S Skill Disaster Management QA
S Skill Disaster Management QA
th
6 Semester Soft Study MCQ Questions
Disaster Management
Answer keys are given in Bold letters
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8. The primary result of earthquakes is
a. Building and bridge collapsed
b. Rapture of water and gas pipelines
c. Change in course of river and creation of new islands
d. All of the above
15. What are the important measures to be taken in community level of disaster
preparedness
a. Increased awareness
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b. Provision of early and timely warning
c. Landuse planning
d. All of the above
16. A point on the surface of the earth vertically above the focus is known as
a. Epicenter
b. Hypocenter
c. Special focus
d. None of the above
17. Which instrument is used for recording the occurrences of the earthquake
a. Richter Scale
b. Seismology
c. Seismograph
d. None of the Above
18. Which area in the world witness’s highest seismic earthquake activity in the world.
a. Mid-continental belt
b. Cir-cum Pacific belt
c. Mid-Atlantic belt
d. All of the above
20. Which volcanic eruption is responsible for raising temperature of the Northern
Hemisphere by 1.2 °c?
a. Bhuj
b. Etna
c. Krakatoa
d. Mt. Pinatubo
21. Which are the major controlling systems for reduction of volcanic disaster?
a. Prediction for early warning of eruption
b. Timely evolution and relief work
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
22. Which techniques are used for prediction of early warning of eruption?
a. Electric Distance Measures
b. Tilt Meters
c. GPS and Satellite Inferring Rader
d. All of the above
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23. Shallow earthquakes, less than 20 km deep are associated with
a. Convergent plate boundaries
b. Divergent plate boundaries
c. Transform plate boundaries
d. All of the Above
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b. Loss of biodiversity
c. Scarcity of water supply
d. All of the above
31. Which of the following agencies are the National Disaster Risk Reduction
stakeholders?
a. Central Government
b. National Disaster Offices
c. Private Sector
d. All of the above
32. Structural and Non-structural measures are elements of high category of Risk
Reduction measures
a. Socio-economic measures
b. Physical measures
c. Environmental measures
d. Post disaster measures
33. What are the major types oriented to mitigation measures of hazards and disasters?
a. Public mitigation measures
b. Community mitigation measures
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
34. What are the main prescribes procedures for standard operating?
a. Search and rescue
b. Medical assistant
c. Casualty management
d. All of the above
35. The steps need to be taken for any risk natural or man-made disaster
a. Proper building construction
b. A well planned
c. Awareness among the stakeholders
d. All of the above
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c. Creation of nuisance problems
d. Increase in diarrhea disease
39. The most essential item that the disaster stricken populations must be provided with
is
a. Shelter material
b. Drinking water
c. Fuel
d. All of the above
41. Besides testing the quality of the food itself, inspections should be made to determine
the cleanliness of-
a. Premises where food is handled and prepared
b. Washing facilities
c. Food storage facilities
d. All of the above
44. Which body in the state of Tripura can declare emergency in case of state level
disaster?
a. TDMA
b. SEC
c. Department of Public works
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d. Department of minister
46. What are the roles of NGOs in disaster related preparedness stage?
a. Public awareness and education
b. Vulnerability and risk assessment
c. Forming and training DNTs, introducing alternative technologies
d. All of the above
49. The presence of high hill ranges with alternate valleys in Tripura is much similar to
the “ridge-Vale topography” of
a. The Manipur hills
b. The Alps of Europe
c. The Appalachian region of USA
d. The Eastern Ghats of India
50. The North-East India is seismically one of the six most active regions of the world
along with the other five zones of
a. Mexico, Taiwan, California, Japan and Turkey
b. Taiwan, Mexico, Australia, New Zealand and Syria
c. Japan, Taiwan, China, South Korea and North Korea
d. Turkey, Japan, Vietnam, Laos and Cambodia
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52. The cyclone that hit Odisha on October 29, 1999 is an example of
(a) Super cyclone
(b) Silent cyclone
(c) Cyclone storm
(d) None
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(d) All of the above
61. Earthquake is a:
a) Geophysical disaster
(b) Hydrological disaster
(c) Meteorological disaster
(d) Compound disaster
63. Disaster at Chernobyl (USSR), Three Mile Island (USA), and Fukusima (JAPAN)
are all related to:
(a) Disaster caused by earthquake
(b) Disaster caused by Tsunami
(c) Nuclear disaster
(d) Epidemic disaster
64. The disease that swept a large part of Asia, Europe and Africa in the 14 th century is:
(a) Plague
(b) Small pox
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Influenza
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(a) Syrian War
(b) World War I&II
(c) Kargil War
(d) Vietnam-US War.
70) The epicenter of the earthquake of the magnitude of 5.7 which occurred on the 3 rd
of Jan, 2017 in Tripura was located at:
a) Dhalai District
b) West District
c) North District
d) Gomati District
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c) Sakhan
d) Longtarai
81. What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a disease at the
same time?
a) Influx
(b) Black death
(c) Epidemic
(d) Parasite
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82. Disaster management covers-
a) Maintaining control over disasters
b) Reducing the effects of disasters
c) Briefing of govt. Officials about disasters
d) All the above
88. Andhra Pradesh was severely battered by a cyclonic storm which killed more than
10,000 lives on?
a. 15-11-1977
b. 15-11-1971
c. 15-11-1963
d. 15-11-1945
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c. Anytime in day or night
d. Morning
90. United Nations Disaster Management Team is responsible for solving problem
resulting from disaster in?
a. Asia
b. Australia
c. Africa
d. In all continents
91. How many of 35 Indian States and Union Territories are disaster prone?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 12
d. 27
92. Number of human live lost during 1980-2010 due to natural and induced hazards in
India?
a. 1,42,265
b. 1,56,897
c. 1,43,039
d. 1,23,987
94. The term ‘disaster’ is derived from which of the following language?
a. Greek
b. Latin
c. French
d. Arabic
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97. Indian National Tsunami Warning System became operational in?
a. 2003
b. 2007
c. 2009
d. 2012
103. Disasters can be categorized into various types on the basis of?
a. Its speed
b. Its previous history
c. Loss of property they result
d. Loss of human life they result
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c.Briefing the top officials of govt. on the effect of disasters
d. All the above
108. A series of earthquakes shook the Central American Nation Of Nicarague and
killed many people in the year?
a. 1974
b. 1972
c, 1973
d. 1975
109. In which year a cyclone struck the Coastal Andhra in Krishna Godavari delta and
caused havoc?
a. 1976
b. 1979
c. 1978
d. 1977
110. The National Civil Defence college was founded in 1957 at?
a. Bombay
b. Nagpur
c. Cochin
d. Hyderabad
111. Which of the following activities is covered by Disaster Management before, during
or after a disaster?
a. Reconstruction and Rehabilitation
b. Mitigation
c. Emergency response
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d. All the above
112. The phrase WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION entered widespread usage in?
a. 2003
b. 2001
c. 2002
d. 2004
114. On November 19,1977, a cyclone, which had been operated to hit Tamil Nadu,
instead struck the Central Coast of and diverted several villages?
a. Kerela
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Orissa
d. Karnataka
115. For coordinating disaster management activities for all natural hazards, the Nodal
Agency at the Central Govt is the?
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Rural Development
c. Ministry of Communication
d. Ministry of Urban Ministry
116. U.N. Disaster Management Team UNDMT is responsible for solving problems
resulting from disasters in?
a. India
b. Iran
c. Bangladesh
d. All countries the world
117. National Disaster Management Division of the Govt. of India wherever necessary,
sends to disaster affected areas?
a. Coordanation its containing satellite phones
b. Medicines for affected people
c. Provides relief measures
d. All the above
118. When a powerful earthquake struck South Eastern Iran and caused enormous loss
of life and property Killing 30,000 people?
a. 26.12.2003
b. 26.11.2003
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c. 26.10.2003
d. 26.10.2002
120. The ground movements caused by earthquakes can have a damaging effects such
as?
a. Ground shaking
b. Landslides
c. Surface ruptures
d. All the above
124. Report on Training on Search and Rescue for the members of the village Disaster
Management Team is prepared by?
a. Govt. of Manipur
b. Govt. of Indonesia
c. Govt. of Uttaranchal
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126. In which year the violent explosion of the famous Volcano, Krakatoa in Indonesia,
produced Tsunamis measuring 40 feet?
a. 1883
b. 1881
c. 1882
d. 1884
127. According to World Disasters Report of 2010, during 2000-09, 85% of affected
people belonged to the?
a. Asia Pacific Region
b. African region
c. Japan region
d. Australian region
128. Area of Indian coastline which is vulnerable to storm surges, cyclones and
tsunamis is?
a. 5700 Km
b. 3700km
c. 2700km
d. 4700km
129. The date when the super cyclone hit the Orissa coast which killed nearly 10,000
people and affected over 15 million people across 12 districts of Orissa is?
a. 29.08.1999
b. 29.08.1997
c. 29.08.1998
d. 29.08.1996
130. According to the World Bank, during the period 1996 to 2000, the approximate
percentage loss of gross domestic produce due to disasters was?
a. 2.85%
b. 2.25%
c. 2.50%
d.1.95%
131. The National Policy on Disaster Management was approved by the Union Cabinet
in?
a. 2008
b. 2009
c. 2007
d. 2010
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d. Prime Minister
134. By what measures can we significantly reduce the impact of disasters on our
people?
a. Better planning
b. Preparedness awareness
c. Mitigation measures
d. All the above
138. What percent of earthquakes and tsunamis account for world disasters?
a. 8%
b. 3%
c. 9%
d. 7%
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140. According to World Bank Estimate, direct losses from natural disasters are upto
percent of GDP?
a. 4%
b. 2%
c. 1%
d. 3%
144. Which is the nodal agency at the Indian Union Government for coordinating
disaster management activities for all natural hazards?
a. Minister of Home affairs
b. Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
c. Ministry of Science and Technology
d. Ministry of Environment and Forests
145. United Nations Disaster Management Team (UNDMT) is responsible for solving
problem resulting from disasters in?
