatial resolution of an image is _______
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Contrast
d) Dynamic range
Ans:b
22. What causes the effect, imperceptible set of very fine ridge like structures in areas of
smooth gray levels?
a) Caused by the use of an insufficient number of gray levels in smooth areas of a digital
image
b) Caused by the use of huge number of gray levels in smooth areas of a digital image
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:a
23. What is the name of the effect caused by the use of an insufficient number of gray levels
in smooth areas of a digital image?
a) Dynamic range
b) Ridging
c) Graininess
d) False contouring
Ans:d
24. Using rough rule of thumb, and assuming powers of 2 for convenience, what image size
are about the smallest images that can be expected to be reasonably free of objectionable
sampling checkerboards and false contouring?
a) 512*512pixels and 16 gray levels
b) 256*256pixels and 64 gray levels
c) 64*64pixels and 16 gray levels
d) 32*32pixels and 32 gray levels
Ans:b
25. What does a shift up and right in the curves of isopreference curve simply means? Verify
in terms of N (number of pixels) and k (L=2k, L is the gray level) values.
a) Smaller values for N and k, implies a better picture quality
b) Larger values for N and k, implies low picture quality
c) Larger values for N and k, implies better picture quality
d) Smaller values for N and k, implies low picture quality
Ans:c
26. How does the curves behave to the detail in the image in isopreference curve?
a) Curves tend to become more vertical as the detail in the image decreases
b) Curves tend to become less vertical as the detail in the image increases
c) Curves tend to become less vertical as the detail in the image decreases
d) Curves tend to become more vertical as the detail in the image increases
Ans:d
27. For an image with a large amount of detail, if the value of N (number of pixels) is fixed
then what is the gray level dependency in the perceived quality of this type of image?
a) Totally independent of the number of gray levels used
b) Nearly independent of the number of gray levels used
c) Highly dependent of the number of gray levels used
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:b
Ans:a
29. For a band-limited function, which Theorem says that “if the function is sampled at a rate
equal to or greater than twice its highest frequency, the original function can be recovered
from its samples”?
a) Band-limitation theorem
b) Aliasing frequency theorem
c) Shannon sampling theorem
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c
30. What is the name of the phenomenon that corrupts the sampled image, and how does it
happen?
a) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
b) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
c) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
d) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
Ans:c
Ans:a
33If h(rk) = nk, rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is a histogram in gray
level range [0, L – 1]. Then how can we normalize a histogram?
a) If each value of histogram is added by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk+n
b) If each value of histogram is subtracted by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk-
n
c) If each value of histogram is multiplied by total number of pixels in image, say n,
p(rk)=nk * n
d) If each value of histogram is divided by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk / n
Ans:d
Ans:a
35. A low contrast image will have what kind of histogram when, the histogram, h(rk) = nk,
rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is plotted nk versus rk?
a) The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale
b) The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale
c) The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale
d) The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform
Ans:c
36. A bright image will have what kind of histogram, when the histogram, h(rk) = nk, rk the
kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is plotted nk versus rk?
a) The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale
b) The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale
c) The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale
d) The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform
Ans:b
37. A high contrast image and a dark image will have what kind of histogram respectively,
when the histogram, h(rk) = nk, rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is
plotted nk versus rk?
The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale.
The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale.
The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale.
The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform.
a) I) And II) respectively
b) III) And II) respectively
c) II) And IV) respectively
d) IV) And I) respectively
Ans:d
38. The transformation s = T(r) producing a gray level s for each pixel value r of input image.
Then, if the T(r) is single valued in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
a) It guarantees the existence of inverse transformation
b) It is needed to restrict producing of some inverted gray levels in output
c) It guarantees that the output gray level and the input gray level will be in same range
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:a
39. The transformation s = T(r) producing a gray level s for each pixel value r of input image.
Then, if the T(r) is monotonically increasing in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
a) It guarantees the existence of inverse transformation
b) It is needed to restrict producing of some inverted gray levels in output
c) It guarantees that the output gray level and the input gray level will be in same range
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:b
40. The transformation s = T(r) producing a gray level s for each pixel value r of input image.
Then, if the T(r) is satisfying 0 ≤ T(r) ≤ 1 in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
a) It guarantees the existence of inverse transformation
b) It is needed to restrict producing of some inverted gray levels in output
c) It guarantees that the output gray level and the input gray level will be in same range
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:c
41. What is the full form for PDF, a fundamental descriptor of random variables i.e. gray
values in an image?
a) Pixel distribution function
b) Portable document format
c) Pel deriving function
d) Probability density function
Ans:d
Ans:c
43. For the transformation T(r) = [∫0r pr(w) dw], r is gray value of input image, pr(r) is PDF of
random variable r and w is a dummy variable. If, the PDF are always positive and that the
function under integral gives the area under the function, the transformation is said to be
__________
a) Single valued
b) Monotonically increasing
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c
44. The transformation T (rk) = ∑k(j=0) nj /n, k = 0, 1, 2, …, L-1, where L is max gray value
possible and r-k is the kthgray level, is called _______
a) Histogram linearization
b) Histogram equalization
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c
45. If the histogram of same images, with different contrast, are different, then what is the
relation between the histogram equalized images?
a) They look visually very different from one another
b) They look visually very similar to one another
c) They look visually different from one another just like the input images
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:b
46.In 4-neighbours of a pixel p, how far are each of the neighbours located from p?
a) one pixel apart
b) four pixels apart
c) alternating pixels
d) none of the Mentioned
Ans:a
47. If S is a subset of pixels, pixels p and q are said to be ____________ if there exists a path
between them consisting of pixels entirely in S.
a) continuous
b) ambiguous
c) connected
d) none of the Mentioned
Ans:c
Ans:b
49. Two regions are said to be ___________ if their union forms a connected set.
a) Adjacent
b) Disjoint
c) Closed
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:a
50. If an image contains K disjoint regions, what does the union of all the regions represent?
a) Background
b) Foreground
c) Outer Border
d) Inner Border
Ans:b
51. For a region R, the set of points that are adjacent to the complement of R is called as
________
a) Boundary
b) Border
c) Contour
d) All of the Mentioned
Ans:d
52. The distance between pixels p and q, the pixels have a distance less than or equal to some
value of radius r centred at (x,y) is called :
a) Euclidean distance
b) City-Block distance
c) Chessboard distance
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:a
53. The distance between pixels p and q, the pixels have a distance less than or equal to some
value of radius r, form a diamond centred at (x,y) is called :
a) Euclidean distance
b) Chessboard distance
c) City-Block distance
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:c
54. The distance between pixels p and q, the pixels have a distance less than or equal to some
value of radius r, form a square centred at (x,y) is called :
a) Euclidean distance
b) Chessboard distance
c) City-Block distance
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:b
Ans:a
Ans:c
58. What is the process of moving a filter mask over the image and computing the sum of
products at each location called as?
a) Convolution
b) Correlation
c) Linear spatial filtering
d) Non linear spatial filtering
Ans:b
59. The standard deviation controls ___________ of the bell (2-D Gaussian function of bell
shape).
a) Size
b) Curve
c) Tightness
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:c
Ans:a
Model Question Paper
Subject: - Digital Signal Processing
Branch: - Electronics
Class: - BE
Semester: - VII
1. If x (n) is a discrete-time signal, then the value of x (n) at non integer value of ‘n’ is?
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Not defined
Answer: d) Not defined
1. The discrete time function defined as u(n)=n for n≥0;u(n)=0 for n<0 is an _____________
a) Unit sample signal
b) Unit step signal
c) Unit ramp signal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) Unit ramp signal
3. x(n)*δ(n-k)=?
a) x(n)
b) x(k)
c) x(k)*δ(n-k)
d) x(k)*δ(k)
Answer: c) x(k)*δ(n-k)
6. The function given by the equation x(n)=1, for n=0; x(n)=0, for n≠0 is a _____________
a) Step function
b) Ramp function
c) Triangular function
d) Impulse function
Answer: d) Impulse function
8. Find the Nyquist rate and Nyquist interval for the signal f (t) = [(sin500πt) / πt].
a) 500 Hz, 2 sec
b) 500 Hz, 2 msec
c) 2 Hz, 500 sec
d) 2 Hz, 500 msec
Answer: b) 500 Hz, 2 msec
9. The sampling frequency of a signal is Fs = 2000 samples per second. Find its Nyquist interval.
a) 0.5 sec
b) 5 msec
c) 5 sec
d) 0.5 msec
Answer: d) 0.5 msec
16.The unit step response of an L.T.I. system is the convolution of a step signal and it’s ________
a) Impulse response
b) Ramp response
c) Parabolic response
d) Time response
Answer: a) Impulse response
17. The system described by the input-output equation y(n)=nx(n)+bx3(n) is a __________
a) Static system
b) Dynamic system
c) Identical system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Static system
18.If the output of the system of the system at any ‘n’ depends only the present or the past values
of the inputs then the system is said to be __________
a) Linear
b) Non-Linear
c) Causal
d) Non-causal
Answer: c) Causal
19. If a system do not have a bounded output for bounded input, then the system is said to be
__________
a) Causal
b) Non-causal
c) Stable
d) Non-stable
Answer: d) Non-stable
20.What is the set of all values of z for which X(z) attains a finite value?
a) Radius of convergence
b) Radius of divergence
c) Feasible solution
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Radius of convergence
a) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z4
b) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z5
c) 2 + 4z-1 + 5z-2 + 7z-3 + z-5
d) 2z2 + 4z + 5 +7z-1 + z-3
Answer: d) 2z2 + 4z + 5 +7z-1 + z-3
22. What is the ROC of the signal x(n)=δ(n-k), k>0?
a) z=0
b) z=∞
c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
Answer: c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
23. What is the ROC of the z-transform of the signal x(n)= anu(n)+bnu(-n-1)?
a) |a|<|z|<|b|
b) |a|>|z|>|b|
c) |a|>|z|<|b|
d) |a|<|z|>|b|
Answer: a) |a|<|z|<|b|
26. If X(z) is the z-transform of the signal x(n) then what is the z-transform of anx(n)?
a) X(az)
b) X(az-1)
c) X(a-1z)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) X(a-1z)
27. If x(n) is causal, then limz→∞ X(z)=?
a) x(-1)
b) x(1)
c) x(0)
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: c) x(0)
29. What are the values of z for which the value of X(z)=0?
a) Poles
b) Zeros
c) Solutions
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b) Zeros
30. The z-transform of a signal x(n) whose definition is given by X(z)=∑∞ is known as
_____________
a) Unilateral z-transform
b) Bilateral z-transform
c) Rational z-transform
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Unilateral z-transform
33. If all the poles of H(z) are inside the unit circle, then the system is said to be ____________
a) Only causal
b) Only BIBO stable
c) BIBO stable and causal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) BIBO stable and causal
34. If the ROC of the system function is the exterior of a circle of radius r < ∞, including the point z
= ∞, then the system is said to be ___________
a) Stable
b) Causal
c) Anti causal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b) Causal
35. If all the poles have small magnitudes, then the rate of decay of signal is __________
a) Slow
b) Constant
c) Rapid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) Rapid
36. If one or more poles are located near the unit circle, then the rate of decay of signal is
_________
a) Slow
b) Constant
c) Rapid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Slow
37. A linear time invariant system is said to be BIBO stable if and only if the ROC of the system
function _____________
a) Includes unit circle
b) Excludes unit circle
c) Is an unit circle
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Includes unit circle
38. If x(n) and X(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X(k+N)=?
a) X(-k)
b) -X(k)
c) X(k)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) X(k)
39. If x(n) and X(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then x(n+N)=x(n).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
40. If X1(k) and X2(k) are the N-point DFTs of X1(n) and x2(n) respectively, then what is the N-point
DFT of x(n)=ax1(n)+bx2(n)?
a) X1(ak)+X2(bk)
b) aX1(k)+bX2(k)
c) eakX1(k)+ebkX2(k)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b) aX1(k)+bX2(k)
41. If x(n) is a real sequence and X(k) is its N-point DFT, then which of the following is true?
a) X(N-k)=X(-k)
b) X(N-k)=X*(k)
c) X(-k)=X*(k)
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d) All of the mentioned
42. What is the circular convolution of the sequences X1(n)={2,1,2,1} and x2(n)={1,2,3,4}?
a) {14,14,16,16}
b) {16,16,14,14}
c) {2,3,6,4}
d) {14,16,14,16}
Answer: d) {14,16,14,16}
43. If X(k) is the N-point DFT of a sequence x(n), then what is the DFT of x*(n)?
a) X(N-k)
b) X*(k)
c) X*(N-k)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) X*(N-k)
45. Which of the following is true regarding the number of computations required to compute an
N-point DFT?
a) N2 complex multiplications and N(N-1) complex additions
b) N2 complex additions and N(N-1) complex multiplications
c) N2 complex multiplications and N(N+1) complex additions
d) N2 complex additions and N(N+1) complex multiplications
Answer: a) N2 complex multiplications and N(N-1) complex additions
46. WNk+N/2=?
a) WNk
b) -WNk
c) WN-k
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b) -WNk
50. How many complex multiplications are need to be performed for each FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) (N/2)log2N
51. How many complex additions are required to be performed in linear filtering of a sequence
using FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) 2Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
d) Nlog2N
Answer: b) 2Nlog2N
56. Which of the following parameters are required to calculate the correlation between the
signals x(n) and y(n)?
a) Time delay
b) Attenuation factor
c) Noise signal
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d) All of the mentioned
a) Decimation-in-time FFT
b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Decimation-in-time FFT
a) Decimation-in-time FFT
b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
Model Question Paper
Subject:- Embedded System
Branch:- Electronics
Class:- BE
Semester :- VIII
Q1. Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a sequential program into
finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?
