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Juris Answer Report - 747
Juris Answer Report - 747
Q.1 The President of India nominates two Anglo Indians members to:
a) Union Executive
b) Council of states
c) Legislative Assembly
d) House of people
Q.2 Which officer of govt. of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even through he is not a member?
a) Vice- President
b) Attorney-General of India
d) Election Commissioner
Q.3 It is the duty of the State to safeguard forests and wildlife under:
a) Articles 48 of Constitution of India
Q.4 Who among the following does not hold his/her office at the pleasure of the President of India?
a) Cabinet Minister
d) Governor of a State
Q.5 The concept of Public interest Litigation which became popular in India originated in:
a) UK
b) Australia
c) Canada
d) USA
Q.6 Total number of ministers including Prime Minister shall not exceed……..% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha
a) 10%
b) 14%
c) 15%
d) 18%
Q.7 Which state of India has a civil Code which is Common for all?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Goa
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland
Q.8 When the offices of both the President, Vice-President, Chief Justice of India are vacant, then the functions of acting President shall be
discharged by
a) Prime Minister
b) Home Minister
Q.10 Under the Contempt of Courts Acts, 1971 the accused may be discharged or punishment may be remitted on:
a) Apology made to the satisfaction of court
b) Apology has no place in the Act
d) None of above
Q.11 For which among the following posts there is no provision in Constitution of India?
a) Deputy Speaker
b) Prime Minister
d) Vice-President
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Q.13 Who among the following became the first Indian member of the British Parliament?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
c) Dadabhai Naroji
d) Maulana Azad
Incorrect Correct Answer : c Your Answer : a
Q.14 Both the President and the Governors in India have power to promulgate Ordinances. The statement is
a) True
b) False
d) Depends on circumstances
Q.15 The first lady in India who became the Chief Minister of a State
a) Nandini Satpathy
b) Sheela Dikshit
c) Sucheta Kripalani
d) J. Jayalalitha
b) If the Rajya Saba declares by two-third majority resolution that it is expedient to do so in national interest
b) Articles 14
c) Article 21 A
d) Article 19
Q.18 Planning Commission has been scrapped and replaced by a new think tank called:
a) National Institution for Transforming India Ayog
Q.20 Which among the following has been added as a fundamental right in the Constitution of India by 86th Amendment?
a) Right to information
b) Right to employment
c) Right to food security
d) Right to education
Incorrect Correct Answer : d Your Answer : a
Q.21 Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court is available from the decision of
a) Any court or tribunal
b) Any court, tribunal or administrative authority
Q.22 Who was the chairperson of the Committee on Review of the Working of the Constitution?
a) Subhash C. Kashyap
b) Justice Venkatachaliah
c) L.K. Advani
d) Justice B.N. Kirpal
Q.23 Under which provision of the Constitution, the Supreme court reviews its own judgments?
a) Article 132
b) Article 137
c) Article 139
d) Article 141
Q.24 What does the phrase “lex est norma recti” mean?
a) Law is a rule of right
c) Judicial reform
d) Election reform
b) Constitutional body
c) Self-regulatory body
d) Private Association
Q.27 Who said that democracy is a “government of the people, by the people and for the people”?
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) Woodlow Wilson
c) Aristotle
d) Plato
Correct Correct Answer : a Your Answer : a
Q.28 The supreme court being the highest court of appeal, is the most superior judiciary, but the various High Courts exercise a jurisdiction
even wider than that of the Supreme Court under
a) Article 32 of the Constitution
b) Article 141 of the constitution
Q.30 Who amongst the following can attend the Session of the Parliament but has no right to vote?
a) Attorney-General for India
b) Comptroller-General of India
c) Constitutional right
d) Moral right
Q.32 Which of the following was merged with the Union of India on 16 May, 1975 to become 22nd State?
