MCQs Managing for Sustainability

1. The acronym CSR stands for

a. Corporate Search and Rescue
b. Corporate Social Responsibility
c. Corporate Sensitive Reliability
d. Corporate Social Reality
2. All those who are affected by or can affect the ~perations of the organisation are known as: a. Owners
b. interested parties
c. stakeholders
d. stockholders
3. The stakeholder view of social responsibility states that organisations must respond to the needs of
a. employees and customers
b. shareholders and owners
c. all interested parties
d. all those who might sue the organisation
4. A firm is said to have good corporate social performance when:
a. stockholders invest in socially responsible causes
b. charitable deductions are automatically deducted from pay without the consent of employees
c. the company has not been convicted of ethical violations for five consecutive years
d. stakeholders are satisfied with its level of social responsibility
5. A socially responsible mutual fund will only purchase stocks in companies that
a. have a no-smoking policy in place
b. have a culturally diverse management team
c. hire some job candidates who are HIV positive
d. have good social performance.
6. A whistle blower is an employee who
a. exposes organisational wrongdoing
b. complains a lot to company management
c. engages in un-ethical behavior
d. referees disputes with other employees
7. Which one of the follciwing approaches to creating an ethical and socially responsible workplace is
likely to be the most powerful?
a. Passing out buttons with the statement "Just Say No to Bad Ethics"
b. Placing posters about ethics throughout the organisation
c. Top management acting as models of the right behavior
d. Including a statement about ethics and social responsibility in the employee handbook
8. A recommended way of minimising unethical behaviour is for employees to
a. write anonymous notes to ethical violators
b. immediately report all suspicious behaviour to top management
c. spend part of their vacation preparing a personal philosophy of ethics
d. confront fellow employees about ethical deviations
9. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) consists of which four kinds of responsibilities
 a. Economic, ethical, societal, and altruistic
b. Economic, legal, ethical, and altruistic
c. Fiscal, legal, societal, and philanthropic
d. Economic, legal, ethical, and philanthropic
10. Which of the items listed is NOT a product of a "favourable corporate reputation"?
a. Charge more for its products and services
b. Attract, hire and keep higher quality applicants/employees
c. Enhance their access to better capital markets
d. Ignore the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
11. Typical Codes of Conduct cover conduct described below. In the aftermath of Bhopal, the chemical
industry wishing to demonstrate responsible corporate citizenship has added which additional
behaviours set out below
a. Legal compliance
b. Continuous improvement, communication with external stakeholders and training of suppliers
on the standards
c. Pollution prevention
d. Safe handling of chemicals from manufacture through disposal
12. Why, according to stakeholder theory, is it in companies' best interests to pay attention to their
stakeholders?
a. If firms only act in their own self-interest employees may feel exploited
b. If firms only act in their own self-interest government might put more regulation on them
c. If firms only act in their own self-interest customers might not like the image that the company
portray
d. If firms only act in their own self-interest and inflict harm on stakeholders then society might
withdraw its support
13. What is triple bottom line?
a. An accounting tool that looks at the impact on people, planet and profits
b. A management strategy which states all the attention should be on profits
c. An accounting tool that looks at cost, profit and loss
d. A management strategy which focuses on corporate social responsibility
14. Why do alternative organisations run differently from conventional shareholder led approach?
a. They do not have shareholders
b. They are run in non-hierarchical ways which aim to provide a positive impact on society rather
than to make profit
c. They prioritise corporate social responsibility.
d. They aim to give money to charities and good causes
15. Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a business organisation?
a. To procure resources
b. To make a profit
c. To communicate with shareholders
d. To mediate between the organisation and the environment
16. Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?
a. Ethical conduct
b. Human rights and employee relations
 c. All of the above
d. None of the above
17. Who are organisational stakeholders?
a. Customers
b. Community
c. Providers of finance
d. All of the above
18. The human activity, among the following, which causes maximum environmental pollution having
regional and global impacts, is:
a. Urbanization
b. Industrialisation
c. Agriculture
d. Mining
19. The ____________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a business's societal contribution of
time, money, and other resources.
a. Ethical
b. Philanthropic
c. Volunteerism
d. Strategic
20. Stakeholders are considered more important to an organisation when:

a. they can make use of their power on the organisation

b. they do not emphasise the urgency of their issues

c. their issues are not legitimate

d. they can express themselves articulately

21. Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, arid the sale of pollution-control
technology are ways in which better environmental performance can:

a. increase revenue
b. increase costs
c. decrease revenue
d. decrease costs
22. Atmospheric issues include all of the following except:
a. acid rain
b. global warming
c. air pollution
d. water quantity
23. In a __ organisation, decision making is delegated as far down the chain of command as possible a.
Decentralized
b. Creative
 c. flexible
d. centralized
24. __ refers to a strategic process involving stakeholder assessment to create long-term relationships
with customers, while maintaining, supporting, and enhancing the natural environment. a. Eco-strategy
b. Green marketing
c. Superfund reauthorization
d. Recycle and reprocess management
25. Sustainable development will not aim at:
a. Social economic development which optrrruse the economic and societal benefits available in
the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future.
b. Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic well-being that can be perpetuated
continually.
c. Development that meets the need of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs.
d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption
26. Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is not true?
a. Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of present
without compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their own needs.
b. Sustainability has the main objective of purely focussing on the natural environment.
c. Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only solution left with
mankind to survive for a longer period on Earth.
d. Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment but also the
maintenance of economic viability as well as the social and ethical considerations.
27. The term sustainability refers to ________
a. Maintaining resource use at current or higher levels
b. Keeping the natural environment and human society in a happy, healthy and functional state
c. Holding or increasing the current quality of human life
d. Always focusing on fulfiling short-term needs
e. Opposing change from current policies 28. Social sustainability refers to what?
a. The concept of the enterprise supporting jobs and delivering income to communities in the
long term
b. Stewardship of resources and managing and conserving the environment
c. The concept of the enterprise supporting jobs and delivering income to communities in the
short term
d. Sharing benefits fairly and equitably and respecting the quality of life of communities and of
human rights
29. The Brundtland definition comprises of which three parts?
a. Development, Needs and Future Responsibility
b. Development, Issues and Future Generations
c. Development, Needs and Future Generations
d. Growth, Needs and Future Generations
30. What is the most commonly cited definition for, and accepted thinking about sustainable
development?
a. Brundtland World on Committee Environment and Sustainable Development
 b. Bruntland World Committee on Environment and Development
c. Brundtland World Commission on Environment and Sustainable Development
d. Brundtland World Commission on Environment and Development
31. Which one of the following characteristics is widely regarded as being an important aspect of
sustainable development?
a. Inter-generational equity
b. Increasing consumption expenditure
c. Intra-generational inequity
d. Increased levels of saving
32. A "green transport plan" is:
a. An environmentally acceptable travel plan devised by a local authority for its area
b. An internationally agreed strategy for reducing the impact of international transport activity on
the global environment.
c. A plan devised by a company or organisation to reduce the environmental impact of the
transport demands generated by itself and its employees
d. The UK government's plan for a sustainable transport sector
33. Food, space, disease, natural disasters, climate, competition and predation are examples of what? a.
Capacity Factors
b. Limiting Factors
c. Predation Factors
d. Sustainable Factors
34. Sustainable Development focuses on more use of:
a. Renewable resources
b. Abiotic resources
c. Agricultural resources
d. Natural resources
35. Which of the following perspectives takes the strongest stance in support of sustainability? a.
Communalist
b. Free market
c. Deep ecology
d. Cornucopian
e. Accommodating
36. Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving
a. Social development
b. Economic development
c. Sustainable development
d. Ecological development
37. 'Meeting the needs of the present compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own
need'
is
a. Brundtland
 b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Maathai
d. Sunderlal Bahugana
38. The idea of sustainable development was conceived in early
a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1970
d. 1980
39. The definition of sustainable development was expressed during the World Commission on
Environment and Development in 1987, chaired by
a. Gro Harlem Brundtland
b. Murray Bookchin
c. Rees and WackernackeJ
d. John Elkington
40. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Renewable resources should provide a sustainable yield (the rate of harvest
should not exceed the rate of regeneration).
(b) For non-renewable resources there should be equivalent development of
renewable substitutes.
(c) Waste generation should exceed the assimilative capacity of the
environment
a. (a) and (c)
b. (b) and (c)
c. (a) and (b)
d. None
41. Dematerialisation is being encouraged through the ideas of industrial ecology _and
a. Ecodesign
b. Ecolabelling
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
42. The ecological footprint is an __ tool for ecological resources
a. Accounting
b. Management
c. Decision making
d. Financial
43. Eco-tracking tools need to be available which
a. Do not allow you to trace environmental footprint
b. Avoids data collection
c. Set-up an environmental management system
d. Help in decision making
44. A sustainability rep~rt is the key platform for communicating ., __ and impacts whether positive or
negative
a. Sustainability performance
b. Management decisions
c. Financial analysis
d. Information
45. Adverse social impacts could be in the form of______
a. Loss of land
b. loss of structures
c. Loss of livelihood
d. All of the above
46. Who uses the Triple Bottom Line?
a. Businesses
b. Non-profit organisations
c. Government entities
d. All of the above
47. Under which ISO Standard the Guidance on Social Responsibility was recognized?
a. ISO 26000
b. ISO 27000
c. ISO 22000
d. ISO 14000
48. Carbon footprints is used to determine the amount of offsets necessary by a business to sell their
product as ___ but is not used to determine carbon liability
a. Carbon neutral
b. Carbon dating
c. Carbon cutting
d. Carbon rating
49. Production, transformation and use of energy are the major problems of:
a. Industrial activity
b. Sustainable development
c. Global warming
d. Acid rain
50. A chemical industry is not a cause of
a. Air pollution
b. Noise pollution
c. Water pollution
d. Nuclear pollution
51. Electronic waste is the adverse effect of
a. Industry
b. Agriculture
 c. Housing
d. Mining
52. Extraction of mineral and metal form the earth is:
a. Agriculture
b. Transportation
c. Mining
d. Sustainable development
53. Underground and ope caste is a methods of
a. Agriculture
b. Mining
c. Housing
d. Transportation
54. This is an effect of transportation
a. Air emission
b. Material consumption
c. Solid waste generation
d. Acid mine drainage
55. In EIA hearing is made within
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
56. What process may explain the decline in the number of tones of fish caught?
a. Bioremediation
b. Deforestation
c. Extinction
d. Overexploitation
e. Succession
57. Food, space, disease, natural disaters, climate, competition and predation are examples of what? a.
Capacity factors
b. Limiting factors.
c. Predation factors
d. Sustainable factors
58. Which is not a benefit of maintaining sustainable forest ecosystems?
a. Empty space on which to build homes
b. Habitat for thousands of species
c. Reduction of erosion in watersheds
d. Regulation
59. In a kelp forest ecosystem, which species is a keystone species?
 a. Kelp
b. Otter
c. Fish
d. Rock
60. The top three ecological footprints in the world are
1. USA
2. Ireland
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Canada
6. Denmark
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,4,6
c. 3,5,6
d. 1,2,6
Answers
1·. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a). 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) . 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)
 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1. What is meant by the phrase CSR?

