Date: 17/11/2019 Test Booklet Code

05-A
Delhi

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Questions & Answers

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only. There is no negative marking.

2. Part I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions

Part II : SAT : 101 - 200 questions

3. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.

4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR SHEET with
blue/black ballpoint pen.

Example:

Q. No. Alternatives
Correct way : 1 1 2 1 4
Q. No. Alternatives
Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.

5. Students are not allowed to scratch / alter / change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using white
fluid / eraser / blade / tearing / wearing or in any other form.

6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

7. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.

8. Darken completely the ovals of your answer on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular paper.

9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries may render
your OMR Sheet invalid.

10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. What is sum of all positive factors of 256? 8. At the time of marriage a man was 6 year older
(1) 526 (2) 511 than his wife, but 12 year after the marriage his
6
(3) 625 (4) 562 age was times the age of his wife. Their ages
5
Answer (2)
(in years) at the time of the marriage were?
X X +1 1 (1) 26, 20 (2) 24, 18
2. Value of + − will be?
X +1 X X ( X + 1)
(3) 27, 21 (4) 30, 24
(1) X2 (2) 1 Answer (2)
(3) X (4) 2 9. If we throw a dice, what is the probability of
Answer (4) obtaining a result that is less than 4. If we know
3. Sum of sequence 5+6+7+8+………+19 will be? that the result obtained was an even number?
(1) 180 (2) 175 1 2
(1) (2)
(3) 185 (4) 190 2 3
Answer (1) 1 4
(3) (4)
3 5
1 2 3
4. If three numbers are in ratio : : , difference Answer (3)
2 3 4
between largest and smallest is 27 then numbers 10. There are 10 balls in a box, 5 white and 5 black.
are Two balls are removed randomly from the box,
(1) 54, 72, 81 (2) 24, 45, 51 one after another. The first ball that is removed is
black and it is not returned to the box. What is the
(3) 64, 72, 91 (4) 54, 65, 81
probability that the second ball that is removed is
Answer (1) also black?
5. Which of the following number will completely 5 4
( )
divide the value of 325 + 326 + 327 + 328 ?
(1)
9
(2)
9
(1) 35 (2) 40 3 1
(3) (4)
(3) 50 (4) 45 9 2

Answer (Therefore two options are possible) Answer (2)

6. Rohan’s score on the mid-term exam was 75, and 11. Some equations are based on the basis of a
his score of the final exam was 90. If the weight of certain system. Using the same pattern solve the
the final exam is twice that of mid-term, what is unsolved equation. If 10 – 3 = 12, 12 – 4 = 13, 14
Rohan’s final score in the course? – 5 = 14, what is 16 – 6 = ?

(1) 82.5 (2) 80 (1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 85.5 (4) 85 (3) 16 (4) 18

Answer (4) Answer (2)

7. A grandmother, mother and daughter wish to 12. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is
arrange themselves in a row in order to be 54kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph.
photographed. How many different ways can they For how many minutes does the bus stop per
arrange themselves? hour?

(1) 6 (2) 3 (1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 18 (4) 9 (3) 12 (4) 20

Answer (1) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

13. If 40% of 1620 + 30% of 960 = ?% of 5200. 13

20. is equal to
(1) 12 (2) 24 48
(3) 5 (4) 18 1 1
(1) (2)
Answer (4) 1 1
3+ 3+
1 1
14. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal distance 1+ 1+
16 1
from each other. The distance between 1st and 1+
8
25th tree is 30 m. What is the distance between 3rd
and 15th tree? 1 1
(3) (4)
1 1
(1) 8 m (2) 15 m 3+ 3+
1 1
1+ 1+
(3) 16 m (4) 18 m 1 8
2+
Answer (2) 4
15. In a school, the bell is rung once after each half Answer (3)
an hour. The school starts at 8:00 AM and close 21. If for any two numbers a and b, the operation $ is
at 1:30 PM. The bell is rung 3 times continuously, defined as follows:
at the time beginning, at the time of lunch break
a $ b =a × ( a + b) , then (2 $ 0)$1 = ?
at 10:00 and 10:30 AM and at the end. How many
times is the bell rung every day? (1) 12 (2) 10
(1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 4
(3) 19 (4) 20 Answer (3)
Answer (4) 22. The accompanying figure shows right + trapezoid
(AD||BC) based on this information and the
16. If 80% of A = 50%, of B and B = x% of A then
information in the figure, the area of trapezoid
value of x will be?
(in m2) is
(1) 145 (2) 170
(3) 150 (4) 160
Answer (4)
17. The mean of five consecutive numbers is 7.
Which is the highest number?
(1) 10 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) 8
Answer (3) (1) 150 (2) 120
18. Find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz. If x + y + (3) 108 (4) 96
z = 15 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 51. Answer (2)
(1) 540 (2) –540 Direction (23 to 25) find the missing numbers in the
(3) –225 (4) 765 number series.
Answer (2) 23. 4, 8, 28, ?, 244

19. If area of any triangle is 384 cm3 and its sides are (1) 69 (2) 75
in Ratio 3 : 4 : 5, then perimeter of triangle will be? (3) 80 (4) 90
(1) 60 cm Answer (3)
(2) 48 cm 24. 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
(3) 64 cm (1) 48 (2) 52
(4) 96 cm (3) 55 (4) 58
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

25. 10080, 1680, ?, 84, 28, 14 32. The accompanying figure shows right triangle
(1) 840 (2) 168 ABC and isosceles triangle ABD(AB = AD).