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. Australia
d. In all continents
146. On what date a powerful earthquake struck South Eastern Iran and Caused heavy
loss of life and property?
a. 26.12.2004
b. 26.12.2003
c. 26.12.2002
d. 25.11.2003
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147. First Aid Kit should contain?
a. Cotton Wool, Bandage
b. Pain Relievers, Medicines
c. Scissors, Gloves, Antacids
d. All the above
148. Andhra Pradesh was severely battered by a cyclonic storm killed more than 10,000
lives on?
a. 15.11.1976
b. 15.11.1977
c. 15.11.1978
d. 15.11.1975
150. 11-03-2012 marked one year sine an earthquake and tsunami killed thousands of
people in?
a. Japan
b. South Korea
c. North Korea
d. Indonesia
153. According to U. N. O. there were about ______ disasters per year between 1992 -
2000 in the world?
a. 100
b. 300
c. 500
d. 800
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154. In which year the violent explosion of the famous Volcano, Krakatoa in Indonesia,
produced Tsunamis measuring 40 feet?
a. 1881
b. 1882
c. 1883
d. 1884
155) Which natural hazard has caused the greatest number of deaths in a single event?
a) Earthquakes
b) Floods
c) Volcanic eruptions and related disasters
d)hurricanes
156) Earthquakes that occur along faults are created when ___________
a) Melted rock is erupted along the fault zone
b) Stress builds up until rocks break
c) The earth shifts and moves along fracture
d) Answers b and c
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c) Bed eruptions
d) Volcano
163) Which of the following activities is covered by Disaster management before, during
or after a disaster?
a) Reconstruction and Rehabilitation
b) Mitigation
c) Emergency response
d) All the above
165) When did Tsunami struck the east coast of India in recent times?
a) December 26, 2004
b) December 26, 2014
c) December 24, 2004
d) January 26, 1997
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169) Which is the most dangerous location for a tsunami hazard?
a) A straight stretch of coast directly exposed to the open sea
b) A rocky point protruding into the ocean in deep water
c) A bay with a nice sandy beach at its end
d) A small boat in the deep ocean
171) Mapping method used for tracking wind speed and direction is
a) Hazard mapping
b) Mind mapping
c) Speed mapping
d) None of these
173) The centre of a cyclone is a calm area and is called the_________ of the storm.
a) Eye
b) Focus
c) Centre
d) Radius
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c) Increasing the downstream velocity of flood water
d) Trapping sediment behind the dam so it can't be deposited downstream
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184) Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
a) Dispersal of weed species
b) Erosion of soil
c) Release of pollutants into waterways
d) All of the above.
189) In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
a) Population growth
b) Urbanisation
c) Climate change
d) All of the above.
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a) Speeding the passage of floodwaters
b) Reducing bank erosion
c) Slowing down river velocity so as to reduce damage
d) Increase the meandering of streams
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199) How many types of Hazards are there-
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
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c) 27th FEB, 2002
d) 28th APRIL, 2004
210) Which instrument are used for recording the occurrence of the earthquake-
a) Richter scale
b) Seismograph
c) Seismometer
d) Doppler rader
213) The earth crust is made up of huge slabs, which are called-
a) Crust
b) Plates
c) Rock
d) Magma
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a) Tilit meter
b) Richter scale
c) Seismograph
d) Seismometer
215) The point within the earth where earthquake generated is called-
a) Focus of epicenter
b) Focus of foci
c) Focus of hypocenter
d) None of these
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222) The name of the chemical leakage in Bhopal Gas Tragedy –
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methyl Isocyanate
c) Hydrogen
d) Sulphur oxide
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c) Dr. Partha Dey
d) Dr. Raju Roy
235) In Tripura, which nodal agency play crucial role in organising community capacity
building programmes and conducting mock drills at State, District and Block levels
(a) National Disaster Response Force
(b) National Informatics Centre
(c) District Disaster Management Authority
(d) Tripura Disaster Management Authority
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237) The toxic gas released from Bhopal Gas Tragedy was
(a) Methyl Isocyanate
(b) Potassium Isocyanate
(c) Sodium Isocyanate
(d) Methyl Isothiocyanate
238) Volcanoes which are currently inactive but there is a possibility that it can erupt
again in future are called
(a) Dormant Volcanoes
(b) Semi- Dormant Volcanoes
(c) Extinct Volcanoes
(d) Dead Volcanoes
241) Which of the following group of people are more vulnerable in the event of a
disaster
(a) Men, boys, old people
(b) Men, Women, boys
(c) Women, children, Old people
(d) None of these
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244) The instrument which records earthquake wave is called
(a) Climograph
(b) Seismograph
(c) Hythergraph
(d) None of the above
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(b) Nitrogen oxides
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) NO2 and SO2
252) An extreme natural phenomenon capable of causing disaster leading to loss of lives
or damage to property is known as-
(a) Natural hazard
(b) Hazard calculation
(c) Desertification
(d) None of the above
253) The process of identifying the probability of occurrence of a natural hazard of a given
intensity at a specific location based on an analysis of natural processes and site
conditions is termed as-
(a) Disaster calculation
(b) Hazard Assessment
(c) Hazard calculation
(d) None of the above
254) The type and degree of flooding is influenced by many factors, such as
(a) Climatological
(b) Hydrological and environmental conditions
(c) Local geomorphology of the flood plain
(d) All of the above
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258) What is the point or place that is the first to record the seismic waves?
(a) Seismic point
(b) Epicenter
(c) Focal point
(d) Epipoint
259) Seismic waves during earthquake are recorded and studied with the help of an
instrument called as
(a) Richter scale
(b) Seismograph
(c) Lithograph
(d) Cardiograph
261) Sometimes there are some indications that would indicate that perhaps an
earthquake would occur. Such indications are called
(a) Indicators
(b) Precursors
(c) Signal
(d) Anticipations
264) Which one is a major environmental and safety hazard for the people in hilly areas in
Tripura which can be considered as “cancer of hill slopes”
a) Flood
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(b) Landslide
(c) Earthquake
(d) Desertification
265) Which zone is considered the highest vulnerability zone of the seismic zonation map
of India?
(a) Zone-IV
(b) Zone-V
(c) Zone-III
(d) Zone-II
266) Tsunami is a
(a) Japanese origin word
(b) Latin origin word
(c) Greek origin word
(d) Portuguese origin word
267) In which earthquake, the stones on the roads of Shillong as said to have “vibrated
like peas on a drum”?
(a) Cachar Earthquake
(b) Latur Earthquke
(c) Great Earthquake of Assam
(d) Bhuj Earthquake
268) The sudden release of hot materials (lava, ash, gas etc.) from volcanoes is called
(a) Volcanic eruption
(b) Ash showers
(c) Pyroclastic flows
(d) Hot mud flows
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(b) 26 January, 2001
(c) 31 January, 2001
(d) 29 January, 2001
275) When a river’s water level reaches 10 metres, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 metres above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level or an arbitrary 'zero' level
(d) it will flood.
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(d) all of the above.
282) Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a
flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
284) The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National
Centre for Ocean Information Sciences is located in
(a) Chennai
(b) Goa
(c) Kochi
(d) Hyderabad
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(d) 1994
289) Which of the following emits dangerous radioactive wastes forcing the government
to eliminate its use?
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Water energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Solar energy
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293) Passageway which joins vent to crater of volcano is known as
a) Vent
b) Cone
c) Pipe
d) Crater
297) A hazard:
A) is a potentially damaging physical event, phenomenon, or human activity
B) may cause the loss of life or injury, property damage,
C) may generate social and economic disruption or environmental degradation.
D) all of the above
298) Earthquake is a:
a) Geophysical disaster
b) Hydrological disaster
c) Meterological disaster
d) Compound disaster
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(c) Oxygen
(d) Methane
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Soft Study MODEL QUESTIONS
6th Semester, 2018
Subject: Society & Technology
Answer Key are given in Bold letter
3. This invention replaced vacuum tubes and made computers much smaller and faster.
However, it was eventually replaced by another invention
(i) RAM
(ii) ENIAC
(iii) Transformer
(iv) Transistor.
5. Research is basically-
(i) A methodology of enquiry
(ii) Search of truth
(iii) A systematic exploration of facts
(iv) All of the above
12. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(i) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(ii) Survey of related literature
(iii) Identification of problem
(iv) Searching for solutions to the problem
i) Confidentiality
ii) Integrity
iii) Availability
iv) Authenticity
32. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not
any host program?
i) Trap doors
ii) Trojan horse
iii) Virus
iv) Worm
i) Configuration
ii) Accessibility
iii) Authentication
iv) logging in
i) Jacking
ii) Identify Theft
iii) Spoofing
iv) Hacking
35. Which of the following is/are threats for electronic payment systems?
i) Computer worms
ii) Computer virus
iii) Trojan horse
iv) All of the above
i) Copyrights
ii) Know-how
iii) Trade dress
iv) All of the above
37.The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights
to others.
i) Patent
ii) Designs
iii) Trademark
iv) All of the above
38. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone
is
i) Ergonomics
ii) Compression
iii) Biometrics
iv) Encryption
39. _________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal
scans used for security access.
i) Biometrics
ii) Bio measurement
iii) Computer security
iv) Smart weapon machinery
45. Copying or stealing someone else's works or ideas and passing them off as your own work is
reffered as-
a. Computer b. Computer fraud c. Plagiarism d. All of the these
vandalism
53. SBI, korbook branch does not have Cash Deposit Machine, it is an issue of-
a. Digital divide b. Computer unequity c. Social issue d. None of the
these
56. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is called-
a. Multi-processing b.Multi-tasking c. Multi-sharing d. All of the these
58. Computer Ethics Institute defines how many commandments for Computer ethics -
a.12 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15
60. The use of information and communication technology to provide clinical health care from a distance is
termed as-
a. Telemedicine b. Telecommunication c. Video d. None of these
Conferencing
62.Which of the following is/are an example of medical devices that diagnose or scense the body?
a. CT Scanner b. MRI Scanner c. Ultrasound d. All of these
63. The use of ICT by the government to provide efficient, convenient & transparent services to the
citizens and business is termed as-
a. e-governance b. e-government c. e-business d. None of these
70. The term used to describe a terrorist attack on a computer information system is-
a. Cyber Attack b. Cyber Terrorism c. Time Bomb d. None of the
these
73. World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) was established in which year?
a. 14th july 1967 b. 4th july 1968 c. 14th june 1967 d. 14th july 1965
74. A distinctive sign that identifies certain goods or services produced or provided by an individuals
or a company is called-
a. Copyright b.Patents c. Trademark d. All of these
78. Laws relating to protecting the internet and other online communication technology is-
a. Cyber Law b. Computer Law c. IT Law d. None of these
79. Which of the following is/are example of application software used in business?
a. Project b. Office software c. Graphics d. All of these
management & software
accounting software
80. Which Act in India focuses on data privacy and information technology?
a. b. Indian Penal code c. IT Act 2000 d. None of these
IT(ammendment)Act
2008
81. 9. Intellectual property refers to:
a. Creation of minds b. Literary works c. Artistic works d. All of the above
85. Copying or stealing someone else's works or ideas and passing them off as your own work is
reffered as-
a. Computer b. Computer fraud c. Plagiarism d. All of the these
vandalism
93. SBI branches in rural areas does not have Cash Deposit Machine, it is an issue of-
a. Digital divide b. Computer unequity c. Social issue d. None of the
these
96. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is called-
a. Multi-processing b.Multi-tasking c. Multi-sharing d. All of the these
100. The use of information and communication technology to provide clinical health care from a distance is
termed as-
a. Telemedicine b. Telecommunication c. Video d. None of these
Conferencing
102.Which of the following is/are an example of medical devices that diagnose or scense the body?
