Multiple Choice: Chapter 1: Introduction To Systems Analysis and Design

Chapter 1: Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design
Multiple Choice
1. The outcome of the analysis phase is the:

a) Feasibility Analysis document
b) System proposal document
c) System specification document
d) System request document
e) Business Process document
Ans: b
2. In the SDLC (Systems Development Life Cycle), what comes after the analysis phase?
a) Approval phase
b) Design phase
c) Development phase
d) Implementation phase
e) Planning phase
Ans: b
3. The outcome of the planning phase is the:

a) Test plan
Ans: d
4. The outcome of the design phase is the:

Ans: c
5. Another outcome of the planning phase is the:

b) Project Plan
d) System proposal document
Ans: b
6. The primary objective of the systems analyst is to:

a) Create value for the organization
b) Create a system proposal
c) Determine ROI (return on investment)
d) Assess risk for the project
e) Do root cause analysis
Ans: a
By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page1

7. Which is NOT a reason to be a systems analyst?
a) It is an interesting job
b) It is an exciting job
c) It generally has little or no advancement options
d) It can gives you satisfaction of a system designed and implemented
e) It can be a challenging and rewarding job
Ans: c
8. Which is NOT true for systems analysts?

a) They create value for an organization
b) They enable the organization to perform work better
c) They do things and challenge the current way that an organization works
d) They play a key role in information systems development projects
e) They are the project sponsors for system proposals
Ans: e
9. Which is NOT a skill for a systems analyst (as given in the text)?
a) Technical
b) Mathematics
c) Business
d) Interpersonal
e) Ethics
Ans: b
10. Which is NOT an attribute of a systems analyst?

a) Understanding what to change
b) Knowing how to change it
c) Convincing others of the need to change
d) Serving as a change agent
e) Selecting which projects to approve
Ans: e
11. Which of the following project roles would focus on new business processes and value?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
c) Infrastructure analyst
d) Change management analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: b
12. Which of the following project roles would identify how technology can improve business processes?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: a
13. Which of the following project roles would look at designing new business processes?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: a

14. Which of the following project roles would insure that the system conforms to information systems standards?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: a
15. Which of the following project roles would ensure that the system meets infrastructure standards?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: c
16. Which of the following project roles would develop a user training plan?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: d
17. Which of the following project roles would assign resources to a project?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: e
18. Which of the following project roles would serve as a primary point of contact for a project?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: e
19. Which of the following project roles would manage the team of analysts, programmers, technical writers and others?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: e
20. Which of the following project roles would analyze the key business aspects of the system?
a) Systems analyst
b) Business analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: b

21. Ted is creating a project plan. Which phase of the SDLC is he working in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Project plans are created in both the Analysis and Design phase
Ans: a
22. Shauna is doing interviewing. What would most likely be the SDLC phase for her?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Project plans are created in both the Analysis and Design phase
Ans: b
23. Simon is determining ROI and “Should we build it” for a system. Which phase of the SDLC is he working in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) ROI comes after implementation when all the data is in and the actual return on investment can be properly calculated
Ans: a
24. Michaela is a systems analyst who is determining business requirements. What would most likely be the SDLC phase for
her?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Business requirements are not developed by systems analysts, but by business analysts
Ans: b
25. Kumar is creating use cases. Which phase of the SDLC is he working in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Use cases are created in both the Analysis and Design phase
Ans: a
26. Rosita is conducting alpha tests. What SDLC phase is she in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) It is hard to say, as alpha tests can occur at any time in the SDLC
Ans: d
27. Chang is working on “How will this system work”. What SDLC phase is he in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Transition
Ans: c

28. Ting-You is focusing on delivery and support of the system. What SDLC phase is she in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Feasibility
Ans: d
29. Rodger is working on ‘why build the system’. He is in what SDLC phase?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Testing
Ans: a
30. Alice is calculating whether a system will lower costs or increase revenues. What SDLC phase is she in?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Evaluation
Ans: a
31. Which was NOT given as a method for determining business requirements?
a) Benchmarking
b) Interviewing
c) Observation
d) Document analysis
e) Questionnaires and surveys
Ans: a
32. Which would normally NOT be a part of the implementation phase?

a) System construction
b) Testing
c) Installation
d) Creating a support plan
e) Creating database and file specifications
Ans: e
33. Which would normally NOT be a reason for a project?

a) When a business need has been identified
b) A consultant has suggest a new customer relationship management system
c) An open source platform has just come on the market
d) An existing system just isn’t working properly and the workaround is tedious
e) To support a new business initiative
Ans: c
34. Which phase is generally the longest and most expensive part of the development process?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Feasibility
Ans: d

35. Because the cost can be immense, _________ is one of the most critical steps in implementation.
a) Documentation
b) Coding
c) Testing
d) Developing a conversion strategy
e) Training
Ans: c
36. Dan is looking at customer satisfaction with a new system. This is probably a:
a) Tangible cost
b) Tangible benefit
c) Intangible cost
d) Intangible benefit
e) Business requirement
Ans: b
37. PCM Incorporated will need to purchase new servers for a system. This would be a:
a) Development cost
b) Operating cost
c) Ongoing cost
d) Intangible cost
e) Intangible benefit
Ans: a
38. Which of the following will probably NOT be considered in technical feasibility?
a) Familiarity with application
b) A technology that has not been used before at this company
c) A gigantic project
d) The cost of database management system
e) The ability to interface this system with existing systems
Ans: d
39. Zoltan is worried about the company using the new system. This would be considered part of:
a) Technical feasibility
b) Economic feasibility
c) Risk feasibility
d) Hardware feasibility
e) Organizational feasibility
Ans: e
40. Linda is a clerk in the accounting department. She was interviewed by David and is excited about the proposed system that
will utilize electronic funds transfer. This would be an example of ______.
a) Tangible benefit
b) Cash flow
c) Break even analysis
d) Intangible benefit
e) Return on investment
Ans: d
41. Ramya is preparing an economic feasibility study. She has a calculation where she takes total benefits minus total costs and
divides that answer by the total costs. She is calculating:
a) Cash flow
b) Return on investment
c) Break-even point
d) Net present value
e) Internal rate of return
Ans: b

42. Ramona is preparing an economic feasibility study. She is calculating the payback period. She is calculating:
a) Cash flow
c) Break-even point
Ans: c
43. Rosa has a spreadsheet with benefits and costs spread out over several years. She is calculating:
a) Cash flow
c) Break-even point
Ans: a
44. Robert is doing an economic analysis using today’s dollar values. He is doing:
a) Cash flow analysis
b) Return on investment analysis
c) Break-even point analysis
d) Net present value analysis
e) Internal rate of return analysis
Ans: d
45. Which would most likely NOT be involved in stakeholder analysis for a supply chain control system?
a) A champion from the inventory department
b) A champion from the human resources department
c) A manager in the ordering department
d) A shipping clerk
e) A warehouse manager
Ans: b
46. TJ has prepared a spreadsheet where the total benefits are $182,000; the total cumulative costs are $120,000. The ROI
would be::
a) $62,000
b) About 34%
c) About 51.7%
d) About 65.3%
e) Less than 20%
Ans: c
47. Ross has the following calculations on a spreadsheet: Year 1 accumulated costs of 5000; year 2 accumulated costs of 7500;
year 3 accumulated costs of 9500; year 4 accumulated costs of 10500 and year 5 accumulated costs of 13000. And year 1
accumulated benefits of 300; year 2 accumulated benefits of 2300; year 3 accumulated benefits of 6500; year 4 accumulated
benefits of 10475; and year 5 accumulated benefits of 15,425. The break-even point would occur in which year?
a) Year 1
b) Year 2
c) Year 3
d) Year 4
e) Year 5
Ans: d
48. Frances has a spreadsheet where the total benefits are $497,000 and the total cumulative costs are $450,385. The ROI would
be:
a) Less than 10%
b) Between 10 and 15%
c) Between 15 and 20%
d) Between 20 and 25%
e) Over 25%
Ans: b

49. Which of the following project roles would probably make a presentation about the objectives of a proposed project and its
benefits to executives who will benefit directly from the project?
a) Business Analyst
b) Systems Analyst
c) Project Manager
d) Champion
e) Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Ans: d
50. Which is an activity the users probably will NOT do on a project?

a) Make decisions that influence the project
b) Budget funds for the project
c) Perform hands-on activities for the project
d) Be assigned specific tasks to perform (with clear deadlines)
e) Have some official roles on the project team
Ans: b
51. The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to deal fairly and honestly with other project team members is:
a) Technical
b) Business
c) Analytical
d) Interpersonal
e) Ethical
Ans: e
52. The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to understand how IT can be applied to business situations and to ensure
that the IT delivers real business value is:
a) Technical
b) Business
c) Analytical
d) Interpersonal
e) Ethical
Ans: b
53. Rocky is dealing one-on-one with users and business managers (including some that have little experience with technology).
He is demonstrating what system analyst skill?
a) Technical
b) Business
c) Analytical
d) Interpersonal
e) Ethical
Ans: d
54. Becky is a systems analyst for Laswell Consulting. She is attending a three day intensive workshop on developing
applications in php. What systems analyst skill is she working on?
a) Technical
b) Business
c) Analytical
d) Interpersonal
e) Ethical
Ans: a
55. Jack is going over financial numbers for a proposed project. Which of the following system analyst skills is he exhibiting
currently?
a) Technical
b) Business
c) Analytical
d) Interpersonal
e) Management
Ans: c

56. The new system will be built on an open source platform using MySQL and php. Jing has a strong background in these
areas. He will be serving as the _____________ on this project.
a) Business analyst
b) Systems analyst
e) Project manager
Ans: c
57. Anny is planning on talking with a clerk and a manager in the accounts payable area, a manager in the procurement
department, and two vendors. She is probably doing:
a) Observation
b) Interviews
c) JAD
d) Documentation analysis
e) Organizational Feasibility
Ans: b
58. Babu is looking at issues regarding the system installation – such as adequate documentation and training. He is probably
functioning as the ___________.
a) Project manager
b) Systems analyst
c) Champion
d) Sponsor
e) Change management analyst
Ans: e
59. Kallie is creating use cases, data flow diagrams and entity relationship diagrams. In what phase of the SDLC would she do
this?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Construction
e) Implementation
Ans: b
60. Andrew is pondering, “can we build it”. This is probably:

a) Technical feasibility
b) Economic feasibility
c) Interviewing
d) Observation
e) Fact finding
Ans: a

True / False
61. The SDLC is an acronym for the Systems Development Life Cycle. True
62. The key person in the SDLC is the Project Manager. False
63. The primary goal of a system is to create value for the organization. True
64. Systems Analysis and Design projects are highly effective, with less than 3% of all projects cancelled or abandoned. False
65. Systems that are not cancelled or abandoned are frequently delivered to the users significantly late or costing more than
expected. True
66. Being a systems analyst is one of the most interesting, exciting and challenging jobs available. True
67. The goal of a new (or reworked) system is to build a wonderful, functioning system. False
68. The key person in the SDLC is the systems analyst who analyzed the business situation, identifies opportunities for
improvements and design an information system to implement the improvements. True
69. Systems analysts need to be able to communicate effectively. True
70. Systems analysts are generally experts in business, finance and application development. False
71. When compared to a business analyst, the systems analyst will identify how the system will provide business value. False
72. When compared to a change management analyst, the systems analyst will create, manage and execute user training. False
73. The infrastructure analyst will assign resources and manage the project plan. False
74. When compared to a systems analyst, the business analyst will probably have more responsibility for determining business
value. True
75. When compared to a business analyst, the project manager will probably have more interaction with business users. False
76. Mike is a systems analyst. He will be focusing on the IS issues surrounding the system. True
77. Because of the need to be focused on providing information about the business value of a system, a systems analyst will
probably have much training or experience in programming or application development. True
78. Generally after a person has gained experience as a project manager, he or she can be promoted to being a systems analyst.
False
79. The SDLC stands for the Systems Design Labor Committee, and oversees the selection of team members from both the IS
and business side to a project. False
80. The SDLC generally can be broken into four phases: planning, analysis, design and implementation. True
81. The SDLC consists of four discrete phases – planning, analysis, design and implementation – where each step must be
completed before the next phase can commence. False
82. Technical feasibility is generally done in the planning phase of the SDLC. True
83. Determining business requirements is generally done in the planning phase of the SDLC. False
84. The project staffing plan is generally done in the analysis phase of the SDLC. False
85. The primary output of the planning phase is the System Request. True
86. The primary output of the analysis phase is the System Specifications. False
87. The primary output of the analysis phase is the System Proposal. True
88. The normal sequence of SDLC phase outputs (from beginning to end) would be: System Request; System Proposal; System
Specifications; and Installed system. True
89. Test plans are generally created in the Design phase of the SDLC. False
90. The question ‘Can we build it’ is asked in the design phase. False
91. Interviewing is generally done in the analysis phase of the SDLC. True
92. Economic feasibility is generally done in the design phase of the SDLC. False
93. Juan is creating use cases. He is working in the design phase of the SDLC. False
94. Mya is overseeing programming efforts. This is done in the implementation phase of the SDLC. True