A.System
B. Behaviour
C.RT
D. Logic
Ans:- B
Q.2. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
A.Ability to fit on a single chip B. Low power consumption C. Fast data processing for real-time
operations D. All of the above
Ans:- D
A. Controlled Area Network B. Controlled Application Net C.Controlled Access Net D. Controlled
Advanced Network
Ans:- A
Ans:- B
A.Reduced Instruction Set for computers B. Risk Instruction Set for computers C. Rapid Instruction Set
for computers D. Return Instruction Set for computers
Ans:- A
Ans:- C
A.fetch, decode , execute B. decode, execute, fetch C. execute, decode, fetch D. fetch, execute, decode
Ans:- A
A.long distance B. long and short distance C. short distance D. None of above
Ans:- C
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
D. None of the above
Ans:- C
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
D. None of the above
Ans:- A
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
D. None of the above
Ans:- B
A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
D. Large inductors and transformers
Ans:- D
Ans. C
A.Complex Instruction Set for computers B. Compare Instruction Set for computers C. Computer
Instruction Set for computers D. Connected Instruction Set for computers
Ans:- A
Ans:- C
Ans:- A
Q.25 The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents of Rn is .
A. Pre-indexed mode
B. Pre-indexed with write back mode
C. Post-indexed mode
D. None of the above
Ans:- C
Q.26 The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode, MOVE[Rn]+Rm is
.
A.EA =[Rn]
B.EA = [Rn +Rm]
C.EA = [Rn] +Rm
D.EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans:-A
Q.27 RTOS means
A. Real Time Operating System
B. Real Time oscillator System
Ans:- A
Q.28 What is the instruction set used by ARM7?
A. 16-bit instruction set
B. 32-bit instruction set
C. 64-bit instruction set
D. 8-bit instruction set
Ans:-A
Q.29 What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?
A. 110 MIPS
B.150 MIPS
C.125 MIPS
D.130 MIPS
Ans:- D
Q.30 How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?
A. 3-Stage
B. 4-Stage
C.5-Stage
D. 2-stage
Ans:- C
Q.31 What are the profiles for ARM architecture?
A. A,R
B. A,M
C. A,R,M
D. R,M
Ans:- C
Q.32 What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz and 2 MHz
respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Ans:- B
Q.33 How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
A. Longer the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
B. Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
C. Shorter the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
D. Longer the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
Ans:- B
Ans:- A
Q.36 What does USB stand for?
A. UNIVERSAL SERIAL BUS
B. UNIVERSAL STANDARD BUS
Ans:- A
Q.37 What does WDT stand for?
A. Watchdog Timer
B. Wacth detection timer
Ans:- A
Q.38. Typical conversion speed of ADC is _______________
A. Less than 1µs
B. Less than 100 µs
C. Less than 500 µs
D. Greater than 1000 µs
Ans:- B
Q.39 Which of the following type output is provided by ADC?
A. Serial type
B. Parallel type
C. Both serial and parallel type
D. None of the mentioned
Ans:- C
Q.40 DS12887 is a ____________
A. Timer IC
B. Serial communication IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Ans:- C
Q.41. What are T, D, M, I stands for in ARM7TDMI?
A Timer, Debug, Multiplex, ICE
B Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
C Timer, Debug, Modulation, IS
D Thumb, Debug, Mutual, ICE
Ans:-B
Q.42 ARM7 has an in-built debugging device?
A True
B False
Ans:- A
Q.43 What is the processor used by ARM7?
A 8-bit CISC
B 8-bit RISC
C 32-bit CISC
D 32-bit RISC
Ans:- D
Q.44 LPC 2148 pro development board has _________ on chip memory.
A 500k
B 625k
C 512k
D 425k
Ans:- C
Ans:- A
Q.51 The USB controller provides high speed interface to laptop/PC with a speed of ________
A On-chip USB with 12Mb/s
B On-chip USB with 15Mb/s
C Peripheral USB with 12Mb/s
D Peripheral USB with 15Mb/s
Ans:- A
Q.52. Which is the first company who defined RISC architecture?
A. Intel
B IBM
C Motorola
D MIPS
Ans. B
Ans. C
ANS. A
ANS. A
Q.56 Which bit size determines the maximum value of the counter-derived period?
A counter size
B pre-scalar value
C bit size
D byte size
ANS. A
ANS.D
Q.58 Which parameter/s is/are included in 'Time to market' design metric of an embedded system?
A Time to prototype
B Time to refine
c. Time to produce in bulk
d. All of the above
ANS.D
Q.59 What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?
A Hardwired
B Microprogrammed
C Both a and b
D None of the above
Ans. A
Q.60 How many supervisor registers are associated with the exception mode?
A2
B3
C4
D5
Ans. A
Que Model Question Paper
DEPRATMENT OF E&TC
Embedded
System
B.E.(E&TC)
TEST MCQS
1 Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a
sequential program into finite-state machine and register transfers while
designing an embedded system?
A. System
B. Behaviour
C.RT
D. Logic
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
D. None of the above
4 What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an
embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
D. All of the above
5 ICs are generally made of ………………
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
D. None of the above
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
D. None of the above
A. Resistors
B. Capacitors
C. Transistors and diodes
D. None of the above
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. FET
D. Capacitor
18 The complex programmable logic device contains several PLD blocks and
A. A language compiler
B. AND/OR arrays
C. Global interconnection matrix
D. Field-programmable switches
21
ARM stands for .
A. Advanced Rate Machines
B. Advanced RISC Machines
C. Artificial Running Machines
D. Aviary Running Machines
38 Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel
shifter?
A ADD R2,R5, R4
B. MOVR5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOVr5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOVr5, R4, ROR #2
39 How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?
A. 3-Stage
B. 4-Stage
C.5-Stage
D. 2-stage
40 What are the profiles for ARM architecture?
A. A,R
B. A,M
C. A,R,M
D. R,M
41 What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz
and 2 MHz respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
42 How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
A. Longer the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
B. Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
C. Shorter the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
D. Longer the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
43 What does UART stand for?
A. universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
B. unique asynchronous receiver transmitter
C. universal address receiver transmitter
D. unique address receiver transmitter
48 Which control line/s act/s as an initiator by apprising LCD about the inception of
data transmission by the microcontroller?
A. Enable (EN)
B. Register Select (RS)
C. Read/Write (RW)
D. All of the above
59 How many bytes of the ROM are there for the general purpose applications?
A.9
B. 114
C.128
D. none of the mentioned
60 DS12887 is a
A. Timer IC
B. Serial communication IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Model Question Paper
Class : B.E.
Semester: VIII
==========================================================
Q1:What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an
embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
D. All of the above
Answer:D
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
D. None of the above
Answer: B
A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
D. Large inductors and transformers
Answer: D
A. Resistors
B.Capacitors
C. Transistors and diodes
D. None of the above
Answer:C
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. FET
D. Capacitor
Answer: D
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer:A
Answer:D
Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: C
Q19:In which design all circuitry and all interconnections are designed?
A. full custom design
B. semi-custom design
C. gate array design
D. transistor design
Answer:A
Q20:The complex programmable logic device contains several PLD blocks and __________
A. A language compiler
B. AND/OR arrays
C. Global interconnection matrix
D. Field-programmable switches
Answer:C
Answer: B
Answer: B
Answer:C
Answer: D
Q31:Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel shifter?
A ADD R2,R5, R4
B. MOVR5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOVr5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOVr5, R4, ROR #2
Answer: A
Answer: C
Q36:The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents ofRnis .
A. Pre-indexed mode
B. Pre-indexed with write back mode
C. Post-indexed mode
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: C
Q44:Which control line/s act/s as an initiator by apprising LCD about the inception of data
transmission by the microcontroller?
A. Enable (EN)
B. Register Select (RS)
C. Read/Write (RW)
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Q47:What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz and 2
MHz respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
A. Longer the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
B. Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
C. Shorter the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
D. Longer the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
Answer: B
Q51:How many bytes of the ROM are there for the general purpose applications?
A.9
B. 114
C.128
D. none of the mentioned
Answer: B
Q53:DS12887 is a ____________
A. Timer IC
B. Serial communication IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Answer: C
Q57:A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse
rate of- pps.
A. 4000
B. 8000
C.6000
D.10,000
Answer: C
Q58:How much delay is necessarily provided after the power-on-reset condition in order to
overcome the predicaments related to valid power supply levels assigned to microcontroller and
LCD ?
A. 10 ms
B. 12 ms
C. 15 ms
D. 25 ms
Answer: C
2) In Von Neumann architecture, which among the following handles all the
operations of system that are inside and outside the processor?
1) Input unit
2) Output unit
3) Control unit
4) Memory unit
Ans:3
1 P.T.O.
4) Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
1) 8- bit
2) 16-bit to 32-bit
3) 64-bit
4) All of above
Ans:2
7) What are essential constraint/s r elated to the design metrics of an embedded system?
1)Ability to fit on a single chip
2) Low power consumption
3) Fast data processing
4) All of above
Ans:4
2
8) Bluetooth is the wireless technology for ______
1) LAN
2) PAN (Personal area N/W)
3) MAN
4) WAN
Ans:2
11) Which type of non-privileged mode is entered due to raising of high priority of an
interrupt?
1) User mode
2) Fast interrupt mode (FIQ)
3) Interrupt mode (IRQ)
4) Supervisor mode (SVC)
Ans:2
3 P.T.O.
12) In the process of pipelining which instructions are fetched from the memory by the
ARM processor during the execution of current instruction?
1) Previous
2) Present
3) Next
4) All of above
Ans:3
15) What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC processor?
1) Hardwired
2) Microprogrammed
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:1
4
16) Initialization code is also known as
1) Binary code
2) Boot code
3) Decimal code
4) Mirror code
Ans:2
17) If three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would be the speed
of execution?
1) Higher
2) Moderate
3) Lower
4) Unpredictable
Ans:1
5 P.T.O.
21) In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition
to R-2R ladder and current switches?
1) Voltage amplifier
2) Current amplifier
3) Transconductance amplifier
4) Transresistance amplifier
Ans:2
6
26) ADC and DAC in LPC2148 are of ___ bits
1) 2 bits
2) 11 bits
3) 5bits
4) 10 bits
Ans:4
7 P.T.O.
30) The initial routine is often referred to as
1) Initial program
2) Bootstrap program
3) Final program
4) Initial embedded program
Ans:2
8
34) CISC full form is
1) Communication instruction set computer
2) Complex instruction set computer
3) 1 and 2 both
4) None
Ans:2
9 P.T.O.
38) ALU performs
1) Arithmetic operations
2) Logical operations
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:3
40) BIST is
1) Best in self test
2) Build in safe test
3) Build in self test
4) None
Ans: 3
10
42) Embidded system is
1) Single functioned
2) Double functioned
3) Multiple functioned
4) None
Ans:1
44) LED is
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Multipurpose device
4) All above
Ans:2
45) OS software is in
1) RAM
2) ROM
3) Secondary memory
4) Primary memory
Ans:2
11 P.T.O.
46) What is heart of ES
1) Memory
2) CPU
3) I/P Device
4) O/P Device
Ans:2
12
50) WDT is
1) Watch Delay Timer
2) Watch Dog Timer
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:2
13 P.T.O.
54) RISC stands for
1) Random instruction set computer
2) Reduced instruction set computer
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:2
56) JTAG is
1) Joint test access group
2) Joint terms associative group
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:1
14
58) Registers of ARM are
1) 8 bit
2) 16 bit
3) 64 bit
4) 32 bit
Ans:4
60) FPGA is
1) Field programable gate array
2) Financial programme grow array
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:1
**********
15 P.T.O.
Model Question Paper
Subject:Embedded System
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. 1. Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the
hardware components?