a. CT Scanner b. MRI Scanner c. Ultrasound d. All of these
103. The use of ICT by the government to provide efficient, convenient & transparent services to the
citizens and business is termed as-
a. e-governance b. e-government c. e-business d. None of these
110. The term used to describe a terrorist attack on a computer information system is-
a. Cyber Attack b. Cyber Terrorism c. Time Bomb d. None of the
these
113. World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) was established in which year?
a. 14th july 1967 b. 4th july 1968 c. 14th june 1967 d. 14th july 1965
114. A distinctive sign that identifies certain goods or services produced or provided by an individuals
or a company is called-
a. Copyright b.Patents c. Trademark d. All of these
119. Which of the following is/are example of application software used in business?
a. Project b. Office software c. Graphics d. All of these
management & software
accounting software
120. Which Act in India focuses on data privacy and information technology?
a. b. Indian Penal code c. IT Act 2000 d. None of these
IT(ammendment)Act
2008
121. The Term 'Intellectual Property Rights' covers
122. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of of information and idea that are of
124. The rights of an author or artist with respect to his/her creation are governed by the law of
b)'Innovation-Improving Lives'
128. A ______________is a program that can infect other programs by modifying them,the
modification includes a copy of the virus program which can go on to infect other programs
129. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host programme-
136) Technology that helps companies change business by allowing them to use new methods is
called
137) A company wide network,closed to public access,which uses internet type technology is called
138) Sending Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is
called –
a) Mail survey
b) Interview
c) Observation
d) Panel
140) VGA is
a) Video Graphics Array
b) Visual Graphics Array
c) Volatile Graphics Array
d) Video Graphic Adapter
141) MRI, CT-scan, Ultrasound devices are examples of use of computer in
142) Design, shipping and process control are few uses of computer in
145) ALU is
a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
b) Array Logic Unit
c) Application Logic Unit
d) None of above
146) Educational institutions,libraries, hospitals and industries store concerned information by-
148) The branch of physics that deals with the motion of a very small particle is called-
152) The Defence Research Development Organization (DRDO) has developed a drug named
'Lukosin'.It is being used in the treatment of
155) _________ is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of
information between computing devices.
a) Network
b) Peripheral
c) Expansion Board
d) Digital Device
156) If someone is injured in an accident and brokes his/her knee joint ,then he/she needs to
consult-
163) Which of the following is/are threats for electronic payment systems?
a) Computer worms
b) Computer Virus
c) Trojan horse
d) All of the above
165) A _______ is a computer program that can replicate itself and spread from one
computer to another.
a) Antivirus
b) Pen Drive
c) Mouse
d) Computer Virus
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
167) VIRUS stands for
a) Very Intelligent Result Until Source
b) Very Interchanged Resource Under Search
c) Vital Information Resources Under Seize
d) Viral Important Record User Searched
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
c) Logic Bomb
d) Virus
a) Trap doors
b) Trojan horse
c) Logic Bomb
d) Virus
174) Which among the following is the first step of Research Process?
a) Review of Literature
b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding
d) Selection of a problem
a) Zombie
b) Worm
c) Trojan Horses
d) Logic Bomb
a) True, False
b) False, True
c) True, True
d) False, False
178) Who among the following is known as “The father of scientific management”?
a) Frederich W. Taylor
b) Henry Fayol
c) Robert Owen
d) None of the above
a)Account Access
b)Data Access
c)Hacker or Cracker
d)Computer Access
180) In processes, access control implements a
a)Security Policy
b)Access Policy
c)Control Policy
d)Check Policy
181) What is not a role of encryption?
a)It is used to protect data from unauthorized access during transmission.
b)It is used to ensure user authentication
c)It is used to ensure data integrity
d)It is used to ensure data corruption does not happens
182) Type of software which is used to create slide show is
a) Web design software
b) Presentation software
c) Word-processing software
d) Spreadsheet software
189) What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer
Network?
a) Printers
b) Speakers
c) Floppy disk drives
d) Keyboards
199) The first general purpose electronic computer in the world was
a. UNIVAC
b. EDVAC
c. ENIAC
d. All of the above
201) SPSS
a. Statistics package for the social science
b. Software package for system development
c. Software package for editing
d. None of the above
208) What age group was born after the digital revolution?
a. Digital natives
b. Digital immigrants
c. Digital boomers
d. Web kids
209) When two companies are linked together by computers and they send business transactions
through these computer, they are probably using-
a. Digital wallets
b. Electronic data interchange
c. B2C
d. Smart cards
210) What is the term used when the government employs technology to deal with citizens,
businesses and other government agencies?
a. G2BC
b. Web
c. Consumer
d. E-government
211) It is impossibleto proceed to the age of the steam-mill until one has passed
through the age of
a. The hand-mill.
b. The hydroelectric plant.
c. The steam-mill.
d. The nuclear power age.
214) For a ‘‘higher’’ stage of technology depends not alone on knowledgeor sheer
skill but on
a. The division of labor.
b. The specialization of industry.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of them.
218) Who said that, ‘‘engineers have committed such blunders as saying
thetypewriter brought women to work in offices, and with the typesetting machine
madepossible the great modern newspaper, forgetting that in Japan there are women
officeworkers and great modern newspapers getting practically no help from
typewriters andtypesetting machines.’’
a. Marx.
b. Gilfillan.
c. Roosevelt.
d. None of the above.
220) Who said that what is needed is an understanding of technology from inside,
both as a body of knowledgeand as a social system. Instead, technology is often
treated as a ‘‘black box’’ whose contentsand behaviour may be assumed to be
common knowledge.
a. Layton.
b. Rolston III.
c. Hume.
d. John Locke.
222) Technology ___________ has the power to help the billions of poor people all
over the earth.
a. Not guided by ethics.
b. Guided by ethics.
c. Guided by Scientists.
d. None of the above.
224) The sun, the genome, and ________ are three revolutionaryforces arriving
with the new century.
a. The Mobile.
b. The Computer.
c. The internet.
d. None of the above.
228) What can make solar energy usable everywhere for thelocal creation of
wealth?
a. Internet.
b. Sun.
c. Genetic engineering.
d. None of the above.
229) What can provide people in every village withthe information and skillsthey
need to develop their talents?
a. The solar system.
b. The internet.
c. The Genome.
d. All of the above.
231) The technology of solar energy is still too expensivefor average ________
countriesto afford.
a. First world.
b. Third-world.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of them.
232) There is enough ______ to supply our needs many times over, if we can find
away to use it.
a. Sunlight.
b. Internet.
c. Animals.
d. None of the above.
234) Solar energy has not yetbeen used on a large scale for one simple reason: it is
a. Too expensive.
b. Too cheap.
c. Not much available.
d. All of the above.
235) Solar energy is expensive today because it has to be collected from large areas
andwe do not yet have a technology that covers large areas
a. Easily.
b. Cheaply.
c. Conveniently.
d. None of the above.
236) What are the two main tools for collecting solar energy?
a. Photoelectric panels and energy crops.
b. Genetic engineering and internet.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above.
239) Alongside the human genome, what are other genomes beingsequenced?
a. Bacteria.
b. Yeast.
c. Worms.
d. All of the above.
240) Before long we shall have sequenced the genomes of the major crop plants,
a. Wheat.
b. Maize.
c. Rice.
d. All of the above.
242) Cheap solar energy and genetic engineering will provide the basis for
primaryindustries in the countryside,
a. Modernized farming.
b. Mining.
c. Manufacturing.
d. All of the above.
244) Who said that, “The increased deployment of nuclear power facilities must
lead societytoward authoritarianism. Indeed, safe reliance upon nuclear power as the
principalsource of energy may be possible only in a totalitarian state.”
a. Mumford.
b. Denis Hayes.
c. Louise.
d. None of the above.
245) Who said that ‘‘dispersed solar sources are more compatible than centralized
technologies withsocial equity, freedom and cultural pluralism.’’
a. Mumford.
b. Denis Hayes.
c. Louise.
d. None of the above.
246) The factory system,automobile, telephone, radio, television, space program
and nuclear powerhave all at one time or another been described as
a. Democratizing forces.
b. Liberating forces.
c. Mobilizing forces.
d. Both a. and b.
247) It is obvious that technologies can be used in ways that enhance the
____________ of some over others, for example, the use of television to sell
acandidate.
a. Power.
b. Authority.
c. Privilege.
d. All of the above.
249) Who said that the roots of unavoidable authoritarianism are deeply implanted
in the human involvementwith science and technology?
a. Karl Marx.
b. Friedrich Engels.
c. Immanuel Kant.
d. John Locke.
2. What is embargo?
A. A ship, which often comes late
B. A ban on publication before a specific date
C. A story, which has no end
D. None of these
11. THE news that appears two or three days before an event is called:
A. Follow up
B. Lead story
C. Curtain raiser
D. None of these
16. Communication is a:
A. Strategy
B. Theory
C. Process
D. None of these
21. Which is the first Newspaper in Bengali to be published by Raja ram Mohan
Roy?
(a) Sudha
(b) Udantmartand
(c) Sambad Kaumudi
(d) Pratap
27. What is the full form of ABC which is an organisation associated with
newspapers?
(a) Audit Bureau of Circulation
(b) Accounts Bureau of Calcutta
(c) Assam Bengal Corporations
(d) Asian Broadcasting Company
41. To improve the standard of news agencies and newspapers __________ was
reconstituted.
A. Press Council
B. Wage Boards
C. Press Forums
D. None of these
44. The press and registration of books act enacted in the year
A. 1857
B. 1867
C. 1877
D. 1897
46. The audience for whom the message is specifically designed are called
A. The target audience
B. The actual audience
C. The available audience
D. None of these
47. The way in which the message travels to the receiver is called:
A. Encoding
B. Decoding
C. Channel
D. Source
51. The cultural and creative media products of a country are referred to as-
(a) Virtual power
(b) Economic power
(c) Horse power
(d) Soft power
52. Normative media theory explains how a media system should operate to
realize____
(a) Economic goals
(b) Political strategies
(c) Ideal social values
(d) Legal frameworks
57. Identify the person who defined development communication for the first time in
1970s.