95. The SDLC is a process of ‘gradual refinement’. True
96. The planning phase of the SDLC will have two steps: project initiation and requirements determination. False
97. The three feasibility analyses in the text were: organizational feasibility, technical feasibility, and economic feasibility. True
98. The database and file specifications are developed in the analysis phase of the SDLC. False
99. Nomar is doing requirements gathering. He would be in the analysis phase of the SDLC. True
100. Karolyn is writing the system proposal. She would do this in the Design phase of the SDLC. False
101. Developing navigation methods, database and file specifications and what architecture to use would occur in the design
phase of the SDLC. True
102. A support plan for the system is established in the implementation phase of the SDLC. True
103. Projects generally originate when someone in the organization identifies a business need. True
104. Emerging technologies rarely or never are considered when initiating a project. False
105. The term “systems analyst” and “Project sponsor” can be used interchangeably . False
106. The project sponsor should have an idea of the business value to be gained from the system. True
107. Tangible values are those benefits that will be realized within the first year of a new system. False
108. The document that describes the business reasons for building a system and the value that the system is expected to provide
is called the “System Proposal”. False
109. Completed system request forms are generally submitted to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) for consideration. False
110. A system request will generally have these items: project sponsor; business need; business requirements; business value;
special issues or constraints. True
111. In determining whether to consider a system request, the approval committee may do a feasibility analysis. True
112. The three factors in the text for a Feasibility analysis are: Technical Feasibility; Organizational Feasibility and Economic
Feasibility. True
113. The ‘motto’ that goes with Organizational Feasibility is “Can We Build It”. False
114. The ‘motto’ that goes with Economic Feasibility is “Should we build it”. True
115. If the development team of an organization is not familiar with the technologies that may be used, the project should be
cancelled. False
116. Projects with a larger size and with technologies that are unfamiliar can increase the risk of a project being completed. True
117. User frustration with a proposed system would fall under intangible costs. True
118. “ROI” is rate of income, and is one of the factors considered for Economic Feasibility. False
119. A project must have a positive ROI to be considered. False
120. Using ‘net present value’ in calculating economic feasibility will allow for variations in the time value of money. True
121. To be compatible, all costs and benefits should use the current value of money since variations over time will (a) not affect
the return on investment and (b) it is difficult (or impossible) to estimate future value of money. False
122. Important stakeholders for Organizational Feasibility include: Champion, Organizational Management, and Systems Users.
True
123. The “champion” is always a different high-level executive from the “project sponsor”. False
124. The Champion supports the project with resources and political clout. True
125. Brad is an analyst doing a Technical Feasibility study. He notices that the proposed system utilizes open source software, but
the users are only familiar with Microsoft Office products and tools. He should contact the project sponsor to change the
request to a Microsoft solution. False

Chapter 2: Project InitiationManagement
Multiple Choice
1. A critical success factor in project management is to:

a) Say “no” to all requests as they add to ‘scope creep’
b) Use throwaway prototyping
c) Use a CASE tool to delineate requirements from work tasks
d) Start with a realistic assessment of the work that needs to be done
e) Hire an outside project management consulting group
Ans: d
2. Which is a true statement about IT projects?

a) Most IS departments face a demand for IT projects that far exceed the ability to do them.
b) Project Managers must be certified as PMP (Project Management Professionals)
c) Project estimates tend to have a built-in buffer of time
d) Project teams of 12 to 15 are generally considered optimum
e) The majority of projects taken on by IT departments are not strategic to the business
Ans: a
3. Which is NOT suggested for IT development projects?

a) Projects need to be prioritized
b) Projects need to be carefully selected
c) Projects need to be carefully managed
d) Projects need to give a positive return on investment within four years
e) Projects need to give value to the business
Ans: d
4. Which would generally NOT be taken into consideration for project portfolio management in an organization?
a) The number of large projects
b) The number of tactical projects
c) The number of high risk projects
d) The number of strategic projects
e) The number of financially feasible projects
Ans: e
5. Which of the following is probably NOT a method to classify projects?

a) Open source
b) Size
c) Risk
d) Scope
e) Economic value
Ans: a
6. When comparing the Waterfall methodology to the parallel methodology:

a) The waterfall methodology will generally result in faster implementation
b) The parallel methodology will generally involve more agile development
c) The parallel methodology will generally break the project into subprojects
d) The waterfall methodology can only work with clear requirements
e) The waterfall methodology will never require requirements gathering
Ans: c

7. The V-model pays more explicit attention to ___________:
a) Iteration
b) Return on investment (ROI)
c) Business Value (the “V”)
d) Testing
e) Prototyping
Ans: d
8. RAD is an acronym for:

a) Real Application Development
b) Rapid Application Design
c) Rapid Authentic Development
d) Real Autonomous Development
e) Rapid Application Development
Ans: e
9. Which of the following is NOT a Rapid Application Development methodology?

a) Extreme Programming (XP)
b) Parallel Development
c) Throwaway Prototyping
d) Iterative development
e) System Prototyping
Ans: b
10. Which of the following might result in version 1; version 2 (etc.) of a system?
a) System Prototyping
b) Waterfall Development
c) Iterative Development
d) System Prototyping
e) Parallel Development
Ans: c
11. System prototyping is BEST characterized as:

a) A ‘Quick and Dirty’ system
b) A series of versions
c) A method for exploring design alternatives
d) A method for stressing customer satisfaction
e) More explicit testing
Ans: a
12. Throwaway prototyping is BEST characterized as:

Ans: c
13. Parallel methodology is BEST characterized as:

Ans: b

14. Extreme Programming (XP) is BEST characterized as:
Ans: d
15. The “V-model” of the waterfall method is BEST characterized as:

Ans: e
16. What the MAIN difference between systems prototyping and throwaway prototyping?
a) Systems prototyping involves users while throwaway prototyping does not
b) Throwaway prototyping involves users while systems prototyping does not
c) Systems prototyping is a rapid application development methodology; while throwaway prototyping is not
d) Systems prototyping works with users to quickly develop a simplified working version of the proposed system; while
throwaway prototyping focuses more on exploring design alternatives
e) Throwaway prototyping develops systems that will be use as ‘stop-gap’ systems – and generally for less than six months;
while systems prototyping results in systems that will be used extensively for several years.
Ans: d
17. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very
familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a very long time schedule and the schedule visibility is not
important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
d) System prototyping
e) Throwaway prototyping
Ans: a
18. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear user
requirements; unfamiliar technologies; somewhat complex; needs to be reliable; time is not an issue and the schedule
visibility is somewhat important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
Ans: e
familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and the schedule visibility is not
important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
Ans: b

familiar technologies; not all that complex; must be reliable; a somewhat longer schedule and the schedule visibility is not
important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
e) V-model
Ans: e
21. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: somewhat unclear
requirements; somewhat unfamiliar technologies; that is complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and high
schedule visibility?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
Ans: c
22. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear requirements;
very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and the schedule visibility is
somewhat important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
e) Extreme Programming
Ans: e
23. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear user
requirements; unfamiliar technologies; very complex; must be reliable; a short to medium time schedule and the schedule
visibility is somewhat important?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
Ans: e
24. Which of the following methodologies is the historic standard, but is used less today because it takes the longest to complete
all the SDLC steps?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel
c) Iterative
Ans: a
25. The main difference between the Parallel Development Methodology and the Iterative Development Methodology is that:
a) The Parallel Development Methodology will have various releases (like version 1.0; 2.0, etc.) and the Iterative will not
b) The Iterative Methodology will break the system project into sub-projects for analysis, design and implementation and then
merge them into a final system and the Parallel will not
c) The Parallel Methodology will have sub-projects and the Iterative Methodology will have various releases
d) The Parallel Methodology will create various models or prototypes with user involvement before setting on design concepts
and the Iterative will not
e) The Iterative Methodology will create various models or prototypes with user involvement before setting on design concepts
and the Parallel Methodology will not
Ans: c

26. Which of the following would BEST describe “clarity of user requirements”?
a) The aspect of using technologies that analysts and developers are familiar with
b) The aspect of what the business side really wants the system to do
c) The aspect of how quickly the system can be developed and implemented
d) The aspect of how complex the system must be
e) The aspect of how accurate the system must be (such as medical equipment or for games)
Ans: b
27. Which of the following would BEST describe “familiarity with technology”?
Ans: a
28. Which of the following would BEST describe “system complexity”?

d) The aspect of how intricate and difficult the system must be
Ans: d
29. Which of the following would BEST describe “system reliability”?

Ans: e
30. Which of the following would BEST describe “short time schedules”?
Ans: c
31. Bob is selecting a systems analysis and design methodology. What might be the first step?
a) Selecting the shortest methodology
b) Researching the organizations standards and policies for ‘approved’ methodologies
c) Interviewing senior management as to their suggestions on methodologies
d) Do a quick ‘cost/benefit’ analysis on which methodology will provide the most benefits at the lowest cost
e) Do an analysis on which methodology might lessen or eliminate scope creep
Ans: b
32. A team of developers and customers are in close communication, with frequent communications, simplicity, feedback and
courage. This would best describe:
a) The parallel development methodology
b) The waterfall development methodology
c) The iterative development methodology
d) The Extreme Programming methodology
e) The throwaway prototyping methodology
Ans: d

33. Amie and Rani are analysts; Stephen, David and Chang are users. They are approaching a new system project and trying to
streamline the SDLC by using a lot of face-to-face communication, with eliminating modeling and documentation overhead.
They are probably doing:
a) Parallel development methodology
b) Waterfall methodology
c) Agile methodology
d) Iterative methodology
e) Full Procedure Methodology (FPM)
Ans: c
34. In a “typical” business application development using the SDLC, you would probably spend ____ in the planning phase.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) 30%
Ans: b
35. In a “typical” business application development using the SDLC, you would probably spend ____ in the analysis phase.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) 30%
Ans: c
36. In a “typical” business application development using the SDLC, you would probably spend ____ in the design phase.
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
e) 40%
Ans: d
37. In a “typical” business application development using the SDLC, you would probably spend ____ in the implementation
phase.
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
e) 40%
Ans: c
38. Kumar is the project manager for a revised TTP system. Which of the following most likely would NOT be considered in
developing a work plan?
a) Identifying tasks that need to be completed
b) Estimating the time that will be needed on tasks
c) Creating a dependency chart
d) The organizational readiness for the project
e) Key milestones that need to be met
Ans: d
39. Tatiana is developing a staffing plan for a project. Which of the following would she NOT consider in developing such a
staffing plan?
a) Matching people’s skills with the needs of the project
b) Determining the number of people that might be needed
c) Creating a team with balanced diversity
d) Determining the technical skills needed on the project
e) Selecting people with good interpersonal skills to help with political considerations
Ans: c

40. Suggestions for motivation might include all of these EXCEPT:
a) Setting realistic deadlines
b) Giving all team members the same bonus on a project
c) Recognize and reward good efforts
d) Reward those with outstanding quality and effort
e) Having a good working environment
Ans: b
41. This factor is the number one influence on people’s performance:

a) Motivation
b) Financial reward
c) Group-think
d) Scope creep
e) New technology
Ans: a
42. TJ is coordinating a project. Which would he probably NOT use to avoid conflicts?
a) Encourage a competitive edge between team members
b) Clearly defining plans for the project
c) Develop a project charter
d) Look at other projects and priorities and see how that might impact the project
e) Communicate the business value to the team
Ans: a
43. __________ are created to ensure that team members are performing tasks in the same way and following the same
procedures.
a) Project charters
b) Standards
c) CASE tools
d) Waterfall methodologies
e) Agile technologies
Ans: b
44. Which is probably NOT a standard that Babu would use on a project?
a) User interface design standards
b) Procedural standards
c) Coding standards
d) Specification requirement standards
e) Reimbursement standards
Ans: e
45. The most common reason for schedule and cost overruns is ___________
a) Team conflict
b) Lack of communication from project manager to project team
c) Lack of support by sponsor and champion
d) Scope creep
e) Adding people to a late project
Ans: d
46. Estimating can be tough. In terms of costs when doing the analysis phase, the typical margin of error for well-done
estimates could be as much as _______ % off.
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 50%
e) 60%
Ans: d

47. Micah is a fairly new project manager. He estimated for a project plan (on the planning phase) that the project would cost
$50,000 and take 20 weeks. According to the margin of error guidelines for well-done estimates, that could range from:
a) $0 and $100,000 – and between 15 and 25 weeks
b) $10,000 and $60,000 – and between 12 and 28 weeks
c) $0 and $100,000 – and between 0 and 40 weeks
d) $5,000 and $100,000 – and between 10 and 30 weeks
e) $25,000 and $75,000 – and between 10 and 30 weeks
Ans: a
48. The science (or art) of project management is in making ___________ of size, time and cost.
a) Benchmark comparisons
b) Analytical and educated estimates
c) Trade-offs
d) Maximum calculations
e) Minimum calculations
Ans: c
49. Mya is managing a project. Unfortunately, the entire project team lost four days due to a hurricane in the area and a couple
of the project team lost even more time when dealing with insurance claims and rebuilding. At the six-week mark of a nine-
week project, she figures the team is one week behind. What might be the BEST solution?
a) Add several people to the project to get it back to schedule
b) Do not change the schedule, but expect the project and development teams to work longer days and every-other weekend.
c) Since the project is about 16% behind, increase the project to about 10-and-one-half weeks
d) Since the project is about 20% behind, increase the project to about 12 week.
e) Add three people to the project – AND – increase the overall project by one week (to a total of ten weeks)
Ans: c
50. Garrett has been told by management that his project MUST be completed on time. His best estimates are more than two
weeks after the absolute deadline. Which technique could he use to get a functional system on time?
a) Risk management
b) System prototyping
c) Benchmarking
d) Timeboxing
e) Activity elimination
Ans: d
51. Which of the following probably is NOT a timeboxing step?

a) Set the date for system delivery
b) Prioritize the functionality that needs to be included in the system
c) Build the core of the systems (with the basic functions included)
d) Add sufficient staff to reach basic functionality
e) Postpone functionality that cannot be provided with in the time frame
Ans: d
52. Which of the following is NOT a classic planning mistake?

a) Overly optimistic schedule
b) Failing to monitor the schedule
c) Failing to update the schedule
d) Adding people to a late project
e) Omitting key requirements
Ans: e

53. CASE stands for:
a) Computer analysis and software engineering
b) Computer-aided software engineering
c) Computer Arbitrated System Engineering
d) Control and System Environment
e) Control and System Engineering
Ans: b
54. A two-person team has single line of communication; a three-person team will have three lines of communication; a four-
person team will have six lines of communication. A team with n members will have:
a) n! (n factorial) lines of communication
b) n2 (n squared) lines of communication
c) ((n * (n-1)) / n) lines of communication
d) ((n * (n-1)) / 2) lines of communication
e) (n2 / n!) (n squared divided by n factorial) lines of communication
Ans: d
55. If the skills required by a project cannot be met by the available project team, which would probably NOT be a reasonable
solution?
a) Use a consultant
b) Use a contract employee
c) Modify the project to use skills inherent on the project team
d) Train the project team (or some of the team) on the skills needed
e) Mentor a team member (like sending a person to work on a similar project to acquire the necessary skills)
Ans: c
56. Interpersonal skills for a project manager might be important when:

a) Making assignments for a project
b) Creating a cost/benefit spreadsheet
c) Creating the system proposal
d) Working with a highly controversial project that may have political implications
e) Using the V-model variation of the Waterfall Methodology.
Ans: d
57. Rich is a manager in the accounting department. After the system proposal is approved, he realizes that he did not mention
that they want the new system to run on laptops, mobile PDA’s and other mobile devices with a secure login and all data
should be encrypted to meet the latest security guidelines. He wants to make sure this is included in the project. This
probably is:
a) Scope creep
b) Technical feasibility
c) Infrastructure requirement
d) Already included in the system proposal
e) Unrelated to the project
Ans: a