a) Sikkim
b) Goa
c) Pondicherry
c) M.H. Mandal
d) S.P. Mandal
Q.35 Who called Directive Principles as a “cheque on bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
a) B.R. Ambedkar
b) H.M. Seervai
c) K.T. Shah
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) 21 yr
d) 18 yr
c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) Aslam Khan
Q.39 The Parliament has power to amend all parts of the Constitution except
a) Fundamental rights and duties
b) Emergency provisions
Q.40 Guidelines issued by the Supreme Court are law and binding on all courts in India by virtue of
a) Article 141 of the constitution
Q.41 The right of minorities conferred in Article 30(1) of the constitution is with respect to the establishment of
a) Educational institution of their choice
d) Rest houses
Q.43 The supreme court has held that hoisting the national flag atop the private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under:
a) Article 14 of the Constitution
Q.44 Which one of the following statements is correct? Parliament can make a law with respect to a matter in the State list in the national
interest if
a) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority
b) Parliament passes a resolution
Q.45 The procedure for amendment of the Indian constitution was borrowed from the
a) Constitution of USA
b) Constitution of USSR
c) Constitution of Germany
d) Constitution of South Africa
b) Statutory Authority
c) Non-Statutory Authority
Q.48 When does Supreme Court gives advice to the President on a matter of law or facts?
a) Only when the president seeks such advise
b) On its own
c) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of India
d) Only if the matter relates to the violation of fundamental rights of the citizens
Q.51 What is the term used for the principles laid down in a judgment?
a) Obiter dicta
b) Ratio decidendi
c) Jus cogens
d) Interpretation
Q.52 Interpreting Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution of India in relation to a criminal statute, a Bench of the Supreme Court of India,
headed by the Chief Justice of India, has, in a judgment dated 22.03.2010 held that:
a) The clemency power of the Executive is absolute, remains unfettered and cannot be restricted by the provisions of a Statute
b) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, in so far as it criminalizes consensual sexual acts of adults in private is violative of the
Constitution of India
c) Once possession is established, the person who claims that it was not a conscious possession has to establish it
d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.53 Which High Court exercised jurisdiction over Delhi, prior to the establishment of the High Court of Delhi?
a) High Court of Gujarat
b) High Court of Punjab
Q.54 Which of the following bodies was instrumental in setting-up permanent and continuous Lok Adalat in Delhi, to resolve disputes
pertaining to bodies such as the M.C.D., N.D.M.C., B.S.E.S., N.D.P.L., M.T.N.L. etc.?
a) Delhi Legal Services Authority
b) Bar Council of India
Q.55 Any proceedings for removal of a judge of any High Court in India may be initiated only by:
a) An order of the President of India
b) A notice of motion for presenting an address to the President, praying for the removal of a Judge,signed by requisite number of
members of the Parliament address by each house of the Parliament, supported by the requisite
c) Number of Members of Parliament
d) Constitution of a Committee for the purpose of making an investigation into the grounds on which the removal of the Judge is
prayed for
absconded
Q.57 To provide affordable access to justice to the citizens of India at the grass roots level, at their doorsteps, a body was established by an
Act of the Parliament that came into force on 2nd October 2009. What this statutory body is called?
a) Nyaya Panchayat
b) Gram Nyayalaya
c) Gram Panchayat
d) Lok Adalat
Q.58 In case of death of both the President and Vice President of India, who shall act as the President of India?
a) Attorney General of India
b) Prime Minister
Q.59 Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in framing the Indian Constitution?
a) Sir B.N. Rao
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
Q.62 Under the Constitution of India the official language of the Union is:
a) Hindi in Devanagari Script
c) Hindi
d) English
Q.63 Under the Constitution of India 'Right to Pollution Free Environment' has emerged as a fundamental right from the right to
a) Freedom of movement under Article 19
b) Equality under Article 14
Q.64 Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion cannot be placed on the ground of Question
a) Morality
b) Social justice
c) Health
d) Public order
Q.65 Which among the following was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul of the Constitution of India"?
a) Freedom of Religion
c) Right to equality
Q.66 Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution of India
a) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
b) Organisation of village panchayats
Q.67 The object of which one of the following writs is to prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold?
a) Mandamus
b) Quo warranto
c) Certiorari
d) Prohibition
Q.68 Which Indian State has prescribed minimum educational qualification for candidates contesting panchayat polls?
a) Gujarat
b) Kerala
c) Haryana
d) Punjab
Q.69 Which among the following does not belong to the 'right to freedom of religion'?
a) Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
b) Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
Q.70 ASSERTION: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Q.71 ASSERTION: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
REASON: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Q.72 ASSERTION: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
REASON: The members of both Lak Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government.