a) Corporate Social Responsibility b) Company Social Responsibility
c) Corporate Society Responsibility d) Company Society Responsibility
Ans: a

Q.2. What is meant by the phrase 'teleological ethics'?

a) Is used to judge is an action is right, fair and honest.
b) An action can only be judged by its consequences.
c) Developing the individual personal characteristics.
d) The key purpose of ethics is to increase freedom.
Ans: b

Q.3. For Karl Marx, where do our values come from?

a) They are a product of our upbringing and our parents.
b) They are a product of the economic system within which we live.
c) They are a product of social inequality.
d) They are a product of what we are taught at school.
Ans: b

Q.4. What does Milton Friedman believe to be the sole responsibility of

business?
a) The only social responsibility of business is to its shareholders.
b) Managers should act in ways that balance the interest of society and
shareholders.
c) The primary responsibility organizations have is to its employees.
d) The primary responsibility organizations have is to its stakeholders.
Ans: a

Q.5. What, according to Adam Smith, is the best way to promote collective
interest?
a) Through government making decisions about what is in the public interest.
b) Through everyone working together to support each other.
c) Through everyone working on their own self-interest
d) Through individuals forgoing their personal interest for the good of the
collective.
Ans: c

Q.6. Why, according to stakeholder theory, is it in companies' best interests to

pay attention to their stakeholders?
a) If firms only act in their own self-interest employees may feel exploited.
 b) If firms only act in their own self-interest government might put more regulation
on them.
c) If firms only act in their own self-interest customers might not like the image
that the company portray.
d) If firms only act in their own self-interest and inflict harm on stakeholders then
society might withdraw its support.
Ans: d

Q.7. What is the enlightened self-interest model of CSR?

a) That it is in an organization's own best interest to put itself first rather than its
ethics.
b) That it is in an organization's best interest to consider what a shareholder
would want.
c) That it is in an organization's own best interest to act in an ethical way.
d) That it is in an organization's own best interest to follow the legislation and
abide by the law.
Ans: c
Q.8. What is green washing?
a) Transforming products to be more ethical.
b) Making a product appear more ethical that it really is.
c) Converting the company to green production methods.
d) Convincing customers to buy ethically.
Ans: b
Q.9. What is triple bottom line?
a) An accounting tool that looks at the impact on people, planet and profits.
b) A management strategy which states all the attention should be on profits.
c) An accounting tool that looks at cost, profit and loss.
d) A management strategy which focuses on corporate social responsibility.
Ans: a
Q.10.Why do alternative organizations run differently from conventional
shareholder led approach?
a) They do not have shareholders.
b) They are run in non-hierarchical ways which aim to provide a positive impact
on society rather than to make profit.
c) They priorities corporate social responsibility.
d) They aim to give money to charities and good causes.
Ans: b
Q.11.What does and Ethical Foundation for an organisation embody?
a) The structure, operational and conduct of the activities of the organization
b) The basic principles which govern the external and internal relations of the
organization
c) Neither of the above
d) All of these
Ans: b

Q.12.What does the importance of ethical behaviour, integrity and trust call into
question?
a) The extent to which managers should attempt to change the underlying beliefs
and values of individual followers
b) Who does what
c) What we do next
d) None of the above
Ans: a

Q.13.A ________ _________ sets out the purpose and general direction for the
organisation?
a) Mission statement b) Purpose statement
c) Vision d) Profit statement
Ans: a

Q.14.Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective
of a business organisation?
a) To make a profit
b) To procure resources
c) To communicate with shareholders
d) To mediate between the organisation and the environment
Ans: a

Q.15.What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

a) To measure contribution of people to business growth
b) To combine a range of qualitative and quantitative indicators of performance
c) To relate business performance to customer satisfaction
d) To relate business performance to financial measures
e) All of the above
Ans: b

Q.16.Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility

relate to?
a) Ethical conduct b) Environmental practice
c) Community investment d) All of the above
Ans: d

Q.17.Who are organisational stakeholders?

a) Government b) Employees
 c) Customers d) All of the above
Ans: d

Q.18.What is Ethics to do with?

a) The wider community b) Business
c) Right and wrong d) Nothing
Ans: c

Q.19.Which of the following is an example of an area where business ethics

apply?
a) Conduct of international operations
b) Nowhere
c) In the personal life of staff
d) None of the above
Ans: a

Q.20.Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

a) Freedom of Information Act b) Food Act
c) Building regulations d) All of these
Ans: a

Q.21.The four types of social responsibility include:

a) legal, philanthropic, economic, and ethical
b) ethical, moral, social, and economic
c) philanthropic, justice, economic, and ethical
d) legal, moral, ethical, and economic
Ans: a