True / False
58. PMP is Project Management Professional. True
59. PMP is People – Management – Project – the three components of successful project management. False
60. CIO is an acronym for “computing information organization”. False
61. CIO is an acronym for “Chief Information Officer”. True
62. A critical success factor for project management is to start with a realistic assessment of the work that needs to be
accomplished. True
63. A critical success factor for project management is to have a positive return on investment within six years. False
64. Investments in information systems projects today are evaluated in the context of an entire portfolio of projects. True
65. In today’s organizations, an approval committee must review and monitor project progress to ensure project continuance.
True
66. In most IT departments, the demand for IT projects is generally about the same as the department’s ability to supply them.
False
67. The corporate IT department carefully needs to prioritize, select and manage a portfolio of projects. True
68. Projects can be classified by: size, cost, purpose, length, programming language and hardware platform. False
69. The project methodology that takes the longest to complete is the Waterfall Development Methodology. True
70. The project methodology that takes the longest to complete is Throwaway Prototyping Methodology. False
71. The project methodology that takes the longest to complete is Extreme Programming Methodology. False
72. The Waterfall Methodology generally follows the SDLC from phase to phase. True
73. The Waterfall Methodology breaks the overall project into a series of release versions. False
74. The Parallel Methodology breaks the overall project into a series of release versions. False
75. The Iterative approach of the RAD methodology breaks the overall project into a series of release versions. True
76. The V-model is a variation of the Waterfall Methodology that stresses testing. True
77. The V-model is a rapid application development (RAD) methodology that stresses user involvement and organizational
adoption. False
78. The Throwaway Prototyping methodology is especially good for exploring design alternatives. True
79. The Throwaway Prototyping methodology is good at creating release version 1.0 for users; and then the methodology shifts
to system prototyping to finish the system. False
80. Throwaway Prototyping balances the benefits of well-thought-out analysis and design phases with the advantages of using
prototypes to refine key issues before a system is built. True
81. Agile Development stresses analysis, modeling and documentation over programming. False
82. Extreme Programming (XP) stresses customer satisfaction and teamwork. True

83. If you had a project with very clear requirements; familiar technologies; not super complex; reliable; a very long time
schedule and where the need for schedule visibility is low – the best methodology might be Extreme programming. False
84. Scope creep is when somebody pours ‘scope mouthwash’ on you. False
85. Scope creep is when new requirements are added to the project after the original project scope was defined and 'frozen’.True
86. The margin of error in cost and time estimates can be as much as 20% in the planning phase for the system proposal
deliverable. False
87. The science (or art) of project management is setting a schedule and sticking to it no matter what – even if that includes
working weekends and adding staff to reach the deadline on time. False
88. Wendy has been informed by the CIO that the project she is managing MUST be done by December 20th and must be fully
tested and implemented by December 31st. She realizes that will mean she will have to prioritize the functionality and build
the system to meet the core functions, even if that means something gets delayed until the next release of that system. She is
practicing the ‘benchmarking’ approach to scope management. False
89. Wendy has been informed by the CIO that the project she is managing MUST be done by December 20th and must be fully
tested and implemented by December 31st. She realizes that will mean she will have to prioritize the functionality and build
the system to meet the core functions, even if that means something gets delayed until the next release of that system. She is
practicing the ‘timeboxing’ approach to scope management. True
90. A classic planning mistake mentioned in the textbook is having an ‘overly optimistic schedule’. True
91. A classic planning mistake mentioned in the textbook is motivating employees with financial rewards instead of recognition
and genuine thanks. False
92. Nate is managing a project that is behind by one month with five months to go. He should add four to six staff persons to the
project to get it back up to speed. False
93. Using industry standards, the general estimated project time for the Implementation phase is 15%. False
94. Using industry standards, the general estimated project time for the Implementation phase is 30%. True
95. Using industry standards, the general estimated project time for the Planning phase is 15%. True
96. Using industry standards, the general estimated project time for the Analysis phase is 20% True
97. Using industry standards, the general estimated project time for the Design phase is 50% False
98. Scrum, XP and Dynamic systems development method (DSDM) are all classified as ‘agile development’ concepts. True
99. The traditional methodology that emphasizes all of the steps of the SDLC in order, but with a stronger emphasis on testing is
the “T-Model”. False
100. Either systems prototyping or throwaway prototyping are generally a good methodology choice when the project has unclear
user requirements. True

Chapter 3: Requirements Determination
Multiple Choice
1. The outcome of the analysis phase is the:

Ans: b
2. In the SDLC (Systems Development Life Cycle), what comes after the analysis phase?
a) Approval phase
b) Design phase
c) Development phase
d) Implementation phase
e) Planning phase
Ans: b
3. The systems proposal is generally approved by.

a) The Chief Information Officer
b) The top manager in the user’s area (like the Vice President of Marketing)
c) The Vice President of Finance
d) The approval committee
e) The CEO (chief executive officer)
Ans: d
4. Which of the following will probably NOT be at a system walkthrough?

a) User representatives
b) Management representatives
c) Computer Center director
d) Key decision makers
e) Analyst who prepared the system proposal
Ans: c
5. The line between analysis and design is sometimes very blurry. One reason is that _____:
a) Object-oriented methods are generally fuzzier as compared to waterfall methods
b) there is inadequate funding for the analysis phase to do a complete analysis
c) analysts are generally rushed to complete the system proposal
d) scope creep has occurred
e) the deliverables are really the first step in the design of the new system
Ans: e
6. Which is NOT a purpose of the requirements definition?

a) To give a very high-level explanation of the business requirements
b) A more precise list of requirements that can be used as inputs to the rest of analysis
c) Create functional requirements
d) Create cost/benefit analysis
e) Create non-functional requirements
Ans: d

7. When determining requirements it is good to have all BUT ____ involved.
a) Managers in the business area
b) Analysts
c) Project Sponsors
d) Staff in the business area
e) Information technology staff
Ans: e
8. An example of a functional requirement is _________

a) Access to the customer order system
b) System should be available in English and Spanish
c) System can be accessed through a Blackberry device
d) Output can be displayed in Internet Explorer, in Firefox, or in Google Chrome browsers
e) System is automatically updated every 5 seconds
Ans: a
9. An example of a nonfunctional requirement is ____________

a) Supplier table is available
b) The system must contain customer order history for three years
c) System can be used in any of 100 offices worldwide
d) SQL queries from customer table and order table are available
e) Customer zipcode is formatted as character data
Ans: c
10. Which is generally NOT true of non-functional requirements?

a) Cultural differences can be considered
b) Color interpretations on screens and forms may be different in different geographical places
c) Multi-lingual interfaces many be needed
d) Systems may need to adapt from global solutions to local realities
e) Systems may need to have actual expenses from global operations
Ans: e
11. Which is NOT an expectation of the Requirements Definition?

a) Listing of functional requirements
b) Listing of project costs and benefits in both dollars and Euros
c) Listing of non-functional requirements
d) Defining scope of project
e) To be the document that is used for clarification when problems arise.
Ans: b
12. One of the problems when doing requirements determination is:

a) Exclusion of business users and failure to address the true business needs of the users
b) Inclusion of data tables
c) Inclusion of business logic
d) Inclusion of a list of processes the system needed to perform
e) Over-reliance on object oriented systems analysis and design
Ans: a
13. Which is NOT a requirements analysis strategy?

a) Understanding of the as-is system
b) Identifying improvements
c) Developing requirements for the to-be system
d) Root cause analysis
e) Understanding of screen design, layout and navigation
Ans: e

14. According to the authors, in moving “from here to there”, an analyst needs:
a) An understanding of corporate politics
b) Knowledge on how to stop scope creep
c) Joint Application Development facilitating skills
d) Microsoft Project Management software skills
e) Strong critical thinking skills
Ans: e
15. Jona’s project is to take a fairly straight-forward manual process and make it an electronic process. This will make the
processing more efficient. Which of the following requirements analysis strategies is she using?
a) Business Process Automation
b) Business Process Improvement
c) Business Process Internalization
d) Business Process Reengineering
e) Business Process Renovation
Ans: a
16. Two BPA techniques commonly used to identify possible problems in the current system are _____.
a) Problem Analysis and benchmarking
b) Problem Analysis and activity based costing
c) Duration analysis and informal benchmarking
d) Root Cause Analysis and outcome analysis
e) Problem analysis and root cause analysis
Ans: e
17. Root Cause Analysis tries to find _____.

a) How long each process takes in the as-in system with an eye at shortening the time
b) How much each process costs (rather than the time) with an eye at cutting costs
c) The true problem and not just symptoms of problems and solve that
d) Technologies that could work
e) Other companies that have similar processes and attempt to learn from them
Ans: c
18. Omar is making moderate changes to a system in order to take advantage of new opportunities offered by technology or to
emulate what other companies are doing. This would be called:
Ans: b
19. Sanjay has business colleagues on the Slashdot.org technology forum. He is interested in how they may have implemented
supply chain management systems using radio frequency identification. Sanjay is identifying improvement opportunities
through _____.
a) Duration analysis
b) Outcome analysis
c) Activity-Based Costing
d) Informal Benchmarking
e) Root Cause analysis
Ans: d

20. Wayne is a senior director of finance. His company only recently came under Sarbanes-Oxley regulations and is the project
sponsor to become compliant. He realizes that examining the as-is system may not be much help as the regulations are so
radical that a major analysis and design project must be completed to make the company compliant. He is leaning towards:
______________
Ans: d
21. There are times where what one ‘assumes’ might be incorrect. The analyst may assume that a system needs to have bilingual
language support in California, while the system is only used by a small department where only English is spoken.
Likewise, an analyst may assume that financial data is coming from internal sources, but is largely coming from external
bank regulators and the Federal Reserve Bank. Analyzing the assumptions underlying a process to really understand what
users, customers and others want is:
b) Feasibility analysis
c) Outcome analysis
d) Problem analysis
e) Root cause analysis
Ans: c
22. Moderate changes to existing processes falls under the _________ analysis.
a) Business Process Automation (BPA)
b) Business Process Improvement (BPI)
c) Business Process Reengineering (BPR)
d) Business Process Blue-skying (BPB)
e) Business Process Efficiency (BPE)
Ans: b
23. Myles is studying a system to lessen the number of complaints about the Help Desk. He has formally studied the service
counter at Wal-Mart, Target and Kohl’s department stores; as well as listened in to complaint phone calls to a hotel booking
site. He is trying to see how other organizations work at lessening complaints and also how they handle complaints. This
would be what type of analysis?
a) Complaint processing
b) Design analysis
c) Problem analysis
d) Outcome analysis
e) Informal benchmarking
Ans: e
24. Mya is an analyst for National Homeowners Insurance of Hartford Connecticut. After hurricane Katrina, National
Homeowners took an average of 78 days to assess damage and settle claims in the affected area. While Katrina was an
unusual situation, Mya’s analysis shows that the average claim processing should be less than 10 days for more ‘normal’
insurance processing. What analysis technique is she using?
b) Formal benchmarking
c) Hurricane model analysis
d) Simulation
e) ANOVA forecasting
Ans: a

25. Mya, an analyst for National Homeowners Insurance of Hartford Connecticut, has been assigned to look at radical changes
to property damage claims. Currently, she is taking each step in the existing process and deleting it to see if that step really
was needed (or was duplicated in other ways). Which analysis technique is she using?
a) Activity based costing
b) Activity elimination
c) Forecasting analysis
d) Problem analysis
e) Root-cause analysis
Ans: b
26. Which of the following requirements analysis techniques would most likely have: moderate project costs; multiple business
functions; moderate risk; and generally offers moderate potential benefits?
Ans: b
27. The authors suggest that an analyst is ‘very much like a ____________’ and business users are like elusive suspects.
a) Police professional
b) Politician
c) Forensic scientist
d) Air traffic controller
e) Detective
Ans: e
28. When gathering requirements from processing clerks and lower level managers about ‘how’ a system works, the best
approach might be: _____.
a) JAD session
b) Document analysis
c) Closed ended interview questions
d) Probing interview questions
e) Root cause analysis
Ans: c
29. Amanda sent a list with GPS, RFID, ERP, SOA, SaaS, VoIP and ten additional ‘hot’ technologies to managers at her
company. She wanted them to think how each technology could be applied to current business process. Amanda is
identifying improvement opportunities through _____.
a) Benchmarking
b) Technical feasibility
c) Problem analysis
d) Root cause analysis
e) Technology analysis
Ans: e
30. An analysis team consisting of users, managers, and analysts, are doing activity elimination analysis. They are probably in
the midst of:
Ans: c

31. Business Process Automation (BPA) is noted for all of the following EXCEPT which one?
a) Narrow business segment
b) Lower costs
c) Generally lower risks
d) More efficient processing
e) Potentially higher returns
Ans: e
32. Which is NOT part of the requirements gathering process?

a) Is used for building political support for the project
b) Is used for establishing trust and rapport between the project team and users
c) Determining ‘if we build it, they will come’
d) Key stakeholders need to be included
e) Involving people who may feel slighted if their input is not considered
Ans: c
33. When gathering requirements, the most commonly used technique is: __________
a) Document Analysis
b) Interviews
c) Joint Application Development (JAD) sessions
d) Questionnaires / surveys
e) Observation
Ans: b
34. A technique where the project team, users, and management work together for several hours or several days or several weeks
until the needed information is collected is: _____.
b) Interviews
e) Observation
Ans: c
35. A technique where a set of written (or online) questions are distributed to people (frequently to a large number of people) is:
_____.
b) Interviews
e) Observation
Ans: d
36. A technique where an analyst goes through binders of information about a system, such as processes, procedures, etc. is
__________
b) Interviews
e) Observation
Ans: a