(a) Christina Ogan
(b) Rosemary Righter
(c) Nora C.Quebral
(d) William Hachten
58. Identify which among the following does not constitute a major department at
most newspaper offices?
a) Editorial
b) Advertising
c) House- keeping
d) Circulation
59. In the age of television journalism visual reporter is synonymous with …..
(a) Camera person
(b) Non- liner editor
(c) TV producer
(d) output editor
62. Headlines that appear directly opposite to each other are known as…..
a) Bumping Heads
b) Straight Heads
c) Vertical Heads
d) None of these
63. Name the popular cartoonist of yester-years who became famous for his popular
cartoons “Just Like It”.
a) Kushwant Singh
b) KuldipNayar
c) Shoba De
d) R.K.Lakshman
64. A news story appearing with the name of the author in a newspaper is called?
a) Credit Line
b) By Line
c) Print Line
d) None of these
66. The head quarter of BBC- British Broad Casting Corporation is situated in:
a) New York
b) Washington
c) England
d) None of these
68. Who is credited as the originator of the phrase “press is the fourth estate”?
a) Edmund Burke
b) Lord Macaulay
c) North Cliff
d) Rudyard Kipling
70. Computer software commonly used in a modern newspaper house for editing the
copies is known as ----
a) Adobe Premier
b) MS Word
c) MS Excel
d) Quark Xpress
71. Supposing you are a journalist, is it ethical to use a tape record your Interview
process without the consent of the person concerned?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Do not know
d) None of these
72. Press Conference is a source of collecting authentic news reporting from the
field. It is usually associated with---
a) Magazines
b) Newspapers
c) Advertising
d) Public Relations
73. Newspapers carry reports announcing deaths. What are these news items known
as?
a) Advertorials
b) Editorial
c) Obituary
d) News Feature
74. Name the term that presently had eroded the credibility of journalism practice in
our country?
a) Paid News
b) Business Journalism
c) Sports Journalism
d) Investigative Journalism
76. Young India was the name of a Newspaper started by a famous personality of
India’s independence movement. Who was he?
a) Maulana Azad
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) MA Jinnah
d) MA Gandhi
81. On March 11, 1702, the first daily newspaper appeared in London. What was it
called?
a) Manchester Times
b) London Times
c) Daily Courant
d) British Times
82. Who is called the “Liberator of Indian Press”?
a) Lord Mountbatten
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Lylod
d) Lord Charles Metcalfe
83. Name the popular columnist of yester-years who became famous for his popular
column “Between the Lines”.
a) Kushwant Singh
b) Kuldip Nayar
c) Shoba De
d) Chetan Bhagat
84. Advertising provides 75-80 percent of the total revenue of the Newspaper
organization. What is the other source of revenue of newspaper?
a) Circulation
b) Printing
c) Editorial
d) None
86. Which type of advertising often carry an illustration of the product/service in the
newspaper?
a) Classified Advertising
b) Local Advertising
c) Display Advertising
d) None
87. What is the full form of RNI?
a) Regional Newspaper of India
b) Regional Newsprint of India
c) Regional News and views of India
d) Registrar of Newspaper of India
88. ABC is term commonly used in newspaper organizations. What is the full form
of ABC?
a) Audit Bureau of Circulation
b) Audit and Sales Certificate
c) Assam Bengal Corporation
d) Auditor Bureau of Calcutta
89. The news story is written in the inverted pyramid style. Inverted pyramid style
implies-
a) Writing the most significant facts at the top
b) Writing the most significant facts at the bottom
c) Writing the most significant facts at the middle
d) None
90. The lead should try to answer the six basic questions commonly known as 5 Ws
and One H. Of these the 5w’s are -what? Where? Who? When? Why? And what
does H signify?
a) However
b) How
c) Howsoever
d) None
91. What is the name of a headline which very large composed of one or more lines
and usually extending across a page or almost the full width of a page?
a) Banner Headline
b) Drop Headline
c) Label Headline
d) Blanket Headline
92. Who was the founder of yellow journalism?
a) William Hurst
b) William John
c) William Hickey
d) None of these
94. “It is communication of feelings, emotions, attitudes, and thoughts through body
movements/ gestures / eye contact, etc.” which type of communication is this?
a) Oral communication
b) Written communication
c) Non -verbal communication
d) None
99. The news of important public events appearing in the front sections of a
newspaper, are called:
a) Hard news
b) Soft News
c) Investigative News
d) Feature News
101. Newspaper is a:
a) Cool medium
b) Hot medium
c) Both “a” and “b”
d) None of these
102. The author of well- known communication book “Process and Effects of
Mass Communication” is:
a) David Berlo
b) Marshal McLuhan
c) Wilbur Schramm
d) Herbert Brucver
110. Who is attributed as the originator of the phrase “press is the fourth estate”?
a) Edmund Burke
b) Lord Macaulay
c) North Cliff
d) Rudyard Kipling
111. The Magic Bullet theory of mass communication was evolved by:
a) Ball Rokeach
b) Klapper
c) George Gerber
d) None of these
117. Research has established that while beginning to read a newspaper, a human
eye enters the newspaper from:
a) Top Left Corner
b) Top Right Corner
c) Bottom Left Corner
d) Bottom Right Corner
118. Design is not just the pattern or the style of a newspaper. It is the architecture
on the basis of which the whole structure is built. What does the word
architecture mean?
a) White space
b) Important
c) Structural design
d) None of these
119. DTP was introduced in the year?
a) 1980
b) 1984
c) 1990
d) 1994
121. Headlines that appear directly opposite to each other are known as:
a) Bumping Heads
b) Straight Heads
c) Vertical Heads
d) None of these
122. Placing headline against each other in newspaper terms is known as:
a) Boxes
b) Dummy
c) Tomb stoning
d) Make Up
123. When a story is too long for a front page, it may be continued to inside pages.
This process is called as:
a) Jumping
b) Origin
c) Half Cast
d) Mitgate
124. In a fully automated modern newspaper establishment, sub-editors often uses
VDT on which they can call up both agency reports and stories by local
reporters”. What does VDT stand for?
a) Video Display Terminal
b) Video Delay Terminal
c) Voice Display Terminal
d) None of these
125. In a modern newspaper house editing is done through computers only and the
pages are made up on computers using software known as:
a) Adobe Premier
b) MS Word
c) MS Excel
d) Quark Xpress
127. The process of putting a number of pictures and combining it as one for a
total effect is known as:
a) Photo Montage
b) Electric Montage
c) Rhythmic Montage
d) None of these
128. While conducting an interview, is it ethical to use a tape recorder without the
consent of the person concerned?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Do not know
d) None of these
129. An accepted means of issuing information to the press is called as:
a) Vox Pop
b) Interview
c) Press Conference
d) None of these
131. ………………….is the term which simply means the reporting of information
that helps people cope with their daily lives and it is the bread and butter of
magazines.
a) Service Journalism
b) Yellow Journalism
c) Sports Journalism
d) Chequebook Journalism
136. Who has given the famous statement- Medium is the message?
a) Wilbur Schramm
b) Weaver
c) Marshal McLuhan
d) R.K. Narayanan
139. The Bennett and Coleman Company publishes which of the following
newspapers in India?
a) Hindu
b) Times of India
c) Indian Express
d) None of the above
142. Which among the following is not included in the qualities a journalist?
a) Irrational Thoughts
b) High Quality Communication
c) Obligation and promptness
d) Professionalism
147. When Mahatma Gandhi was in South Africa, which newspaper was started by
him?
a) Young India
b) Hindustan
c) Reformer
d) Indian Opinion
167. WHEN THE HEADLINE JUST INDICATE THE TYPE OF THE EVENT
THAT IS CALLED….
a) Label headline
b) Banner Headline
c) Active Headline
d) None of the above
177. SLANDER IS
a) Written Defamation
b) Verbal Defamation
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
183. .……………………..is known as the art of arranging various visual elements to form
newspaper page.
a) Printing
b) Editing
c) Proof Reading
d) Layout
185. Headlines that appear directly opposite to each other are known as:
a) Bumping Heads
b) Straight Heads
c) Vertical Heads
d) None of these
186. Placing headline against each other in newspaper terms is known as:
a) Boxes
b) Dummy
c) Tomb stoning
d) Make Up
187. A story is too long for a front page, it may be continued to inside pages. This process
is called as:
a) Jumping
b) Origin
c) Half Cast
d) Mitgate
188. “In a fully automated modern newspaper establishment, sub-editors often uses VDT
on which they can call up both agency reports and stories by local reporters”. What
does VDT stand for?
a) Video Display Terminal
b) Video Delay Terminal
c) Voice Display Terminal
d) None of these
189. In a modern newspaper house editing is done through computers only and the pages
are made up on computers using software known as:
a) Adobe Premier
b) MS Word 13
c) MS Excel
d) Quark Xpress
191. The process of putting a number of pictures and combining it as one for a total effect
is known as:
a) Photo Montage
b) Electric Montage
c) Rhythmic Montage
d) None of these
192. While conducting an interview, is it ethical to use a tape recorder without the
consent of the person concerned?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Do not know
d) None of these
195. ………………….is the term which simply means the reporting of information that
helps people cope with their daily lives and it is the bread and butter of magazines.
a) Service Journalism
b) Yellow Journalism
c) Sports Journalism
d) Chequebook Journalism
200. Who has given the famous statement- Medium is the message?
a) Wilbur Schramm
b) Weaver
c) Marshal McLuhan
d) R.K. Narayanan
MODEL QUESTION BANK-2018
th
SIXTH (6 ) SEMESTER SOFT STUDY MCQ QUESTIONS
INDIAN CONSTITUTION AND PLANNING
Answer keys are given in Bold letters
1. Which one of the following Fundamental rights has been the subject of maximum
litigation and controversy?