B. memory design
C. peripheral design
D. input design
Ans. A
Q2. Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and
software are considered during the design?
Ans. C
Ans. B
Q4.Which activity is concerned with identifying the task at the final embedded
systems?
A. high-level transformation
B. compilation
C. C. scheduling
D. task-level concurrency management
Ans.D
A. compilation
B. scheduling
C. high-level transformation
D. hardware/software partitioning
Ans. C
Q6. Which design activity helps in the transformation of the floating point
arithmetic to fixed point arithmetic?
A. high-level transformation
B. scheduling
C. compilation
D. D. task-level concurrency management
Ans. A
A. scheduling
B. high-level transformation
C. hardware/software partitioning
D. compilation
Ans. C
Ans. A
Q9. Which of the following is a process of analyzing the set of possible designs?
Ans. A
Ans. B
Q11.. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of
an embedded system?
Ans. D
A. System
B. Behaviour
C. RT
D. Logic
Ans. B
A. Single-functioned Characteristic
B. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
C. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
D. All of the above
Ans. C
A. proc()
B. truct()
C. files
D. #include
Ans. D
A. cc
B. sc
C. simulator
D. compiler
Ans.A
D. User mode
Ans. C
Ans. D
A. linker
B. locater
C. compiler
D. assembler
Ans. A
Q19. Mention that which one of the following gives the final control to the
programmer..?
A. linker
B. compiler
C. locater
D. simulator
Ans. A
Q20. Which assembler option is used to turn off long or short address
optimization?
A. -m
B. -o
C. -n
D. -V
Ans. B
Q21.Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware
components…?
A. peripheral design
B. input design
C. platform-based design
D. memory design
Ans. C
A. Distance
B. Signals
C. Block level
D. Logical volumes
Ans. A
Q23.The following is the design in which both the hardware and software are
considered during the design.
A. software/hardware codesign
B. peripheral design
C. platform-based design
Ans. A
Ans. C
A. hardware/software partitioning
B. high-level transformation
C. scheduling
D. compilation
Ans. B
A. #include
B. file
C. struct()
D. proc()
Ans. A
Q27. Which is the standard C compiler used for the UNIX systems?
A. simulator
B. compiler
C. cc
D. sc
Ans. C
A. -c
B. -p
C. -f
D. -g
Ans. A
Q29. Which compiling option can be used for finding which part of the
program is consuming most of the processing time?
A. -f
B. -g
C. -p
D. -c
Ans. C
Q30. Which compiling option can generate symbolic debug information for
debuggers?
A. -c
B. -p
C. -f
D. -g
Ans. D
A. locater
B. linker
C. assembler
D. compiler
Ans. B
A. Time to prototype
B. Time to refine
C. Time to produce in bulk
D. All of the above
Ans. D
A. Fixed
B. Variable
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q34. What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?
A. Hardwired
B. Microprogrammed
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q35. At an active HIGH reset pin of 8051 microcontroller, for how many
machine cycles should the positive going pulse be provided, if the power is
switched ON?
A. only on
B. two
C. three.
D. four
Ans. B
A. 1 to 8 characters
B. 8 to 80 characters
C. 100 to 150 characters
D. 250 to 400 characters
Ans. B
Q37. Which type of handshake packet indicates that the device is incapable of
accepting data as it is supposed to be busy with some another task?
A. ACK
B. NAK
C. STALL
D. None of the above
Ans. B
A. Single ended
B. Differential
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. B
A. Control Unit
B. Arithmetic Logic Unit
C. Memory Unit
D. Output Unit
Ans. B
Q40. In CPU structure, which register provides the address for fetching of data
or instruction especially by means of processor?
A. Data Register
B. Instruction Register
C. Accumulator
D. Memory Address Register
Ans. D
A. Current (present)
B. Previous
C. Next
D. All of the above
Ans. A
A. Fetch
B. Decode
C. Execute
Ans. B
A. BPL
B. BEQ
C. BMI
D. BAL
Ans. A
Q44. In the branch instructions of ARM, what does the mnemonic BVC imply?
A. Overflow Set
B. Carry Set
C. Carry Clear
D. Overflow Clear
Ans. D
Q45. Which types of an embedded systems involve the coding at a simple level
in an embedded ‘C’, without any necessity of RTOS?
Ans. A
A. 8-bit
B. 16-bit to 32-bit
C. 64-bit
Ans. B
a. GIC-390
b. GIC-500
c. Integrated GIC
d. GIC-400
Ans. C
Q48. For the supplied data, which edge level is necessary for LCD in order to
latch the data?
A. High-to-Low
B. Low-to-High
C. High-to-High
D. Low-to-Low
Ans. A
Q49. In LCD, which hex command performs the function of ‘Display on, cursor
on and blinking’?
A.0x0A
B. 0x0C
C. 0x0E
D. 0x0F
Ans. D
A. Electric field
B. Electrostatic field.
C. Magnetic field
D. All of the above
Ans. C
A. 20 kb/s
B. 40 kb/s
C. 80 kb/s
D. 100 kb/s
Ans. A
Ans. B
Q53. Which category of function code represents the currently used codes by
some companies especially for legacy products?
A. Public
B. User-defined
C. Reserved
D. Exceptions
Ans. C
A. System Timer
B. Refresh Timer
C. Speaker Timer
D. All of the above
Ans. A
A. In Parallel manner
B. In Sequential manner
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q56. Which control register in x86 family is reserved for future use and
generally not adopted for current implementation?
A. CR0
B. CR1
C. CR2
D. CR4
Ans. B
A. User mode
B. Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
C. Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
D. Supervisor Mode (SVC)
Ans. B
Ans. A
Q59. If the three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would
be the speed of execution?
A. Higher
B. Moderate
C. Lower
D. Unpredictable
Ans. A
Q60. In DAC 0808, what is the high speed multiplying input slew rate?
A. 2 mA/μ sec
B. 4 mA/μ sec
C. 8 mA/μ sec
D. 16 mA/μ sec
Ans. C
Model Question Paper
Subject: Embedded System
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of
an embedded system?
Ans.: D
A. Single-functioned Characteristic
B. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
C. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
D. All the mentioned
Ans.: C
A. hard disk
B. processor and memory
C. operating system
D. Processor and input-output unit(s).
Ans.: B
Q4. An embedded system hardware can
Ans.: C
A. for storing the variables during program run, stack and input or output
buffers, for example, for speech or image
B. for storing all the instructions and data
C. for storing the programs from external secondary memory
D. For fetching instructions and data into cache(s).
Ans.: A
Q6.Design metrics are (i) engineering cost (ii) time to market (iii) power
dissipation (iv) flexibility (v) system and user safety (vi) performance (vii)
prototype development time (viii) maintenance of the system
A. all
B. all except v and viii
C. iii and vi
D. all except i and ii
Ans.: A
Ans.: C
Ans.: B
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
A. point-to-point connections
B. point-to-multipoint connection
C. both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
D. multipoint to point connection
Ans.: C
Q12. Which of the following is NOT true about Bluetooth?
Ans.: C
Q13. What is one of the features that make Bluetooth different from other
wireless technologies?
Ans.: A
A. 802.15.1
B. 802.15.2
C. 802.15.3
D. 802.15.4
Ans.: D
A. Fixed
B. Static
C. High
D. Low
Ans.: D
A. One Wire
B. Two Wire
C. Three Wire
D. Four Wire
Ans.: B
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B
Q19. ZigBee devices can transmit data over long distances by passing data
through a mesh network of intermediate devices to reach more distant
ones.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B
Ans.: C
Q 22. The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Ans.: B
A. Caches
B. Heaps
D. Stack
Ans.: C
A. Copied-registers.
B.Banked registers
C. EXtra registers
D. Extential registers
Ans.: B
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
Ans.: C
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans.: A
Ans.: B
A. Throughput
B. Latency
C. Execution
Ans.: A
Q 32.Stack is a form of
A. Last In First Out (LIFO)
B. First In First Out (FIFO)
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 33.An instruction that is used to move data from an ARM Register to a Status
Register (CPSR or SPSR) is called _______.
A. MRC
B. MRS
C. MSR
D. MCS
Ans.: C
Q 35. Which among the following data processing instructions does not use
the barrel shifter?
A. ADD R2, R5, R4
B. MOV R5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOV r5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOV r5, R4, ROR #2
Ans.: A
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Ans.: A
Ans.: A
Q 39.The main advantage of multiple bus organization over the single bus is
________.
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Analog and Digital
D. Neither Analog nor Digital
Ans.: B
Q52. Timer in the board has _________ compare and _________ capture
channels.
A. 3 and 4
B. 4 and 3
C. 4 and 4
D. 3 and 3
Ans.: C
A. 5V
B. 2.5V
C. 3V
D. 4.5V
Ans.: C
Ans.: A
Q55. What is the program counter value when the LPC 2148 turns on?
A. 0x00000
B. 0xFFFFF
C. Where the previous program ends
D. At the location where we write the code
Ans.: A
Q56. The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode,
MOV [Rn]+Rm is _______
A. EA = [Rn]
B. EA = [Rn + Rm]
C. EA = [Rn] + Rm
D. EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans.: A
Ans.: D
Q58. The instructions which are used to load or store multiple operands are
called as __________
A. Banked instructions
B. Lump transfer instructions
C. Block transfer instructions
D. DMA instructions
Ans.: C
Q59. The ability to shift or rotate in the same instruction along with other
operation is performed with the help of _________
A. Switching circuit
B. Barrel shifter circuit
C. Integrated Switching circuit
D. Multiplexer circuit
Ans.: B
Ans.: D
Model Question Paper
Subject:- Light Wave Communication
Branch:- Electronics
Class:- BE
Semester :- VIII
Q1. If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with
high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______
A) External Reflection
B) Internal Reflection
C) Both a and b
D)None of the above
ANSWER: A
Q.2. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability of
__________
A) Light Collection
B) Light Scattering
C) Light Dispersion
D)Light Polarization
ANSWER:A
Q.3. Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes
place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?
A) Return-to-zero (RZ)
B). Non-Return to zero space
C). Return to zero inverted
D)Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: A
Q.4. In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) diffraction
D)dispersion
ANSWER: A
Q.5 In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the
fiber from any damage?
A) Core
B) Cladding
C) Buffer Coating
D)None of the above
ANSWER: C
Q.6. Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
A) Meridional
B) Skew
C) Leaky
D)All of the above
ANSWER: B
Q.7. With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the
propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities & the difference between their
effective refractive indices?
A) Mode field diameter
B) Birefringence
C) Fiber beat length
D)Spot Size
ANSWER: B
Q.8. In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.
A) Increases
B) Stabilizes
C) Decreases
D)None of the above
Ans:- A
Q.10. When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise originate/s due to
statistical nature of production and collection of photoelectrons?
A) Dark Current Noise
B) Quantum Noise
C) Surface Leakage Current noise
D)All of the above
Ans:- B
Q.11. According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency at which the
output current decreases to ________of peak value.
A) one-third
B) one-fourth
C) half
D)one-tenth
Ans:-C
Q.12. The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of_____
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) period
D)wavelength
Ans:- D
Q.13. Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of all
individual light waves together through time and space?
A) Monochromatic
B) Directional
C) Coherent
D)Brightness
Ans:- C
Q.14. In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the
refractive index of cladding.
A) Less than
B) Equal to
C) Greater than
D)None of the above
Ans. A
Q.15. In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their
quantization into discrete levels?
A) Binary
B) Decimal
C). ASCII
D)Excess-3
Ans:- A
Q.16. For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW, what would
be the value of generated photocurrent?
A) 3 μA
B) 6 μA
C) 9 μA
D)12 μA
Ans:- B
Q.17. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical
transmitter function?
A) Coding for error protection
Ans:- D
Ans. B
Ans. D
ANS. A
Q.55 Eight level FSK and binary PSK yields an equivalent sensitivity. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
A) False B)True
ANS. B
Q.56 External modulation for ________ modulation format allows the most sensitive coherent
detection mechanism.
A) FSK B)DSK C)PSK D)ASK
ANS. C
Q.57 _________ heterodyne detection does not require phase matching between the incoming signal
and the local oscillator.
A) Synchronous B)Asynchronous C)Noisy D)Spatial
ANS.B
Q.58 In ___________ detection, the phase of the local oscillator signal is locked to the incoming
signal.