Q.22.The ________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a business's

societal contribution of time, money, and other resources.
a) Ethical b) Philanthropic
c) Volunteerism d) Strategic
Ans: b
Q.23.A stakeholder orientation includes all of the following activities except:
a) generating data about stakeholder groups
b) assessing the firm's effects on stakeholder groups
c) distributing stakeholder information throughout the firm
d) minimizing the influence of stakeholder information on the firm
Ans: d

Q.24.Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

a) they can make use of their power on the organization
b) they do not emphasize the urgency of their issues
 c) their issues are not legitimate
d) they can express themselves articulately
Ans: a

Q.25.A (n) ________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an

individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that
must be evaluated as right or wrong.
a) Crisis b) ethical issue
c) indictment d) fraud
Ans: b

Q.26.Which moral philosophy seeks the greatest good for the greatest number
of people?
a) Consequentialism b) Utilitarianism
c) Egoism d) Ethical formalism
Ans: b

Q.27.What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and
truthful in their communications at work?
a) Procedural b) Distributive
c) Ethical d) Interactional
Ans: d

Q.28.A high-commitment approach to environmental issues may include all of

the following except:
a) risk analysis
b) stakeholder analysis
c) green-washing
d) strategic sustainability auditing
Ans: c

Q.29.Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the sale

of pollution-control technology are ways in which better environmental
performance can:
a) increase revenue b) increase costs
c) decrease revenue d) decrease costs
Ans: a

Q.30.Atmospheric issues include all of the following except:

a) acid rain b) global warming
c) air pollution d) water quantity
Ans: d
 Q.31.To be successful, business ethics training programs need to:
a) focus on personal opinions of employees.
b) be limited to upper executives.
c) educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of ethical
decision making.
d) promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.
Ans: c

Q.32.Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics

programs by developing:
a) ethics training programs.
b) codes of conduct.
c) ethics enforcement mechanisms.
d) hidden agendas.
Ans: b

Q.33.For referent power to be effective, what must exist between individuals in

the relationship?
a) Antipathy b) Rivalry
c) History d) Empathy
Ans: d

Q.34.When a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers, it

may be accused of:
a) cultural relativism b) money laundering
c) facilitating payments d) price discrimination
Ans: a

Q.35.The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national,

organizational, and professional cultures is called:
a) national competitiveness. b) global development.
c) cultural intelligence. d) stakeholder sensitivity.
Ans: c

Q.36.Successful global initiatives addressing standards for business must

begin and end with:
a) the role of corporate governance and shareholder power in corporate decision
making.
b) social activism
c) the implementation of standardized ethics programs.
d) the consolidation of economic and environmental efforts.
Ans: a

Q.37.The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes:

a) cooperation and assistance.
b) profit maximization.
c) competition.
d) restricting resources and support.
Ans: a

Q.38.Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?

a) Policy drivers b) Development drivers
c) Business action d) Social enablers
Ans: b

Q.39.Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

a) They may be used to reallocate resources.
b) They identify practices that need improvement.
c) Selecting auditors may be difficult.
d) They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships.
Ans: c

Q.40.The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the commitment
of:
a) employees. b) top executives and directors.
c) stockholders. d) customers.
Ans: b

Q.41.Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

a) are formal statements that describe what an organization expects of its
employees.
b) become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble.
c) are designed for top executives and managers, not regular employees.
d) rarely become an effective component of the ethics and compliance program.
Ans: a

Q.42.Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong

organizational compliance program?
a) A written code of conduct
b) An ethics officer
c) Significant financial expenditures
d) A formal ethics training program
Ans: c
 Q.43.______________ are standards of behaviour that groups expect of their
members.
a) Codes of conduct. b) Group values.
c) Group norms. d) Organizational norms.
Ans: c

Q.44.In a ______________ organization, decision making is delegated as far

down the chain of command as possible.
a) Decentralized b) Creative
c) Flexible d) Centralized
Ans: d
Q.45.____________ refers to a strategic process involving stakeholder
assessment to create long-term relationships with customers, while
maintaining, supporting, and enhancing the natural environment.
a) Eco-strategy
b) Green marketing
c) Superfund reauthorization
d) Recycle and reprocess management
Ans: b
Q.46.The hand-of-government refers to the
a) ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations
b) role of corporations to be profitable within the law
c) effect of national politics on business decisions
d) impact of changing government regulations
Ans: b
Q.47.An organisation's obligation to act to protect and improve society's
welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as
a) organisational social responsibility
b) organisational social responsiveness
c) corporate obligation
d) business ethics
Ans: a

Q.48.The view that business exists at society's pleasure and businesses should
meet public expectations of social responsibility is the
a) iron law of responsibility argument
b) enlightened self-interest argument
c) capacity argument
d) anti-freeloader argument
Ans: b

Q.49.Managerial ethics can be characterised by all of the following levels except

a) immoral management b) amoral management
 c) demoral management d) moral management
Ans: c

Q.50. Which of the following is not one the underlying principles of the
corporate governance Combined Code of Practice?
a) Openness b) Integrity
c) Accountability d) acceptability
Ans: d

Q.51. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required

a) because it is demanded by the company’s bankers
b) by the Companies Act 2006
c) at the discretion of the shareholders
d) to detect fraud
Ans: b

Q.52. Directors’ responsibilities are unlikely to include.

a) a fiduciary duty
b) a duty to keep proper accounting records
c) a duty to propose high dividends for shareholders
d) a duty of care
Ans: c
Q.53. A company may become insolvent if it
a) has negative working capital
b) cannot meet its budgeted level of profit
c) makes a loss
d) cannot pay creditors in full after realisation of its assets
Ans: d

Q.54. A director of a limited company may not be liable for wrongful trading if he
or she
a) took every step to minimise the potential loss to creditors
b) increased the valuation of its inventories to cover any potential shortfall
c) introduced into the balance sheet an asset based on a valuation of its brands
sufficient to meet any shortfall
d) brought in some expected sales from next year into the current year
Ans: a

Q.55. Fraudulent trading may be

a) a civil offence committed by any employee
b) a criminal offence committed only by directors of a limited company
c) a civil and a criminal offence committed only by directors of a limited
company
 d) a civil and a criminal offence committed by any employee
Ans: d

Q.56. Disqualification of directors may result from breaches under the

a) Sale of Goods Act 1979
b) Financial Services Act 1986
c) Companies Act 2006 and Insolvency Act 1986
d) Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
Ans: c

Q.57. Directors may not be disqualified for

a) continuing to trade when the company is insolvent
b) persistent breaches of company legislation
c) paying inadequate attention to the company finances
d) being convicted of drunken driving
Ans: d

Q.58. Which of the following actions will not help directors to protect
themselves from non-compliance with their obligations and
responsibilities?
a) keeping themselves fully informed about company affairs
b) ensuring that regular management accounts are prepared by the company
c) seeking professional help
d) including a disclaimer clause in their service contracts
Ans: d

Q.59. Co-ording to Cadbury (2002), corporate governance is an issue of power

and:
a) Rights b) Accountability
c) Profit d) Appropriability
Ans: b

Q.60. The OECD argues that corporate governance problems arise because:
a) Ownership and control is separated
b) Managers always act in their own self interest
c) Profit maximization is the main objective of organizations
d) Stakeholders have differing levels of power
Ans: a
Q.61. The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales considers
argue that one particular stakeholder group should have primacy over all
other groups. Which stakeholder group are they referring to?
a) Customers b) Managers
c) Shareholders d) Society
Ans: c

Q.62. An organization that is owned by shareholders but managed by agents on

their behalf is conventionally known as the modern:
a) Conglomerate b) Corporation
c) Company d) Firm
Ans: b

Q.63. The modern corporation has four characteristics. These are limited
liability, legal personality, centralized management and:
a) Fiduciary duty b) Stakeholders
c) Shareholders d) Transferability
Ans: d

Q.64. What makes a corporation distinct from a partnership?