(3) 108 (4) 336

Answer (4)
26. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per
annum is Rs. 4,347. The period (in year) is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 3.5 Based on this information and the information in
the figure, the value of angle α is
Answer (2)
(1) 60º (2) 45º
27. Among the numbers 2, 3 9, 4 16, 5 32 the
(3) 30º (4) 25º
greatest one is :-
Answer (3)
3
(1) 2 (2) 9 33. The accompanying figure shows a circle whose
(3) 4
16 (4) 5
32 centre is O and radius is 10cm. The shaded sector
1
Answer (2) equals of the area of the circle. Based on this
6
1 information and the information in figure the
28. If x + =2 and x is real, then the value of
x length (in cm) of the arc AQB is:
1
x17 + 19 is
x
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) –2
Answer (3)
29. To win a 20 over match, the run rate is required
7.2. If in the end of 15th over, the run rate is 6.
Then to win the match the required run rate is? 40
(1) 30π (2) π
3
(1) 1.2 (2) 13.2
(3) 10.8 (4) 12 20
(3) π (4) 20π
3
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
30. If P and Q are H.C.F and L.C.F of two algebraic
expression respectively and P + Q = x + y then 34. If length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and
what will be value of P3 + Q3? its width decreased by 20% then of the following
which change in the area of rectangle occur.
(1) x3 + y3 (2) x3 – y3
(1) 10% increase (2) 16% increase
(3) x + y (4) x–y
(3) 5% decrease (4) No change
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
31. Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 16
minutes respectively. Both pipe are kept open for 35. An official meeting is attended by 130 department
x minutes and then B is closed and A fills the rest employees of them 66 drink tea, 56 drink coffee
of tank in 5 minutes. The value of x will be and 63 drink juice, 27 can drink either tea or
coffee, 25 can drink coffee or juice and 23 can
(1) 4 minutes
drink juice and tea, 5 employees can drink any of
(2) 6 minutes the three. How many drink only tea?
(3) 5 minutes (1) 21 (2) 22
(4) 7 minutes (3) 18 (4) 20
Answer (1) Answer (No option is correct)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

36. Of the three number, the sum of first two is 55, 42. For a business lunch in a certain restaurant, you
third is 65, and sum of third with thrice of the first may choose one of 3 different first courses and
is 110. The third number is? one of 4 different main course. In addition to first
(1) 25 (2) 30 course and the main courses, you have a choice
of a soup or dessert. How many different
(3) 35 (4) 28 combinations of three course business lunch
Answer (3) does this restaurant offer?
Directions: (37 to 40) Study the following table and (1) 12
answer questions given below: (2) 14
EMPLOYEES SOURCE OF INCOME (Rs.) (3) 18
K L M N O
(4) 24
Salary 12000 6000 21000 9000 12000
Answer (4)
Bonus 2400 1200 4500 2400 3000
Overtime 5400 2100 6000 5100 6000 43. If the length of a rectangular plot of land is
Arrers 6000 5400 12000 4200 7500 increased by 12½% and the breadth is decreased
Miscellaneous 1200 300 1500 300 1500 by 10%, its area is
Total 27000 15000 45000 21000 30000 (1) Decreased by 1.25%

37. The employee who has minimum ratio of income (2) Decreased by 2.5%
from arrear to income from salary is. (3) Increased by 2.5%
(1) K (2) L (4) Increased by 1.25%
(3) M (4) N Answer (4)
Answer (4) 44. K is an even number and P is an odd number.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
38. The employee who earns maximum bonus in
comparison to his total income? (1) P – K – 1 is an odd number
(1) M (2) N (2) P + K + 1 is an even number
(3) L (4) K (3) P × K + P is an odd number
Answer (2) (4) P2 + K2 + 1 is an even number

39. The employee who has maximum percentage of Answer (1)

his salary out of the income? 45. All of the liquid filling a cuboidal container that
(1) K (2) L measures 2 cm × 10 cm × 20 cm is poured into a
cylindrical container with a base radius of 5 cm.
(3) M (4) O
What height (in cm) will the surface of the liquid
Answer (3) reach in the cylindrical container?
40. The income from overtime is what percentage of 16 40
the income from the arrears in case of employees (1) (2)
π π
in category O?
(3) 8π (4) 8
(1) 80 (2) 75
Answer (1)
(3) 25 (4) 20
46. (0 <θ< 90º)
Answer (1)
If tan θ + cot θ = 2 then what will be value of
41. The ratio of the present ages of Mohan and
tan100θ + cot100θ?
Suresh is 4:5. Five year ago, the ratio of their ages
was 7:9. Their present ages was (in year) are: (1) 2 (2) 2 3
(1) 40, 50 (2) 18,25 1
(3) 1 (4)
(3) 40, 60 (4) 20, 25 3
Answer (1) Answer (1)