37. A technique where the analyst watches how people perform their activities is _______
b) Interviews
e) Observation
Ans: e
38. Which of the following is NOT a common problem in JAD sessions?

a) Where one or two people dominate the discussion
b) Where two or more people seem to be in great disagreements – but actually are very close together (violent agreement)
c) Where two or more people just cannot agree – and have made sure that the others know this (unresolved conflict)
d) That the facilitator helps by inserting his or her opinion
e) Where some people seem to be whispering and side discussions among themselves
Ans: d
39. Which is NOT a good practice in conducting interviews?

a) Be happy – happy people radiate confidence
b) Explain thoroughly – it is estimated that in a strong interview session, the interviewer (you) should talk and explain about
60% of the time; and the interviewee should answer about 40% of the time
c) Watch interviewees’ facial expressions, how they sit and their body language; do they cross their arms; do they lean forward?
d) Pay attention to what the interviewee is saying
e) If the interviewee ask you a question, answer it truthfully – and if you don’t know an answer, say so
Ans: b
40. In the interview report, what will probably NOT be included?

a) Summary of what the interviewee said
b) Interview’s name; interviewee’s name
c) Details from crucial areas of the interview relating to the project at hand
d) The actual questions that were asked as a permanent record
e) Any materials, documents, etc. that the interviewee gave you relevant to the project at hand
Ans: d
41. After creating the interview report you should:

a) Send a copy to the interviewee with a request to read it and correct or clarify
b) Change the document into a unchangeable format (like a pdf file) so that it cannot be changed or edited
c) Distribute the interview report to all others that are on the interview schedule so they will not have to go over the same
materials
d) Edit the report into a bulleted format for easier analysis
e) Distribute the interview report to the interviewee’s manager.
Ans: a
42. Probably the first thing to do when conducting an interview is:

a) Turn on your tape recorder
b) Get started by asking the first question on your list
c) Build rapport with the interviewee so he or she trusts you
d) Ask a close ended question
e) Ask a probing question
Ans: c
43. During an interview with a technical support specialist, she uses an acronym XYZ that you are not familiar with. You
should:
a) Note it in your interview notes to ‘Google’ it when you are done to learn about it
b) Not ask her for the meaning as you are a professional in the area and to ask would undermine your credibility
c) Let it pass as she will probably explain it more later in the interview
d) Act like you know the meaning and even use in a question like “How do you support XYZ in your processing”?
e) Ask her to explain the term. Some departments have special jargon that needs interpretation
Ans: e

44. Robin is conducting an e-JAD session. What might be the main benefit of an e-JAD session?
a) It can reduce the time to run a JAD session from 50% to 80%
b) It removes false interpretation of body language
c) It will eliminate the ‘violent agreement’ aspect of traditional JAD sessions
d) It will eliminate the ‘unresolved conflict’ aspects of traditional JAD sessions
e) It will eliminate the need for humor as found in traditional JAD sessions
Ans: a
45. In your JAD session, you have a range of participants – from hourly workers to managers and executives. As you are
conducting the JAD session, you sense that Chris, an accounts receivable processor is reluctant to talk – and it seems that is
because Karen, the manager of the accounting department is also involved. The BEST plan might be to:
a) Quietly ask Karen at a break to encourage Chris to join in more
b) Quietly ask Chris at a break to join in more
c) Let it be, and after the JAD session is over, schedule an interview with Chris
d) Ask Chris a direct factual question that you know he can answer
e) After the first day, replace Chris with another accounts receivable person who will speak up
Ans: d
46. Your new online customer relationship management (CRM) system has been in place for 3 months. You want to get
feedback on how it has been received by customers. What might be the best approach?
a) Select three customers at random and call them for their feedback
b) Develop an online survey and e-mail a link to the survey to all customers that have used the system
c) Develop an online survey and e-mail a link to a random group of five customers that have used the system
d) Arrange to be with three customers when they use the system to observe how they use it
e) Interview three help desk staff people as to complaints and feedback they have gotten from users.
Ans: b
47. The interview process has gone well. There are a few things that need clarification and what really happens when specific
financial analysts use the system. Which of the following might be the best way to verify what does happen?
a) Observation of how the analysts do their work
b) Document analysis of what the system was to do
c) A JAD session with end users, financial analysts and top managers
d) Additional interviews with top level managers in the finance area
e) Questionnaires / survey of end users of the system
Ans: a
48. Sridhar is interviewing the manager in the stock room about a new supply chain system project. He wants to start with some
specific questions, and then move to broader general questions about stock room processes and procedures. Sridhar is using
the _____ interview structure.
a) Closed ended
b) Open ended
c) Bottom up
d) Top down
e) Probing
Ans: c
49. To make his interviewee at ease, Karolyn has decided on asking general questions first and then moving to more detailed
questions. She is using a _________ interviewing structure.
a) Top down
b) Bottom up
c) Closed ended
d) Open ended
e) Probing
Ans: a

50. Danielle has asked some closed ended questions to start an interview; then some open ended questions. Now she wants to
really wants to get a greater depth of information about the process. She would probably use _________ questions.
a) More closed ended
b) More open ended
c) Probing
d) Structured
e) Boxing structure
Ans: c
51. Michael, a systems analyst, is preparing a closed wiki site for Northstate Bank. He has written permission from eight other
companies to view their internal wiki sites, and also has approval from his manager and the project team to use these other
sites for ideas and structure. This would be a form of:
c) Informal Benchmarking
d) Formal Benchmarking
e) Technology Analysis
Ans: d
52. Rosa is creating an interview plan that lists the questions that she will ask and she is trying to anticipate the possible answers.
This would be done in which step of the interview process?
a) Selecting interviewees
b) Designing interview questions
c) Preparing for the interview
d) Conducting the interview
e) Post-interview follow-up
Ans: c
53. Bridget needs to interview Yuri. She contacts him to verify the areas where he has knowledge so he is able to answer the
questions. This would be done in which step of the interview process?
Ans: c
54. Paul is interviewing Ming. He first explains why he is there and what he wants to accomplish in the interview. This would
be done in which step of the interview process?
Ans: d
55. Rafael, Fraud Unit Manager, has just received an interview report from Stefano, a systems analyst. Rafael was interviewed
by Stefano, and was asked to make corrections and clarifications to the interview report. In what interview phase would this
occur?
Ans: e

56. As part of the requirements gathering process, Mike is creating an interview schedule that lists all of the people who will be
interviewed, when and for what purpose. In what part of the interview process would this occur?
Ans: a
57. Damian, a systems analysst, is getting frustrated. With the other analysts on the project team, he started developing an
interview schedule. But, the list of interviewees has grown significantly. He should have known that would have happened
as it was discussed in the textbook in which of the following interviewing phases?
Ans: a
58. Michelle is going to facilitate a JAD session. She has prepared ground rules. In what step of the JAD process is this done?
a) Selecting participants
b) Designing the JAD session
c) Preparing for the JAD session
d) Conducting the JAD session
e) Post-JAD follow-up
Ans: d
59. One of the major differences between a JAD session and an interview is:
a) Selecting participants
b) Figuring out what is to be done
c) Preparing for the session
d) Writing up results and a report
e) All JAD sessions are structured and must be carefully planned
Ans: e
60. One difference between the reports from interviews and from a JAD session is that:
a) It describes information from the interview or JAD session
b) The interview report will give a complete project management timeline; while the JAD session report will not
c) The interview report is generally written within 48 hours of the interview; while the JAD session report may take a week or
two after the JAD session.
d) The JAD report will include results from questionnaires while the interview report will not
e) JAD reports will include technology analysis while interviews will only include root cause analysis
Ans: c
61. During an interview, the analyst has asked several open-ended questions regarding the procedures that are followed to handle
a delinquent customer. Although the supervisor being interviewed has answered the questions, the analyst is still unclear
about several details of the process. The analyst's best course of action is to _____.
a) Ask probing questions to try and get more detail
b) Assume that he can figure out the procedure late after the interview is concluded
c) Give up for now and talk to the supervisor again tomorrow
d) Jump to another unrelated topic
e) Stop the interview and seek a more cooperative subject
Ans: a

62. Creating an interview plan that lists the questions that you will ask and anticipates the possible answers is done in which step
of the interview process?
a) Conducting the interview
d) Following-up
e) Selecting an interviewee
Ans: c
63. An interview report is prepared in which step of the interview process?

a) Conducting the interview
c) Post interview following-up
d) Preparing for the interview
e) Selecting an interviewee
Ans: c
64. Lars wants to combine information from a variety of perspectives, as well as build consensus, and use a requirements
gathering technique that has a good chance at reducing scope creep. He probably will use: _____.
a) document analysis
b) interview
c) JAD session
d) observation
e) questionnaire
Ans: c
65. A JAD facilitator does all of the following except:

a) Sets the meeting agenda
b) Encourages non-participants to join in
c) Tries to keep the discussion on track and avoid ‘agenda merry-go-round’
d) Expresses his or her opinion when necessary
e) Attempts to keep the discussion from being controlled by just a few people
Ans: d
66. Which of the following is true about a JAD facilitator?

a) They can participate in the discussion to settle a disagreement
b) They keep track of all discussions by entering information into the computer
c) They allow sidebar discussions and unstructured activities
d) They recognize that some people know more about the system and proposed system and will dominate the discussion and
know that is a positive thing
e) They set the meeting agenda
Ans: e
67. LaChelle has set the agenda, will record the group’s input on a public display area (like a white board) and will guide the
discussion during a JAD session. She is serving as the ________.
a) Systems analyst
b) Software engineer
c) Scribe
d) Participant
e) Facilitator
Ans: e

68. Hamid has selected one middle manager from each department that will be affected by the updated system and one lower-
level manager from each department, along with a few senior staff as well as the project sponsor for a JAD session. He is
trying to: _________
a) Balance the work load for departments so the regular day-to-day functions can still continue while the JAD team is off-site
b) Create a new hybrid department that will beta test the final system
c) Prevent domination by only a few individuals in the JAD session
d) Have a broad mix of organizational levels in the JAD session
e) Reduce the time necessary for the length of JAD session meetings
Ans: d
69. Rachel is a systems analyst working on an update to the customer update system. Which of the following might be the best
group to interview?
a) At least one customer service agent (CSA), at least one shift supervisor, and the CSA department manager
b) Three shift supervisors and the department manager
c) Three customer service agents (one with less than one year experience; one with one to five years of experience and one with
over five years of experience, and the finance vice president
d) Three shift supervisors from the customer service department; a shift manager from the call center; and a shift manager from
the stockroom.
e) A manager in the human resources department
Ans: a
70. Thom wants to gather information from outside the organization. He would probably use:
a. Document analysis
b. Interviewing
c. Joint application design (JAD) sessions
d. Observation
e. Questionnaires
Ans: e
71. Marta wants to collect facts and opinions from a wide range of geographically dispersed people quickly and with the least
expense. She would probably want to use:
a) Document analysis
b) Interview
c) JAD session
d) Observation
e) Questionnaires
Ans: e
72. Blaine is using a requirements gathering technique that begins with non-threatening questions, avoids abbreviations, groups
items into logically coherent sections, and might best be used with outside users. He probably is using:
b) Interview
c) JAD session
d) Observation
e) Questionnaires
Ans: e
73. During the interview process, you were told how well the current system works. You have decided to observe how one of
the electronic order forms is processed. Daniel, an order processing clerk, takes all the queued information and prints it out.
He then circles the order number and the total amount and types it into a spreadsheet. Ultimately he will total the individual
amounts. This is a(n) _______ system.
a) Customer friendly
b) Documentation
c) Formal
d) Informal
e) Policy
Ans: d

74. Henri examines existing paperwork in order to better understand the as-is system. This is called:
b) Interviewing
c) Joint application design (JAD) sessions
d) Observation
e) Questionnaires
Ans: a
75. What information-gathering strategy enables the analyst to see the reality of the situation rather than listen to others describe
it?
b) Interviewing
c) Joint application design (JAD) sessions
d) Observation
e) Questionnaires
Ans: d
76. During observation Kim has learned that the users in the inventory monitoring department have created their own forms.
This is a clear sign that the _____.
a) As-is system is meeting user needs
b) Department was overlooked during the interview process
c) Process does not need improvements
d) System needs to be changed
e) Users in the department are innovative
Ans: d
77. Theresa would like to gain a broad understanding of just the as-is system, but the IS department has not fully budgeted this
phase of the analysis process and she has not been given permission to contact the users. She could probably use which of
the following techniques?
b) Interviews
c) JAD
d) Observation
e) Questionnaires
Ans: a

True/False
78. One of the first activities of an analyst is to determine the business requirements for the new system True
79. The SDLC moves from the current system (often called the “past system”) to the new system (often called the “future
system”). False
80. The output of the analysis phase is the ‘system proposal’. True
81. The system proposal with all supporting materials generally goes to the Chief Information Officer (CIO), who is responsible
for approval. False
82. The SDLC phases are all very unique and sharply delineated. False
83. Some people have suggested that the ‘analysis’ phase could be clearer if it was called the ‘analysis and initial design’ phase.
True
84. When dealing with a global information supply chain, functional requirements generally increase exponentially, while
nonfunctional requirements tend to stay about the same. False
85. Jorge, Vice President of Operations, has requested that the updated supply chain system keep a record of all ‘stock-outs’ for
six years. This is an example of a functional requirement. True
86. Maria, a systems analyst, is tweaking the high-level explanation of the business requirements into a more precise list of
requirements. This is called ‘requirements detemination’. True
87. Generally ‘system requirements’ are developed in the analysis phase and evolve to more technical ‘business requirements’ in
the design phase. False
88. In interviews, Ross has learned that the new order entry system must be available in at least three formats (mobile, web
browser, and local area network based); that it must function in either English or Spanish; and that the system must return
order forms and data in less than 2 seconds. He recognizes these as nonfunctional requirements. True
89. Kathy Ford is InformSystems Incorporated’s compliance officer. In working with analyst Catherine Steele on the updated
system for accounting for uncollectable debts (‘write offs’), Kathy is creating some additional requirements for the system.
These additional requirements will only be nonfunctional in nature as they specific data that management must provide to the
system in order to satisfy Sarbanes-Oxley reporting standards . False
90. The most important purpose of the requirements definition is to define the scope of the system. True
91. When prioritizing business requirements, the analyst is probably using the Waterfall method. False
92. Michael, a systems analyst, is working on a project. One thing he can do is to rank the business requirements as “high”,
“medium”, or “low” importance. True
93. To create the requirements definition, the project team first should consider the kinds of functional and non-functional
requirements that they will collect about the system. True
94. Miski has modified an existing time reporting system for hourly employees to be more efficient as they can text message
when they are leaving a job site. This would be an example of Business Process Automation. True