a) If the members of a corporation die, the corporation remains in existence
providing it has capital
b) If the members of a corporation die, the corporation ceases to exist
c) A corporation cannot own property
d) A corporation cannot be held responsible for the illegal acts of its employees
Ans: a

Q.65. The term 'asymmetry of information' means information in a corporation

is:
a) Transferable to all stakeholders
b) Not transferable to all stakeholders
c) Not equally transparent to all stakeholders
d) Equally transparent to all stakeholders
Ans: c

Q.66. The view that sees profit maximization as the main objective is known as:
a) Shareholder theory b) Principal-agent problem
c) Stakeholder theory d) Corporation theory
Ans: c
Q.67. Where an organization takes into account the effect its strategic decisions
have on society, this is known as:
a) Corporate governance
b) Business policy
c) Business ethics
d) Corporate social responsibility
Ans: d
Q.68. Which intervention resulted from the Enron scandal?
a) The Hampel Committee
b) The Sarbannes-Oxley Act
c) The Greenbury Committee
d) The Cadbury Committee
Ans: b
Q.69. Executive pay in the UK was reviewed by:
a) The Greenbury Committee
b) The Hampel Committee
c) The Cadbury Committee
d) The Higgs Committee
Ans: a
Q.70. In Japan, some corporations operate within the philosophy of 'kyosei'. The
term 'kyosei' means:
a) No man shall be richer than another man
b) All stakeholders are equal
c) Living and working for the common good
d) If the corporation is bad, society is bad
Ans: c

Q.71. When managerial self-dealings are excessive and left unchecked,

a) they can have serious negative effects on share values
b) they can impede the proper functions of capital markets.
c) they can impede such measures as GDP growth.
d) all of the above
Ans: d

Q.72. Corporate governance structure

a) varies a great deal across countries.
b) has become homogenized following the integration of capital markets.
c) has become homogenized due to cross-listing of shares of many public
corporations.
d) none of the above
Ans: a
Q.73. In a public company with diffused ownership, the board of directors is
entrusted with
a) monitoring the auditors and safeguarding the interests of shareholders.
b) monitoring the shareholders and safeguarding the interests of management.
c) monitoring the management and safeguarding the interests of shareholders.
d) none of the above
Ans: c

Q.74. The key weakness of the public corporation is

a) too many shareholders, which makes it difficult to make corporate decision.
b) relatively high corporate income tax rates.
c) conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders.
d) conflicts of interests between shareholders and bondholders.
Ans: c

Q.75. When company ownership is diffuse,

a) a "free rider" problem discourages shareholder activism.
b) the large number of shareholders ensures strong monitoring of managerial
behavior because with a large enough group, there's almost always
someone who will to incur the costs of monitoring management.
c) few shareholders have a strong enough incentive to incur the costs of
monitoring management.
d) both a) and c) are correct
Ans: d

Q.76. In many countries with concentrated ownership

a) the conflicts of interest between shareholders and managers are worse than
in countries with diffuse ownership of firms.
b) the conflicts of interest are greater between large controlling shareholders
and small outside shareholders than between managers and shareholders.
c) the conflicts of interest are greater between managers and shareholders
than between large controlling shareholders and small outside shareholders.
d) corporate forms of business organization with concentrated ownership are
rare.
Ans: b

Q.77. In what country do the three largest shareholders control, on average,

about 60 percent of the shares of a public company?
a) United States b) Canada
c) Great Britain d) Italy
Ans: d

Q.78. The public corporation

a) is jointly owned by a (potentially) large number of shareholders.
b) offers shareholders limited liability.
c) separates the ownership and control of a firm's assets.
d) all of the above
Ans: d

Q.79. Periodic ethics audits

a) Are required by the Indian stock exchange
b) A method of fostering ethics
c) A method of quantitative assessment
d) Always use external consultants
Ans: b
Q.80. Political intrusion into business
a) May be desirable in some circumstances
b) Is anathema
c) Politics should have no say in how business is conducted
d) state legislation over-rides Federal Legislation
Ans: a

Q.81. The reach of codes is

a) Restricted to those obliged to conform by virtue of membership
b) Applicable to all
c) Applicable to the public only
d) the same as the reach of the law
Ans: a

Q.82. East India Company

a) Was always a management agency for the British government
b) had a continuous trade monopoly until 1873
c) Went out of existence at the time of Indian independence
d) Largely set commercial and management practices for India
Ans: d

Q.83. Quantification in ethics may be done by

a) Putting monetary value on prospective actions
b) Comparing the value of one action with another
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A or B
Ans: c
Q.84. When communicating a code of conduct
a) Focus on values that should guide decision making
b) Provide the same code of conduct to all departments regardless of its length.
c) Refrain from changing the code of conduct regularly
d) Fewer employees will read the code if it is short
Ans: a

Q.85. The __________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives is

proactive and inspirational.
a) Rules b) Compliance
c) Principles d) Values
Ans: d
Q.86. The _________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives focuses on
meeting required behavior norms or obeying the letter of the law
a) Rules b) Compliance
c) Principles d) Values
Ans: b

Q.87. Which of the following is associated with the classical view of social
responsibility?
a) economist Robert Reich
b) concern for social welfare
c) stockholder financial return
d) voluntary activities
Ans: c
Q.88. How many stages are in the model of an organization social responsibility
progression?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
Ans: b
Q.89. The belief that a firm pursuit of social goals would give them too much
power is known as what argument in opposition to a firm being socially
responsible?
a) Costs
b) lack of skills
c) lack of broad public support
d) too much power
Ans: d
Q.90. Social obligation is the obligation of a business to meet its
_______________.
a) social and technological responsibilities
b) economic and legal responsibilities
c) technological and economic responsibilities
 d) economic and social responsibilities
Ans: b
Q.91. Under the concept of social obligation, the organization
________________.
a) does what it can to meet the law, and a little bit more for stakeholders
b) fulfills its obligation to the stakeholders, which makes it fulfill the law, too
c) does the minimum required by law
d) fulfills its obligation to the law and its stakeholders
Ans: c
Q.92. Social responsiveness refers to the capacity of a firm to adapt to changing
_________________.
a) societal conditions b) organizational conditions
c) societal leaders d) organizational managers
Ans: a

Q.93. Applying social criteria to an investment decision refers to

________________.
a) socioeconomic view b) social responsiveness
c) social responsibility d) social screening
Ans: d

Q.94. Which of the following is a basic definition of ethics?

a) moral guidelines for behavior
b) rules for acknowledging the spirit of the law
c) rules or principles that define right and wrong conduct
d) principles for legal and moral development
Ans: c
Q.95. Reasoning at the ______________ level of moral development indicates
that moral values reside in maintaining the conventional order and the
expectations of others.
a) Preconventional b) Conventional
c) Principled d) arrival
Ans: b
Q.96. A personality measure of person’s convictions is _______________.
a) moral development b) ego strength
c) locus of control d) social desirability
Ans: b
Q.97. Which of the following organizational structural characteristics would
most likely result in managerial ethical behavior?
a) few job descriptions
b) formal rules
c) mixed messages from authority figures
d) All of these
Ans: b
Q.98. Global organizations must __________ their ethical guidelines so that
employees know what is expected of them while working in a foreign
location
a) Clarify b) Provide
c) Establish d) broaden
Ans: a
Q.99. _____________ is a document that outlines principles for doing business
globally in the areas of human rights, labor, the environment, and
anticorruption.
a) A code of ethics
b) The Global Compact
c) The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
d) Global Ethics
Ans: b

Q.100. A _____________ is a formal statement of an organization primary values

and the ethical rules it expects its employees to follow
a) mission statement b) statement of purpose
c) code of ethics d) vision statement
Ans: c
MBA 4th Sem - 401 - Sustainability / Pune University

Sustainable Development - Multiple choice questions

ANSWERS MARKED WITH *

1 . Which two of the following are widely regarded as being important aspects of 'sustainable social and
economic development?
Intra-generational inequity
High levels of consumption expenditure and low levels of saving
Intra-generational equity *
Inter-generational equity *
Inter-generational inequity

2 . Which of the following technical conditions is an important part of the 'strong sustainability rule'?
Any rise in man-made capital can be regarded as helping offset any fall in natural capital
The total stock of capital should not fall over time, though individual elements within that stock can vary
Any rise in social capital can be regarded as helping offset any fall in natural capital
Each element within the total stock of capital should not fall over time *
Total savings need not cover the depreciation value of the stock of capital

3 . Which three of the following are widely regarded as characteristics of globalisation?