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47. What is the coefficient of a2b2 in the expansion of 54. In a certain language ‘PRINCIPAL’ is written as
(a + b)4? ‘MBOQSOMVW’ and ‘TEACHER’ is written as
(1) 1 (2) 6 ‘FDVSZDB’. Then how is ‘CAPITAL’ written in that
(3) 2 (4) 3 code?
Answer (2) (1) SVMOFVW (2) SVMODVW
48. In a class composed of x girls, y boys. What part (3) BVMODVM (4) SVMIDVW
of the class is composed of girls? Answer (1)
x
(1) y(x + y) (2) 55. In a certain language ROPE is written as %57$,
xy DOUBT is written as 35#8* and LIVE is written as
x y @24$. How is TROUBLE is written in that code?
(3) (4)
(x + y) xy (1) *%5#8@$ (2) *%#58@$
Answer (3) (3) *%5#8@4 (4) *%#58$@
49. The expression 26n
– 42n,
where n is a natural Answer (1)
number is always divisible by
56. If $ means ‘Plus(+)’, # means ‘minus(-)’, @ means
(1) 15 (2) 18
multiplied(×), and * means ‘divided(÷)’ then what
(3) 36 (4) 48 is the value of 16$4@5#72*8?
Answer (4)
(1) 29 (2) 25
50. If x = 2 – 21/3 + 22/3 then the value of x3 – 6x2 + 18x
(3) 27 (4) 36
+ 18 is
(1) 22 (2) 33 Answer (3)

(3) 40 (4) 45 57. In the number ‘5321648’ how many digit will be as
Answer (3) far away from the beginning of the number if digit
arranged in ascending order as they are in the
51. In this given figure how many triangle are there?
number?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
Answer (2)
58. In a class of 35 students Kunal is placed seventh
(1) 12 (2) 10
from the bottom, whereas Sonali is placed ninth
(3) 14 (4) 8
from top. Pulkit is placed exactly in between the
Answer (1) two. What is Kunal’s position from Pulkit?
52. If Amit’s father is Ketan’s father’s only son and (1) 9th (2) 10th
Ketan has neither a brother nor a daughter. What
is the relation between Ketan and Amit? (3) 11th (4) 12th
(1) Uncle-Nephew (2) Father-Daughter Answer (2)
(3) Father-Son (4) Cousin 59. In a row of girls facing north, Reena is 10th to the
Answer (3) left of Pallavi. Who is 21st from the right end. If
53. In a certain code language ‘si po re’ means ‘book Malini, who is 17th from the left and is fourth to the
is thick’, ‘ti na re’ means ‘bag is heavy’, ‘ka si’ right of Reena, how many girls are there in a row?
means ‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that (1) 37
bag’ what should stand for ‘that bag is interesting’
(2) 43
in that code language?
(1) ka re na ti (2) de si re ka (3) 44
(3) ti po ka na (4) de ti re ka (4) Data Inadequate
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

60. Anupriya was born on 29th Nov, 1970, which was 65. Question figure
Sunday. When her next birthday will fall on
Sunday?
(1) 1975 (2) 1976
(3) 1981 (4) 1982
Answer (3)
61. Which one will replace the question mark?

Answer (1)
66. Question figure

(1) 262 (2) 622

(3) 631 (4) 824
Answer (2)
62. If + means ÷, – means ×, × means + and ÷ means –
then, 4 + 6 × 9 ÷ 6 – 2 × 5
Answer (3)
4 8
(1) (2)
6 3 67. In the matrix below, the numbers in the cells follow
some rules. Identify the number which when
9
(3) 2 (4) substituted for? Maintaining the same rule?
2
Answer (2) 4 1 2
Direction (63–66) in the Question given below
13 11 6
piece of paper folded and cut as shown below in
question paper, from the given answer figure. 153 120 ?
63. Question figure
(1) 32 (2) 45
(3) 16 (4) 48
Answer (1)
Direction (68–72). The Venn diagram given below
Answer figure
is about a small circle is Marathi and triangle is
Bihari, square is Punjab.

Answer (1)
64. Question figure

Answer figure
68. What is the total number of Biharis?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 8

Answer (4) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

69. What is the total number of Punjabis? Direction: (77 to 79) are based on given
(1) 22 (2) 28 information: A solid cube is painted red on all
faces. The side of the cube is 8 cm. It is cut into
(3) 29 (4) 35
smaller cubes of side 2 cm. Answer the following
Answer (1) question.
70. What is the total number of Marathis? 77. How many cubes have three faces coloured?
(1) 20 (2) 15 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 22 (4) 21 (3) 8 (4) 12
Answer (4) Answer (3)
71. How many Bihari which are not Punjabi? 78. How many cubes have two faces coloured?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 8
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) 16
Answer (2) (3) 36
72. How many Punjabi which are not Marathi? (4) 24
(1) 10 (2) 11 Answer (4)
(3) 12 (4) 13 79. How many cubes have only one face coloured?
Answer (4) (1) 16 (2) 24
73. India became a Republic on 26th January, 1950. (3) 32 (4) 36
Which day of the week was it? Answer (2)
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday 80. Choose the correct option to complete the matrix?
(3) Thursday (4) Saturday
Answer (3)
74. At what angle (larger) are two hands of a clock
inclined at 48 minute past 12?
(1) 264° (2) 263° (1) 15A