95. Management of requirements and system scope is one of the hardest parts of managing a project. True
96. In BPA and BPI, analysis is generally divided into three steps: understanding the as-is system; developing a cost-benefit
analysis; and understanding the technical feasibility. False
97. In RAD or agile development methodology (especially with BPR), a significant amount of time and effort is spent in
understanding the as-is system. False
98. Andrei is an analyst on a project that is making small to moderate changes in an existing system. He needs to be able to
recognize strengths and weaknesses in the as-is system and in the various improvements that have been suggested and he
should be able to reformulate these ideas into a coherent plan. True
99. Anne has asked users and managers to identify problems with the as-is system and to describe how to solve them in the to-be
system. She is probably doing Business Process Automation (BPA) in this case.True
100. Marta wants to focus on ‘why’ a particular lockout situation occurs on a customer relationship management system, rather
than just developing a work-around fix. She is doing activity elimination. False
101. Online loan companies (like LendingTree) attempt to return quotes for loans within an hour. With more traditional banks,
getting a quote on a loan may take weeks to a month. Two techniques that were probably carefully analyzed in creating
online loan quotation systems would be duration analysis and activity elimination. True
102. Standard Foundry had made drill bits for over 100 years as a family owned business. When Titus Newhouse took over as
President from his uncle in 2008, he announced to their employees that they were no longer in the drill bit business, but in
the hole making business. This would be an example of outcome analysis in BPR. True
103. Cindi Flores distributed ‘white-papers’ on RFID, ERP, GPS and SOA to a user-management group. She then asked them to
‘think outside the box’ on where these technologies could be used in the company. This would be an example of ‘technology
analysis’. True
104. Maxi-Dental systems had grown rapidly from a regional distributor of dental equipment to the largest dental equipment
manufacture, rental, distributor and wholesaler by acquiring a variety of competitors and other associated companies. But,
their accounting systems were very disjointed and it was almost impossible to integrate sales with supply chain and
manufacturing logistics. An ambitious plan was promoted by the CIO to implement SAP throughout the company within
eighteen months as an integrated enterprise relationship planning system. In terms of potential business value, this could be
very rewarding, but the time frame and resources to accomplish this project were questioned. The company should do an
analysis on the risk of failure to the system. True
105. The requirements-gathering process is used for building financial support for the project and establishing common
understanding of technologies and rapport between the project team building the system and the users of the system. False
106. The most commonly used requirements gathering technique is the interview.. True
107. In terms of reaching the most number of people in requirements gathering, interviews are considered better than
questionnaires. False

108. Melinda Formica is a systems analyst working on an alumni giving database for Western State University. She is planning
on limiting the interviewing to four people: the campus president, the chair of the marketing academic department, the chair
of the information systems management department, and the vice president of alumni affairs. She feels that this broad cross
section will give her insights into the campus direction, marketing approaches, technologies of interest, and alumni
viewpoints. This is an appropriate group for first round interviews. False
109. Yuri wants to interview both managers and staff in the accounting department for the updated credit analysis project. This is
an appropriate group for first round interviews. True
110. Once the list of interviews is determined, it rarely grows. False
111. For an updated global accounting system, Lisa has had trouble identifying which of the 34 accounting clerks to interview to
better understand the process. Ultimately she decides on interviewing all of them, but limiting the interviews to no longer
than twenty minutes each. This is an appropriate interviewee selection process. False
112. For an updated global accounting system, Lisa has had trouble identifying which of the 34 accounting clerks to interview to
better understand the process. She should work with the project sponsor, key business users and other members of the
project team to narrow the list down. True
113. The three types of interview questions are: multiple choice, fill in the blank and short answer. False
114. Frequently you should start an interview session with a single probing question. This will indicate to the interviewee that this
is a serious interview and that by starting with a probing question you can eliminate some weaker questions and move the
interview along faster. False
115. The authors have suggested that open-ended questions are generally much better for interviews. False
116. In preparing for an interview, TJ does research as to areas in which the interviewee has knowledge so that he does not ask
questions that an interviewee cannot answer. True
117. Generally beginning analysts should avoid unstructured interviews and likewise should avoid “winging it”. True
118. Sara, an analyst, has an interview with Michael Welter, senior accountant in the accounts receivable area. Prior to the
interview, she sent an email to Michael giving him the reasons for the interview, some of the issues and areas she is studying,
and some information about both the project and herself to help establish a good foundation for the interview. This is a
reasonable way to prepare for an interview. True
119. In order to observe body language, facial expressions and to build rapport through eye-to-eye contact, interviewers should
only rarely take notes. False
120. While you are interviewing a person, you should clarify points you didn’t understand and also summarize key points. True
121. You are interviewing Divya, one of the lead sales analysts. She states that the average returns on consumer electronic goods
over $100 have run from 15 to 18% in the past six months. You should not question her as to whether it is fact or opinion.
False

122. You are finishing your interview with Sarah Steele, Human Resources Manager. This is part of the new online applicant
submission system requirements gathering. With a few minutes left in the session, you should ask Sarah if she has any
questions or any additional information about the system requirements. True
123. Gary has eight interviews to conduct over the next week. Once he has completed all interviews, he should then write up a
summary report. Preparing interview reports prior to completing all interviews will generally be premature until Gary has
talked to all interviewees. False
124. Unless ordered by the lead analyst for a project, you should not share your interview report with those that you interviewed.
Doing so will almost always result in scope creep and changes in the requirements. False
125. JAD stands for Joint Approval Design. False
126. Some experts have claimed that JAD can reduce scope creep by 50% and generally create appropriate requirements that are
neither too vague or specific. True
127. Rebecca, a fairly new employee in the company and Matt, her boss (who has been with the company for 22 years) are in
your JAD session. It would probably be expected that Rebecca would not share much in the session. True
128. You are selecting participants for a two week JAD requirements session. The initial system proposal seemed to be a major
revenue producer for the company but the requirements are still somewhat vague. You really want two specific people in the
session – Ella Kinsey, senior account executive and Sean Duffy, who has been recognized for outstanding contributions to
the department (and was highly suggested by the project sponsor). But, they are busy people and don’t want to give up two
weeks of their time for a JAD session. In this case, you should press the project sponsor to get these two people to the
session. True
129. In conducting a JAD session, you can tell Bruce (senior financial analyst) is not pleased with the direction the session is
going. Bruce has become sarcastic and negative. He has insisted on going over an important point at least four times. The
next time Bruce interrupts you should be prepared to cut him off and demand his attention and respect as he is wasting the
time and good faith efforts of 14 other people. False
130. Being a JAD facilitator is fairly easy. It is primarily a ‘traffic cop’ position – insuring that everybody gets a chance to share
in the discussion, that all are focusing on the task at hand, that conflicts are effectively handled. It requires less preparation
than interviewing and less knowledge of the topic area. False
131. Your company has grown by acquisition and mergers with similar businesses in other parts of the world. You are working on
an online vendor support system, where vendors can track orders with your company. The idea is still in the early stages of
analysis. The best tool to get feedback from many vendors and supplier around the globe would be a questionnaire. True
132. In developing a questionnaire, you should frequently alter scale order (for example on some questions 1 is best and 5 is
worst; and on other questions 1 is worst and 5 is best). Many respondents will read the first two questions and then just fill
out the questionnaire using the scale for the first two questions. By altering the scale order, respondents will have to read
each question carefully and read the possible responses carefully, which will result in better and more reliable feedback.
False

133. Online questionnaires (using tools like SurveyMonkey and similar sites) are growing in use, but generally online
questionnaires have a lower completion rate. True
134. Your company updated its processes for financial reporting when Sarbanes-Oxley became law. Additional changes in
Sarbanes-Oxley reporting have been mandated to start in one year. To help you understand the as-is system, you should
review the documentation, processes and procedures that were developed with the initial Sarbanes-Oxley project. True
135. You have found documentation from 1994 on an accounts payable system. In asking the project sponsor, you find out the
system has not changed since then. Therefore, you should rely on the documentation that you found almost exclusively.
False
136. In studying duration analysis of a paper-based loan improvement process, you should be able to get all the information you
need about the length of time sub-processes require from interviewing. False
137. Document analysis and observation are usually best for understanding the as-in system. True
138. To get to more depth in understanding the as-is system, document analysis and observation generally are more beneficial as
compared to interviews and JAD sessions. False
139. One of the most challenging aspects of requirement gathering is the integration of information from different sources. In
using the various requirements gathering techniques, you may find some information is in conflict. To solve this, analysts
should contact each information source in turn attempting to reconcile the differences. True

Chapter 4: Business Process and Functional Modeling
Multiple Choice
1. Which is probably NOT true about building use cases?

a) Analysts are involved
b) Users are involved
c) Major processes are analyzed
d) Major costs are analyzed
e) External or internal triggers are analyzed
Ans: d
2. Which is NOT true of use cases?

a) They are formal ways of representing how a business system interacts with its environment
b) They illustrates the activities that are performed by the users of the system
c) They can be thought of as an external or functional view of a business process
d) They illustrate what starts (or triggers) an event, all the people that are involved, and how the system provides value
e) They sometimes are called ‘business scenarios’ (although ‘use case’ is generally preferred)
Ans: d
3. What is probably NOT a part of a Use Case?

a) Name
b) Number
c) Trigger
d) Major inputs
e) Statement of business value
Ans: e
4. The primary actor in a use case is generally:

a) An external user of the system
b) The Project Sponsor
c) The Champion
d) The Project manager
e) The Systems Analyst
Ans: a
5. A ‘temporal’ trigger might be which of the following:

a) A patient calls to make an appointment with a doctor
b) The accounting department needs information for a report
c) The human resources department needs a tax withholding form to be filled out by a new employee
d) The date changes to the first day of the month
e) A new shipping of goods arrives and needs to be added to the inventory
Ans: d
6. Which of the following is probably NOT a step for writing a use case?
a) Identify the use case
b) Identify the major steps within each use case
c) Identify elements within steps
d) Identify the analyst
e) Confirm the use case
Ans: d

7. Which of the following is probably NOT a part of most use cases?
a) Primary Actor
b) Secondary Actor
c) Major inputs descriptions
d) Major steps performed
e) Identification of the trigger
Ans: b
8. Omar is an analyst building a use case. Which of the following project roles might be the most important in terms of getting
information about building the use case?
a) Users
b) Programmers
c) Other analysts
d) Project Sponsor
e) Equipment vendors
Ans: a
9. Use cases are used to more fully delineate _____.

a) Resources used in the system
b) System boundaries
c) System proposals
d) System requirements
e) Data flows
Ans: d
10. Austin is a systems analyst. Which of the follow people might be the most valuable to him in developing a use case for an
accounts payable system upgrade?
a) Beth, a software vendor for Peachtree Accounting Software
b) Amy, a team manager in the accounts payable department
c) Lisa, the project manager for the project
d) Casey, a fellow analyst who is more experienced in making use cases
e) Bill, a Java programmer in the applications development area.
Ans: b
11. Barb is an analyst developing a use case. Which of the following will probably NOT be on her use case?
a) Importance level
b) Short Description
c) Information for steps
d) Destination for the major inputs
e) Type of trigger
Ans: d
12. Barton is an analyst developing a use case. Which of the following will probably NOT be on his use case?
a) Description of data flows
b) Use case name
c) A use case number
d) Source for the major inputs
e) Type of trigger
Ans: a
13. Destination would be described on a use case in which of the following areas?:
a) Trigger
b) Major inputs
c) Major outputs
d) Primary actor
e) Importance level
Ans: c

14. A use case helps:
a) Define interview questions
b) Clarify ongoing costs for a system
c) Identify risks with the project
d) Refine project management milestones
e) Understand system activities and requirements
Ans: e
15. Ralph wants to illustrate how a system interacts with the environment. The best solution for him would be to use a
________:
a) Requirements flow chart
b) Storyboard
c) HIPO chart (hierarchy, input, process, output)
d) Use case
e) Gantt chart
Ans: d
16. Marta has asked the users of a system to picture themselves performing the processes and to write down those processes in a
sequential order. She should get a good idea of ________.
a) The major steps for each use case
b) The use case
c) The elements within steps
d) The temporal triggers
e) The external actors
Ans: a 
17. You might have to go back and adjust the steps in a use case, if ____________
a) There are more than three major inputs to a step
b) The steps are of varying size
c) The trigger is an external one
d) The importance level is ‘high’
e) The primary actor is an external customer
Ans: b
18. Special cases (like customer cancels an appointment or returns an item) are: ____________
a) Frequently overlooked by users
b) Described on special ‘exception’ use cases
c) Not of importance at this stage
d) Written as exceptions at the bottom of the relevant use case
e) Given use case ID’s of “SC” (for special case) and a number
Ans: a
19. Role-playing the use case with actual users is a good way to:
a) Identify the use case
b) Identify the major steps within each use case
c) Identify elements within steps
d) Confirm the use case
e) Identify the primary actor
Ans: d
20. Use cases generally have three parts: _____.

a) Basic information, details, and event-driven modeling
b) Inputs and outputs, and events
c) Details, event-driven modeling, basic information
d) Technical feasibility, economic feasibility and organizational feasibility
e) Basic information, inputs and outputs, and details
Ans: e