A) Homodyne B)Heterodyne C)Spatial D)Noisy
ANS.A
Ans. A
Ans. C
Model question Paper
Subject: Light Wave Communication
Branch: Electronics
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
6. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption?
a) A loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber
b) A transmission loss for optical fibers
c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light
d) Causes of transfer of optical power
Ans: a
7. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________
a) Radiation
b) Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass
c) Impurities in fiber material
d) Interaction with other components of core
Ans: b
8. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
Ans: a
9. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
Ans: b
10. In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from an LED is ____________
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Lost
d) Unaffected
Ans: c
11. Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector?
a) High quantum efficiency
b) Low bias voltages
c) Small size
d) Low fidelity
Ans: d
12. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors.
a) Avalanche multiplication
b) External photoemission
c) Internal photoemission
d) Dispersion
Ans: c
13. ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber
communication.
a) p-n diodes
b) 4-alloys
c) 3-alloys
d) Silicon photodiodes
Ans: d
14. Silicon has indirect band gap energy of __________________
a) 1.2 eV
b) 2 eV
c) 1.14 eV
d) 1.9 eV
Ans: c
15. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys?
a) Photoconductive detector
b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes
d) Photoemission detectors
Ans: a
16. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?
a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission
Ans: b
17. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
Ans: c
18. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by __________
a) Heavy doping of p-type material
b) Heavy doping of n-type material
c) Light doping of p-type material
d) Heavy doping of both p-type and n-type material
Ans: d
19. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and
the vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
Ans: a
20. The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any
practical receiver must satisfy is known as ___________
a) Minimal energy
b) Quantum limit
c) Point of reversed
d) Binary signaling
Ans: b
21. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the
ability of __________
a) Light Collection
b) Light Scattering
c) Light Dispersion
d) Light Polarization
Ans: a
22. During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible
for an extrinsic absorption?
a)Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b) Impurity atoms in glass material
c) Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d) All of the above
Ans: b
24. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________
a) LED’s and Lasers
b) Phototransistors
c) Xenon lights
d) Incandescent
Ans: a
25. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core.
a) Reflected
b) Refracted
c) Meridional
d) Skew
Ans: c
26. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into
the fiber.
a) Less than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Less than and equal to
Ans: b
27. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree?
a) 0.50
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.27
Ans: d
28. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle
greater than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as
____________
a) Refraction
b) Partial internal reflection
c) Total internal reflection
d) Limiting case of refraction
Ans: c
29. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________
a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
Ans: d
30. The system designer finds greatest interest in the ______________
a) Overall fiber attenuation
b) Fiber dispersion
c) Latitude of the fiber
d) Durability
Ans: a
31. The device used to remove any scattered optical power from the core is __________
a) Mode setup terminator
b) Nodal spectrum
c) Mode stripper
d) Attenuator
Ans: c
32. What is the unit of measurement of the optical attenuation per unit length?
a) dB-km
b) dB/km
c) km/dB
d) V
Ans: b
33. Which technology is used by the backscatter measurement method?
a) Refraction
b) Francis flat recovery
c) Optical time domain reflectometry
d) Optical frequency
Ans: c
34. ________________ measurements checks the impurity level in the manufacturing
process.
a) Material reflectometry
b) Material absorption loss
c) Material attenuation loss
d) Calorimetric loss
Ans: b
35. ___________ removes the light propagating in the cladding.
a) Cladding mode strippers
b) Core strippers
c) Mode enhancers
d) Attenuators
Ans: a
36. The measurement of dispersion allows the _________ of the fiber to be determined.
a) Capacity
b) Frequency
c) Bandwidth
d) Power
Ans: c
37. Intermodal dispersion is nonexistent in ________ fibers.
a) Multimode
b) Single mode
c) Step index- multimode
d) Al-GU
Ans: b
38. In the single mode fibers, the dominant dispersion mechanism is ____________
a) Intermodal dispersion
b) Frequency distribution
c) Material dispersion
d) Intra-modal dispersion
Ans: d
39. The time domain dispersion measurement setup involves _____________ as the photo
detector.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) Oscilloscope
c) Circulator
d) Gyrator
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable?
a) Steel wire
b) Germanium
c) Aramid yarns
d) Glass elements
Ans: b
41. The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth.
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Same as
d) Zero with respect to
Ans: b
42. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described by
the __________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
Ans: c
43. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
Ans: c
44. Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve the higher
switching speeds?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Acousto-optic
c) Dispersive
d) Lead
Ans: b
45. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
Ans: a
46. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction
and preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
Ans: c
47. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
Ans: b
48. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric?
a) Law of reflection
b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law)
c) Millman’s Law
d) Huygen’s Law
Ans: b
49. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________
a) Linear scattering losses
b) Non-linear scattering losses
c) Fiber bends losses
d) Splicing losses
Ans: a
50. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences,
diameter fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is?
a) Rayleigh scattering
b) Mie scattering
c) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
d) Stimulated Raman scattering
Ans: b
51. ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal.
a) Detector
b) Attenuator
c) Laser
d) LED
Ans: a
52. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident
light to be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
Ans: a
53. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an
empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
Ans: d
54. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________
a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
Ans: c
55. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________
a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
Ans: a
56. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on
__________
a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
Ans: b
57. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
Ans: d
58. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.
a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
Ans: d
59. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is confined within __________
a) Transverse direction
b) Lateral direction
c) Outside the strip
d) Both transverse and lateral direction
Ans: d
60. Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be overcome __________
a) Through regrowth of semi-insulating material
b) By using oxide material
c) By using a planar InGaAsP active region
d) By using a AlGaAs active region
Ans: a
Model Question Paper
Subject:- Satellite and Mobile Communication.
Branch:-B.E(E&TC).
Year:-19-20
Sem:-VIII
4. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a. More bandwidth
b.More spectrum space
c. Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d.Economically viable
Answer: c
5. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a. Lesser attenuation
b.Less power requirements
c. More bandwidth
d. Overcrowding
Answer: d
7. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a. Reduce traffic load
b. More gain
c. High speed
d. Error detection
Answer: a
8. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a. Spatial isolation
b. Frequency reuse
c. Multiplexing
d. Modulation
Answer: b
9. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into smaller segments?
a. Spatial isolation
b. Frequency reuse
c. Multiplexing
d. Modulation
Answer: a
10. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
a. the number of its feed horns must be increased
b.the frequency of its transmission must be increased
c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
d. its footprint must be increased
Answer : b
11. India’s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April 1982 from
a. USSR
b.USA
c. UK
d. UP
Answer : b
12. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
a. launch takes place eastward
b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing
c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly
d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea
Answer : d
14. The number of days when Earth’s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88
b. 277
c. 5
d. 10
Answer : a
15. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
16. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..
a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
Answer : a
18. [FSL]=?
a. [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f
b. [FSL] = 20 log r+20 log f
c. [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log (wavelength)
d. none of these
Ans-a
20. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a. Atmospheric loss
b. Path loss
c. Radiation loss
d. RFI
Answer : b
22. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above
Answer : a
23. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth’s surface is called ……………
a. Zone beam
b. Hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
Answer : d
24. A geosynchronous satellite
a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
Answer : d
27. Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or
a.Ellipses.
b.Perfect circles.
c.Squares.
d.Triangles.
Answer-a
31.Apogee?
a. The point farthest from earth
b. The point nearest from earth
c. The point smallest from earth
d. None of the above
Answer-a
32.. Perigee?
a.The point farthest from earth
b. The point longest from earth
c. The point closest approach to earth
d. None of the above
Answer-c
Answer-a
36. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….
a. EHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
Answer : d
b.N0 = BN/PN
46. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body of solar
systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above
Answer : a
47. ………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit data to earth stations.
a. Optical communication
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
Answer : d
48. ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : b
49. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital plane, focused
at the barycenter.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : c
50. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the mean distance
between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : d
52.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a.Dipole antenna
b.Horn antenna
c.Yagi antenna
d.Chicken-mash antenna
ans-b
53. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on
a. geostationary satellites
b. MEO
c.LEO
d. None of these
Ans-a
54.The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
a. 6 GHz
b. 4 GHz
c. 14 GHz
d. 11 GHz
Answer-b
56. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
a.TDMA
b.FDMA
c.Botha.andb.
d.Packet Access
Answer-a
Class: B.E
Semester: VIII
Q2. The networks in which the R, L, C parameters are individually concentrated or lumped at
discrete points in the circuit are called
a) Lumped
b) Distributed
c) Parallel
d) Paired
Answer: a
Q3. The lines having R, L, C distributed along the circuit are called
a) Lumped
b) Distributed
c) Parallel
d) Paired
Answer: b
Q4. Which primary parameter is uniformly distributed along the length of the conductor?
a) G
b) C
c) L
d) R
Answer: d
Q5. The primary parameter that is associated with the magnetic flux linkage is
a) R
b) L
c) C
d) G
Answer: b
Q6. Find the phase constant of a wave travelling with a velocity of 1.2 x 108 and a frequency of
7.5 giga radian/sec
a) 62.5
b) 26.5
c) 56.2
d) 52.6
Answer: a
Q9. The attenuation constant causes phase distortion and the phase constant causes frequency
distortion. State True/False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: b
Q14. The incident wave amplitude is 24 units. Find the reflected wave amplitude if the reflection
coefficient is 0.6.
a) 14.4
b) 16.6
c) 13.3
d) 11.1
Answer: a
Q15. Find the reflection coefficient of the wave passing through two media having intrinsic
impedances of 4 and 9 respectively.
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.38
d) 0.1
Answer: c
Q16. Calculate the transmission coefficient, when the incident and transmitted amplitudes are 10
and 7 respectively.
a) 17
b) 3
c) 10/7
d) 0.7
Answer: d
Q17. The transmission coefficient in a wave travelling through two media having intrinsic
impedances of 5.5 and 1.33 is
a) 0.389
b) 0.55
c) 0.133
d) 0.42
Answer: a
Q18. The transmission coefficient in a wave travelling through two media having permittivities 4
and 1 is
a) 1/4
b) 3/2
c) 3/4
d) 2/3
Answer: d
Q20. The Smith chart is graphical technique used in the scenario of transmission lines. State
true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q24. The circular waveguides use which function in the frequency calculation?
a) Laplace function
b) Schottky function
c) Bessel function
d) Transfer function
Answer: c
Q26. Which of the following two parameter models cannot be used to represent a transmission
line?
a) H parameter model
b) T parameter model
c) ABCD parameter model
d) S parameter model
Answer: a
Q27. For the matched line, the parameters S12 and S21 are
a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) ∞
Answer: b
Q29. The parameters S11 and S22 indicate the transmission coefficients. State true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q30. The waveguides increase the transmission of the electromagnetic waves. State true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q33. The cut off frequency of the dominant mode in a TE wave in the line having a and b as 2.5
cm and 1 cm respectively is
a) 4.5 GHz
b) 5 GHz
c) 5.5 GHz
d) 6 GHz
Answer: d
Q35. The condition which will satisfy the dimensions of the waveguide is
a) a = b
b) a > b
c) a < b
d) ab = 0
Answer: b
Q36. The cut off wavelength of the TE10 mode having a broad wall dimension of 5cm is
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 10
d) 0.01
Answer: a
Q37. The broad wall dimension of a waveguide having a cut off frequency of 7.5 GHz is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Q40. The dimension for a waveguide in dominant mode with a cut off wavelength of 2 units is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: b
Q41. The production of power at higher frequencies is much simpler than production of power at
low frequencies.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q42. Microwave tubes are power sources themselves at higher frequencies and can be used
independently without any other devices.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q43. Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the type of:
a) Electron beam field interaction
b) Amplification method
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Q44. The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Q45. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is parallel to
the electric field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q46. ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a reflector
electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
Q48. In a _________ oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the collector towards
the electron gun.
a) Interaction oscillator
b) Backward wave oscillator
c) Magnetrons
d) None o the mentioned
Answer: b
Q49. Extended interaction oscillator is a ________ beam oscillator that is similar to klystron.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed beam
c) Parallel beam
d) M beam
Answer: a
Q50. Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q51. Silicon and germanium are called ___________ semiconductors.
a) direct gap
b) indirect gap
c) band gap
d) indirect band gap
Answer: b
Q53. In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current generated is constant irrespective of the electric
filed applied to the specimen.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Q54. When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric field,
the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Q55. When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb more energy
from the field and become:
a) hot electrons
b) cold electrons
c) emission electrons
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Q58. When either a voltage or current is applied to the terminals of bulk solid state compound
GaAs, a differential ______ is developed in that bulk device.
a) negative resistance
b) positive resistance
c) negative voltage
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
A Etching
C Lithography
D Erosion
Ans.:B
A 100 to 1000
B 0.1 to 10
C 1 To 100
D 0.01 to 1
Ans.: C
A1
B 10
C 0.1
D 0.01
Ans.: C
Q3.Carbon atoms make ____ type of bond with other carbon atoms.