(3) 265° (4) 266° (2) 12B

Answer (1) (3) 5A

75. A clock is set right at 4 am. The clock loses 20 (4) 8C

minutes in 24 hours. What will be the time, when Answer (3)
the clock indicate 3 am on 4th day? 81. Which of following is the best represented in
(1) 5 am (2) 4 am diagram?
(3) 3 am (4) 4 pm
Answer (2)
76. A die has four different positions. Find the number
on the face opposite to 3.

(1) Chair, Table, Furniture

(2) Doctor, Social Person, Honest Person
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Family, Parents, Children
(3) 4 (4) 6 (4) Gold Jewellery, Silver Jewellery, Ornaments
Answer (3) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

Direction: (82 to 84) study the letter series given 88. Choose the correct mirror image of figure (x) from
below and answer the questions that follows. given alternatives?
HDYSMWNBQPOCRTBLZVEGUF
82. Which two neighbours in the given arrangement
are farthest in the alphabetical order?
(1) B and Q (2) D and Y
(3) U and F (4) V and E
Answer (2)
83. Which letter has the same neighbours as in the
alphabetical order through they have change Answer (2)
places? 89. Choose the correct water image of figure (x) from
(1) M (2) N given alternatives:
(3) O (4) F
Answer (3)
84. Which three letters have the same distance as
they have in the alphabetical order through they
have changed places?
(1) HMP (2) NQZ
(3) QOE (4) YLF
Answer (4) Answer (1)
85. A and B are sisters. R and S are brothers. 90. Which is the minimum number of straight lines
Daughter of A is the sister of R. Then which needed to construct the following figure?
relation between B and S?
(1) Aunt (2) Grandmother
(3) Sister (4) Mother
Answer (1)
86. Abhay is the husband of Neena and Sunita is the
mother of Abhay. Sohan is the uncle of Neeraj.
Who is the relation between Sohan and Neena?
(1) Jeth (2) Dever (1) 13 (2) 15
(3) Bhatija (4) Jeth/Devar (3) 16 (4) 17
Answer (Data insufficient/Data missing) Answer (3)
87. Which one will replace the question mark? Direction: (91 to 95). A cube is coloured red on all
of its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cube of
equal size. The smaller cube so obtained are now
separated.
91. How many smaller cubes have no surface
coloured?
(1) 8 (1) 24
(2) 14 (2) 16
(3) 10 (3) 8
(4) 6 (4) 10
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

92. How many smaller cube will have atleast two 96. If P + Q – R ÷ T, how is T related to P?
surfaces painted with red coloured?
(1) Aunt
(1) 4
(2) Brother
(2) 18
(3) Father
(3) 32
(4) Cousin
(4) 24
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
97. Which of the following means that R is the wife of
93. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
P?
painted with red coloured?
(1) P × R – Q – T
(1) 24
(2) 8 (2) P ÷ T + R – Q

(3) 12 (3) P ÷ R – Q + T

(4) 20 (4) P × T – Q + R

Answer (1) Answer (4)

94. How many smaller cubes have only three 98. If ‘P × T ÷ Q + R’, how is R related to P?
surfaces painted with red coloured?
(1) Daughter
(1) 0
(2) Husband
(2) 12
(3) Son in law
(3) 24
(4) Daughter in law
(4) 6
Answer (3)
Answer (No option is correct)
95. A 6 cm cube is cut into 2 cm smaller cube. How 99. If P ÷ R – Q × T. How is P related to T?

many smaller cubes can be obtained from their? (1) Grandmother

(1) 10 (2) Mother in law
(2) 156 (3) Sister
(3) 27 (4) Grandfather
(4) 64
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
100. If P ÷ Q + R × T, How Q is related to T?
Direction: (96 to 100) Read the following
(1) Aunt
information and answer the question which
follow:- (2) Sister