a) Right to property
b) Right to equality
c) Right to freedom
d) Right to freedom of religion
4. Which one of the following rights was describe by Dr. B R Ambedkar as the heart
and soul of the constitution –
a) Right to property
b) Right to equality
c) Right to freedom
d) Right to constitutional remedies
6. The constitution of which one of the following Countries specifically recognises that
the state has a moral responsibility to –
a) UK
b) USA
c) USSR
d) None of them
1|Page
7. Right to private property which hampered the securing of socio-economic justice
was abolished-
a) 24th amendment
b) 42nd amendment
c) 44th amendment
d) None of them
8. Which one of the following word added to the Preamble through an amendment in
the constitution carried out during emergency in 1976
a) Socialist and Secular
b) Secular & Democratic
c) Socialist & Republic
d) None of them
10. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the commission for Scheduled
castes and Scheduled Tribes-
a) 64th amendment
b) 65th amendment
c) 68th amendment
d) None of them
12. Under the Indian Constitution no person can hold office of the President for more
than
a) There is no such can under the constitution-
b) One term
c) Two terms
d) Three terms
13. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a feature of the basic
structure of the constitution-
a) Sovereignty of the people
b) Supremacy of the constitution
c) Republican polity
2|Page
d) None of them
15. Elected by the members of the two houses of parliament at a joint sitting by
a) The President
b) The Vice-President
c) The Prime Minister
d) Speaker
17. The Bharat-Ratna & Padmasree award have been constituted by the Govt. under
a) Art-17
b) Art-18
c) Art-19
d) Art-29
3|Page
b) Three tier system
c) Uni-tier System
d) None of them
23. The President in consultation with Chief Justice of India and Governor of the State
is appoints by
a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
b) Chief Justice of High Court
c) Justice of High Court
d) Justice of Supreme Court
24. Which Article mentioned that the Supreme Court of india is the highest Judicial
authority of the Nation
a) Art-121
b) Art-122
c) Art-123
d) Art-124
28. Which amendment provides for the benefit of reservation in promotions in Govt.
Jobs to the members of SC and ST-
a) 75th amendment
b) 85th amendment
4|Page
c) 86th amendment
d) None of them
33. Which of the following are areas identified by NITI Aayyog to engage to –
a) Land leasing
b) land tithing
c) Right to Education act
d) all of the above
34. The definition of Money bill is provided in which article of the Indian Constitution-
a) Article 10
b) Article -19
c) Article 110
d)Article-111
5|Page
a) 2nd FYP
b) 3rd FYP
c) 4th FYP
d) 5th FYP
38. The difference between the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog is-
a) North East India is given to priority
b) All the Chief Ministers of the states are included
c) Inclusion of Foreign members
d) None of these
41. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution?
(A) British Constitution
(B) U.S. Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
42. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha been provided?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 102
43. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which of the
following parts of the Indian Constitution?
6|Page
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Seventh Schedule
44. A Money Bill passsed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya
Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within—
(A) 10 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
45. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring railways—
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
46. Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or conclude
peace?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
47. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice-President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
48. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the
Constitution was brought into force with effect from January 26, 1950?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
50. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority
to perform a function that it was not performing?
7|Page
(A) Writ of Certiorari
(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Mandamus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
51. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office—
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
52. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected
members on the ground of defection?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
54. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his
term, he sends his resignation to the—
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
55. Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate on the subjects contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The Concurrent List
(C) The State List
(D) Both (A) and (B)
56. Which one of the following was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the ‘Heart and Soul’
of the Constitution?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) Right to freedom of religion
8|Page
57. In which case did the Supreme Court of India determine that the Parliament has
power to make amendment in fundamental rights, but it cannot make any change in
the basic structure of the Constitution?
(A) Golak Nath case
(B) Keshavanand Bharati case
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
62. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of
operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
9|Page
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above
68. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the first time?
(A) Fourth
(B) Fifth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
71. In India the concept of ‘minimum needs’ and ‘directed anti poverty programmes’
were the innovation of?
(A) Fourth five year plan
(B) Fifth five year plan
(C) Sixth five year plan
10 | P a g e
(D) Seventh five year plan
77. Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commision?
(A) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) J.B. Kripalini
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(A) Poverty in terms of absolute number of people
(B) Poverty in terms of the basic minimum calorie requirements
(C) Poverty in terms of the prevailing price level
(D) Poverty in terms of the absolute level of unemployment
80. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(A) Chief of the Army
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief of the Air Force
84. How many members can the President nominate to the LokSabha?
(i) 2
(ii) 3
(iii) 4
(iv) 5
85. Which one of the following Veto Powers cannot be enjoyed by the President of
India?
(i) Absolute Veto
(ii) Qualified Veto
(iii) Suspensive Veto
(iv) Pocket Veto
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(iv) Attorney General
87. By which Amendment Act was the ‘Right to Property’ deleted from the List of
Fundamental Rights?
(i) 44th
(ii) 45th
(iii) 46th
(iv) 47th
92. By which amendment act was the rights to property deleted from the list of
fundamental rights?
(i) 42nd
(ii) 44th
(iii) 45th
(iv) 46th
93. The fundamental duties of the Indian citizens was taken from the article of -
(i) Part IV (A)
(ii) Part IV (B)
(iii) Part V (A)
(iv) Part V (B)
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94. The child labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill passed in –
(i) 1985
(ii) 1986
(iii) 1987
(iv) 1988
98. Who administers the oath to the judges of the Supreme Court?
(i) The President
(ii) The Speaker
(iii) The Prime Minister
(iv) None of the above
99. In which article of the Indian constitution explained the Money Bill?
(i) Article 109
(ii) Article 110
(iii) Article 111
(iv) None of the above
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(iii) Rapid economic growth
(iv) Democratic election
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(i) P.C. Mahalanobis
(ii) J.L. Nehru
(iii) Sardar Patel
(iv) None of the above
111. Which one of the following is the task of the Planning commission?
(i) Preparation of the plan
(ii) Implementation of the plan
(iii) Financing of the plan
(iv) None of the above
113. Which of the followingg planning is executed at the grass root level?
(i) Centralised Planning
(ii) Decentralised Planning
(iii) Fixed Planning
(iv) Imperative Planning
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(iii) Three Years
(iv) Five Years
122. Which of the following word have not been written in the preamble of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) Sovereign
(b) Socialist
(c) Democratic
(d) Indians
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124. What is the true meaning of "Secular"?
(a) All religions are equal in the eyes of the government
(b) Special importance to a religion related to minorities
(c) One religion is promoted by the government
(d) None of the following
127. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental rights are
provided?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV
128. Which of the following Articles contain Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 30 to 49
(b) 36 to 51
(c) 42 to 56
(d) 28 to 48
129. From which country India borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties?
(a) Canada
(b) USSR
(c) Japan
(d) America
130. The executive actions of the government are carried out under whose name?
(a) Cabinet
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Both (b) and (c)
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(b) The Upper House
(c) The House of the People
(d) Parliament
132. What is NOT true about the tenure of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) He is no longer a Speaker if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha due to
any reason
(b) When the Lok Sabha dissolves, the Speaker vacates his position
simultaneously
(c) The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha and also its representative
(d) When there's a deadlock in vote, the Speaker can cast his casting vote to break
the deadlock
134. Which is the highest judicial authority in India whose decisions are binding
on all courts?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Law Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
136. How many High Courts are there in the country as of January, 2018?
(a) 54
(b) 104
(c) 24
(d) 64
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(b) Article 386
(c) Article 368
(d) None of the above
139. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting rights from 21 years to
18 years?
(a) 54th
(b) 36th
(c) 62nd
(d) 61st
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146. Industrial development was the priority of which Plan?
(a) Fifth Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) First Five Year Plan
147. Second Five Year Plan was based on which economic model?
(a) Harrod-Domar Model
(b) Mahalanobis Model
(c) Big Push Theory
(d) Gandhian Model
150. The highest economic growth rate was recorded under which Five Year
Plan?
(a) Tenth Five Year Plan
(b) Ninth Five Year Plan
(c) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(d) Eight Five Year Plan
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(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Murlidhar Devidas Amte
158. Under whose Chairmanship Tripura State Planning Board was constituted?
(a) Nripen Chakroborty
(b) Dasarath deb
(c) Sachindra Lal Singh
(d) Sukhamoy Sen Gupta
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161. The Constitution of India was adopted / and came into force on:
a. January 26,1949/January 26,1950
b. August15,1947/January 30,1950
c. November26,1949/January26,1950
d. January26,1949/November26,1950
163. The first meeting of the constituent Assembly of India was held on:
a. November 26, 1949
b.August15, 1947
c. December 9,1946
d.January26, 1948
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b.18
c.15
d.12
170. The retirement age of the judges of the Supreme Court in India is-
a.60yrs
b.68yrs
c.70yrs
d.65yrs
171. How many fundamental rights are there in the Part –III of the Indian
Constitution, at present?
a.6
b.7
c.8
d.9
172. When was the Agartala Municipal Council elevated to Agartala Municipal
Corporation?
a. 22nd Dec 1991
b. 21st Jan 1992
c. 22nd Dec 1993
d. 21st Jan 2014
173. How many Fundamental duties does the Constitution of India provide for the
citizen of India at present?
a.10
b.11
c.12
d.13
174. If the office of the President of India is lying vacant, who would act as a
President?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Vice-President
d. Governor
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b. Block level
c. State level
d. None of them
176. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers a High Court to issue
writs?
a.Art342
b.Art366
c.Art226
d.Art358
177. The Panchayati Raj was introduced for the first time in India in
a. Rajasthan
b. West Bengal
c. Bihar
d. Delhi
178. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
a. Part-III
b. Part-IV
c. Part-V
d. None of them
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d. All of these
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b. The President
c. The Vice-President
d. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
193. Which Five Year Plan (FYP) had adopted ‘Removal of Poverty’ as its
foremost objective?
a. Second
b. Third
c. Fourth
d. Sixth
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198. The Planning Commission issued guidelines for district planning in:
a. 1969
b. 1970
c. 1971
d. 1972
201. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the
Indian Constitution?
(A) British Constitution
(B) U.S. Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
202. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 102
203. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which of
the following parts of the Indian Constitution?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Seventh Schedule
204. A Money Bill passsed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the
Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within—
(A) 10 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
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205. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring
railways—
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
206. Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or
conclude peace?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
207. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice-President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
208. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the
Constitution was brought into force with effect from January 26, 1950?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
210. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an
authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
(A) Writ of Certiorari
(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Mandamus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
211. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office—
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
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(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of
212. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected
members on the ground of defection?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
214. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry
of his term, he sends his resignation to the—
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
215. Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate on the subjects contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The Concurrent List
(C) The State List
(D) Both (A) and (B)
216. Which one of the following was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the ‘Heart
and Soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) Right to freedom of religion
217. In which case did the Supreme Court of India determine that the Parliament
has power to make amendment in fundamental rights, but it cannot make
any change in the basic structure of the Constitution?
(A) Golak Nath case
B) Keshavanand Bharati case
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
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(A) Rani Jethmalani
(B) Anna George Malhotra
(C) M. Fathima Beevi
(D) Leila Seth
222. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period
of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
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(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above
228. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the first time?
(A) Fourth
(B) Fifth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
231. In India the concept of ‘minimum needs’ and ‘directed anti poverty
programmes’ were the innovation of?
(A) Fourth five year plan
(B) Fifth five year plan
(C) Sixth five year plan
(D) Seventh five year plan
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233. Economic planning is in?