A covalent
B ionic
C metallic
D hydrogen
Ans.: A
A 100
B 20
C 75
D 60
Ans.: D
Q5.The thermal conductivity of a standard SWNT along its length is ____ watt/(m.K)
A 3500
B 385
C 35000
D 35
Ans.: A
A Agriculture
C Product development
Ans.: D
Q7.What are the advantages of nano-composite packages?
Ans.: D
Q8.The nano particles from iron and palladium are used to produce ________
A Magnets
B Magnetic lens
C Magneto meters
Ans.: D
A Nitrogen
B Oxygen
C Helium
D Neon
Ans.: C
Q10.Nano particles target the rare ____causing cells and remove them from blood.
A Tumour
B Fever
C Infection
D Cold
Ans.: A
Q11.___________is the field in which the nano particles are used with silica coated iron
oxide iron oxide.
A Magnetic applications
B Electronics
C Medical diagnosis
Ans.: C
Q12. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
A Etching
C Lithography
D Erosion
Ans.:B
Q13.Who was the first scientist to describe that substances having nanodimensions possess
altogether different and unique properties?
A Richard Feynmann
B Eric Drexler
C Archimedes
D Michael Faraday
Ans.: A
A 50
B 90
C 2,000
D 5,000
Ans.: B
Q15.The size of a virus is ____ nm.
A2
B 20
C 50
D 2000
Ans.: D
A 1,000
B 100
C 10
D1
Ans.: A
A1
B2
C5
D 10
Ans.: A
Q18. Which of the following is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
B Molecular self-assembly
C Mechanical grinding
Ans.: C
Q19.The compressive strength of a nanotube _____ its tensile strength.
A is less than
B is greater than
C is equal to
Ans.: B
A less than
B greater than
C equal to
Ans.: D
Q21.The largest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____
carbon atoms.
A 60
B 75
C 180
D 540
Ans.: C
A It is a general-purpose technology.
Ans.: C
Q23.The smallest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____
carbon atoms.
A 75
B 60
C 20
D 15
Ans.: A
Q24. Carbon nanotubes are poor transmitters of electromagnetic radiations due to their
____________
A High conductivity
C High porosity
D Chemical Stability
Ans.: A
Q25. Which of the following is the principal factor which causes the properties of
nanomaterials to differ significantly from other materials?
A Size distribution
Ans.: D
Ans.: D
A 10
B 100
C 1000
D 1/100
Ans.: B
A 12 K
B 12°C
C 100 K
D 100°
Ans.: D
Q30.At room temperature, the thermal conductivity of a copper wire is ____ watt/(m.K).
A 3500
B 350
C 385
D 38.5
Ans.: B
Q31.In radial direction, the thermal conductivity of a nanotube is ____ watt/(m.K).
A 3500
B 385
C 350
D0
Ans.: B
A 100
B 1000
C 2200
D 3100
Ans.: C
A 35
B 350
C 385
D 3500
Ans.: B
A5
B 10
C 50
D 100
Ans.: A
Q35.The wavelength of visible light is ____ nm.
A 40-70
B 400-700
C 4000-7000
D 40000-70000
Ans.: D
Q36.The capacity of a normal human eye to see the smallest object is ____ μm.
A 10000
B 1000
C 100
D 10
Ans.: C
A1
B 1.3
C 2.5
D 10
Ans.: C
A 100
B 1000
C 2000
D 3100
Ans.: B
Q39.Coating the nano crystals with the ceramics is carried that leads to ________
A Corrosion
B Corrosion resistant
D Soft
Ans.: B
Q40.Nano particles of which atom are used to control collateral damage due to explosion?
A Copper
B Aluminium
C Carbon
D Lead
Ans.: B
A SumioTijima
B Richard Smalley
C Eric Drexler
D Richard Feynmann
Ans.: A
A Nano particles
B Nano powder
D Nano gel
Ans.: D
Q43.By nano scale distribution of the _______ in matrix improves the life and performance.
A Carbide
B Tungsten
C Hydrides
D Nitrites
Ans.: B
A 0.1nm
B 0.2nm
C 0.3nm
D 0.4nm
Ans.:
A Bucky tubes
B Bulky tubes
C Bulk tubes
D Buck balls
Ans.: A
A 1992
B 1991
C 1990
D 1993
Ans.: B
Q47.In how many methods the CNT can be prepared?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: D
A 100Ma
B 200mA
300mA
D 400mA
Ans.: A
A 30%
B 70%
C 80%
D 90%
Ans.: B
A Kelvin
B Richard Smalley
D Neilsbohr
Ans.: B
Q51.A water cooled surface is used in the process to collect __________
A Nano particles
B Nano tubes
C Nano spheres
D Nano sheets
Ans.: B
A CO
B NI
C CO and NI
D TIO
Ans.: C
A 2001
B 2002
C 2006
D 2007
Ans.: D
A 200C
B 300C
C 400C
D 700C
Ans.: D
Q55.Multi walled CNT are ________ concentric nano tubes.
A Single
B Double
C Triple
D Multiple
Ans.: D
A Slides
B Overlaps
C Under laps
D Collides
Ans.: C
Q57.CNT is ___________
A Conductor
B Insulator
C Semi conductor
D Impure metal
Ans.: C
A Paper batteries
B Solar cells
C Space elevators
D Stab proof
Ans.: B
Q59. The synthesized magnetic nano particles from _________ have been found to self-
arrange automatically.
A Zin
B Copper
C Iron
D Zirconium
Ans.: C
A Production of energy
B Active medium
C Catalyst
D Storage
Ans.: D
Model Question Paper
Subject:- Power Electronics
Branch:- Electronics
Class:- BE
Semester :- VII
Q1 A tangent drawn from the Y-axis to the Pavg on the gate characteristics gives the value of the
a) maximum value of gate-source resistance
b) minimum value of gate-source resistance
c) maximum value of gate-source power
d) minimum value of gate-source power
ANSWER: a
Q.2 Higher the magnitude of the gate pulse
a) lesser is the time required to inject the charges
b) greater is the time required to inject the charges
c) greater is the value of anode current
d) lesser is the value of anode current
ANSWER:a
Q.3. The two transistor model of the SCR can obtained by
a) bisecting the SCR vertically
b) bisecting the SCR horizontally
c) bisecting the SCRs top two & bottom two layers
d) bisecting the SCRs middle two layers
ANSWER: d
ANSWER: b
Q.5 For a single phase thyristor circuit with R load & firing angle α, the conduction angle can be given by
a) π+α
b) 2π+α
c) π-α
d) α
ANSWER: C
Ans:- b
a)2
b)4
c)6
d)8
Ans:- b
Q.10. In a single-phase half-wave circuit with RL load and a freewheeling diode, the load voltage during
the freewheeling period will be
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) negative
Ans:- a
Ans:- D
Ans:- b
Q.14. In a SCR,
a) Gate current is directly proportional to forward breakover voltage
b) As gate current is raised, forward breakover voltage reduces
c) Gate current has to be kept on continuously for conduction
d) Forward breakover voltage is low in the forward blocking state.
Ans. b
Ans:- a
Q.21 The latching current of an SCR is 12 mA. Its holding current will be
a)4 mA
b)12 mA
c)50 mA
d )8 mA
Ans.- a
Q.22 A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated at a firing
angle a and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is
a)α/ π
b)α
c)π + α
d)π − α
Ans:- a
a)One directional
b)Two directional
c)Three directional
d)Four Directional
Ans:- a
Q.25 In a 3-φ semi converter for firing angle less than or equal to 60°, wheeling diode conducts for
a)Zero degree
b)30°
c)45°
d)75°
Ans:- a
Q.26 The effective turning off SCR after the anode current has reached zero value.
a)The charge is removed by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
b)Chargers are injected by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
c)Chargers are injected by applying the gate signal
d)None of these
Ans:-a
Q.27 In the forward blocking mode, the middle junction (J2) has the characteristics of that of a:
a)Inductor
b)Transistor
c)Capacitor
d)None of these
Ans:- c
Q.28 The forward dv/dt rating of an SCR:-
a)Decrease with the decrease in the RMS value if forward anode-cathode voltage
b)Decrease with the increase in the junction temperature
c)Increase with an increase in the junction temperature
d)Increase with the decrease in the RMS value of forward anode-cathode voltage
Ans:-C
Q.29 What is the most suitable method to turn on the SCR device among the following?
a)Gate Triggering Method
b)Forward Voltage Triggering Method
c)Temperature Triggering Method
d)dv/dt triggering Method
Ans:-a
Q.30 What is the total anode current of SCR in the equivalent circuit from the two transistors (T1 & T2)
analogy of SCR?
a)The sum of both base current
b)The sum of both collector current
c)The sum of the base current of T2 & collector current of T1
d)The sum of the base current of T1 & collector current of T2
Ans:-B
Q.31 The value of anode current required to maintain the conduction of an SCR even though the gate
signal is removed is called as the:-
a)Latching current
b)Holding current
c)Switching current
d)All of these
Ans:- A
Q.32 During forward blocking state, the SCR has
a)Low current, medium voltage
b)Low current, large voltage
c)Medium current, large voltage
d)Large current, low voltage
Ans:- b
Q.33 A single phase full bridge inverter is fed from a 48 V battery and is delivering power to a pure
resistance load what is the value of fundaments output voltage?
a)15.80
b)22.26
c)8.36
d)43.22
Ans:- d
Ans:- b
Q.51 In case of sinusoidal pulse width modulation with MI < 1, the order of the dominate harmonic can
be raised by
a) increasing the number of pulses
b) reducing the number of pulses
c) lowering the input voltage frequency
d) raising the input voltage frequency
Ans:- a
Q.52 In case of sinusoidal pulse width modulation with MI < 1, if the number of pulses per half cycle (N)
= 6, then
a) harmonics of order 7 and 9 become significant
b) harmonics of order 7 and 9 are eliminated
c) harmonics of order 11 and 13 become significant
d) harmonics of order 11 and 13 are eliminated
Ans. c
Q.53 In an inverter, if the fundamental output frequency is 45 Hz, then the frequency of the second
lowest order harmonic will be
a) 45 Hz
b) 135 Hz
c) 225 Hz
d) 9 Hz
Ans. c
Q.54 In an inverter, if the fundamental output frequency is 45 Hz, then the frequency of the lowest order
harmonic will be
a) 45 Hz
b) 225 Hz
c) 15 Hz
d) 135 Hz
ANS. d
Q.55 A single-phase bridge inverter has a square wave output voltage waveform, with odd harmonics
present. What is the percentage of the fifth harmonic component to the fundamental component?
a) 50 %
b) 25 %
c) 20 %
d) 5 %
ANS. c
ANS. c
Q.57 Output voltage of a single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a fixed dc source is varied by
a) varying the switching frequency
b) pulse-width modulation
c) pulse amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned
ANS.b
Q.58 A single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a 230 V dc is connected to the load R = 10 Ω and L = 0.03
H. Determine the fundamental component of rms output current. Fundamental output frequency of the
square wave output = 50 Hz.
a) 30 A
b) 15 A
c) 2.3 A
d) 20.7 A
ANS.b
Q.59 A single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a 230 V dc is connected to the load R = 10 Ω and L = 0.03
H. The output is a quasi-square wave with an on period of 0.5 of a cycle. Determine the fundamental
component of rms output voltage.