21. The Major Inputs section of a use case describes their:
a) File structure
b) Cardinality
c) Modality
d) Source
e) Destination
Ans: d
22. After working with Chris (who is a staff member in the registrar’s office) on major steps in the registration process, Maureen
(a systems analyst) will:
a) Discuss these steps with Thomas, the project manager
b) Create data-entity maps
c) Create use cases
d) Create user interface screens
e) Create narrative storyboards
Ans: c
23. As a last step in building a use case for the study-abroad registration system, Brianna will:
a) Ask Patrick in the study abroad office to confirm the use case
b) Ask Wendy in the registrar’s office to confirm the use case
c) Ask Jonathan, a student who just completed a study-abroad experience, to confirm the use case
d) Ask Drew in the students affairs office to confirm the use case
e) Ask Taylor, another systems analyst to confirm the use case
Ans: b
24. The Major Inputs section on a use case will give the _____________
a) Sources of that input
b) Destinations of that input
c) Creator of that input
d) User of that input
e) What triggers the input to occur
Ans: a
25. The Major Outputs section on a use case will give the _________
a) Sources of that input
b) Destinations of that input
c) Creator of that input
d) User of that input
e) What triggers the input to occur
Ans: b
26. The Major Steps Performed section on a use case will give the _________
a) Name of the user for each step
b) What triggers each step
c) Where the processes will run (such as manual processes, client-server processes, etc.)
d) The telecommunications infrastructure requirements for that step
e) Information for each step
Ans: e
27. When developing the Major Inputs and Major Outputs for a use case, the analyst and users should consider:
a) Only the common inputs and outputs
b) Developing separate use cases for every possible input and every possible output
c) All possible inputs and outputs (even with rare occurrences)
d) What triggers these inputs and outputs
e) Using activity elimination to see if these inputs and outputs are really needed
Ans: c 

28. Arianna is an analyst studying credit card fraud. She is working on developing a use case for when a stolen credit card is
used. The trigger would be:
a) Customer starts to buy gas
b) Alarm is activated for stolen credit card use
c) Gas attendant asks for customer’s driver’s license
d) When the card-holder reports the card as stolen
e) When car pulls into gas station
Ans: b
29. The second principal part of use cases is ‘input and output’. Another name might be:
a) Origin and ending
b) Data normalization
c) Data flows
d) Parallelism
e) Program specifications
Ans: c
30. Which is NOT true of use cases?

a) They contain all the information needed to build one part of a process model
b) Each use case has a name, a number, importance level, brief description, primary actor, trigger, major inputs and outputs, and
a list of major steps
c) Use cases can be identified by reviewing the functional requirements
d) Use cases should be confirmed by users
e) Use cases normally contain ten to twelve major steps
Ans: e
True / False
31. Use Cases give more detail about requirements. True
32. A Use Case is a formal way of representing how a business system interacts with its environment. True
33. Each Use Case generally describes one or more systems requirements. True
34. Use cases are the same as process diagrams. False
35. Use cases sometimes are called ‘business scenarios’. True
36. Use cases are frequently called ‘process tables’. False
37. Use cases illustrate the activities that are performed by the users of the system. True
38. Use cases illustrate the activities that are performed by the designers of the system. False
39. Use cases are always internal and rarely shared or discussed with business users. False
40. A use case depicts a set of activities performed to produce some output result. True
41. Use cases are diagrams with three components: selection, process, iteration. False
42. How an external user triggers an event is described in a use case. True
43. Use cases are a type of ‘event-driven modeling’. True
44. Use cases are a type of ‘data-driven modeling’. False
45. When you are ‘reengineering’ a process, it is rarely necessary to employ use cases. False
46. Each use case contains a fairly complete description of all the activities that occur in response to a trigger event. True

47. Each use case has a name and a number. True
Each use case has the same name (like “Customer Relationship Management System”) followed by an identifying letter (“A”,
“B”, etc.). False
48. Use cases will generally have the following components: name, number, primary actor, trigger, major inputs, major
outputs, and major steps performed. True
49. Use cases are always numbered sequentially from start to finish. False
50. Essential use cases, describing activities that the system must perform are numbered in the 100’s (100, 200, etc.). False
51. The ‘primary actor’ is the external user that triggers the event to which the system responds. True
52. The ‘primary actor’ is the internal action that occurs based on a SQL query (like: sort, select). False
53. Generally the primary actor will be someone external to the system, such as a customer. True
54. A trigger is based on cost/benefit analysis, like an employee labor report, a sale of an item, or the purchase of new
hardware. False
55. External triggers might be something like a customer calling a doctor for an appointment or a student registering for a
class. True
56. A temporal trigger might be related to time, such as 30 days have passed and a late fee needs to be assessed. True
57. Use cases will have inputs and outputs. True
58. Use cases will give details on the major steps. True
59. The most common ways to gather information for use cases are through interviews and JAD sessions. True
60. The most common ways to gather information for use cases is with questionnaires of the affected users. False
61. Use cases generally have up to 20 major steps spelled out in great detail. False
62. Dr. O’Brien’s dental office calls a patient three days before an appointment. This could be an example of a temporal
trigger. True
63. Tina is a systems analysis and is describing how a system should react to an event. She is creating a use case. True
64. Liang has identified the payroll authorization office as the primary actor in a use case. This would be incorrect as
primary actors need to be singular like a customer or a patient or a student. False
65. If there are more than 20 major use cases, you should group them into segments. False
66. Project managers, business analysts and systems analysts create all use cases without user input. False
67. The final step in Building Use Cases is to use a CASE analysis tool to verify that the inputs and outputs are discrete items
triggered by external events. False
68. The final step in building use cases is for the users to confirm the use cases as written with the users. True

Chapter 5: Structural Modeling
Multiple Choice
1. A process model is:

a) The output of the interviewing process
b) The work plan
c) The model that is produced by extreme prototyping
d) The expanded and thoroughly balanced use case for a system
e) A formal way of representing how a business system operates
Ans: e
2. A process model can __________:

a) Only document the as-is system
b) Only document the to-be system
c) Document both the as-is and the to-be system
d) Only be used in BPR situations
e) Only be used with JAD sessions
Ans: c
3. Data flow diagramming is:

a) The only process modeling currently used
b) A detailed description of data
c) Almost the same as a flow chart
d) Focused on the processes or activities that are performed
e) A visual version of a use case
Ans: d
4. Logical process models are:

a) Models that describe processes without suggesting how they are conducted
b) Coded logic models
c) Models based upon implementing the if-then-else programming structure
d) Developed by the infrastructure analyst
e) Created in the system walkthough
Ans: a 
5. Processes in data flow diagramming are represented by:

a) Rounded boxes
b) Arrows
c) Rectangles that is open on the right end
d) Enclosed rectangles
e) Circles
Ans: a
6. Data flows in data flow diagramming are represented by:

a) Rounded boxes
b) Arrows
c) Rectangles that are open on the right end
d) Closed rectangles
e) Circles
Ans: b

7. Data stores in data flow diagramming are represented by:
a) Rounded boxes
b) Arrows
d) Rectangles
e) Circles
Ans: c
8. An external entity in data flow diagramming is represented by:

a) Rounded boxes
b) Arrows
d) Rectangles
e) Circles
Ans: d
9. The relation between use cases and data flow diagrams is generally:
a) Use cases are developed by users and data flow diagrams are developed by systems analysts
b) Data flow diagrams are developed first and then use cases ensue
c) Use cases are developed first and then data flow diagrams ensue
d) Use cases show logical processes, while data flow diagrams show physical processes
e) There is not a relationship between use cases and data flow diagrams
Ans: c
10. A process is:

a) An activity or a function that is performed for some specific business reason
b) A single piece of data
c) A collection of data
d) A trigger to a use case
e) A person, organization or system outside of the system
Ans: a
11. A data flow is:

Ans: b
12. A data store is:

Ans: c
13. An external entity is:

Ans: e

14. Brianna has a process has two inputs but only one output.
a) This is an error as there needs to be the same amount of inputs as outputs
b) This is an error as process do not have inputs or outputs
c) This is normal as all processes have two inputs and one output
d) This is normal as all processes need at least one input and at least one output
e) This is an error as processes only produce output
Ans: d
15. The relationship between use cases and data flow diagrams is:
a) Use cases tend to be developed with users to make sure the analyst has fully captured the processes and relationships; DFD’s
are built upon the use cases to more fully formally understand the processes involved
b) Both are tools in a systems analysts toolbox, although they do unrelated things
c) Use cases are developed by users exclusively; while DFD’s are developed by analysts exclusively
d) Use cases come out of JAD sessions and clarify what was discussed by users in those sessions; DFD’s come out of analysts
interviews.
e) They are the same thing – use cases are process models using the DeMarco and Yourdon notation; and DFD’s are process
models using the Gane and Sarson notation.
Ans: a
16. A new patient calls up an optometrist office to make an appointment. On a DFD diagram, the new patient would be
represented by:
a) a data flow
b) a process
c) an external entity
d) a trigger
e) a data store
Ans: c
17. Andrea is creating a diagram model for processes (without regard to whether it is computerized or a manual process). She is
probably creating _______________.
a) A physical process model
b) A PMT (process management tool) model
c) A logical process model
d) A user process model
e) A UML system case model
Ans: c
18. Ruth is an analyst. On her DFD diagram she has just placed a process. She will
a) Give it a verb phrase name, like ‘search inventory’
b) Give it a noun description phrase, like ‘Inventory-process-1’
c) Give it only a number – and depending on whether it is a major process (a whole number) or a subsidiary process (a whole
number with a decimal point and value – like 1.3)
d) Give it a sentence name, like ‘Customer arrives at checkout counter’
e) Use whatever process she feels comfortable with – as long as she is consistent
Ans: a
19. Which Data Flow Diagram shows the entire system with its environment with only one process?
a) Context Diagram
b) Level 0 diagrams
c) Level 1 diagrams
d) Level 2 diagrams
e) All DFDs show this
Ans: a

20. Which Data Flow Diagrams shows all the major high-level processes of the system and how they are interrelated?
a) Context Diagrams
b) Level 0 diagram
c) Level 1 diagram
d) Level 2 diagram
e) Use Diagram
Ans: b
21. Which Data Flow Diagram does not have data stores?
a) Context diagram
b) Level 0 diagram
c) Level 1 diagrams
d) Level 2 diagrams
e) Process Diagram
Ans: a
22. The act of taking a level 1 diagram and creating level 2 diagrams is called:
a) Breakdown
b) Division
c) Decomposing
d) Splitting
e) Halving
Ans: c
23. On your level 0 diagram you have a process #2 and when you create a level 1 diagram for process #2, you might have
processes like:
a) 2.1, 2.2, 2.3
b) 2-1, 2-2, 2-3
c) 2A, 2B, 2C
d) 2-A, 2-B, 2-C
e) 2-initial, 2-main, 2-end
Ans: a
24. On your level 0 diagrams you have a process #3 and on your level 1 diagrams for process #3, you have processes numbered
3.1, 3.2, and 3.3. These would be called:
a) Offspring of process 3
b) Sons of process 3
c) Children of process 3
d) Roots of process 3
e) Leaves of process 3
Ans: c
25. A payroll data flow diagram has a data-store called Accumulated Salary Data. At one stage in the DFD, a process “Calculate
YTD-Taxes” gets data from that data store, updates it in the process, and writes it back out. The diagram should show:
a) A single line with arrows on both ends labeled YTD Payroll Details
b) A dashed line with arrows on both ends labeled YTD Payroll Details
c) A line out of the data store labeled: Current YTD Payroll Details; and a line into the data store labeled: Updated YTD Payroll
Details
d) Two separate data flow lines but each with the same name YTD Payroll Details
e) Two dashed lines but each with the same name of YTD Payroll Details
Ans: c

26. James is developing a DFD. What would be a good name for him to use on a data flow from the Calculate Federal
Withholding process to a data store called YTD Payroll Data?
a) Move withholding to YTD storage
b) Transfer fed taxes to YTD storage
c) Calculation Result
d) Federal Withholding Taxes
e) Add amounts to YTD total
Ans: d
27. Mark has a data store called ‘Items’ and it includes all the items sold in a convenience store – sorted by UPC code with the
retail price of the item. He has only one data flow called ‘Item Details’ that flows from the data store to the Process
Checkout process. What will be true in this case?
a) This is incorrect as every data store must have both inputs and outputs
b) This is incorrect as every process must have both inputs and outputs
c) This is incorrect as the data flow should have a verb phrase like ‘Get Item Details’
d) This is incorrect as there is no way to update the ‘Items’ data store
e) This is correct
Ans: e
28. On a data flow diagram, there is an arrow called ‘student record details’. This would be:
a) A process
b) A data flow
c) A data store
d) An external entity
e) It is impossible to tell from the information given
Ans: b
29. Vanessa has a data flow diagram with an item called ‘Register for Class’. That item would be:
a) A process
b) A data flow
c) A data store
d) An external entity
e) A process relationship
Ans: a
30. On the context diagram, Tim has a process called “Start the Process”. It has one output data flow ‘Initial Data’ and no input
data flows. This is:
a) Totally acceptable for a context diagram
b) Incorrect for a context diagram, but acceptable on the Level 0 diagram
c) Incorrect for both a context and Level 0 diagrams, but acceptable for a Level 1 diagram
d) Incorrect for context, level 0, level 1, but acceptable for a level 2 diagram
e) Incorrect in all situations
Ans: e
31. Andrei has a diagram that shows only one process and external entities. He is developing a:
a) Context diagram
b) Use case diagram
c) Level 0 diagram
d) Level 1 diagram
e) Level 2 diagram
Ans: a

32. What diagram will show all the major processes numbered 1, 2, 3, (etc.) external entities and major data stores?
a) Context diagram
b) Decision Tree
c) Level 1 diagram
d) Level 2 diagram
e) Level 0 diagram
Ans: e
33. What diagram will have processes with one decimal place (like 3.1, 3.2, and 3.3) and might have flows coming in (or going
out) that are not illustrated?
a) Context diagram
b) Level 0 diagram
c) Level 1 diagram
d) UML state diagram
e) Level 0 diagram
Ans: c
34. What diagram will have sub-processes with numbers like 3.3.1, 3.3.2, 3.3.3 (etc) and also have flows coming in (or going
out) that are not illustrated?
a) Context diagram
b) Level 0 diagram
c) Gantt diagram
d) Level 1 diagram
e) Level 2 diagram
Ans: e
35. Data that might be in data bases or tables that is accessed in DFD diagrams is called:
a) Data base repository
b) Data table
c) Data flow
d) Data store
e) Data bank
Ans: d
36. The context diagram shows:

a) Detailed processing logic
b) All major processes
c) All the data stores in the system
d) The “big picture” of the system with external entities and only one process
e) The system in context with all other systems in that department (for example, accounts payable, accounts receivable, etc.)
Ans: d
37. A process is:

a) An activity of a function that is performed for some specific business reason
b) A single piece of data within a system
c) A collection of data within a system
d) A person, organization or system that is external to the system
e) A combination of function and the data it acts upon
Ans: a
38. A data flow is:

Ans: b

39. A data store is:
Ans: c
40. An external entity is:

Ans: d
41. Carlos has a Level 0 DFD diagram where one of the external entities is the “Internal Revenue Service” – and he has a data
store called “Tax Rate Table”. He has drawn a data flow arrow from the Internal Revenue Service to the data store as the
data has been loaded into the Tax Rate Table prior to the processing. What would be true?
a) This is correct
b) This is incorrect, ‘data at rest stays at rest until moved by a process’ so he needs a process (like ‘load Tax Rate Table’) first in
this system
c) This is incorrect – he doesn’t need a data flow as the data was loaded into the Tax Rate Table someplace else (within the
payroll system someplace, but not in this process)
d) This is almost correct. The correct diagram would be a dashed line indicating that the loading of the data was implied prior
to the start of this process
e) This is incorrect. What should happen is an ‘external process’ should be called at the start of the process – like “Call IRS for
data load”
Ans: c
42. You have a Patient Processing data flow diagram for a hospital system. Data that is retrieved from a Patient data store
includes: patient name, phone number, health insurance, HIPAA identifier, and more. In creating the level 1 diagram where
you retrieve data from that data store you:
a) Must explicitly list each data item coming from the data store
b) May give the data flow as ‘Patient Details’ instead of listing all data items
c) May aggregate as many as four data items together (so if twelve data items are being moved, you need to show three data
flows)
d) List only the items normally used in the process (with data that might not be used unless there is some rare processing
situation not listed)
e) Either (a) or (c) above
Ans: b
43. Amy has created a context diagram. What one DFD component is probably not shown?
a) Process
b) Data flow
c) UML Stage
d) Data store
e) External Entity
Ans: d
44. Which of the following is NOT true?

a) Every process has at least one input data flow
b) Every data flow connects to at least one process
c) Every external entity has at least one input or one output data flow
d) Every data flow has a unique name that is a verb phrase
e) Every process has at least one output data flow
Ans: d

45. Which of the following is NOT correct?
a) Every set of DFD’s must have one context diagram
b) Every process is wholly and completely described by the processes on its children DFD’s
c) Every process must be broken down farther on Level 1 and Level 2 diagrams
d) Every data store has at least one input data flow someplace in the entire DFD system
e) Every process has a unique name that is a action oriented verb phrase
Ans: c
46. Decomposing a DFD means:

a) Balancing the processes so that each process has three and only three sub-processes
b) Breaking complex processes into a structured set of detailed diagrams
c) Doing a walk through on the entire DFD structure with all the analysts on the project team
d) Taking lower levels of process refinement and aggregating them into a major system
e) Making sure that all data stores are shown on each child DFD diagram
Ans: b
47. Chunxia is balancing her DFD. This means she is:

a) Making sure that all information presented at one level is accurately represented in the next level
b) Making sure that each data store has at least one input data flow and at least one output data flow
c) Making sure that each process has at least one input data flow and at least one output data flow
d) Making sure that all processes start with action verb phrases
e) Making sure that all data flows have noun names
Ans: a
48. Data flow diagrams are:

a) Usually created by users and reviewed by analysts
b) Usually jointly created by analysts and users
c) Usually created by the project team and reviewed by users for correctness
d) Usually created by the project champion and reviewed by the project team
e) Usually created by business analyst and reviewed by the infrastructure analyst
Ans: c
49. Which would be the normal order of tasks?

a) Requirements gathering, creating DFDs, creating use cases
b) Creating use cases; creating DFD, holding JAD sessions
c) Interviewing and/or JAD sessions; creating use cases; creating data flow diagrams
d) Doing BPR, analyzing documents, creating DFDs, creating use cases
e) Doing activity elimination, doing use cases, doing DFDs
Ans: c
50. Tom is trying to change his Use Case into a Data Flow Diagram. He has found that a use case step generally is the same as a
________ on the Level 1 Data flow diagram.
a) Process
b) External Entity
c) Data flow
d) Internal Entity
e) Data store
Ans: a
51. Which of the following would be a “miracle” error on a DFD?

a) A data store has only an output data flow
b) A data store has only an input data flow
c) A process has no input data flows
d) A process has no output data flows
e) An external entity shows up on a Level 2 diagram
Ans: c

52. Which of the following would be a ‘black hole’ error on a DFD?
a) A process has no input
b) A process has no output
c) A process has four inputs and only three outputs
d) Data moves directly from a data store from an external entity
e) Two processes send data flows to the same data store
Ans: b
53. Ramesh has drawn a set of DFD’s that are not properly balanced. This is probably a:
a) Syntax error
b) Semantic error
c) Modeling error
d) First law of conservation of data error
e) Second law of conservation of data eror
Ans: a
TRUE / FALSE
54. The normal order of processes would be: requirements gathering, use case development, process modeling (data flow
diagrams). True
55. A process model is an informal way of showing the external entities, event triggers, inputs and outputs. False
56. A process model is a formal way of representing how a business system operates. True
57. Process models are only used to document the current system (that is, the “as-is” system), since that is the system the users
know and is the system that will be modified. False
58. Process models can be used with either ‘as-is’ systems or ‘to-be’ systems. True
59. There are many process modeling techniques used today. True
60. Data Flow diagramming is a tool for doing process modeling. True
61. Data flow diagrams (as the name implies) focus on the physical data in a system. False
62. According to the authors “Process modeling – and creating DFDs in particular – is one of the most important skills needed
by systems analysts”. True
63. According to the authors “Process modeling – and the creating of PMPs in particular – is one of the most important skills
needed by systems analysts”. False
64. With logical process modeling (using data flow diagrams), you can tell if the process is a manual one or a computerized one.
False
65. External entities in a DFD are shown as circles. False
66. Processes in DFDs are shown as circles in the Gane and Sarson notation. False
67. Processes in DFDs are shown as rounded rectangles in the Gane and Sarson notation. True

68. Data that is moving from a process to another process is called a ‘data stream’. False
69. Data that is moving from a process to another process is called a ‘data flow’. False
70. In drawing DFD’s, arrows are used to show data flows. True
71. A repository for data in DFDs is called a ‘data store’ True
72. Data that is coming from a process and going to a data store (or database) will have an arrow head pointing towards the data
store. True
73. Data (like Year-to-date totals) that come from a data store and are used in a process (like ‘Calculate YTD Totals’) and then
the updated amounts are written back to the data store – can be drawn on a DFD model as a two-headed arrow. False
74. A well-constructed use case makes developing a data flow diagram fairly straightforward. True
75. The major inputs and major outputs listed on the use case provide a list of the sources and destinations of the inflows and
outflows on the processes on a DFD. True
76. The data stores on the DFD correspond to Major Steps Performed on a use case. False
77. Every process on a DFD must have at least one input data flow. True
78. Data flows to a process must be balanced, like if there are two input data flows, there MUST be two output data flows. False
79. Processes on a DFD are named with noun phrases (like: Payroll Update Process). False
80. Every process has a unique identification number, a name and a description. True
81. Processes should be named with a verb and ending with a noun (like Calculate Sales Tax). True
82. A data flow is a single piece of data – or a logical collection of several pieces of information. True
83. Data flows are named with verb phrases (like ‘Move Payroll Information to Payroll Database’). False
84. One end of every data flow will always come from – or go to – a process – with an arrow showing the direction into or out of
the process. True
85. A data repository is a collection of data that is stored in some way on a DFD. False
86. Data stores are named with nouns and have an identification number and description. True
87. Data flows coming out of a data store are dashed lines, data flows coming into a data store are solid lines with a head on the
arrow pointing to the data store. False
88. External entities are a person, organization, or system that is external to the system, but interacts with it. True
89. The external entity on a DFD generally corresponds to the primary actor on the use case. True
90. Many business processes are too complex to be explained in one DFD. True
91. One important principal in process modeling with DFD’s is the decomposition on the business processes into a series of
DFD’s. True
92. The first DFD in every business process model is the Level 0 diagram. False
93. Context diagrams show the entire system in context with the environment (like external entities). True
94. All major processes are shown on the context diagram. False

95. The level 0 diagram shows all the major processes (at the first level of numbering – like 1 through 4), the data stores, data
flows, but does not show external entities. False
96. The purpose of the Level 0 DFD is to show all the major high-level processes of the system and how they are interrelated.
True
97. Context diagrams and Level 0 diagrams deliberately hide some of the system’s complexity. True
98. In general, all process models will have as many level 1 diagrams as there are processes on the level 0 diagram. True
99. On the Level 0 DFD diagram, Anthony had processes 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. When decomposing process 2 further, he ended up
with processes 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5 and 2.6. The sub processes (2.1 to 2.6) are called ‘offspring’ processes. False
100. Children processes collectively make up the parent process (but give more detail). True
101. It is possible to decompose level 1 processes even farther, so for example, process 2.1 on a Level 1 DFD might become
2.1A, 2.1B, 2.1C, etc. False
102. The first law of conservation of data states: “data at rest stays at rest until moved by a process”. True
103. The second law of conservation of data states: “Processes cannot consume or create data”. True
104. A ‘black hole’ error on a DFD is when a process creates output without an input. False
105. A ‘black hole’ error on a DFD is when a process has inputs but no outputs. True
106. Data cannot go from one process to another process without going to a data store first False

Chapter 6: Behavioral Modeling
Multiple Choice
1. A data model is a:
a) The mathematical model of formulas and logic used in a system
b) The abstract creating of an ideal system transformation
c) The model that is produced by extreme programming
d) The expanded, thoroughly balanced and normalized use case for a system
e) A formal way of representing the data that are used and created by a business system
Ans: e
2. A data model can __________:

a) Illustrate return-on-investment, break-even point, and economic feasibility
b) Represent actions or processes that occur in the to-be system
c) Be used as a logical data model in analysis and as a physical data model in design
d) Only be used in BPR situations
e) Only be used with JAD sessions
Ans: c
3. Which of the following is NOT illustrated by a data model?

a) People
b) Places
c) Things
d) Actions
e) Nouns
Ans: d
4. Which of the following software packages does NOT provide data modeling capabilities?
a) ERwin
b) Visual Basic
c) Oracle Designer
d) Visible Analyst Workbench
e) Visio
And: b
5. ERwin, a CASE tool with data modeling features, was created by:
a) Oracle
b) Microsoft
c) Platinum Technology
d) Sun Systems
e) United Technologies
Ans: c
6. Which is NOT true about using Visible Analyst Workbench?

a) It can be used with many different databases
b) It integrates the data model with other parts of the project
c) It is a full-service CASE tool
d) Data modeling is one of many capabilities
e) It can generate Java code when the data modeling is done
Ans: e

7. ERD is an acronym for:
a) Enterprise Relationship Diagramming
b) Entity Relationship Diagramming
c) Electronic Repository Diagramming
d) Enhanced Relationship Diagramming
e) Entity Repository Design
Ans: b
8. Entity relationship diagramming (ERD) is a graphical drawing technique developed by:

a) Cole and Weston
b) Thomas Barton
c) Peter Chen
d) Alan Dennis
e) Martin and Chang
Ans: c
9. An entity relationship diagram (ERD):

a) Is a use-case diagram enhanced graphically to show data and process modeling
b) Is a high-level CASE diagram of data modeling used in business systems
c) Is an illustration of external data flows to and from a business systems
d) Is a picture that shows the information that is created, stored and used by a business system
e) Is a graphical display of the processes in a business system
Ans: d
10. An analyst can read an ERD to:

a) Discover the individual pieces of information in a system and how they are organized and related to each other
b) Find what processes use what data
c) Determine the cardinality of processes in a system and if the modality of process is 1:M; 1:1; or M:N
d) Evaluate data structure hierarchies as to processing anomalies in a business system
e) Discover how the people, places and things in a business system are generated, moved, transformed and stored
Ans: a
11. On an ERD _________________:

a) Processes are listed alphabetically with relationship connections drawn between processes
b) Data elements are listed alphabetically with a cross listing to the processes that manipulate them
c) Data elements are described as singular (1:1); plurals (1:N); or didactic (M:N)
d) Data elements are grouped in a hierarchical structure that is uniquely identified by number
e) Data elements are listed together and place inside boxes called entities.
Ans: e
12. Lines on an ERD diagram indicate:

a) Hierarchies between processes
b) Relationships among the data
c) Plurality of data items
d) Uniqueness of data items
e) Primary keys
Ans: b
13. Which of the following is NOT true about ERDs?

a) Special symbols are added to show high-level business rules
b) The diagrams are drawn in a sequential order – from top to bottom
c) Similar kinds of information are listed together in entities
d) ERD’s are data modeling techniques
e) Lines are drawn to show relationships among the data
Ans: b

14. Which is NOT an element of an Entity Relationship Diagram?
a) Cardinality
b) Modality
c) Attribute
d) Relationship
e) Data stores
Ans: e
15. An entity:
a) Is the association between two related processes
b) Has cardinality (1:1, 1:N, or M:N)
c) Shows if it can be null or no null
d) Is a person, place or thing
e) Is described with a verb phrase
Ans: d
16. An attribute:
a) Is some type of information that is captured about an entity
b) Is the basic building block for a data model
c) Is the association between entities
d) Is the identification of parent and child entities
e) Is drawn as a line between processes
Ans: a
17. Which would NOT likely be an attribute of an entity called “Student”?

a) Age
b) Student identification number
c) Class room number
d) Home phone
e) Gender
Ans: c
18. Which would NOT likely be an entity on a car insurance ERD?