The nation state and its associated borders seem increasingly relevant
Events occurring in one place have almost instantaneous (real-time) impacts worldwide *
Reducing concerns for environmental impacts
The nation state and its associated borders seem increasingly irrelevant *
The lives of all individuals are increasingly interconnected by events worldwide *

4 . Which of the following perspectives takes the strongest stance in support of sustainability?
Accommodating
Communalist
Free market
Deep ecology *
Cornucopian

5 . Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
Supporting the use of non-tariff rather than tariff barriers wherever possible *
Allowing retaliatory action where another nation can be shown to have breached WTO rules (e.g.
'dumping')
Seeking a progressive reduction in tariff and non-tariff barriers (e.g. tariffs)
Solving trade disputes through consultation rather than retaliation
Ensuring that any trading advantage agreed between two nations extends to all nations

Some questions may have more than one correct answer. And answer choices in this are randomized and
will appear in a different order each time the page is loaded.

# Match each of the following descriptions with its appropriate term

1 . Supports growth-orientated policies despite environmental impacts from exploiting natural resources in
support of growth.
Globalisation
Cornucopian perspective *
Weak sustainability
Savings rule
Strong sustainability
UN Millennium Development Goals
Rio Declaration (Earth Summit)

2 . Suggests that the total stock of capital should not fall between generations, though individual elements
within it can fall.
Savings rule
Strong sustainability
Globalisation
Weak sustainability *
Cornucopian perspective
UN Millennium Development Goals
Rio Declaration (Earth Summit)

3 . An environmental bill of rights established in 1992 to set out the principles for economic and
environmental behaviour of peoples and nations.
Rio Declaration (Earth Summit) *
Weak sustainability
Cornucopian perspective
Globalisation
UN Millennium Development Goals
Strong sustainability
Savings rule

4 . Suggests that neither the total stock of capital nor any individual element within it (e.g. man made
capital, human capital, natural capital, social
capital) should fall between generations.
Rio Declaration (Earth Summit)
Savings rule
UN Millennium Development Goals
Weak sustainability
Globalisation
Cornucopian perspective
Strong sustainability *

5 . Seen by many protest movements as increasing the power of multination corporations at the expense of
national governments and regulatory environmental
framework.
Cornucopian perspective
Savings rule
Globalisation *
UN Millennium Development Goals
Strong sustainability
Rio Declaration (Earth Summit)
Weak sustainability

# True or false questions

1 . The Brundtland Report in 1987 provided the most widely cited definition of sustainable definition,
namely development which meets the needs of the
present, without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

True *
False
2 . Following the 'weak sustainability' rather than the 'strong sustainability' condition gives governments
less scope to pursue growth oriented policies
which might damage the environment.

True
False *

3 . Intra-generational equity involves seeking to minimise any adverse impacts on future generations as a
result of the development process.

True
False *

4 . The general savings rule states that for development to be sustainable, total savings must at least cover
depreciation of the total capital stock.

True *
False

5 . The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is a successor organisation to the General Agreement on Tariffs
and Trade (GATT) and seeks to continue reducing
barriers to the growth of world trade.

True *
False

***********************************************

***********************************************

Multiple Choice Questions

1) The term sustainability refers to ________.

A) maintaining resource use at current or higher levels
B) keeping the natural environment and human society in a happy, healthy and functional state *
C) holding or increasing the current quality of human life *
D) always focusing on fulfilling short-term needs
E) opposing change from current policies

ANSWER B

2) The current use of fossil fuels versus the need to develop new renewable energy sources is an example
of ________.
A) how short-term needs are in opposition to long-term sustainability
B) two different goals that are not in opposition
C) governmental vision competing with economic practicalities
D) two unrelated and independent but positive environmental goals
E) an issue that will never be resolved

ANSWER A

3) The United States, with less than 5% of the world's population, now consumes ________.
A) 10% of the world's energy resources and 20% of its total resources
B) 30% of the world's energy resources and 40% of its total resources
C) 50% of the world's energy resources and 60% of its total resources
D) 70% of the world's energy resources and 80% of its total resources
E) 90% of the world's energy resources and 90% of its total resources

ANSWER C

4) Our consumptive lifestyles are ________.

A) a new phenomenon on Earth
B) sustainable if we use technology properly
C) consistent with the lifestyles of previous generations
D) not impacting the environment due to environmental regulations
E) not likely to impact the ability of developing countries to obtain natural resources

ANSWER B

5) Sustainable development involves ________.

A) reducing consumption, increasing efficiency and using renewable energies
B) larger buildings using stronger design and materials
C) developing better transportation by building more roads
D) using all resources at maximum rates
E) searching for more deposits of fossil fuels

ANSWER A

6) A reason for the "economy against environment" mindset is ________.

A) the difference in salary between environmental watchdogs and corporate CEOs
B) CEOs are usually Republican and environmental advocates are Democrats
C) industrialization and urbanization have broken the connection between ourselves, our
economies, and our natural environment
D) industrialization has had several positive impacts on local ecosystems
E) command-and-control environmental policy may be too costly for industry and infringe on private
owners' rights

ANSWER C

7) Environmental protection can positively affect local economies by ________.

A) eliminating current excess jobs
B) creating jobs that will attract companies from other sectors of the economy
C) increasing short-term costs to existing and future businesses
D) having businesses move out of the area to locales with less-stringent environmental protection
E) having citizens move out of the community in order to find employment

ANSWER B

8) One key to reconnecting ourselves with nature is to ________.

A) continue our current rate of resource use until we are forced to return to a more localized
agrarian society
B) consider and value the origin of what we use in our daily personal lives, so it is easier to see our
interdependence with the environment
C) continue rapid development of all resources
D) curb human population growth
E) ignore it

ANSWER A
9) Producing responsible and constructive technology that can achieve sustainable solutions requires
________.
A) funding for scientific research and elimination of damaging and inefficient technology
B) increase of technology developed through self-interest of large companies
C) having citizens be cognizant of the need for politicians to work with "big business"
D) public pressure to put limits on environmental protection
E) importing inferior technology to developing countries while developed countries invest in green
technology

10) Ecological economists suggest that we can gain better understanding of economics and human
interactions with the environment if we view human economies as
________.
A) consumer driven
B) preservation driven
C) entities that are integrated within natural systems
D) entities that are devoid of ecosystem characteristics
E) consumption driven

11) Which of the following will lead to sustainability?

A) increasing energy production
B) reducing consumption and halting population growth
C) increasing population growth
D) runaway consumer growth
E) creating industrial systems that are linear in design and operation

12) We could, in theory, make all of our industrial processes sustainable if we could ________.
A) transform cyclic processes into linear ones
B) transform linear processes into circular ones
C) speed up the disposal of wastes by deep-well injection
D) develop more draconian policies to regulate manufacturing
E) reduce the use of biodegradable plastics

13) Many proponents of sustainability believe that encouraging local self-sufficiency is important for
building sustainable societies because ________.
A) it eliminates governmental influence on local practices
B) it forces citizens to look more closely at the global community
C) when people are tied more closely to the area they live in, they will value the area more and seek
to sustain its environment and its human communities
D) more and more people are growing gardens
E) this is not correct; proponents of sustainability believe that encouraging local self-sufficiency will pose a
threat to building sustainable societies

14) Some argue that globalization will have a negative impact because ________.
A) it entails multinational corporations attaining greater and greater power over global trade
B) it entails weakened central power as a result of homogenization
C) governments will gain more power
D) citizens will gain more power
E) it will decentralize control of power to many stakeholders

15) College sustainability programs that are inclusive of all stakeholders are important for the advancement
of pro-sustainability legislation because ________.
A) corporations employ lobbyists that push politicians into protecting profits
B) regardless of what they have learned about sustainability, citizen action will be ignored by politicians
C) governments tend to think in short-term goals
D) individuals in governments are more interested in maintaining personal power than they are in working
for their constituency
E) more informed citizens will form a larger constituency that will use what they have learned about
sustainability and their voting power to pressure politicians

16) There is ample reason to hope that we may achieve sustainability before doing too much damage to
our planet, and to our own prospects, because of human ________.
A) consumption patterns
B) ingenuity and determination
C) rationalization
D) "affluenza"
E) procrastination

17) The lesson of Easter Island was that ________.