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Not any specified list
235. Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning
Commision?
(A) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) J.B. Kripalini
236. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(A) Chief of the Army
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief of the Air Force
237. Who is the author of the book “Planned economy for India”?
a. Dadabhai Naoroji
b. M. Visvervaraya
c. Gunnar Myrdal
d. Joan Robbins
240. How many annual plans have been there since the beginning of planning in
India?
a. one
b. three
c. four
d. five
245. What was the main theme of the 12th five year plan?
a. Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
b. Inclusive growth
c. Social justice
d. Employment
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246. Which one of the following is an objective of planning in India?
a. Economic growth
b. Full employment
c. Self reliance
d. All the above
251. The concept of five year plans in India was introduced by:
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Lal Bahadur Shastri
c. Sir Winston Churchill
d. Lord Mountbatten
252. Which of the following bodies finalizes the draft five year plans?
a. National Development Council
b. Planning Commission
c. Finance Commission
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d. Ministry of planning and programme implementation
254. Which Prime minister of India inaugurated the first Panchayati Raj Day?
a. P.V. Narsimha Rao
b. Dr. Manmohan Singh
c. Morarji Desai
d. V.P. Singh
255. On whose birth anniversary was the ‘Gram Uday se Bharat Uday Abhiyan
launched?
a. M.K. Gandhi
b. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
d. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
258. Which of the following comes under 12th schedule of the constitution?
a. urban planning
b. slum improvement and up gradation
c. urban forestry
d. all the above
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a. 1951
b. 1952
c. 1956
d. 1966
261. Under whose chairmanship was the working group on district planning set
up?
a. C.H.Hanumantha Rao
b. Amartya Sen
c. C. Rangarajan
d. Bimal Jalan
262. Which statutory body decides the principles of division of resources from the
States to the local bodies?
a. Finance Commission
b. State Finance Commission
c. Planning Commission
d. Competition Commission
265. During which plan was the Central Conservation Board set up?
a. First five year plan
b. Second five year plan
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c. Seventh five year plan
d. Ninth five year plan
266. During which plan was the Project Tiger scheme started?
a. Fifth five year plan
b. Eighth five year plan
c. Fourth five year plan
d. Tenth five year plan
267. During which plan was the Joint Forest Management programme
introduced?
a. Second five year plan
b. Sixth five year plan
c. Seventh five year plan
d. Twelfth five year plan
269. During which plan was the development of women first considered as a
separate issue?
a. Fourth five year plan
b. sixth five year plan
c. eleventh five year plan
d. first five year plan
270. What was the fund allocation for the implementation of the ‘Protection from
Domestic Violence Act’ in the Eleventh plan?
a. Rs. 100 crore
b. Rs. 300 crore
c. Rs. 500 crore
d. Rs. 1000 crore
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d) The Parliament
272. “swaraj is birth right and I shall prove it”- who said this?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Surendranath Benerjee
274. The demand for a Cabinet Assembly was officially made by INC in
a) 1903
b) 1934
c) 1935
d) 1946
276. Which of the following terms is not incorporated in the Preamble to the Indian
constitution?
a) Secular
b) Federal
c) Democratic
d) Socialist
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a) Right to property
b) Right to education
c) Right to culture
d) All of the above
280. Indian constitution provides protection to the life and liberty of citizens as well as
non citizens by
a) Art. 20
b) Art. 21
c) Art. 22
d) Art. 19
281. The Indian constitution borrowed the idea of Directive principles of state policy
from the
a) Irish Constitution
b) British Constitution
c) US Constitution
d) None of the above
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c) Dissolved once in 5 years
d) Dissolved once in 6 years
288. Which of the following states assemblies has a six years term?
a) Punjab
b) West Bengal
c) Karnataka
d) Jammu and Kashmir
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a) Chief Justice of India
b) Governor
c) President
d) Chief Minister
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298. Who prepares the five years plan?
a) Finance Commission
b) Planning Commission
c) Government Of India
d) None of the above
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44 | P a g e
MODEL QUESTION BANK-2018
th
SIXTH (6 ) SEMESTER SOFT STUDY MCQ QUESTIONS
Human Rights & Gender Studies
Answer keys are given in bold letters
1. The first International Conference on Human Rights held in 1968 is also known as
(a) Geneva Conference
(b) Vienna Conference
(c) Tehran Conference
(d) Beijing Conference
3. Right to Information Act 2005 was the result of the sustained efforts of
(a) Aruna Roy
(b) Anna Hazare
(c) Vandana Shiva
(d) MedhaPatekar
4. The three documents - UDHR, ICCPR and ICESCR along with two optional protocols to the ICCPR
constitutes -
(a) International Humanitarian Law
(b) The Commission of Human Rights
(c) The International Bill of Human Rights
(d) Developmental Rights
8. ____________________ refers to Just conduct of war or the principle of fighting a war justly
(a) Jus ad bellum
(b) Jus in bello
(c) Jus contra bellum
(d) Jus ad bello
10. Which among the following is not a principle of International Humanitarian Law ?
(a) Principle of Distinction between – civilians and combatants
(b) Principle of Distinction between – citizens and aliens
(c) Principle of Proportionality
(d) Principle of Humane Treatment
11. The document adopted by the UN also known as ‘International Bill of Rights for Women’ in 1979 is
(a) CSW (Commission on the Status of Women)
(b) UDHR (Universal Declaration of Human Rights)
(c) ICERD (International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination)
(d) CEDAW (Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women)
12. The Convention on the Rights of Child, 1989, classified child rights into four categories –
(a) Life, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
(b) Civil, Political, Economic and Cultural Rights
(c) Survival, Development, Protection and Participation Rights
(d) None of these
14. Who amongst the following can be the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
(a) A serving judge of Supreme Court
(b) A serving judge of High Court
(c) A retired Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) A retired Chief Justice of High Court
15. In which year Human Rights Council replaced the UN Commission on Human Rights
(a) 2001
(b) 2006
(c) 1993
(d) 1989
16. The constitution of India provides basic Human Rightsto its people through the –
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive principles of State Policy
(d) All of the above
17. Which among the following International Organization deals with Refugee?
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNICEF
(c) UNHCR
(d) UNCTAD
18. The case, State of Arunachal Pradesh Vs. KhudiramChakma, is concerned with
(a) Minorities
(b) SC & ST
(c) Refugee
(d) Religion
20. Imposing different characteristics as typical for male and female is considered as
(a) Gender discrimination
(b) Gender stereotype
(c) Gender equality
(d) Gender study
23. The feminist movement of modern time could be said to have started with
(a) ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ by Mary Wollstonecraft
(b) ‘The Second Sex’ by Simone de Beauvoir
(c) ‘Gender, the basics’ by Hilary M. Lips
(d) ‘Gender, Key Concepts in Philosophy’ by Tina Chanter
29. In India the survey on unpaid work of women was included for the first time in
(a) 1981 census
(b) 1991 census
(c) 2001 census
(d) 2011 census
30. Research shows that the violation of the gender stereotype role by a women is not supported generally by
(a) Males
(b) Females
(c) Both males and female
(d) The Government
40. The movement which as a proponent of social reform and women’s emancipation is
[A] The young Andra Movement
[B] The Young Bengal Movement
[C] The young Tripuri Movement
[D] The Young Mizo Movement
44. A book- story written by Rabindranath Tagore to create awareness about the status of women as to get
outside traditional custom is called
[A] ‘Devi’
[B] ‘Rani’
[C] ‘Sabala’
[D] None of the above
45. Joint Women’s Committee in 1975 is organized by the following political party to take their issues
[A] Indian National Congress
[B] CPIM
[C] BJP
[D] Janata Dal
66. The ‘double standard’ normally refers to the difference in social attitude towards
[A] Homosexual and heterosexual sex activity
[B] Child and Adult sexual activity
[C] Male and female sexual activity
[D] Working class and middle class sexual activity
67. Which form of feminism is most committed to challenging the essential nature of the category ‘women’?
[A] Liberal
[B] Socialist
[C] Radical
[D] Postmodern
70. Which feminist perspective has patriarchy as its fundamental concept in the explanation of gender
inequality?
[A] Liberal
[B] Radical
[C] Socialist
8|Page
[D] Marxist
71. According to text, the terms masculinity and femininity are most closely linked to
[A] Patriarchy
[B] Sex
[C] Gender
[D] Sexism
74. Which of the following terms refers to individual’s beliefs and action that are rooted in anti-female
prejudice and stereotypic beliefs?
[A] Individual Sexism
[B] Institutionalized sexism
[C] Gender Socialization
[D] Gender Segregation
75. Which one of the following social reformers fought against caste inequalities?
[A] Periza Ramaswami Naike
[B] Swami Dayanand Saraswati
[C] Raja Ram Mohan Roy
[D] Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar
76. Which one of the following was the view of Mahatma Gandhi about religion?
[A] He was in favour of Hinduism
[B] He was an ardent supporter of Muslim Religion
[C] By religion, Gandhi meant for moral values
[D] He said that India should adopt Christianity
77. Feminist theorists would see which of the following as developments as progress?
[A] The establishment of UN Gender Development Index
[B] The Election of Indian Speaker
[C] The incorporation of gender mainstreaming into policy discourses
[D] All of the above
82. Which one of the following considered as the first Human Rights declaration in history?
a) The Edicts of Ashoka
b) The Cyrus Cylinder
c) The institute of Gaius
d) The Charter of Medina
84. How many pillars were carved to inscribe the edicts of Askoka?
a) 41
b) 55
c) 33
d) 11
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88. When did the Petition of Rights created?
a) 1864
b) 1789
c) 1628
d) 1215
89. Which of the following set out the right and liberties of the people as opposed to British Crown?
a) The Magna Carta
b) The First Geneva Convention
c) The Petition of Rights
d) The United States Declaration of Independence
91. Which of the following proclaims the right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness?
a) The Magna Carta
b) The First Geneva Convention
c) The Petition of Rights
d) The United States Declaration of Independence
93. When did the English Bill of Rights passed in the British Parliament?
a) 1689
b) 1786
c) 1779
d) 1813
94. Which of the following limits the powers of King and queen, enhance democratic election and
guarantee freedom of speech?