a) 207.10 V
b) 146.42 V
c) 265.4 V
d) 129 V
Ans. b
Q.60 In case of multiple pulse width modulation method, if the amplitudes of the reference wave and the
carrier wave are made equal then, the pulse width =
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 100 °
d) none of the mentioned
Ans. b
Model Question Paper
Subject: - Process Control System
Branch: - Electronics
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII
1. The feedback control system:
Answer: a
Answer: d
3. The original boiler drum level application of feedforward control, developed in 1925:
Answer: a
Answer: b
5. The most dramatic application of feedforward techniques has occurred in their application to:
a. Heat exchangers
b. Level processes
c. Flow processes
d. Distillation columns
Answer: d
6. A valve positioner :
Answer: b
7. Assume that a control valve regulates stream flow to a process and that high temperature makes the reaction
hazardous. The usual pneumatically operated control valve utilizes the following action for fail-safe operation
a. Air to open
b. Air to close
c. 3 psi (20 kpa) to fully open
d. 15 psi (100 kpa) to fully close
Answer: a
a. Characterize flow
b. Oppose the diaphragm so as to position the valve according to signal pressure
c. Close the valve if air failure occurs
d. Open the valve if air failure occurs
Answer: b
9. A diaphragm actuator has a diaphragm area of 50 square inches and is adjusted to stroke a valve when a 3 to 15 psi
(20 to 100 k Pa) Signal is applied. If the signal is 15 psi (100 k pa) the force on the valve stem will be :
a. 750 pounds
b. 750 pounds less than the opposing spring force
c. Dependent on hysteresis
d. None of the above
Answer:b
10. A high- pressure flow process requires a valve with tight packing. This would suggest that :
Answer: b
11. An electronic controller creates a 4 to 20mA dc signal that must actuate a steam valve for temperature control.
The best and most economical choice would be to :
Answer:c
12. A pressure control process using proportional plus integral control has a time constant of 10 seconds. The best
choice of actuator would be :
a. An electric motor
b. A pneumatic diaphragm
c. A piston and cylinder
d. A solenoid electrical
Answer: b
13. A diaphragm actuator has a diaphragm area of 115 square inches. A valve positioner is attached to the actuator
and fed with 22 psi air supply. If after 9 psi signal is received from the controller the signal changes to 10 psi and the
valve fails to move. What is the force applied to the valve stem?
a. 2.530 pounds
b. 1.495 pounds
c. 1.035 pounds
d. None of the above
Answer: a
Answer: b
15. A single seated globe valve containing a plug 1 1/2 inches in diameter is used in a line pressurized to 500 psi. What
actuator force is required for tight Shutoff.?
a. 884 pounds
b. 2,000 pounds
c. Depends upon direction of flow through the valved
d None of the above
Answer: c
16. With a proportional-only controller, if measurement rules set point, the output will be:
a. 0
b. 100 percent
c. 50 percent
d. Impossible to define
Answer: c
17. If in a proportional-plus-integral controller measurements away from the set point for a long period, the
controller’s output will be:
a. 0
b. Unknown
c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
Answer: a
a. Error
b. Measurement
c. Setpoint
d. Integral circuit
Answer: b
Answer: c
20. Automatic controllers operate on the difference between set point and measurement, which is called:
a. Offset
b. Bias
c. Error
d. Feedback
Answer: c
Answer: b
a. Reciprocally related
b. Two different control modes
c. Adjusted independently 0f one another
d. Controller functions calibrated in time units
Answer: a
23. When we adjust integral time in a controller:
Answer: a
24. A proportional controller will have an offset difference between set point and control point:
a. At all times
b. Equal to the proportional band setting
c. That depends on process load
d. That will eventually vanish
Answer: c
25. If it were possible for a proportional controller to have a true 0 percent proportional band, the controller gain
would have to be:
a. Unity
b. 100
c. Infinite
Answer: c
26. If the proportional band of the controller is adjusted to the minimum possible value, the control action is likely to
be:
a. On/off
b. With maximum otIset
c. Excellent
d. Inoperative
Answer: a
Answer: a
28. All control systems that fit into the usual pattern are:
a. Open-Loop
b. Nonself-regulating
c. Closed-loop
d. On/off
Answer: c
a. Reduce manpower
b. Reduce costs
c. Make the process operate more uniformly
d. Decrease maintenance
Answer: c
Answer: a
31. Two flows are to be ratio controlled, the first is measured with an orifice and the second with a shedding vortex
flowmeter. The signals must be:
a. Both made linear by using a square root extractor on the orifice signal
b. Used as if a 1 percent error can be tolerated
c. Both made linear by using a square root extractor on the shedding vortex transmitter
d. Flow-calibrated
Answer: a
32. A cascade control system will increase the natural frequency of the control loop along with having the following
inftuence on the magnitudes of the associated time constants
a. Reduce them
b. Increase them
c. Not affect them
d. Have an unpredictable effect
Answer: a
a. A valve actuator
b. An elaborate final control element
c. A means of slowing down regulation of the manipulated variable
d. A sophisticated noise filter
Answer: b
34. If two square root flow signals are to be ratio-controlled and the ratio factor adjusted, the maximum practical
factor is:
a. 0.6 to 1.7
b. 0.3 to 3.0
c. 1.0 to 10
d. 1.0 to 1.0
Answer: b
35. A very common secondary loop that may be used with almost any process except flow is:
a. Flow
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. Valve position
Answer: a
a. Place the primary controller on manual and adjust the secondary controller
b. Place the secondary controller on manual and adjust the primary controller
c. Place both controllers on automatic and go through the conventional adjustment routine
d. Bypass the secondary controller and adjust the primary controller by the conventional method
Answer: a
37. If the time constant of the secondary loop is greater than the time constant of the primary loop, cascade control
will:
Answer: d
a. One
b. Two
c. One for each output
d. As many as required
Answer: a
39. The duplex controller provides the following number of control valve signals:
a. One
b. Two
c. One for each output
d. As many as required
Answer: b
40. We have a closed-loop control system which is cycling. We should:
Answer: c
41. A proportional controller is being used to control a process and the offset between set point and control point
must be held to a minimum. This would dictate that the proportional band
a. Be as narrow as possible
b. Be as wide as possible
c. Be of moderate value
d. Does not relate to the problem
Answer: a
Answer: b
A. Air
B. Liquid
C. Hydrogen
D. Oil
Answer: A. Air
44. In pneumatic instrumentation systems the pressure of compressed air used is around
A. 1 bar
B. 1.4 bar
C. 2.5 bar
D. 5.5 bar
A. R.L. circuit
B. R.C. circuit
C. Rectifier
D. Resonant circuit
B. Volume of air
C. Restriction to flow
A. Potentiometer
B. Electro-pneumatic converter
C. Servomotor
Answer: A. Potentiometer
48. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following?
A. Underdamping
B. Overdamping
D. Low-level oscillations
A. Error detector
C. Sensor
D. Oscillator
Answer: D. Oscillator
B. Amplifire
C. Comparator
D. Sensor
A. Sensor
B. Clipper
C. Comparator
D. Amplifier
Answer: C. Comparator
A. On-off
B. Zero-term
C. One-term
D. Two-term
Answer: A. On-off
53. Which fluid is used in hydraulic power systems?
a. water
b. oil
c. non-compressible fluid
d. all of the above
Ans- D
1. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic oil under pressure into torque and angular displacement
2. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic oil under pressure into force and linear displacement
3. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
4. hydraulic motor converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
Ans- b
55. 1. Valves are defined as devices to control, or regulate the commencement and ——- of air
Ans- Direction
56. On resetting valves, for example those equipped with a return spring, the —– position is the position
assumed by the moving parts of the valve when it is connected but not actuated.
Ans- Neutral
57. Direct control of a valve means that valve is caused to operate directly by actuating element without any —
——–elements being operated.
Ans- Intermediate
Answer: a
Explanation: Stepper motors are the motors in which the motion generated is in the form of steps with respect to the
time and works on the same principle as electric actuators but with stepped motion.
Answer: b
60.The reciprocal of proportional band is called:
(A) Gain
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Reset
Answer : A
Model question Paper
Branch: Electronics
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: b
6. In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
7. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
8. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system
will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
11. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
12. A car is moving at a constant speed , which of the following is the feedback element for the
driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
13. The initial response when tune output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
Ans: a
15. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: b
18. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
19. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
20.The steady state accuracy increases by.
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
27. Zero initial condition for a system means
(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
Ans: c
29. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes
and load disturbances depend?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
Ans: d
31. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be
avoided?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
32. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
33. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
34. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
Ans: c
36. Which of the following is the not the ideal input to a controller?
(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
41. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
43. Which Signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal?
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
47. By which of the following the system response can be tested better?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: b
53. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
54. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: c
Model Question Paper
Subject : Antenna and Wave Propagation (AWP)
Branch : E&TC
Class : BE
Semester : VIII
Total Marks : 60
A III and IV
B II and III
C I and III
D I and II
Ans.: D
C Both a and b
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Aλ
B λ/4
C λ/8
D λ/2
Ans.: A
A Along X-axis
B Along Y-axis
C Along Z-axis
D None of these
Ans.: C
A2
B3
C4
D5
Ans.: C
Q6. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many
shape patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
A2
B4
C8
D 16
Ans.: C
A 0.9732 m2
B 0.0149 m2
C 0.5521 m2
D 0.0475 m2
Ans.: B
Q8. Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of
two legs of one wire?
A Apex angle
B Tilt angle
C Both A and B
D None of these
Ans.: B
C Both A and B
D None of these
Ans.: C
A 6.99 dB
B 6.53 dB
C 8.93 dB
D 7.55 dB
Ans.: B
Q11. In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to
the transmission line is called as?
A Driven element
B Parasitic elements
C Extra elements
D Array elements
Ans.: B
Q12. Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-
wave dipole-driven element is called _______
A Array element
B Director element
C Reflector element
D Driven element
Ans.: C
Q13. The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time
varying electromagnetic
A Current density
D Power density
Ans.: A
A Very Low
B Low
C Medium
D High
Ans.: D
Ans.: A
Q16. Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire
antenna?
A For a charge oscillating in time motion
D None
Ans.: C
A Minor lobe
B Back lobe
C Side lobe
D None
Ans.: B
Q18. At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
A 0° & 180°
Ans.: A
Q19. Which among the following defines distance between two points on
each side of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to zero?
A Current
B Voltage
C Power
D Frequency
Ans.: A
Q21. In an electrically small loop, the overall length of the loop is ______
one-tenth of a wavelength.
A Less than
B Equal to
C Greater than
Ans.: A
Q22. On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a small loop depend?
A Area
B Shape
D None
Ans.: C
Q23. From the radiation point of view, small loops are _________radiators
A Poor
B Good
C Better
D Excellent
Ans.: A
A 0°
B 90°
C 180°
D 270°
Ans.: B
A Linear
B Planar
C Conformal
D All
Ans.: C
A Spherical
B Elliptical
C Hyperbolic
D None
Ans.: A
Q27. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar
_______excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
A Phase
B Voltage
C Frequency
D Power
Ans.: A
A Ground wave
B Ionospheric
C Tropospheric
D All
Ans.:
A Refraction
B Diffraction
C Reflection or scattering
D All
Ans.: C
Q30. Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna?
A Rectilinear antenna
B Broadside antenna
C End fire antenna
Ans.: A
A Directivity
B Signal power
C Degradation
D Signal Strength
Ans.: C
Q32. Which among the following defines the angular distance between two
points on each side of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to
zero?
Ans.: B
Q33. From the radiation point of view, small loops are radiators
A Poor
B Better
C Excellent
D None
Ans.: A
Q34. _________ antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna
elements with a feed network
A Aperture antennas
B Array antennas
C Printed antennas
D Wire antennas
Ans.: B
Q35. If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a
straight line. Then It is __________array
A Linear
B Non-Linear
Ans.: A
Q36. For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
A VHF
B UHF
C SHF
Ans.: D
Q37. In an electrical circuit, which nature of impedance causes the current &
voltages inphase
A Resistive
B Reactive
C Capacitive
D Inductive
Ans.: A
Q38. Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring
direct path through air from transmitting to receiving antennas?
A Surface Wave
B Space Wave
C Both
D None
Ans.: B
A Reflection or Scateering
B Refraction
C Defraction
Ans.: A
A High efficiency
Ans.: A
B Electron gun
C Photon amplifier
D Microwave tube
Ans.: A
Q42. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points
is called
C Beam width
D None
Ans.: A
Q43. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
A Beam area
B Effective area
C Aperture area
D Beam efficiency
Ans.: A
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains unchanged
B Directivity
C Beam efficiency
D Beam area
Ans.: B
A Effective height
B Gain
C Directivity
D Loss
Ans.: A
A 4πAe/λ2
B 2πAe/λ2
C πAe/λ2
Ans.: A
A λ2/ ΩA
B ΩA / λ2
C λ2× ΩA
Ans.: A
A 4π/ ΩA
B 2π/ ΩA
C π/ ΩA
Ans.: A
Q50. If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:
A Two
B Four
C Three
D One
Ans.: A
C Depends on dimensions
D None
Ans.: A
C Parasitic Element
Ans.: D
A Broadside Antenna
C Parasitic
D Collnear
Ans.: C
A Uniform, Uniform
B Uniform, Non-Uniform
C Non-Uniform,Uniform
D Non-Uniform,Non-Uniform
Ans.: B
Q55. Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform
amplitude and uniform phase of excitation
A Broadside Array
B Collinear
C End-Fire Array
Q56. Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform
amplitude and phase of excitation varies progressively along axis array
A Broadside Array
B Collinear
C End-Fire Array
D Parasitic
Ans.: C
B Half of wavelength
C equal to wavelength
D greater of wavelength
Ans.: A
Q58. For half dipole antenna the 3dB beamwidth is________ degrees
A 90
B 180
C 87
D 78
Ans.: D
A Broadside Array
B Dipole
C Monopole
D End-fire Array
Ans.: C
A Increasing perimeter
Ans.:D
Model Question Paper
Subject: Antenna wave propagation (AWP)
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
A. Normalb
B. Axial
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Ans. C
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Resistive
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q4. In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to ______
A. λ/2
B. λ
C. λ/10
D. λ/50
Ans. B
Ans. A
Ans. C
Q7. A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation
resistance 2 Ω. What would be the power radiated by an antenna?