A) economics is an important facilitator of sustainable societies
B) conservation of resources is necessary for sustainable societies
C) we never comprehend resource issues until the resources are gone
D) grassroots organizations must be involved to ensure sustainable societies
E) political and governmental support are required to ensure sustainable societies

18) Our global society has a greater potential to address concerns of sustainability today compared to
previous societies because ________.
A) politicians today propose short-term solutions
B) we have citizens who vote
C) we have many thousands of scientists who study Earth's processes and resources closely
D) of the Bill of Rights
E) we value goods

19) To encourage corporations to adopt green technologies in a capitalist economy, citizens can
________.
A) choose products from companies that adopt sustainable practices
B) visibly protest companies that are destructive to the environment
C) choose products with the lowest price
D) write letters to all companies encouraging them to adopt green technologies
E) attend meetings with other people who desire green technologies

20) An important way to alter the perception that protecting the environment is incompatible with economic
progress is through ________.
A) education and collaboration
B) consumerism and competition
C) top-down governmental mandates
D) articles in newspapers
E) picketing and paying for newspaper ads

21) It is imperative that developed countries assist developing countries in economic advancement for
sustainability because ________.
A) there is a direct connection between poverty and those who suffer the most from environmental
degradation
B) it is less expensive for developing countries to manufacture the consumer goods needed by developed
countries
C) it is easier and less expensive to exploit resources in developing countries
D) it is easier and less expensive to create physical and governmental infrastructure to support heavy
industry in developing countries
E) all people in developing countries welcome the influx of foreign corporations for economic assistance
22) Structures given an LEED platinum ranking are ________.
A) inefficient and need to be renovated
B) especially high in heavy metal content
C) exemplary in sustainable design
D) constructed to function without electricity
E) free of lead-containing materials

***********************************************

1. Agricultural activity such as tilling, harvesting, heating and ventilation are direct consumes of:

(a) Energy

(b) Air

(c) Sun

(d) Heat

2. Which of the following is not the effect of modern agriculture?

(a) Nitrate pollution

(b) Eutrophication

(c) Biomagnification

(d) Ozone depletion

3. Housing affects:

(a) Neighbourhood

(b) Energy consumption

(c) Water consumption

(d) All of the above

4. The human activity, among the following, which causes maximum environmental pollution having
regional and global impacts, is:

(a) Urbanization

(b) Industrialisation

(c) Agriculture

(d) Mining

5. Production, transformation and use of energy are the major problems of:

(a) Industrial activity

(b) Sustainable development

(c) Global warming

(d) Acid rain

6. A chemical industry is not a cause of:

(a) Air pollution

(b) Noise pollution

(c) Water pollution

(d) Nuclear pollution

7. Electronic waste is the adverse effect of:

(a) Industry

(b) Agriculture

(c) Housing

(d) Mining

8. Extraction of mineral and metal form the earth is:

(a) Agriculture

(b) Transportation

(c) Mining

(d) Sustainable development

9. Underground and open caste is the methods of:

(a) Agriculture

(b) Mining

(c) Housing

(d) Transportation

10. This is not the effect of transportation:

(a) Air emission

(b) Material consumption

(c) Solid waste generation

(d) Acid mine drainage

11. In EIA the decision to hold hearing has to made within:

(a) 5 days

(b) 10 days

(c) 20 days

(d) 30 days

12. SPCB’s are required to give notice in how many newspapers mentioning the date, time and place of
public hearing:

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

13. ‘Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their
own need’ is given by:

(a) Brundtland

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Maathai

(d) Sunderlal Bahugana

14. The idea of sustainable development was conceived in early:

(a) 1950

(b) 1960

(c) 1970

(d) 1980

15. How many agreement are there in Agenda – 21?

(a) 4

(b) 5
(c) 6

(d) 7

16. Sustainable development will not aim at:

(a) Social economic development which optimise the economic and societal benefits available in the
present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits
in the future

(b) Reasonable and equitable distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated continually

(c) Development that meets the need of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to
meet their own needs

(d) Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

17. Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is not true?

(a) Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of present without
compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their own
needs

(b) Sustainability has the main objective of purely focussing on the natural environment

(c) Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only solution left with mankind
to survive for a longer period on Earth

(d) Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment but also the maintenance
of economic viability as well as the social and ethical
considerations

18. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment is called

(a) Biotic potential

(b) Carrying capacity

(c) Environmental resistance

(d) Population size

19. Supporting capacity and assimilative capacity are the components of

(a) Carrying capacity

(b) Holding capacity

(c) Containing capacity

(d) Capturing capacity

20. Social, economical and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving
(a) Social development

(b) Economical development

(c) Sustainable development

(d) Ecological development

Answers:

1. (a); 2. (d); 3. (d); 4. (b); 5. (a); 6. (d); 7. (a); 8. (c); 9. (b); 10. (d); 11. (d); 12. (a); 13. (a); 14. (d); 15. (b);
16 (d); 17. (b); 18. (b); 19. (a); 20.
(c)

****************************************************

1. Political decision are made with respect to political jurisdictions; environmental problems
i) often transcend these jurisdictions
ii) respect political boundaries
iii) often have little to do with regional economic decisions
iv) none of the above.

2. Which of the following follow the concept of sustainable development?

(1) Fishing the mature fish instead of the young fish.
(2) Using wing power instead of burning coal to generate electricity.
(3) The prohibition of trading endangered species.
i) (1) and (2) only
ii) (1) and (3) only
iii) (2) and (3) only
iv) (1), (2) and (3)

3. World Environment Day is celebrated on:

i) 5th June
ii) 1st July
iii) 1st December
iv) 15th September

4. He is known for his “Chipko Movement”

i) AtalBehari
ii) Kuldeepsingh
iii) SunderlalBahuguna
iv) M. C. Mehta

5. The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.

i) extinction
ii) endanger
iii) neitheri) nor ii)
iv) diversity

6. Among the given options, which one is not correct for the use of large amount of fertilisers
and pesticides ?
i) They are eco-friendly
ii) They turn the fields barren after some time
iii) They adversely affect the useful component from the soil
iv) They destroy the soil fertility

7. Which is not true?

i) Lithosphere includes the crust and the uppermost mantle
ii) Lithosphere is underlain by the asthenosphere
iii) Lithosphere provides timber
iv) lithosphere is broken into tectonic plates

8. Demand for a resource does not change with the change in____
i) idea
ii) need
iii) technology
iv) economy

9. Which of the following is a renewable resource?

i) salmon population that is farm raised
ii) sulfur
iii) light sweet crude oil shipped from Saudi Arabia
iv) iron ore that is commercially mined

10. Fertile soil is always a renewable resource.

i) True
ii) False

11. Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere mainly by____

i) respiration
ii) photosynthesis
iii) fungi
iv) burning of fuels

12. A renewable resource is a resource which is replaced___

i) naturally
ii) by human
iii) by animals
iv) all of the above

13. Progress that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs is
i)the tragedy of commons.
ii)sustainable development.
iii)net primary productivity (NPP).
iv)the impossibility theorem.