a) The English Bill of Rights
b) The First Geneva Convention
c) The Petition of Rights
d) d) The United States Declaration of Independence
95. Which one of the following laid the foundation of the modern human rights movement?
a) The Magna Carta
b) The First Geneva Convention
c) The Petition of Rights
d) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
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96. Who is the principal architect of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
a) Eleanor Roosevelt
b) John Kennedy
c) Woodrow Wilson
d) Abraham Lincoln
97. Who among the following conceptualized the evolution of human rights into various generations?
a) Cess Flinterman
b) Peter Baehr
c) Karek Vasak
d) All of them
98. Which of the following system evolved the very idea of human rights?
a) Liberal Democracy
b) Socialism
c) Marxism
d) None of them
99. Which one of the following rights was included in the first generation of human rights?
a) Economic Rights
b) Social Rights
c) Civil and Political Rights
d) All of them
100. Which one of the following rights belongs to first generation of human rights?
a) Right to Life and Liberty
b) Prohibition of Slavery
c) c) Guarantees of Civil and Political Rights
d) All of them
101. Which one of the following political system will be most appropriate to achieve the first generation of
human rights for both individuals and the state?
a) Doctrine of Laissez-faire
b) Socialism
c) Capitalism
d) All of them
102. The very idea of first generation of human rights that emerged in ……….
a) Underdeveloped Countries
b) Western Countries
c) Islamic Countries
d) Afro-Asian Countries
103. Which one of the following rights is included in the second generation of human rights?
a) Socio-Economic and Cultural Rights
b) Social Rights
c) Civil and Political Rights
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d) All of them
104. Which of the following countries raised their voices belong to second generation of human rights?
a) European Countries
b) Islamic Countries
c) Afro-Asian Countries
d) None of them
105. The second generations of human rights are rooted in the thinking of………
a) Capitalist Countries
b) Socialist Countries
c) Communist Countries
d) None of them
106. Which of the following generation says that socio-economic and cultural rights are pre-requisite for
the enjoyment of the civil and political rights?
a) First Generation
b) Second Generation
c) Third Generation
d) All of them
107. Which countries of the following say that the western idea of civil and political rights are nothing but
hollow promises to give the false consciousness to the people that they are living an empowered and
dignified life?
a) Capitalist Countries
b) Socialist Countries
c) Communist Countries
d) None of them
108. Which one of the following generation says that human rights are collective rights of a nation?
a) Socialist and Third World Countries
b) Communist Countries
c) Capitalist Countries
d) None of them
109. Which one of the following rights is included in the third generation of human rights?
a) Right to Development
b) Right to Peace
c) Right to own natural resources and cultural heritage
d) All of these
110. Which one of the following process accentuates the cause of third generation of human rights?
a) Liberalization
b) Privatization
c) Globalization
d) All of these
112. Which generation raises voices against economic imperialism of the multinational corporations having
their roots in the developed countries?
a) Third Generation
b) Second generation
c) First Generation
d) None of these
113. Which generation argues for special provisions for the protection and the promotion of the interests of
the vulnerable groups in the society?
a) Third Generation
b) Second generation
c) First Generation
d) None of these
117. Who says that human decisions are motivated by the calculation of pleasure and pain?
(a) Jon Locke
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Jeremey Bentham
(d) None of these
118. Which theory promotes the greatest happiness of the greatest number?
(a) Liberalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Marxism
(d) Utilitarianism
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119. Which book is written by Jeremey Bentham?
(a) A Fragment on Government
(b) A Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislations
(c) Defense of Usury
(d) All of these
121. Who says that each person has a right to as much freedom as is compatible with freedom of others?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Robert Nozik
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) John Locke
122. Who says that social and economic inequalities are to be arranged in such a way that they are to be
greatest advantage of the least advantaged?
(a) Robert Nozik
(b) Karl Marx
(c) John Locke
(d) John Rawls
123. Who advocates that the role of justice is essential for the proper understanding of Human Rights?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Karl Marx
(c) John Locke
(d) None of them
127. The basic objective of the liberal perspective on Human Rights is to protect the………..
(a) Individual rights
(b) Social rights
(c) Community rights
(d) All of these
128. Which one is the main critique of the liberal perspective on Human Rights?
(a) Communitarian
(b) Socialist
(c) Marxian
(d) None of these
129. Which theory criticizes the ‘natural rights theory’ and regards it as idealistic and ahistorical?
(a) Communitarian
(b) Socialist
(c) Marxian
(d) None of these
130. Which theory views that in liberal societies, where capitalist monopolize over the means of
production?
(a) Marxian
(b) Gandhian
(c) Communitarian
(d) None of these
131. Who views that the notion of individual human rights is nothing but a bourgeois illusion?
(a) Marxian
(b) Gandhian
(c) Communitarian
(d) None of these
132. Which theory discards the liberal notions of human rights and views that it alienates the whole
personality of people in the garb of individual rights?
(a) Idealistic Theory
(b) Marxian Theory
(c) Social Contract Theory
(d) None of these
134. Which theory views that human rights are essentially revolves around the idea of social rights in
contrast to the liberal idea of individual rights?
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(a) Marxian
(b) Gandhian
(c) Communitarian
(d) None of these
135. Which theory view that the liberal idea of individual rights is the product of a distorted vision of
human nature and social life of the individuals?
(a) Marxian
(b) Gandhian
(c) Communitarian
(d) None of these
138. Who believed that right to life, liberty and property is natural rights?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Rousseau
(c) Karl Marx
(d) John Locke
139. Who said that all individuals are equal and they are born with certain "inalienable" natural rights?
a. Thomas Hobbes
b. Rousseau
c. John Locke
d. None of them
140. Who said that rights are God-given and can never be taken or even given away?
(a) John Locke
(b) Rousseau
(c) Karl Marx
(d) None of them
141. The Declaration of Independence of the United States lists life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness
as…………
(a) Legal Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Natural Rights
(d) None of these
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142. Who defended the claim that men are by nature free and equal against claims that God had made all
people naturally subject to a monarch?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) Rousseau
(c) John Locke
(d) None of them
146. Who elaborated the concept natural rights in his book “Rights of Man”?
(a) Thomas Paine
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) Rousseau
(d) None of them
151. Who has written the book “The Vindication of the Rights of Women”?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Kamla Bhasin
(c) Mary Wollstanonecraft
(d) None of them
152. Which view says that “Women’s subordination began with the development of private property”?
(a) Liberal View
(b) Traditional View
(c) Marxist View
(d) Socialist Feminist View
153. Who has written the book “Origins of the Family, Private Property and the State”?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) John Locke
(c) Lenin
(d) Fredrich Engels
154. Which view says that the origin of patriarchy do not locate in legal, political rights or economic
determinism but rather in the very roots of masculine psychology, language and thought?
(a) Marxist View
(b) Socialist Feminist View
(c) Radical View
(d) Traditional View
156. Which view advocates that patriarchy is rooted in biology rather than in economics or history?
(a) Radical Feminist View
(b) Liberal View
(c) Marxian View
(d) None of these
159. Who says that the system of patriarchy came into existence because of the caste and gender hierarchy?
(a) Kamla Bhasin
(b) Gail Omvedt
(c) Uma Chakraborty
(d) Kumkum Sanghari
164. Who vigorously campaigned for the Widow Remarriage Act 1856?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Vivekananda
(d) None of the
167. When the All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) was founded?
(a) 1927
(b) 1950
(c) 1930
(d) 1951
168. When the Centre for Women’s Development Studies (CWDS) was established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1971
(c) 1990
(d) 1951
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174. Which international fund provides assistance to children?
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNICEF
(c) WHO
(d) FAO
178. Who authored the book “The Origin of Family, Private Property and the state?
a) Karl Marx
b) Frederick Engels
c) Kamala Basin
d) Sharmila Rege
180. The legislation of Hindu Widow’s Remarriage Act XV of 1856 which legalised marriage of widows
was by
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) swami Vivekananda
c) Annie Besante
d) Sarojini Naidu
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183. ‘Despatched on Education’ (1854) laid great stress on the need for female education is founded by
a) Charles wood’s
b) Raja ram mohan roy
c) Swami Vivekananda
d) Annie besante
185. Swami Dayanand the founder of Arya Samaj also advocated widow remarriage and high status for
women in the society founded in the year
a) 1875
b) 1775
c) 1975
d) 1675
186. The Sarda Act pushed up the age of marriage to 18 and 14 for boys and girls respectively was
legalised in
a) 1830
b) 1930
c) 1929
d) 1829
190. ------------------is striving for equal treatment of women and men and for abolishing inequality.
a) Feminism
b) Gender studies
c) Political science
d) Law
197. The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 describes‘Human Rights’as relating to
a. Liberty.
b. Equality.
c. Dignity.
d. All of these.
198. When the people of France brought about the abolishment of the absolute kingdom and set the stage
for the establishment of the first French Republic?
a. 1789.
b. 1748.
c. 1733.
d. 1889.
205. The United Nations General Assembly declared water and sanitation as human rights on
a. July 28, 2010.
b. July 10, 2011.
c. August 8, 2016.
d. Sept 2, 2014.
216. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 35
217. In which year UN General Assembly adopted the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees
a. 1951
b. 1948
c. 1993
d. 1986
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a. The law of Armed Conflict
b. The law of Protection to Environment
c. The law of IDPs
d. The law of providing humanitarian assistances to people affected by natural disaster
219. When did the Indian Parliament pass the protection of Human Rights Act ?
a. In 1993
b. In 1950
c. In 2000
d. In 2001
222. Name the Human Rights activist in India who is on hunger strike since 2nd November 2000 against
Armed Force Special Power act. ( AFSPA ).
a. Medha Pathkar
b. Shabnam Hashmi
c. Teesta setalvad
d. Irom Chanu Sharmila
224. The right to life, liberty and security of person under the ICCPR is contained in
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
d. Article 4
225. When the Convention of the Rights of Child was adopted by the UN General Assembly?
a. On 18th March 1992
b. On 24th January 1982
c. On 20th November 1989
d. On 10th December 1999
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226. Which of the following was the first international treaty having significant portents for International
Human Rights law?
a. Congress of Vienna
b. Geneva Convention
c. League of Nations
d. Treaty of Westphalia
231. The domestic standards evolved to deal with the issue of IDPs are
a. The Disaster Management Act. 2005
b. Land Acquisition Amendment Bill
c. National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007 ( NRRP )
d. All of above
232. How many countries are members of the Commission on Human Rights?
a. 53
b. 55
c. 50
d. 52
233. The murder of young brides by the husband and in-laws due to the demand of dowry is called ______.
a. Dowry death
b. Murder.
c. Suicide.
d. None of the above.
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234. Domestic violence involves
a. Physical violence only
b. Mental violence only
c. Violence inside the house
d. All of the above
238. The notion that domestic violence is rooted in the society's laws and customs that reinforce
male dominance is known as the
a. Political model of domestic violence.
b. Medical model of domestic violence.
c. "Rule of thumb."
d. Battered wife syndrome.