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Q.73 ASSERTION: The reservation of thirty- three percent of seats for women in parliament and State Legislature does not require
Constitutional Amendment.
REASON: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty- three percent of seat of seats they contest to women candidates
without any constitutional Amendment.
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Q.74 ASSERTION: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into India into a Democratic Republic.
REASON: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As result the head of
state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard.
OPTIONS
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
Q.75 ASSERTION: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
REASON: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
OPTIONS:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Q.76 The NDA led Government notified the ………………….and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, thus ending the over two-
decade-old…………………of appointing judge of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six-member panel headed
by……………………………………….will select judges of the apex court and state high courts. But the 99th amendment has been Struck down
by Supreme Court of India as unconstitutional.
a) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Chief Justice of India
b) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Union Law Minister
c) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Prime Minister
d) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Prime Minister
d) None is correct
Q.78 One can become judge of Supreme Court of India if he has been for five years ________________.
a) a member of Bar Council of India
Q.79 As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
a) Deputy Prime Minister
b) Former President
2 Vice-President
3 Prime Minister
5 Former Presidents
Q.81 Governor of a state can make Laws during recess of State legislative Assembly through…………
a) Act
b) Bills
c) Notification
d) Ordinance
b) K.C. Wheare
c) H.M. Serai
d) Jennings
b) Through ministers
d) Budget
Q.85
PRINCIPLE: Caveat emptor, i.e., ‘let the buyer beware’ stands for the practical skill and judgment of the buyer in his choice of goods for
purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he buys has its use and worth for him. Once bought, if the product
is not up to his expectations, then he alone is to blame and no one else.
FACTS: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees. ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from ‘B’, but did not disclose to the
seller (‘B’) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found tp ne
unfit for uniforms. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of other purposes (such as, making caps, boots and carriage lining, etc.).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is correct as regards remedy available to ‘A’ in the given situation?
a) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting some remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)
b) ‘A’ (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)
c) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting refund from ‘B’ (the seller)
d) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting a different variety of cloth from ‘B’ (the seller), but not the refund
Q.86 PRINCIPLE: The constitution of India guarantees the ‘right to life’, which means ‘right to live with human dignity’. The right to life under the
constitution, however, does not include the right to die.
FACTS: ‘M’ , who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from physical and mental distress, as
there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he should be granted the
right to die with dignity because he does want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he has a right to put an end to
it. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
b) The prayer can be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution includes the right to die
c) The prayer can be granted, as person cannot be forced to enjoy right to life to his detriment, disadvantage and disliking
d) The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the constitution does not include the right to die
Q.87 PRINCIPLE: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is made for
the benefits of that person.
FACTS: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the
shock.
a) ‘A’ has committed the offence of causing death of his patient
b) ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
c) ‘A’ has only partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient
Q.88 PRINCIPLE: whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such, furnishes, as true,
information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false
information.
FACTS: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of
the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
a) Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
b) Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
d) Sawant is guilty as the murder was committed within the limits of his estate.
Q.89 Proceedings for the violation of Fundamental right conferred in part III of the Constitution in Article 32 guarantees the right to move to
the
a) Supreme court
b) High court
c) District court
d) In any court
b) Statute
c) Statue
d) Draft
b) Mumbai
c) Allahabad
d) Kolkata
b) 10 years
c) 7 years
d) 8 years
b) 62
c) 60
d) 68
b) Right to equality
c) Right to property
b) Fundamental Right
c) Directive principle
d) Fundamental Duty
Q.100 In which of the following cases can a Constitutional Amendment be passed by a simple majority in Parliament?
a) Election matter
b) Change in the name of the states
c) Power of president