A. 90 kW
B. 135 kW
C. 180 kW
D. 200 kW
Ans. C
Q8. The concept of magnetic vector potential finds its major application in
deriving expression of magnetic field intensity especially for ______
A. Real fields
B. Imaginary fields
C. Complex fields
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q9. Which among the below mentioned magnetic quantities are dependent on
medium?
A. B
B. H
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. Equality of impedances
B. Equality of directional patterns
C. Equality of effective lengths
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Q12. If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its
radiation resistance?
A. 22.22 ohm
B. 27.77 ohm
C. 33.33 ohm
D. 39.77 ohm
Ans. B
A. Spherical
B. Plane
C. Triangular
D. Square
Ans. A
A. Radiator
B. Converter
C. Sensor
D. Inverter
Ans. C
Q15. In lens antenna, what kind of wave energy is transformed into plane
waves?
A. Convergent
B. Divergent
C. Contingent
D. Congruent
Ans. B
A. MUF
B. LUF
C. OWF
D. UHF
Ans. A
A. 4 MHz
B. 9 MHz
C. 18 MHz
D. 25 MHz
Ans. C
Q18. Which layer has the atmospheric conditions exactly opposite to that of
standard atmosphere?
A. Depression layer
B. Regression layer
C. Inversion layer
D. Invasion layer
Ans. C
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Diagonal
D. Opposite
Ans.b
Q20.For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the
__________
A. Attenuation
B. Phase velocity
C. Propagation constan
D. Tilt angle
Ans. A
A. 17%
B. 27%
C. 37%
D. 57%
Ans. C
Q22. What is the possible range of height for the occurrence of sporadic E-
region with respect to normal E-region?
A. 20 km – 50 km
B. 45 km – 85 km
C. 90 km – 130 km
D. 140 km – 200 km
Ans. C
Q23. Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Radiated
D. Diffracted
Ans. C
A. Sinusoidal
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Triangular
Ans. A
A. Phase
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Wave equation
Ans. A
A. SONAR
B. Subsurface communication
C. Radio navigation
D. Facsimile
Ans. D
Q27. What is the wavelength of Super high frequency (SHF) especially used in
Radar & satellite communication?
A. 1 m – 10 m
B. 1 cm – 10 cm
C. 10 cm – 1 m
D. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
Ans.B
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. Phase
Ans. A
Q29. If an observation point is closely located to the source, then the field is
termed as ________
A. Induced
B. Radiated
C. Reflected
D. Far-field
Ans. A
Q30. At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
A. 0° & 180°
Ans. A
Q31. Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire
antenna?
A. For a charge with no motion
B. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite wire
Ans. C
Q32. The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time
varying electromagnetic field?
Ans. B
A. Plane
B. Elliptical
C. Circular
Ans. C
C. Both a and b
Ans. C
Ans. C
Q36. Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of
two legs of one wire?
A. Apex angle
B. Tilt angle
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q37. If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the
operating region of an array?
Ans. C
Q38. What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given
side lobe level (SLL)?
A. Widest
B. Narrowest
C. Both a and b
Q39. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape
patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Ans. C
A. 6.53 dB
B. 7.99 dB
C. 8.55 dB
D. 9.02 dB
Ans. A
A. Along x-axis
B. Along y-axis
C. Along z-axis
D. Along xy plane
Ans. C
Q42. For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must
be used by the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that frequency?
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Resistor
D. Gyrator
Ans. D
Q43. What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
A. Spherical
B. Rectangular
C. Triangular
D. Square
Ans. C
Q44. Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where the two ends are at equal
potentials with respect to _____point
A. Initial
B. Eventual
C. Mid
Ans. C
Q45. The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its
____
A. Source
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q46. Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________
A. Point angle
B. Linear angle
C. Plane angle
D. Solid angle
Ans. D
B. Fresnel region
C. Fraunhofer region
Ans. C
Ans. B
A. Aperture
B. Microstrip
C. Array
D. . Lens
Ans. B
A. Linear
B. Loop
C. Helical
Ans. A
A. Ions
B. Motion of electrons
C. Neutral molecules
Ans. B
A. . Only Reflection
B. Only Refraction
C. Partial reflection & refraction
D. None of the above
Ams. C
Q53. According to Snell's law in optics, if a ray travels from dense media to
rarer media, what would be its direction w.r.t the normal?
A. Towards
B. Away
C. Across
D. Beside
Ans. B
Ans.C
Q55. Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring
direct path through air from transmitting to receiving antennas?
A. Surface wave
B. Space wave
C. Both a & b
Ans. B
A. Reactive
B. Resistive
C. Capacitive
D. Inductive
Ans. B
Q57. Which equations are regarded as wave equations in frequency domain
for lossless media?
A. Maxwell's
B. Lorentz
C. Helmholtz
D. Poisson's
Ans. C
Q58. Which among the following exhibits perpendicular nature in TEM wave?
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Direction of propagation
Ans. D
Q59. If the tower antenna is not grounded, which method of excitation is/are
applicable for it?
A. Series
B. Shunt
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q60. For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Model Question Paper
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques(RMT)
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
A. Micro wave
B. UVC.
C. IRD.
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q2. Which of the following bands that comes under Microwave Band
A. CB.
BDC.
C. ED.
Ans. D
A. Highly directive
Ans. A
Q4. Reflex klystron is a ______
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Attenuator
D. Filter
Ans. B
A. AM
B. FM
C. PM
D. VM
Ans. D
Q6. In multicavity klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher &
catcher cavities to achieve
A. Higher Gain
B. Higher Efficiency
C. Higher Frequency
D. Higher Bandwidth
Ans. A
A. Drift space
B. Free space
C. Running space
D. Normal space
Ans. A
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Phase shifter
Ans. B
A. Oscillator
B. Tuned Amplifier
Ans. C
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Ans. D
Q13. _______ is the best medium for handling the large microwave power
A. Coaxial line
C. Strip line
Ans. B
Q14. Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic
field & radial electric field
A. Reflex Klystron
B. Coaxial Magnetron
Ans. D
C. Are bulkier
Ans. D
A. Average power
B. Peak power
C. Instantaneous power
D. None of these
Ans. A
A. Source
B. Detector
Ans. D
Ans. C
Q19. Which of the following is the biggest advantage of the TRAPATT diode
over IMPATT diode
A. Low Noise
B. High efficiency
Ans.B
Q20. For which of the following reason, the Varactor diode is not useful at
microwave frequencies
C. As an Oscillator
D. As a parametric amplifier
Ans. C
A.Helica
B. Pyramidal
C. Horn
D. Dipole
Ans. A
Q22. Which of the following is the semiconductor diode which can be used in
switching circuits at microwave range
A. PIN diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Varactor diode
D. Gunn diode
Ans. A
A. Feed pattern
B. Antenna aperture
C. Surface losses
Ans. B
A. Partition noise
B. Shot noise
C. Johnson noise
D. Shannon noise
Ams. B
Q25. Which of the following is the one of the reason why vacuum tubes
eventually fail at microwave frequencies
Ans. A
Ans. C
B. Magnetron
C. Reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
Ans. A
Ans. B
Ans. D
Q31. Which of the following is the major advantage of Travelling wave tube
over Klystron
A. Higher gain
B. Higher frequency
C. Higher Output
D. Higher bandwidth
Ans. D
A. 10 km
B. 50 km
C. 150 km
D. 250 km
Ans. B
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Small
D. Very Small
Ans. D
A. Shot noise
B. Flicker noise
C. Thermal noise
Ans. D
A. Faraday effect
B. Ducting
C. Wave tilt
D. Troposcatter
Ans. B
Ams. A
Q37. The key difference between circuit theory and transmission line theory is:
A. circuit elements
B. voltage
C. current
D. electrical size
Ans. D
A. lumped
B. distributed
C. active
Ans. B
A. 1 conductor
B. 2 conductors
C. 3 conductors
D. bunch of conductors
Ans. B
A. Amplitude Modulation
B. Pulse Modulation
C. Frequency Modulation
D. Velocity Modulation
Ans. D
A. Highly directive
D. None of these
Ans. A
A. Oscillator
B. mixer
C. frequency multiplier
D. None of these
Ans. A
A. magnetron
C. gunn diode
D. None of these
Ans. B
A. E
B. D
C. C
D. All the above
Ans. D
A .cathode_ray tube
B. magnetron
C. travelling_wave tube
D. None of these
Ans. A
A .TE10
B .TM11
C .TM01
D .TE11
Ans.A
A .Rain
B .Fog
C .Dust
D. Snow
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. 0
B. B3
C. C2
D. D1
Ans.A
A. 2.0 km
B. 1.5 km
C. 1.0 km
D. 0.5 km
Ans. C
A. To prevent oscillations
B. To prevent saturation
C. To help bunching
Ans. A
B. 85%
C. 25%
D. None of these
Ans.A
A. helical antenna
B.paraboloid
C. pyramidal horn
D. log-periodic array
Ams. A
Ams. A
A. cladding
C. oxidation
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q56.____is the most common antenna to the predetermined radiation
pattern.
A. array antenna
B. helical antenna
C. sectrol horn
D. None of these
Ans. A
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Ans.A
Q58.The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
A. High attenuation
B. High sensitivity
C. Low distortion
D. Low selectivity
Ans. A
A. Gunn DIODE
B.TRAPATT diode
C.IMPATT diode
D.BARITT diode
Ans. A
Q60. A amplifier has a power gain of 200. What is its gain in dB? (log10 2 =
0.30)
A.23dB
B.20 dB
C. 14 dB
D. 17 dB
Ans. A
Model Question Paper
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q2.The RTC module makes use of the Basic Timer1 because of _________
A its bytes are controlled in the Basic Timer1 register
B it is started by timer1
C it is ended by basic timer1
D it needs a clock pulse of 1hz that is provided by basic timer1
Ans.: D
Q 3.Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and
software are considered during the design?
A platform based design
B memory based design
C software/hardware codesign
D peripheral design
Ans.: C
Q 5.In LPC 2148, which among the following is/are the functions of Mask
register?
A Byte addressability
B Relocation to ARM local bus for fastest posible I/O timing
C Treating sets of port bits in the form of group without changing other bits
D All of the above
Ans.: C
Q 7.The high speed mode of operation of the USB was introduced by _____
A ISA
B USB 3.0
C USB 2.0
D ANSI
Ans.: C
Q 8.The banked registers are used for ______
A Switching between supervisor and interrupt mode
B Extended storing
C Same as other general purpose registers
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Ans.: C
Q 17.Protocol is a set of
A Formats
B Procedures
C Formats & Procedures
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q 22.Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware
components?
A platform based design
B memory design
C peripheral design
D input design
Ans.: A
Q 30.The high speed mode of operation of the USB was introduced by _____
A ISA
B USB 3.0
C USB 2.0
D ANSI
Ans.: C
Q 34.NRE cost is
AOne time monetary cost of manufacturing each copy of the system
B Sale cost of the product
C One time monetary cost of designing the system
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q 40.Time-to-Prototype is
A Time needed to build the working version of the system
B time needed to bring the product in market
CTime needed to design the working version of the system
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 47.In the process of pipelining, which instructions are fetched from the
memory by the ARM processor during the execution of current instruction?
A Previous
B Present
C Next
D All of the above
Ans.: C
Q.2. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
A. More bandwidth
B. More spectrum space
C. Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
D. Economically viable
ANS. C
Q.4. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called _______
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
ANS. C
Q.6.What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite
called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
ANS. B
Q.8. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station
to monitor and control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.20. . _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it
to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
ANS. B
Q.34.Anoblate spheroid is
(a).The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a
flattening at the poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
(b).The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening
at the poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
(c). LEO satellites.