(3) Brother

(4) None of these

Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

101. A bomb of Mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two 106. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A, What
pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of is the value of resistance R (the resistance of
18 kg mass is 6 m/s. The kinetic energy of the other ammeter is negligible).
mass is
(1) 324 J (2) 486 J
(3) 256 J (4) 524 J
Answer (2)
102. A body initially at rest start moving when a constant
external force F is applied on it. The force F is (1) 1 Ω (2) 2 Ω
applied for time t = 0 to time t = T. Which of the
following graph represents the variation of the (3) 3 Ω (4) 4 Ω
speed (v) of the body with time (t) Answer (1)
107. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action
of a constant force. If the distance covered in first
10 second is S1 and that covered in next 10 seconds
is S2 then
(1) (2) (1) S2 = 6 S1 (2) S2 = 2 S1
(3) S2 = 8 S1 (4) S2 = 3 S1
Answer (4)
108. Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the
same material having same density. The ratio of
acceleration due to gravity g1|g2 at the surfaces of
the planets is
(3) (4)
(1) r1|r2 (2) r2|r1
(3) (r1|r2)2 (4) (r2|r1)2
Answer (4) Answer (1)
103. A person cannot clearly see object at a distance 109. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an
more than 40 cm. He is advised to use lens of power image. The position of the object when the image is
virtual and linear magnification is 2 is
(1) –2.5 D (2) 2.5 D
(1) 22.5 cm
(3) –1.5 D (4) 1.5 D
(2) 7.5 cm
Answer (1)
(3) 30 cm
104. Gravitational force is essentially required for
(4) 45 cm
(1) Stirring in liquid (2) Convection
Answer (2)
(3) Conduction (4) Radiation
1
Answer (2) 110. A body on an inclined plane slides down th of
4
105. An observer moves towards a stationary plane distance in 2 seconds. It will slide down the
mirror at a speed of 4 m/s the speed with which his complete distance along the plane in (the inclined
image moves him? plane have zero friction)
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s (1) 4 s (2) 5 s
(3) 8 m/s (4) Image will stay at rest (3) 2 s (4) 3 s
Answer (3) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

111. When four equal resistors are connected in series 118. The pH of acid rain is
with battery they dissipate a power of 10 W. The (1) Less than 5.6 (2) More than 5.6
power dissipated through any of them if connected
across the same battery will be (3) Equal to 5.6 (4) More than 6.6
(1) 40 W (2) 10/3 W Answer (1)
(3) 90 W (4) 10 W 119. IUPAC name of the following compound will be :
Answer (1) O

112. An electron move with velocity v in a uniform CH3 - C -CH2 -CH2 -CH2 -COOH
magnetic field B. The magnetic force experienced
by the electron is (1) 2 – Keto hexan – 6 oic acid
(1) Always zero (2) 5 – Keto hexanoic acid
(2) Never zero (3) Methyl Ketone butanoic acid
(3) Zero if v is perpendicular to B (4) 5 – Aldo hexanoic acid
(4) Zero if v is parallel to B Answer (2)
Answer (4) 120. Products obtained on electrolysis of brine are :
113. In the given circuit the voltmeter reads 5 V. The (1) NaHCO3, H2, Cl2
resistance of the voltmeter in Ohm is
(2) H2, NaOH, NaHCO3
(3) Cl2 NaOH, Na2O2
(4) NaOH, H2, Cl2
Answer (4)
121. In balanced chemical equation
(1) 200 (2) 100
aKMnO4 + bH2SO4 → cK2SO4 + dMnSO4+ eH2O + f[O]
(3) 10 (4) 50
Answer (2) Which of the following alternative are correct?

114. Which of the following contain seven molecule of (1) a = 2, b = 3, c = 1, d = 2, e = 3, f = 5

water of crystallization? (2) a = 1, b = 2, c = 1, d = 3, e = 2, f = 3
(1) Epsom salt (2) Green vitriol (3) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3, e = 2, f = 5
(3) Blue vitriol (4) White vitriol (4) a = 3, b = 1, c = 3, d = 3, e = 1, f = 3
Answer (*option 1, 2 and 4 are correct)
Answer (1)
115. Which elements are used for galvanisation?
122. Benzene (C6H6) have:
(1) Zn and Sn (2) Na and K
(1) 12 covalent bonds (2) 15 covalent bonds
(3) Cu and Fe (4) Ca and Mg
(3) 18 covalent bonds (4) 9 covalent bonds
Answer (1)
116. Ramesh dropped a metal piece ‘A’ in the solution of Answer (2)
another metal ‘M’ . After some time a new 123. 1.0 Kg of Iron (Fe), having atomic mass equal to
colourless compound ‘N’ is formed. A, M, N 56 g mol–1 contains :-
respectively can be
(1) 2.88 × 1024 atoms (2) 6.93 × 1023 atoms
(1) Mg, NaCl, MgCl2 (2) Fe, ZnSO4, FeSO4
(3) 6.93 × 1021 atoms (4) 1.075 × 1025 atoms
(3) Zn, CuSO4, ZnSO4 (4) Cu, ZnSO4, CuSO4
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
124. Aqueous solution of CsO2 is :
117. Which fuel has highest calorific value?
(1) LPG (2) Petrol (1) Basic (2) Neutral

(3) CNG (4) Hydrogen (3) Acidic (4) Amphoteric

Answer (4) Answer (1)

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125. A student added a drop of universal indicator to 131. Choose the correct option to complete ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’
1.00 mL of given solution and found that a green and ‘D’ in the following table.
colour is produced. The pH value of the solution will
be : Hormone Function