a) Customer
b) Policy
c) Agent
d) Zip code
e) Car
Ans: d
19. You have entities of ITEM, SOLD-ITEM, SALE and PAYMENT. Which most likely is NOT a relationship?
a) SALE is paid by PAYMENT
b) PAYMENT pays for ITEM
c) ITEM is included in SOLD-ITEM
d) SALE involves SOLD-ITEM
e) PAYMENT pays for SALE
Ans: b
20. Modality refers to:

a) Relationships of one-to-one; one-to-many; or many-to-many
b) Whether a child entity can exist with or without a related instance in the parent entity
c) The hierarchical structure that was developed in process models applied to data models
d) The number of attributes generated by an entity
e) Whether the entity has a unique identifier (aka ‘primary key’) or a concatenated identifier (aka ‘composite key’)
Ans: b

21. Jack is developing an ERD for a small dental practice office patient record system. The dental practice has three dentists, six
hygienists, and many patients. A patient is always assigned to the same dentist for all appointments. In particular, he is
working on the relationship between dentists and patients. Should it be:
a) 1 to 1, with a modality of null
b) 1 to many with a modality of not null
c) Many to many with a modality of null
d) Many to many with a modality of not null
e) 1 to many with a modality of null
Ans: b
22. CASE tools have a(n) __________________ where information about entities, attributes and relationships on the ERD are
stored.
a) Information space
b) Data store
c) Meta file
d) Data flow
e) Data dictionary
Ans: e
23. Information in the data dictionary is called: _______________

a) Metadata
b) Cached information
c) Compiled data
d) Data repository
e) File silo
Ans: a
24. In the IDEF1X ERD notation, an entity is drawn as:

a) A diamond with the entity name in the middle
b) A circle with the upper part of the circle with the entity name
c) A rectangle with the identifier written above (outside) the rectangle
d) A rectangle with the identifier written in a darker color inside at the top of the rectangle
e) A rectangle with the identifier written at the top of the rectangle with an asterisk
Ans: d
25. Mike is drawing an ERD diagram. He has a one-to-many relationship. To identify the end of the relationship for the main
relationship, Mike should draw:
a) An oval
b) A crow’s foot
c) The letter M
d) An infinity symbol ∞
e) A diamond
Ans: b
26. Entity Relationship Diagrams show relationships between entities that are _____.
a) Outputs from JAD sessions
b) Consistent with the ACM guidelines
c) In line with the business rules and processing
d) Defined by the project sponsor
e) Extensions of the process models
Ans: c

27. The three major parts of an ERD diagram are:
a) Process, data flow, data store
b) Attribute, modularity, cardinality
c) Relationship, data flow, entity
d) Relationship, attribute, entity
e) Process, entity and relationship
Ans: d
28. The basic building block of a data model is the:

a) Entity
b) Relationship
c) Attribute
d) Cardinality
e) Modality
Ans: a
29. Which would most likely NOT be an entity on an ERD?

a) Student
b) Professor
c) Class
d) Practice
e) Enroll
Ans: e
30. What is true about creating an entity relationship diagram?

a) There will be at most seven entities
b) There will be at most seven relationships
c) If you identify more than seven entities, analyze and combine until you have seven or less
d) It is an iterative process
e) Entities will have at most seven attributes
Ans: d
31. In creating ERD’s, which would most likely NOT be a source for entities?
a) Use cases
b) Level 0 DFD diagrams
c) External entities
d) Data flows
e) Cost / benefit reports
Ans: e
32. In adding attributes to an ERD, which of the following might NOT be a good resource for attributes?
a) From the CASE tool
b) Data flows from DFD’s
c) Requirements documents
d) The system proposal document
e) Through interviews (what users need for reports and processing)
Ans: d
33. The last step in creating basic ERD’s is to:

a) Identify relationships
b) Define attributes and assign identifiers
c) Recognize entities
d) Test them with users
e) Compile them with Java
Ans: a

34. Sanjay is identifying relationships as he draws ERD’s. He will need to:
a) Determine originality and functionality
b) Include cardinality and crows feet
c) Add modality and functionality
d) Determine modality and cardinality
e) Include 1:1, 1:N and M:N relationships
Ans: d
35. Ting-You is creating an ERD diagram. She knows that it is a(n) _____________
a) Well defined process
b) Sequential process
c) Process defined by five steps
d) Iterative process
e) User defined process
Ans: d
36. Anthony is working on the cardinality of doctors and patients in a large urban hospital. With the large number of doctors
with varying specialties and patients that may have more than one aliment, he thinks the relationship might be noted as:
a) 1 to 1
b) 1 to 2
c) 1 to many
d) Many to many
e) Many to 1
Ans: d
37. Omar has a model with 85 entities. He can:

a) Compress these into at most seven entity grouping units
b) Group these into related subject areas
c) Stop – he has all entities defined
d) Sort the entities alphabetically
e) Co-validate the entities with the level 2 DFD diagrams
Ans: b
38. The first step to building an Entity Relationship Diagram is to _____

a) Identify data flows from the level 0 DFD diagram
b) draw the relationships between the entities
c) identify the attributes for each entity
d) identify the entities
e) identify the processes, data flows and data stores
Ans: d
39. When normalizing data models, if you take attributes that have multiple values for a single instance of an entity and create
separate entities for those attributes you are moving from:
a) O normal form to 1st normal form (1NF)
b) 1st normal form (1NF) to 2nd normal form (2NF)
c) 2nd normal form (2NF) to 3rd normal form (3NF)
d) Generalized normal form (GNF) to fully normalized form (FNF)
e) Dependent normal form (DNF) to Independent normal form (INF)
Ans: a
40. Independent entities are:

a) When a child requires attributes from the parent
b) When there is only one entity for a data process model
c) When an entity can exist without the help of another entity
d) Where the entity identifier is also the primary key
e) When a entity comes from an external source (aka ‘external entity’)
Ans: c

41. A(n) _____ entity is an entity at the “1” end of a relationship or an entity with an identifier that describes only the entity.
a) dependent
b) incomplete
c) independent
d) intersection
e) non-identifying
Ans: c
42. A(n) _____ entity cannot exist without the presence of another entity and is normally on the “many” end of a relationship or
has an identifier that is based on another entity’s attribute.
a. independent
b. incomplete
c. dependent
d. variable
e. non-complying
Ans: c
43. The two methods to validate that an ERD is well formed are _____.
a) Balancing with process models and following design guidelines created by Chen
b) Normalization and balancing with process models
c) Renaming theory
d) Balancing with process models and renaming theory
e) Normalization and following design guidelines created by Chen
Ans: b
44. What are the rules covering the layout of ERD components?
a) Items that are related must be grouped into subject areas
b) Items that are not related must be drawn on the bottom of the page
c) They must be placed in alphabetical order
d) They must be placed in numerical order
e) There are no rules
Ans: e
45. Andrew, an analyst for PaxMedia Inc, has just learned that the business rules for a system he has been working on have
changed. This means that _____.
a) Nothing – once the ERD data models have been drawn, they are ‘frozen’ for the system
b) Andrew will be reassigned to a different project that is in its beginning stages
c) The ERD components will have to be changed
d) The ERD data model will have to be put on hold while new DFD diagrams are created
e) The project will have to be scrapped and restarted
Ans: c
46. A logical data model that does not lead to repeating fields and that the data models leads to tables containing fields that are
dependent on the whole identifier is in _____ normal form.
a) balanced
b) first
c) primary
d) second
e) third
Ans: d

47. When the analyst is evaluating a data model to ensure that all fields in a record depend fully on the entire primary key, which
step of normalization is being performed?
a) base normal form
b) first normal form
c) second normal form
d) third normal form
e) cannot tell from the above information
Ans: c
48. If the logical data model does not contain attributes that have repeating values it is in _____.
a) base normal form
c) non-normal form
d) second normal form
e) third normal form
Ans: b
49. If the logical data model contains attribute values that depend on an attribute that is not the identifier, then it is in _____.
a) base normal form
c) non-normal form
d) second normal form
e) third normal form
Ans: d
50. Balance occurs between DFDs and ERDs when the data stores _____
a) Are uniquely named
b) Have only one input and one output flow
c) Are named the same as the relationships on the ERD
d) Can be compared to ERD data flows and attributes on the ERD are included in data stores on the DFD
e) Can be equated to entities on the ERD and when entities are referred to by data stores on the DFD
Ans: e

TRUE / FALSE
51. Data models can be either logical or physical. True
52. During the analysis phase, analysts create programming models to represent how the business system will operate. False
53. A data model is a formal way of representing the data that are used and created by a business system. True
54. The data that are used and created by a business system are illustrated by a process model. False
55. Project teams generally use either Gantt or PERT charts to draw data models. False
56. Project teams can use packages like ERwin or Oracle Designer or Visible Analyst Workbench to draw data models. True
57. Logical data models are most commonly drawn with the Data Flow Diagram technique. False
58. ERD is an acronym for Enterprise Reliability Diagrams. False
59. One of the most commonly used techniques for data modeling is ERD’s. True
60. ERD’s are drawn in several levels: Context ERD diagrams; Level 0 ERD diagrams; Level 1 ERD diagrams. False
61. ERD’s and DFD’s are two techniques for data modeling. False
62. ERD’s and DFD’s are two techniques for process modeling. False
63. A textbook-provided example of a ‘full-service CASE’ tool is Visible Analyst Workbench. True
64. An ERD is a picture that shows how data and information is processed and transformed by a business system.
Ans: False
65. A graphical illustration that shows the information that is created, stored and used by a business system would be an ERD.
True
66. An illustration of the transformation of data into business value is an ERD. False
67. An analyst can read an ERD to discover the individual pieces of information in a system and how they are organized and
related to each other. True
68. On an ERD, similar kinds of information are listed together and placed inside boxes called data containers. False
69. An entity is the basic building block for a data model. True
70. An entity is described by an action verb.
Ans: False
71. Entities are further designed with attributes. True
72. In an entity called STUDENT, you might find attributes of Student-ID, Last-Name, First-Name and cell-phone. True
73. In an entity called STUDENT, you might find attributes of PROFESSOR-ID, Last-Name, First-Name and CLASSROOM.
False
74. Relationships are some type of information that is captured about entities. False
75. Relationships are associations between entities. True
76. Relationships are drawn with lines showing cardinality and plurality. False
77. ERD’s can be quite complex and might have hundreds or thousands of entities. True

78. The three steps in creating an ERD are: (1) identify the entities; (2) identify the processes; (3) identify the relationships
False
79. Metadata is data about data. True
80. CASE tools have ‘data repositories’ False
81. In defining the data characteristics of Universal Product Codes, we might describe them as twelve characters made up of
digits – numeric only. True
82. In defining LAST-NAME in the data dictionary, we might describe it as a character field having from 1 to 15 alphabetic
characters. False
83. One of the first places to start developing Entity Relationship Diagrams is by looking at the level 0 process models (DFD)
and the use cases for data flows and data stores. True
84. Looking at external entities can be helpful with creating entities. True
85. Data modeling is an iterative process. True
86. Most novice analysts understand quickly how to create ERD’s. False
Response: see Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram
Difficulty: medium
87. Fortunately for novice analysts, there are fairly straight-forward rules and guidelines for creating ERD’s. False
88. The authors suggest that creating ERDs is pretty tough to do. True
89. Michele has an entity called “client” and an entity called “customer” and an entity called “shopper”. All three names seem to
refer to the same data in the business system. It is acceptable to use different names for an entity as it helps clarify the
purpose of the entity. False
90. Following carefully prepared and numbered use cases and DFDs, Chang has named his entities ITEM-1, ITEM-2, ITEM-3,
etc. Because of the documentation, this is acceptable and recommended. False
91. If an ERD gets too complex, it can be broken down into related subject areas. True
92. When validating ERD’s you should balance ERD entities with the data flows and data stores from the DFD process
diagrams. True
93. When depicting the inter-realationship between process and data models it can be useful to refer to the CRUDE matrix
(create, relate, update, define, edit). False
94. The processes of creating process models, data models and using CASE tools are interrelated. True
95. CRUD stands for create, read, update and delete and can be used to verify DFDs and ERDs. True
96. Normalizing data models is a five step process: not-normalized; create first normal form (1NF); create second normal form
(2NF); create third normal form (3NF); create fourth normal form (4NF) and finally create the fully normalized form (5NF).
False

Multiple Choice: Chapter 1: Introduction To Systems Analysis and Design

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Multiple Choice: Chapter 1: Introduction To Systems Analysis and Design

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

1. The outcome of the analysis phase is the:

3. The outcome of the planning phase is the:

4. The outcome of the design phase is the:

5. Another outcome of the planning phase is the:

6. The primary objective of the systems analyst is to:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page1

8. Which is NOT true for systems analysts?

10. Which is NOT an attribute of a systems analyst?

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page2

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page3

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page4

32. Which would normally NOT be a part of the implementation phase?

33. Which would normally NOT be a reason for a project?

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page5

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page6

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page7

50. Which is an activity the users probably will NOT do on a project?

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page8

60. Andrew is pondering, “can we build it”. This is probably:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page9

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page10

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page11

1. A critical success factor in project management is to:

2. Which is a true statement about IT projects?

3. Which is NOT suggested for IT development projects?

5. Which of the following is probably NOT a method to classify projects?

6. When comparing the Waterfall methodology to the parallel methodology:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page12

8. RAD is an acronym for:

9. Which of the following is NOT a Rapid Application Development methodology?

11. System prototyping is BEST characterized as:

12. Throwaway prototyping is BEST characterized as:

13. Parallel methodology is BEST characterized as:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page13

15. The “V-model” of the waterfall method is BEST characterized as:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page14

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page15

28. Which of the following would BEST describe “system complexity”?

29. Which of the following would BEST describe “system reliability”?

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page16

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page17

41. This factor is the number one influence on people’s performance:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page18

51. Which of the following probably is NOT a timeboxing step?

52. Which of the following is NOT a classic planning mistake?

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page19

56. Interpersonal skills for a project manager might be important when:

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page20

58. PMP is Project Management Professional. True

60. CIO is an acronym for “computing information organization”. False

61. CIO is an acronym for “Chief Information Officer”. True

to system prototyping to finish the system. False

prototypes to refine key issues before a system is built. True

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page21

practicing the ‘benchmarking’ approach to scope management. False

practicing the ‘timeboxing’ approach to scope management. True

and genuine thanks. False

project to get it back up to speed. False

the “T-Model”. False

user requirements. True

By : Maha Tturkestani & Maha Otaibi IT243_TB_page22