(d) None of thesE
ANS. A
Q.40.As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above
ANS.A
Q.47.……… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary
will be an ellipse.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
ANS.B
Q.56. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station
to monitor and control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.59.A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in
order to ……..
a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b. avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming
signal
c. minimise free-space losses
d. maximise antenna gain
ANS. B
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
A.lumped
B. distributed
C. active
Ans.: B) distributed
A. α+jβ
B. α-jβ
C. α/jβ
D. α.jβ
Ans.: A) α+jβ
Q4.Characteristic impedance Zₒ is given by:
A.√Z/Y
B. √ZY
C. √Z+√Y
D. √Z-√Y
Ans.: A).√Z/Y
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. Data insufficient
Ans.: A) 0
A. Reactance
B. Voltage
C.Current
Q7.A slotted line can be used to measure _____ and the distance of
_____________ from the load.
Q8.In the expression for phase of the reflection coefficient, Lmin stands for :
Q9. The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance
matching techniques is:
B.Coplanar waveguides
C.Circular waveguide
D.Circulators
C. Slotted section
D. Co-axial lines cannot be impedance matched
Ans.: A) 1
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. Data insufficient
Ans.: A) 0
A. √(C/L)
B. √(CL)
C. √(L/C)
D. 1/√(LC)
Ans.: C) √(L/C)
A.R/L=G/C
B. R/C=G/L
C.R=G
D. C=L
Ans.: A) .R/L=G/C
A. Conductor loss
B.Di-electric loss
A. R
B. L
C. C
D. G
Ans.: D) G
B. UV
C. IR
D. None of these
A. Highly directive
D TE, TEM
Ans.:B) TM, TE
A very high
B very low
C zero
D infinite
C. must be more than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode and less than cutoff
frequency of TE20 mode
Ans:C) must be more than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode and less than cutoff
frequency of TE20 mode
Ans : A Guided
Q30. The phase velocity of waves propagation in hollow metal waveguide is
A Greater than the group velocity
C. their directivity
Q35. A device that makes possible the use of same antenna for transmission
and Reception both
A the duplexer
B. the magic-tee
C. the crystal diode
D. none of these
Ans:A) Symmetric
A. an H-plane TEE
B. an E-plane TEE
C. a “magic” TEE
D. all of the above
Ans:D) all of the above
Q42.Magnetron is an _______
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Phase shifter
Ans.: B) Oscillator
A. Oscillator
B. Tuned Amplifier
A. Higher Gain
B. Higher Efficiency
C. Higher Frequency
D. Higher Bandwidth
A. Drift space
B. Free space
C. Running space
D. Normal space
A. Amplitude Modulation
B. Frequency Modulation
C. Pulse Modulation
D. Velocity Modulation
Q.49 In a TWT the axial component of electric field advances along the tube
D.Design complexity
Q54. A disadvantage of micro strips with respect to strip line circuit is that the
former:
A. Do not let themselves to be printed-circuits
B. Are more likely to radiate
C. Are bulkier
D. Are more expensive and complex to manufacture
Ans.: D) Are more expensive and complex to manufacture
Q55. The PIN diode is must suited for......applications
A. Microwave oscillating
B.Microwave switching
C.Microwave amplifying
D.Microwave rectifying
A. Three
B.Two
C.Four
D. One
Ans.: A) Three
Q57. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied
to an IMPATT diode, it results in:
A. avalanche multiplication
B break down of depletion region
C. high reverse saturation current
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: A) avalanche multiplication
Q.58 The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is:
A. Gunn oscillation mode
B. limited space charge accumulation mode
C. stable amplification mode
D.bias circuit oscillation mode
Q. 14 MIT is
A Management Information Tree
B Management Information Test
C Management Information Task
D None of above
ANS: A
Q.17 Out of the Statemets 1) MDB physical database 2) MIB virtual database
A Statement 1 & Statement 2 is correct
B Statement 1 & Statement 2 is not correct
C Statement 1 correct & Statement 2 is not correct
D Statement 1 not correct & Statement 2 is correct
ANS:A
Q.18 Manager
1 Sends requests to agents
2 Monitors alarms
3 Houses applications
4 Provides user interface
A All are correct
B 1 & 2 are correct
C 1,2,3 are correct
D All are incorrect
ANS: A
Q.22. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and
_____
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity
ANS.A
Q.23. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to
network based on predefined policy is called ___________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
ANS.D
Q.24. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of
______________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
ANS. C
Q.25. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is
__________
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) Transmission circuit
ANS.A
Q.26.In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to
the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
ANS. C
Q.27. he ................... portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user
activities and audit data etc.
A. Configuration management
B. Security management
C. Performance management
D. None of these
ANS.B
Q.30. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.32.In Telecommunication management Network (TMN) system, the role of the manager is to
issue commands and requests to the agent. These commands and requests are known as
a)notifications
b)feedbacks
c)operations
d)Acknowledgement
ANS.C
Q.33. In TMN terminology, the switching systems, circuits, terminals, etc., which comprise a
telecommunications network, are known as a)Operations support systems (OSS)
b)Network Elements (NEs)
c)Mediation devices (MDs)
d)Q Adapter (QA)
ANS. B
Q.36.CMIP is specified by
A.IEEE
B. ITU-T
C. ANISE
D.ATU
ANS. B
Q.42. Network performance management is the collective techniques that enable, manage and
ensure optimal performance levels of a computer network.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.44.Thegoal of network management is to ensure that the users of network are provided IT
services with a quality of service that they expect.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.45. Network Management is the act of initializing, monitoring and modifying the operation of
the primary network functions
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.47.The process by fault management tool to check the network and discovers problems that
affect performance or data transmission is
A. Detection
B. Diagnosis
C. Alerting
D. Resolving
ANS. A
Q.48.Diagnosis is the fault management tool determines what the problem actually is and where
on the network it’s located.
A.TRUE
B. FLASE
ANS. A
Q.49. The fault management tool automatically executes programs or scripts designed to fix the
problem
A. Detection
B. Diagnosis
C. Alerting
D. Resolving
ANS.D
Q.50. Network delays is not the Key factors in network performance management
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. B
Q.51. Network security is a computer networking system policy to assure the security to its
organization assets, software and hardware resources
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.57.A management information base (MIB) is a database used for managing the entities in a
communication network
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.58.CMISE Filtering produces the ability to select a subset of these objects based on conditions
applied to attributes
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
1 P.T.O.
8) Which auxiliary functions assist in solving the radiation problem by b
evaluation of E & H using sources J & M?
a) Scalar potentials b) Vector potential
c)Gradient potentials d) Divergence potentials
9) Gain is always -------------than directivity b
a) Greater b) lesser
c) Equal to d) none
10) ………………. is portion of antenna’s input impedance due to transmitted a
radio waves leaving the antenna
2
16) The source of vector potential is b
a) Charge density b) Current density
c) Both a and b d) none
17) The field immediately surrounding antenna and far field region is known as b
a) far field region b) near field region
c) Frounhoper region d) none of above
18) Which condition makes coupled equations into uncoupled equations c
a) Retarded b) Helmholtz
c) Lorentz gauge d) none
19) According to Friis free space equation d
a) Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter
and receiver
b) Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and
receiver
c)Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving
antennas
d) all the above
20) The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its b
a)Source
b) Distance of point from the source (R)
c.)Both a and b
d)None of the above
21) For infinitesimal dipole antenna the segment length is _________ a
(a) Very very less than wavelength
(b) Half of wavelength
(c) Equal to wavelength
(d) Greater than wavelength
3 P.T.O.
22) For half dipole antenna the 3dB beamwidth is________ degrees c
(a)90
(b)180
(c)78
(d)87
23) In cellular and cordless telephones , walkie-talkie and CB radios mostly c
________ antennas are used
(a) Broadside Array
(b) Dipole
(c) Monopole
(d) End-fire Array
24) The radiation resistance of loop antenna can be increased by d
(a) Increasing perimeter
(b) Increasing number of turns
(c) Inserting ferrite core of high permeability
(d) All of the above
25) What is/are the advantages of using ferrite loops? a
I) Increase in magnetic field intensity
II) Increase in radiation resistance
III) Decrease in magnetic field intensity
IV) Decrease in radiation resistance
(a)I & II
(b) III & IV
(c) I & IV
(d) II & III
4
26) Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform c
amplitude and phase of excitation varies progressively along axis array
(a) Broadside Array
(b) Collinear
(c) End-Fire Array
(d)Parasitic
27) In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are added a
a) Using many director
b) Using many dipole
c) Using many reflector
d. All of these
28) Binomial Broadside array uses _________Space feeded with b
_________excitation
(a) Uniform, Uniform
(b) Uniform, Non-Uniform
(c) Non-Uniform,Uniform
(d) Non-Uniform,Non-Uniform
29) Yagi-Uda Antenna is a example of_________ array antenna c
(a) Broadside Antenna
(b) End-Fire Antenna
(c) Parasitic
(d) Colinear
30) Which are the different element of parasitic array antennas d
(a) Driven Element
(b) Parasitic Element
(c) Reflectors and Directors
(d) All
5 P.T.O.
31) In a End-Fire array the radiation is along___________________ a
(a) Along the axis of array antenna
(b) Perpendicular to axis of array antenna
(c) Depends on dimensions
(d) None
32) In a Broad side array the radiation is along___________________ b
(a) Along the axis of array antenna
(b) Perpendicular to axis of array antenna
(c) Depends on dimensions
(d) None
33) In a Uniform Linear array all elements are fed with a current of a
____________ amplitude
(a) Equal
(b) Unequally
(c) Both
(d) None
34) Linear array is a system of ------spaced elements. b
(a) Un-equally
(b) Equally
(c) Both
(d) None
35) If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a straight a
line. Then It is __________array
(a) Linear
(b) Non-Linear
(c) Linear or Non-Linear
(d) None of the above
6
36) In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar a
_______ excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
(a) Phase
(b) Frequency
(c) Current
(d) Voltage
37) _________ antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna b
elements with a feed network
(a) Aperture
(b) Array
(c) Printed
(d) Wire
38) Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna? a
(a) Rectilinear Antenna
(b) Broadside Antenna
(c) End fire Antenna
(d) Log Periodic Antenna
39) Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-wave c
dipole-driven element is called _______
(a) Array Element
(b) Director Element
(c) Reflector Element
(d) Driven Element
7 P.T.O.
40) In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to the b
transmission line is called as?
(a) Driven Element
(b) Parasitic Elements
(c) Feeder
(d)Boom
41) Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on…. b
a) Feed Pattern
b) Antenna Aperture
c) Surface losses
d) Low side lobe level
42) Aperture antennas are very practical for space applications a
a)True
b)False
43) The concept that each point on a wave front may be considered as a new b
wave source is given by
a)Snell’s Law
b) Huygen’s principle
c) young’s Law
d) Hertz’s Law
44) Antenna that does not belong to the horn antenna family among the d
following are
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
d) None of the mentioned
8
45) Horn antennas used in the frequency range of b
a) VHF
b) UHF
C) SHF
d) MW
46) Broadband antenna is a
a)log periodic
b)dipole
c)yagi uda
d)horn
47) Which one of the following statement is true for log periodic antenna b
a)Frequency dependent antenna
b) Frequency independent antenna
c) Directional antenna
d) None of the above
48) One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. c
This is the
a) Conical horn
Folded dipole
b) Log-periodic
c) Square loop
49) Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide b
a) Biconical
b) Horn
c) Helical
d) Discone
9 P.T.O.
50) The type of dipole antenna that has a higher band width is called as a
a) Conical antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Marconi antenna
51) What happens when a vertical or horizontal polarized antenna receives a c
circular polarized wave?
a) Gain increases b) Signal strength increases c) Signal strength reduces
d) Cannot receive circular polarized waves
52) Radiation from an antenna at other angles than the desired direction. c
a) Antenna direction b) Field strength c ) Sidelobe d) Directivity
53 Is not included in the group. d
a) Slot b) Horn c) Helix d) Marconi
54 It is a measure of how much the antenna concentrates its transmitted d
microwave power in a given direction
a) Beamwidth b) Polarization c) Bandwidth d) Gain
55 An electro magnetic wave consists of _____ a
a) both electric and magnetic fields.b) an electric field only c) a magnetic
field only
d) non-magnetic field only
56 velocity of light in free space a
a) 300 x 10^6 m/s b) 300 x 10^6 km/s c) 186,000 km/s d)186,000 m/s
57 Which antenna radiates equally in all directions b
a) Vertical antenna b) isotropic antenna c) Horizontal antenna d) Dipole
antenna
58 The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is b
a) a figure-8 b) a sphere c) a unidirectional cardioid d) a parabola
10
59 The ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the mouth of the parabola is a
called
a) aperture b) focal point c) foci d) major axis
60 The size of antenna is inversely proportional to a
a) frequency b) power c) radiation resistance d) wavelength
**********
11 P.T.O.