(1) 7 – 9 (2) 0 – 3 A Stimulates growth in all organs

(3) 10 – 12 (4) 4 – 6 B Stimulates igituitary to release
Answer (1) growth hormone
126. Elements present in any group have the same
C Controls blood sugar lever
number of :
(1) Valence electrons (2) Neutrons D Regulates carbohydrate metabolism
(3) Protons (4) None of the above (1) A – Insulin, B–Thyroxine, C–Growth Hormone,
Answer (1) D – Growth Hormone Release Factor
127. Which of the following reactions take place during (2) A – Growth Hormone, B–Insulin, C–Thyroxine,
break down of molecules in the respiration in our
D – Growth Hormone Releasing Factor
body?
(3) A – Thyroxine, B–Insulin, C–Growth Hormone,
(1) Oxidation
D – Growth Hormone Releasing Factor
(2) Reduction
(4) A – Growth Hormone, B – Growth Hormone
(3) Oxidation – reduction
Releasing Factor, C–Insulin, D – Thyroxine
(4) Photo-oxidation
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
132. If a pea plant with wrinkled seed and heterozygous
128. Lactic acid is produced when pyruvate is broken
tall plant were self pollinated, what will be the
down
phenotypes of plants of F2 generation.
(1) In presence of oxygen in mitochondria
(1) 75% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds
(2) In absence of oxygen in mitochondria and other 25% will be dwarf with wrinkled seeds
(3) In presence of oxygen in muscle cells (2) 50% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds
(4) In absence of oxygen in muscle cells and 50% will be dwarf with wrinkled seeds
Answer (4) (3) 50% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds
129. Separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. and other 50% will be dwarf with round seeds
I. Fulfils energy requirements of the body (4) 25% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds
II. Ensures the effect transfer of oxygen in the body and other 75% will be dwarf with wrinkled
seeds.
(1) Both statements are true
Answer (1)
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
133. Two similar pea plants are growing in two different
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
islands separated by a vast ocean. The
(4) Both the statements are false
phenomenon of geographical isolation will
Answer (1)
(1) Not be seen as the plants get self pollinated
130. Root pressure is effective way transporting water in
(2) Be seen as the plants are growing in isolated
xylem. This pressure is generated
regions
(1) In bright sunlight
(3) Not be seen as the plants get pollinated by
(2) During night ocean water currents
(3) At very low temperature (4) Be seen as the plants do not get pollinated and
(4) In high trees reproduces asexually
Answer (2) Answer (1)

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134. DDT is non-biodegradable chemical when it enters 141. Find the area of the square ABCD.
food chain it gets accumulated in each tropical level.
This phenomenon is called as -
(1) Eutrophication (2) Chemical amplification
(3) Biomagnification (4) Chemical magnification
Answer (3)
135. Presence of _________ is an indicator of pollution
level in water.
(1) 160 m2 (2) 140 m2
(1) Colour (2) Coliform bacteria
(3) 125 m2 (4) 120 m2
(3) Rhizo bacteria (4) Spiral bacteria
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
142. If (2x – 4)3 + (4x – 2)3 = (4x + 2x – 6)3, then the sum
136. Leaves of tendu are the source of income of large
of all real values of x is
number of people in India. These leaves are used
to make (1) 0.5 (2) 1.5

(1) Thatched roofs (2) Bidis (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5

(3) Leaf plates (4) Teeth cleaning agent Answer (4)

Answer (2) 143. If 2019x + 2019–x = 3, then the value of

137. Maximum number of trophic levels supported in any 20196x − 2019 −6x
is :-
ecosystem is 2019 x − 2019 − x

(1) One (2) Two (1) 3 (2) 6

(3) Three (4) Four (3) 9 (4) 12
Answer (4) Answer (4)
138. Correct sequence of reflex are is 144. Let ‘p’ be a root of the equation x2 – 5x + 7 = 0, then
the area of circle with centre at (P, P) and passing
(1) Receptor  Motor Neuron  Sensory Neuron
through point (1, 4) is
 Effector organ  Relay Neuron
(1) 3π sq. units (2) 5π sq. units
(2) Receptor  Sensory Neuron  Motor Neuron
 Effector organ  Relay Neuron (3) 7π sq. units (4) None of these
(3) Receptor  Sensory Neuron  Motor Neuron Answer (1)
 Relay Neuron  Effector organ 6 3
1 1 1 x x
145. If = + , then the value of   +   is :-
(4) Receptor  Sensory Neuron  Relay Neuron x+y x y y y
 Motor Neuron  Effector organ
1
Answer (4) (1) 0 (2)
2
139. Tricuspid valve is present in (3) 1 (4) 2
(1) Right atria and right ventricle Answer (4)
(2) Left atria and left ventricle 146. Let a, b and c are the roots of the polynomial
(3) Wall of atrium equation x3 – 597 x – 5236 = 0 then the value of
(4) Wall of ventricle (a3 + b3 + c3) is