14. Percentage of total water found as fresh water is_______

i) 87.5%
ii) 2.5%
iii) 97.5%
iv) 75%

15. All of the following statements concerning characteristics of predator-prey relationships are
correct EXCEPT:
i) A rise in the population of prey is often followed by a rise in the population of predators.
ii A rise in the population of predators is followed by a decrease in the population of prey.
iii) The population of predators most often eliminates the population of prey.
iv) Camouflage is an adaptation that protects prey.
v) The production of large numbers of offspring within very short periods of time ensures the
survival of some prey populations.

16. Which of the following is true about secondary consumers in an ecosystem?

i) They are fewer in number than are primary consumers.
ii) They eat only plants.
iii) They are eaten by primary consumers.
iv They are smaller and weaker than are primary consumers.
v) They contain the greatest total biomass in the system.

17. In an ecosystem, which one shows one way passage?

i) Nitrogen
ii) Carbon
iii) Potassium
iv) Free Energy

18. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains

i) Plankton
ii) Nekton
iii) Benthos
iv) Plankton and Nekton

19. Lime is added to the soil which is too

i) Sandy
ii) Salty
iii) Alkaline
iv) Acidic

20. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
i) Field gene banks
ii) Seed banks
iii) Shifting cultivation
iv) Botanical Garden

21. The least porous soil among the following is a

i) Loamy soil
ii) Silty soil
iii) Clayey soil
iv) Peaty soil

22. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

i) National park
ii) Wildlife sanctuary
iii) Seed bank
iv) Sacred groves

23. Sacred groves are specially useful in

i) Generating environmental awareness
ii) Preventing soil erosion
iii) Year-round flow of water in rivers
iv) Conserving rare and threatened species
24. The term Alpha diversity refers to
i) Genetic diversity
ii) Community and ecosystem diversity
iii) Species diversity
iv) Diversity among the plants

25. Which of the following are likely to be present in photochemical smog?

i) Sulphur dioxide
ii) Sulphur
iii) Chlorofluorocarbon
iv) Ozone

01. Which of the following devices is suitable for the removal of gaseous pollutants?
i) Cyclone separator
ii) Electrostatic precipitator
iii) Fabric filter
iv) Wet scrubber

02. Which of the following air pollution control devices is suitable for the removing the finest
dust from the air?
i) Cyclone separator
ii) Electrostatic precipitator
iii) Fabric filter
iv) Wet scrubber

03. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting:

i) Cyclone separator
ii) Electrostatic precipitator
iii) Catalytic converter
iv) Wet scrubber

04. Septic tank is:

i) An aerobic attached growth treatment system
ii) An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system
iii) An anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system
iv) An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system

05. Noise is:

i) Loud sound
ii) Sound of high frequency
iii) Unwanted sound
iv) Constant sound

06. Acidic deposition ________.

i) causes ozone depletion
ii) is a major component of indoor air pollution
iii) causes eutrophication in streams and rivers
iv) often crosses national boundaries, creating international disputes
v) is primarily a local problem near point sources

07. You have been hired by a rapidly growing small city to improve the air quality, which has
deteriorated in the past 10 years. Your first suggestion is to ________.
i) try to negotiate with the large city downwind whose factories produce large amounts of
pollution
ii) decrease the amount of CFCs used locally
iii) move or close the cattle feed lots near the river
iv) improve transportation options, including carpool lanes, buses, and light rail
v) remove the hydroelectric dam on the river

08. Closing down (decommissioning) a nuclear power plant can cost more than building the
plant in the first place.
i) True
ii) False

09. Carbon credit is meant for

i) Deforestation
ii)Protection of environment
iii) Rural infrastructure
iv) Diamond trading

10. Which one of the following is not true about the term "CARBON CREDITS"?
i) A Carbon credit gives the owner the right to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide.
ii) Carbon credits are a tradable permit scheme and can be exchanged between businesseshaving
short of quotas or below the quotas.
iii) These can be bought and sold in international/national market at the Govt. controlled prices.
iv)The need arises because International treaties such as Kyoto Protocol set quotas on the amount
of greenhouse gases that those countries can produce.
v) All the above are true.

11. The current practice for disposal of high level wastes from nuclear power plants is to
i) sell the wastes to developing countries for use in their own nuclear power plants.
ii) bury the wastes deep underground.
iii) allow the military to reprocess the wastes for nuclear weapons.
iv) drop the wastes into the deepest parts of the ocean.
v) use the space shuttle to carry the wastes to outer space.

12. Ozone is a pollutant at ground level, but it is a desirable chemical in the stratosphere because
it blocks dangerous ultraviolet radiation.
i) True
ii) False

13. Which state has made it compulsory to harvest rain water for all buildings?
i) Rajasthan
ii) West Bengal
iii) Tamilnadu
iv) Maharashtra

14. In Mumbai, what is the minimum plot area for which rain water harvesting is mandatory?
i) 2000 sq m
ii) 500 sq m
iii) 1000 sq m
iv) 1500 sq m

15. Which one is not greenhouse gas?

i) CO2
ii) Ozone
iii) CH4
iv) CFC
16. Which of these countries has the highest per capita carbon dioxide emissions?
i) United States
ii) Australia
iii) Saudi Arabia
iv) China

17. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi” and because
of such relaxation even a common citizen can approach the Court provided he has given a notice
of----
i) 40 days
ii) 60 days
iii) 30 days
iv) 120 days

18. In the commission of the offence under this Act by Government Department, the Act holds
the Head of the Department as guilty of the offence unless
i) the head of the Department proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or
that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.
ii) the head of the Department proves that the offence was committed with the knowledge to his
superiors
iii) the head of the Department was on tour
iv) the head of the Department was on leaves

19. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 --------------- to the officers of the Government for
any act done under the provisions of this Act or under the powers vested in them or functions
assigned to them under this Act.
i) does not grant immunity
ii) grants immunity
iii) grants awards
iv) grants scholarships

20. The Act debars the Civil Courts from having any jurisdiction to entertain any suit or
proceeding in respect of—
i) an action,
ii) direction,
iii) order issued by Central Government
iv) other statutory authority under this Act.
v) all of the above

21. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in year
i) 1981
ii) 1986
iii) 1974
iv) 1972

22. As compared to all other laws on environment protection which law is a more effective and
bold measure to fight the problem of pollution
i) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
ii) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
iii) The Environment (Protection) Act
iv) National Environment Appellate Authority Act

23. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in year
i) 1981
ii) 1986
iii) 1974
iv) 1972

24. The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in year

i) 1981
ii) 1986
iii) 1974
iv) 1972

25. What would the Kyoto Protocol do?

i) It would not allow developing countries like China to modify their coal-burning equipment to
prevent further increases in carbon dioxide levels.
ii) It would curb all CO2 emissions from all countries to bring them about 15 to 20% down from
the levels reached in 1990.
iii) It would completely ban production of CFCs.
iv) By 2012, it would curb CO2 emissions from all developed countries to bring them about 6 to
8%

1. Environmental Studies:
i) is an interdisciplinary academic field
ii) methodically studies human interaction with the environment
iii) includes the natural environment, built environment, and the sets of relationships between
them
iv) all of the above

2. Environmental Studies does not involve:

i) psychology
ii) demography
iii) ethics
iv) literature

3. Van Mahotsav is an annual tree-planting festival in India, celebrated on:

i) 2nd June
ii) 1st July
iii) 1st December
iv) 15th September

4. Which of the following global trends is of great concern for the future of our environment?
i) degradation of fertile soils
ii) changes in the global atmosphere
iii) species extinction leading to the loss of biodiversity
iv) population growth and increasing per capita consumption of resources
v) all of the above

5. Which is false about biosphere?

i) It is the global sum of all ecosystems
ii) It can also be called the zone of life on Earth
iii) It does not contain microbes
iv) It has evolved at least some 3.5 billion years ago

6. Which option below is not an example of pollution?

i) smog in Delhi
ii) nuclear waste
iii) overpopulation
iv) untreated sewage

7. Which one is not a disadvantage of a big dam?

i) extremely expensive
ii) flooding of prime arable land
iii) electric energy generated from hydropower
iv) blocking upstream migration of salmon
v) water loss with evaporation