Answer (1) (1) 597

140. BCG vaccine provide protection against (2) 15708

(1) Measles (2) T. B. (3) 5236

(3) Cholera (4) Small pox (4) 10472

Answer (2) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

147. If cosec x + cot x = a, then the value of cos x is 154. The area of trapezium ABCD where AB = 52 cm,
BC = 12 cm, CD = 39 cm and DA = 5 cm and
1 a2 + 1
(1) a 2 + (2) AB CD, is
a2 a2 − 1

a2 − 1 a2 + 1
(3) (4)
a2 + 1 2a
Answer (3)
148. In an AP 2, 5, 8, 11, .... 452. The mean of 15th, 16th,
136th and 137th terms is
(1) 120 (2) 227
(3) 220 (4) 454 (1) 210 sq. cm. (2) 234 sq. cm.
Answer (2) (3) 260 sq.cm. (4) 280 sq. cm.
149. The minimum value of tan2 x + cot2 x is :- Answer (1)
(1) 1 (2) 0 155. The difference between areas of a triangle of largest
(3) 2 (4) 3 area inscribed in a circle of radius ‘r’ units and a
triangle of largest area inscribed in a semicircle of
Answer (3)
redius ‘r’ units is.
150. If f(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is a polynomial such
 2 3 − 1 2
that f(1) = 5, f(2) = 10, f(3) = 15, f(4) = 20, find the (1)   r sq. units
 4 
f (12) + f ( − 8)
value of
100 4−2 3  2
(2)   r sq. units
(1) 198 (2) 198.4  4 
(3) 198.6 (4) 199.2 3 3 + 4 2
(3)   r sq. units
Answer (No option is correct)  4 
151. The product of two 2 digits numbers is 2160 and
3 3 −4 2
their H.C.F. is 12. Then sum of the number is (4)   r sq. units
 4 
(1) 72 (2) 84
Answer (4)
(3) 96 (4) 60
156. If p, q, r and s are distinct prime numbers such that
Answer (3)
p + q + r = 72, p + r + s = 74, q + r + s = 89, The
152. The angles of a pentagon are in arithmetic largest of these p, q, r and s is
progression. The sum of the smallest and largest
(1) r = 53 (2) q = 53
angle is
(3) s = 53 (4) s = 49
(1) 172°
Answer (1)
(2) 108°
157. In the given figure, the value of m is :-
(3) 180°
(4) 216°
Answer (4)
153. If 20 ,
p− q = then the maximum value of
 p − 5q 
  is :
 100 
(1) 5 (2) 10 (1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 25 (3) 7 (4) 12

Answer (1) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Delhi)

158. Find the sum of all real values of x which satisfy 165. Who wrote the Book “Hind Swaraj”?
1 1 2 (1) Subhash Chandra Bose
2
+ 2 = 2
x − 10 x − 45 x − 10 x − 29 x − 10 x − 69
(2) J.L.Nehru
(1) 7 (2) 10
(3) Kamla Nehru
(3) 13 (4) –3 (4) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer (2) Answer (4)
1 3 3 166. Which country was known as “Siam”?
159. If N = 3 4 + 3 2 + 1 , then the value of 3 + 2 + is:-
N N N
(1) England (2) Thailand
(1) 2
(3) Holand (4) Swaziland
(2) 4
Answer (2)
(3) 7
167. Which of the following Prime Minister Constituted
(4) 1 “Simon Commission?
Answer (4) (1) Robert Walpole
160. In a class average height of all students is ‘p’ cm. (2) Stanley Baldwin
Among them, average height of 10 students is ‘q’ (3) Ramsay Mac Donald
cm and the average height of the remaining
(4) Winston Churchil
students is ‘r’ cm. The number of students is the
class is :- Answer (2)
p(q − r ) q−r 168. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar formed the “Depressed Classes
(1) (2) Association” in
(p − r ) p−r

q−r 10(q − r )
(1) 1928 (2) 1929
(3) (4)
10(p − r ) (p − r ) (3) 1930 (4) 1931
Answer (4) Answer (3)

161. What are the National colours of France? 169. ‘Jeevita Samaram’ is the autobiography of

(1) Blue-Green-Red (2) Green-White-Red (1) C. Kesavan (2) Saudamini

(3) Green-Yellow-Red (4) Blue-White-Red (3) Mankojee (4) R.C.Dutt

Answer (1)
Answer (4)
170. Who established the Vietnamese Communist
162. Which was not included in Lenin’s April theses?
party?
(1) Formation of Duma
(1) Phu So (2) Mao Zedong
(2) Bank be Nationalised
(3) Ho Chi Minh (4) Phan Boi
(3) Land be transferred to peasant
Answer (3)
(4) War be brought to a close
171. “When France sneezes the rest of Europe catches
Answer (1) cold” who remarked this?
163. Hitler assigned the responsibility of Economic (1) Mazzini (2) Metternich
recovery to (3) Gottfried (4) John Lock
(1) Herbert Spancer (2) Hyalmar Schacht Answer (2)
(3) W Shirer (4) Robert Lay 172. Which one of the following is the main cause of land
Answer (2) degradation in Punjab?
164. Which of these had worked as indentured (1) Intensive Cultivation
Labourer? (2) Deforestation
(1) Shaukat Ali (2) Alluri Sita Ram Raju (3) Over Irrigation
(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) Baba Ramchandra (4) Over Grazing
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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173. Traditional rain water harvesting is called in 181. Which one of the figures represents the working age
Rajasthan. groups of the population
(1) Tank (2) Tanka (1) 15-65 years (2) 15-66 years
(3) Pond (4) Lake (3) 15-59 years (4) 15-64 years
Answer (2) Answer (3)
174. Which of the state has most sugar mills in India? 182. Chemical Industry usually are located near:
(1) Haryana (2) Punjab (1) Iron & steel Industries
(3) Maharashtra (4) Bihar (2) Thermal Power Plant
Answer (3) (3) Oil refineries
175. In which industry Bauxite is used as raw material? (4) Automobile Industry
(1) Steel (2) Cement Answer (3)
(3) Aluminium (4) Jute 183. BAMCEF mean
Answer (3) (1) Backward and minority community employees
federation
176. Roof top rain water harvesting is the most common
practise in which of the following cities: (2) Backward and mining community employees
federation
(1) Shillong (2) Imphal
(3) Backward and majority community employees
(3) Guwahati (4) Patna
federation
Answer (1) (4) Backward and Malabar coastal employees
177. Which of the following groups constitute the basic federation
rock form: Answer (1)
(1) Sandy, Igneous, Metamosplic 184. General Election are called as
(2) Igneous, Sedimentary, Metamosplic (1) On death of any member
(3) Lignite, Volcanic, Sedimentary (2) Election before specific time in whole country
(4) Sandy, Volcanic, Igneous and states
Answer (2) (3) On completing five years
178. Mango showers occur in which one of the following (4) Empty seat due to any reason
group of two states: Answer (3)
(1) Bihar & West Bengal 185. In 44th Amendment which fundamental right has
(2) Tamil Nadu & Andhra Pradesh been removed from the list of fundamental rights.
(3) Karnataka & Kerala (1) Freedom of speech
(4) Maharashtra & Andhra Pradesh (2) Freedom of make groups
Answer (3) (3) Right to work
179. Topic of Cancer does not pass through (4) Right to property
(1) Chhattisgarh (2) Odisha Answer (4)
(3) Rajasthan (4) Tripura 186. Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer (2) (1) Union list – 66 subject; state list-97 subjects;
Concurrent list – 47 subjects
180. AMUL milk scheme is an example of which type of
industry: (2) Union list – 47 subjects; state list – 97 subjects;
Concurrent list – 66 subjects.
(1) Basic Industry
(3) Union list – 97 subjects; state list – 47 subjects;
(2) Agro based Industry Concurrent list – 66 subjects
(3) Joint Industry (4) Union list – 97 subjects; state list – 66 subjects;
(4) Co-Operative Industry Concurrent list – 47 subjects
Answer (4) Answer (4)

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187. A person who is not a member of any house of 193. In which year “Universal Adult Franchise” was
Parliament, if he is appointed as minister. He has to implemented in India?
get elected to the one of the house of Parliament (1) 1947 (2) 1950
with in
(3) 1919 (4) 1935
(1) A month
Answer (2)
(2) Six month
194. In which year, consumer protection act was
(3) Three month enacted?
(4) Stipulated time is fixedly the President (1) 1986 (2) 1988
Answer (2) (3) 1985 (4) 1987
188. Why is “Power sharing” reganded as good? Answer (1)
(1) Reduces poverty 195. Which among the following is considered to be most
(2) Maximises wealth liquid assets?
(3) Provides employment (1) Gold (2) Demand Deposites
(4) Reduces social conflict (3) Land (4) Money
Answer (4) Answer (4)
189. Main feature of “Pressure Groups” is 196. Food security is ensured in a country only if-
(1) Direct control on political power (1) Enough food is available for all the person
(2) Try to influence the politics of Government (2) All persons have the capacity to buy food of
(3) Lax organisation acceptable quality
(4) Direct participation in political powers (3) There is no barrier on access to food
Answer (2) (4) All above
190. Among the following which are is the main aim of Answer (4)
starting civil rights movement in America: 197. The headquarter of world trade organisation is
(1) Adult franchise situated in
(2) Vote to right for women (1) New York (2) China
(3) Abolishing social discrimination (3) Japan (4) Geneva
(4) Fan direct election of Congress Answer (4)
Answer (3) 198. Under National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(2005), How many days of work are Guaranteed in
191. President can declare emergency when:
a year?
(1) Prime minister advise him to do so
(1) 80 days (2) 100 days
(2) Parliament advises him to declare emergency
(3) 200 days (4) 300 days
(3) The counsil of minister, in writing advises him
Answer (2)
to do so
199. Who is the founder of Grameen Bank of
(4) Home Minister asks him to do so
Bangladesh?
Answer (3)
(1) Abdul Rehman (2) M.Yunis
192. Amnesty International is an international
(3) Mujibur Rehman (4) Amartya Sen
organisation which works for
Answer (2)
(1) Work peace
200. From the following in which state of India the use of
(2) Justice
the chemical fertiliser is highest?
(3) Restoration of democracy
(1) Punjab (2) Haryana
(4) Human Rights
(3) Rajasthan (4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer (4)
Answer (1)

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