8. This area has no permanent roads or settlements and is maintained primarily for its primitive
character and non-motorized recreation. It is a ________.
i) wilderness area
ii) primitive recreation area
iii) national park
iv) national forest

9. Which is true?
i) Oxygen content may not get reduced if forest cover is not sufficient on the earth
ii) Forests can be said to behave like non-renewable resources if not overused.
iii) Fishes are capable of reproducing at the rate at which they are being caught.
iv) None of the above
v) All of the above

10. Non-renewable resources, once used__

i) remain on earth in a different form
ii) become waste material
iii) are recycled
iv) all of the above
v) none of the above

11. Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?

i) Wind
ii) Vegetation
iii) Coal and minerals
iv) Water

12. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?

i) Petroleum
ii) Coal
iii) Natural gas
iv) Uranium

13. ______ is the major raw material for biogas.

i) Tree leaves
ii) Grass
iii) Cow dung
iv) Waste from kitchen

14. Total earth's surface covered by water is_______

i) 75%
ii) 80%
iii) 60%
iv) 65%
15. What is true of Ecosystem?
i) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
ii) Primary consumers outnumber producers
iii) Producers are more than primary consumers
iv) Secondary consumers are largest and powerful

16. Pick up the correct food chain

i) grass-chameleon-insect-bird
ii) grass-fox-rabbit-bird
iii) fallen leaves-bacteria-insect larvae
iv) phytoplankton-zooplankton-fish

17. Association of animals when both partners are benefited

i) Mutualism
ii) Colony
iii) Commensalism
iv) Ammensalism

18. The dominant second trophic level in a lake ecosystem is

i) Plankton
ii) Phytoplankton
iii) Benthos
iv) Zooplankton

19. The percentage of forest cover recommended by the National Forest policy (1988) is
i) 33% for plains and 67% for hills
ii) 37% for plains and 63% for hills
iii) 20% for plains and 70% for hills
iv) 23% for plains and 77% for hills

20. Select the correct statement about biodiversity

i) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as
well as numerous rare animals
ii) Large scale planting of BT cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
iii) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
iv) Conservation of biodiversity in just a fad pursued by the developed countries

21. The Red Data Book maintains a record of the

i) Plants and animals present in the whole world
ii) Relationship between man and biosphere iii) Plants and animals which are known to be
endangered
iv) Forest wealth in the whole world

22. In a national park protection is given to

i) The entire flora
ii) The entire fauna
iii) The plants and animals
iv) The entire ecosystem

23. The phenomenon of the entry of toxic chemicals into the food chains and more concentrated
at higher trophic levels is called
i) Biological control
ii) biomagnification
iii) Algal bloom
iv) Red tide

24. Bharatpur bird sanctuary is situated in

i) Kerala
ii) Karnataka
iii) Gujarat
iv) Rajasthan

25. Which of the following is an air pollutant?

i) Nitrogen
ii) Carbon
iii) Carbon monooxide
iv) Oxygen

26. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

i) Ozone
ii) Carbon dioxide
iii) Carbon monooxide
iv) Sulphur dioxide

27. During Inversion:

i) Temperature increases with altitude
ii) Temperature decreases with altitude
iii) Temperature remains constant
iv) None of the above

28. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly than
oxygen?
i) Sulphur dioxide
ii) Carbon mono-oxide
iii) Ozone
iv) Nitrous oxide

29. TajMahal is said to be suffering from "Marble Cancer " . What is Marble Cancer?
i) Acidic Rain which corrodes marble.
ii) Large number of Fungus in Taj Mahal marbles
iii) Yellowing of the marble on account of Soot particles
iv) Smokes filling the Taj Mahal from adjoining industries

30. DDT is
i) Green house gas
ii) Non-degradable pollutant
iii) Degradable pollutant
iv) None of these

31. Greenhouse effect is caused by

i) Green plants
ii) Infrared rays
iii) UV rays
iv) X-rays

32. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic
matter in water?
i) the oxygen demand increases
ii) the oxygen demand decreases
iii) the oxygen demand remains unchanged
iv) None of the above

33. Large cities in developed countries are impossible without automobile ownership by a high
percentage of the cities’ residents.
i) True
ii) False

34. City dwellers must rely on rural areas for production of all of their foodstuffs.
i) True
ii) False

35. A single person can not help in efforts to work towards a sustainable society.
i) True
ii) False

36. Shifting back to a more localized production of food and other resources would lead to all of
the following, except
i) reduced local environmental sustainability
ii) more stable source of jobs and income
iii) more profits circulating within each community
iv) reduced transportation fuel use
v) reduced greenhouse gas emissions

37. Which of the following would not traditionally support an environmental-friendly economy?
i) Shift taxes from wages and profits to pollution and waste.
ii) Improve energy efficiency.
iii) Shift from a carbon-based economy to a renewable fuel-based economy.
iv) Repair ecological damage.
v) Decrease subsidies for alternative fuel vehicles.

38. Which of the following is not true of watershed management?

i) Watershed management is continuous and needs a multidisciplinary approach
ii) A watershed management framework supports partnering, using sound science, taking well
planned actions and achieving results
iii) Watersheds are natural systems that we can work with
iv) Watersheds are a type of building for storing bottled water

39. What is a watershed?

i) area of land that water flows across as it moves toward a larger water body
ii) area of land from which water drains to a particular water body
iii) moisture released from clouds in the form of rain, snow, hail, etc.
iv) bothi) and ii)

40. Which is not a treatment measures for watershed development

i) Contour bunding
ii) Gravity dam
iii) Contour trenching
iv) Contour stone walls
v) Bench terraces
41. A sustainable society
i) returns to a more primitive style of living.
ii) meets the needs and aspirations of the present without compromising those of the future.
iii) curtails all further development.
iv) continues as always and assumes that things will work out for the best.
v) is inconsistent with the goals of environmentalism.

42. Rain water harvesting is not____

i) catching and holding rain where it falls and using it
ii) storing it in tanks
iii) recharging groundwater
iv) harvesting the crops with rain water

43. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not provide

i) a framework for the co-ordination of central and state authorities established under the Water
(Prevention and Control) Act, 1974 and Air (Prevention and Control) Act, 1981.
ii) power to state govt. for protection and improvement of environment
iii) power to the central government to take measures necessary to protect and improve the
quality of the environment
iv) none of the above
v) all of the above

44. Under EPA 1986, the central government is empowered to take measures necessary to
protect and improve the quality of the environment by
i) setting standards for emissions and discharges
ii) regulating the location of industries
iii) management of hazardous wastes
iv) none of the above
v) all of the above

45. As per EPA 1986, Environment does NOT include

i) air
ii) space
iii) land
iv) water

46. Match correctly the following and choose the correct option
a. Environment Protection Act A. 1974
b. Air Prevention & Control of Pollution Act B. 1987
c. Water Act C. 1986
d. Amendment of Air Act to include noise D. 1981
The correct matches is;
i) A b, B a, C d, D c
ii) A c, B b, C d, D a
iii) A c, B d, C a, D b
iv) A c, B b, C d, D a

47. Chapter 3 of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with

i) General Powers of the Central Government
ii) Prevention, Control, and Abatement of Environmental Pollution
iii) Miscellaneous
iv) Preliminary
48. The minimum penalty for contravention or violation of any provision of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986 is
i) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or fine up to one lakh rupees, or
both
ii) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or fine up to one lakh rupees, or
both
iii) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to six years or fine up to two lakh rupees, or
both
iv) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or fine up to two lakh rupees, or
both

49. The Act also provides for the further penalty if the failure or contravention continues after
the date of conviction. It is
i) Rs 5000 per week
ii) Rs 10000 per week
iii) Rs 10000 per day
iv) Rs 5000 per day

50. The Central Government or any other person duly authorised is empowered to collect the
samples of --------as evidence of the offences under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
i) air
ii) water
iii) soil
iv) any substance