239. Which type of domestic violence is as likely to be perpetrated by women and men toward
their partners?
a. Control.
b. Serious violence such as beating.
c. Situational violence.
d. Intimate terrorism
240. Treating batterers with counseling and therapy would be using which model of domestic violence?
a. Political.
b. Medical.
c. "Rule of thumb".
d. Public family.
241. Which social class has the highest rates of domestic violence?
a. The very wealthy.
b. The middle class.
c. The working class.
d. The lower class.
243. The perspective that explains individual domestic violence as a result of direct observation of behavior
and viewing of incidents in the media is the
a. Social learning perspective.
b. Frustration-aggression theory.
c. Social exchange perspective.
d. Political theory.
244. A hierarchical system in which cultural, political, and economic structures are dominated by males is a
______________.
a. Elite model.
b. Patriarchy.
c. Pluralist model.
d. Gendered division of labour.
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250. The origin of gender studies lie in
a. Feminism.
b. Patriarchy.
c. Women’s studies.
d. All of the above.
256. Boys are good at math and science and girls are good at language and history. It is a matter of
a. Gender.
b. Sex.
c. Biological.
d. None of the above.
257. When one thinks of an engineer, one hardly ever thinks of a woman.
a. Biological.
b. Gender.
c. Social.
d. All of the above.
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258. Women work two-thirds of the world’s working hours, produce half of the world’s food and yet earn
only 10% of the world’s income and own less than 1% of the world’s property. It is a matter of
a. Economical.
b. Gender.
c. Sociological.
d. All of the above.
259. A girl is expected to return home early while a boy can comfortably have a night-out with his friends.
It is a matter of
a. Culture.
b. Gender.
c. Social.
d. All of the above.
261. “Woman is more compassionate than man and has a greater propensity to tears… But the male… is
more disposed to give assistance in danger, and is more courageous than the female”. It is said by
a. Plato.
b. Aristotle.
c. Immanuel Kant.
d. None of them.
262. “To call woman the weaker sex is a libel; it is man's injustice to woman…if nonviolenceis the law of
our being, the future is with woman. Who can make a more effective appeal to the heart than woman?”
this statement is made by
a. B.R. Ambedkar.
b. Karl Marx.
c. Mahatma Gandhi.
d. None of the above.
263. _________ said, “A man will say what he knows, a woman says what will please.”
a. Machiavelli.
b. Jean Jacques Rousseau.
c. Aristotle.
d. John Locke.
264. Once ____________ said, “Man with the head and woman with the heart; Man to command and
woman to obey; all else confusion.”
a. Alfred Lord Tennyson.
b. Darwin.
c. Watson.
d. Russell.
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265. The commonest female stereotypical role that is prevalent is of the
a. Weaker Sex.
b. Homemaker.
c. Compassionate.
d. None of the above.
266. Gender relations are the ways in which a culture or society defines
a. Rights.
b. Responsibilities.
c. Identities of men and women.
d. All of the above.
269. Within gender studies, the term patriarchy refers to a social system wherein
a. Men dominate over women.
b. Greater rights given to men.
c. Resources like land and other assets are controlled by men.
d. All of the above.
272. _________ identifies six structures of patriarchy such as household production, paid work, male
violence, culture, state and sexuality.
a. Freud.
b. Walby.
c. William James.
d. Davidson.
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273. International Women's Day is celebrated annually on
a. The 8th of March.
b. The 8th of May.
c. The 8th of April.
d. The 8th of July.
274. The German socialist and feminist,__________ , was the first to propose that women from every
country celebrate a day as Women's Day.
a. Rachael Carson.
b. Clara Zetkin.
c. Judith Thomas.
d. Elezabeth.
277. Feminism has also examined the gendered nature of different types of economic systems such as
a. Capitalist.
b. Feudal.
c. Socialist.
d. All of the above.
279. Discrimination based on gender may differ in different situations but the root lies in the
a. Ideology.
b. How people think.
c. Culture.
d. None of the above.
280. _____________________ are some examples of violent manifestations of discrimination that are
found across the cultures.
a. Pre-natal selection.
b. Female foeticide.
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c. Dowry and physical harassment.
d. All of the above.
281. Different degrees of power are sustained and perpetuated through social stratification like
a. Gender.
b. Class.
c. Caste.
d. All of the above.
282. The mid _______ saw the term empowerment becoming popular in the field of development
especially in reference to women.
a. 1980s.
b. 1990s.
c. 1900s.
d. 1950s.
283. Empowerment of woman, in its simplest form, means the redistribution of power that challenges
a. Patriarchal ideology.
b. Culture.
c. Economic system.
d. None of the above.
285. Gender equality does not mean that men and women become
a. The same.
b. Unequal.
c. Different.
d. All of the above.
287. Which of the following categories of Fundamental rights incorporate ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Religion
d) Right to Education
293. Who launched the ‘Chipko Movement’ in the hills of Garhwal during 1980s?
a) Sundarlal Bahuguna
b) Baba Amte
c) Medha Patkar
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
297. The Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted in:
a) 1982
b) 1986
c) 1989
d) 1990
299. Which article of Indian Constitution provides for prevention of bonded labour?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 23
d) Article 25
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Soft Study MODEL QUESTIONS
E-marketing
Answer Key are given in Bold letter
1 . Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for marketing
outcome is classified as
A. corporate website
B. marketing website
C. branding website
D. viral website
A. premium companies
B. direct companies
C. click only companies
D. click and mortar companies
5. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites and blogs
where people exchange opinions is classified as
6. Efforts made by marketers to build long-term customer relationships and market products or
services over internet are classified as
A. event marketing
B. sponsored marketing
C. e marketing
D. off deal marketing
7. Website used to build customer goodwill, supplement sales channels and collect customer
feedback is classified as
A. corporate website
B. marketing website
C. branding website
D. viral website
A. business to consumer
B. business to business
C. consumer to business
D. all of above
a. market regions.
b. market zones.
c. marketspaces.
d. market dynamos.
11. Achieving marketing objectives through the use of electronic communications technology is
general definition of –
a. the marketing concept
b. marketing orientation
c. e-marketing plan
d. e-marketing
a. a sub-set of e-business
b. broader than e-business
c. equivalent to e-business
d. quite similar to e commerce
14. There are three main operational processes involved in e-marketing. Which is the ODD one
out?
a. Customer acquisition
b. Customer retention and growth
c. Customer conversion
d. Customer satisfaction
15. Pulizzi and Barrett (2010) recommended a content marketing roadmap underpinned by BEST
principles. These include Behavioural, Strategic and Targetted with the missing principle being –
a. Expected
b. Evidenced
c. Economic
d. Essential
16. Company marketing mix that target market segments very broadly is called
A. mass marketing
B. segmented marketing
C. niche marketing
D. micromarketing
18. Variables such as market and product variability plays a role in designing of
A. positioning strategy
B. targeting strategy
C. differentiation
D. market segmentation
22. When preparing a website, designers should ensure that the site makes effective use of the
text, pictures and video. This design feature is known as _________.
a. communication
b.connection
c . c o n t e n t
d . c o n t e x t
23. Which of the following would be the most appropriate example of a transaction site?
a. Amazon.com
b. Yahoo
c. AOL
d. eBay
24. Which of the following would be the most appropriate example of a search engine/portal?
a. Amazon.com
b. Yahoo
c. AOL
d. eBay
A. business to consumer
B. business to business
C. consumer to business
D. all of above
26. Which products are people most likely to be more uncomfortable buying on the Internet?
A. Books
B. Furniture
C. Movies
D. All of the above
29. The two main types of Internet based B2B commerce are......
A. Net marketplaces and private industrial networks
B. EDI and collaborative commerce
C. Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce
D. EDI and private industrial networks
30. What encourages users of a product or service supplied by a B2C company to ask friends to
join in as well?
A. Spam
B. Viral marketing
C. Affiliate programs
D. None of the above
32. Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the internet?
a. Books
b. PCs
c. CDs
d. All of the above
33. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on
are taken to the advertiser?
a. Affiliate programs
b. Click-through
c. Spam
d. Conversion rate
34. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on
which digital information can be stored?
a. Customer relationship management systems cards
b. E-government identity cards
c. FEDI cards
d. Smart cards
36. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business
strategy and IT?
a. Encryption
b. Decryption
c. firewall
d. all the above
37. Which form of e-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same
industry?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c.Integrated
d.Inclined
39. One of the biggest changes to the marketing mix in e-place strategies is-
a. online purchasing
b. retail purchasing
c. wholesale purchasing
d. cash purchasing
41. Website built to engage customers from different places to move them closer for marketing
outcome is classified as-
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c. branding website
d. viral website
44.Which of the following type of business relationships can be facilitated via e-marketing-
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2C
d. all the above
46. Cyberspace represents the combination of what two facets of the internet?
a. money and server space
b. infrastructure and environment
c. data and operators
d. consumers and market place
48. ................... is an example of business to business services offered by Google which gains
advertising revenue through hosted videos;
a. Google AdWords pay per clickssponsored link advertising
b. Google Apps Business Application Suite
c. You Tube brand Channel
d. Google search application providing online website services for website owners.
50. What is the best way to make money ‘while you sleep”?
a. by dreaming up good marketing ideas
b. by selling stuff on e-bay
c. having products on your website
d. having a spouse who works the night shift.
53. Which of the following marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?
a. Pay per click advertising
b. Using social media marketing strategies
c. posting press release
d. article marketing
55. The type of website that is designed to build customer goodwill and to supplement other sales
channels rather than sell the company's products directly is known as a -------- website
a. customer service
b. click-and mortar
c. marketing
d. corporate
56. What does the following definition refer to? "Achieving marketing objectives through the use of any
electronic communications technology"
a. e-business
b. e-commerce
c. e-marketing
d. internet marketing
57 . Unwanted and unsolicited commercial e-mails that clog up e-mailboxes of users is classified
as______________________
a. Invasion of privacy
b. Spam
c. Virus
d. Deception
58. Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for marketing
outcome is classified as ______________
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c. branding website
d. viral website
60. Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the internet?
a. Books
b. PCs
c. CDs
d. All of the above
61. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on
are taken to the advertiser?
a. Affiliate programs
b. Click-through
c. Spam
d. Conversion rate
62. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on
which digital information can be stored?
a. Customer relationship management systems cards
b. E-government identity cards
c. FEDI cards
d. Smart cards
64. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business
strategy and IT?
a. Encryption
b. Decryption
c. firewall
d. all the above
65. Which form of e-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same
industry?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c.Integrated
d.Inclined
67. Which of the following is an Internet-based company that makes it easy for one
person to pay another over the Internet?
a. electronic cheque
b. electronic bill payment
c. Conversion rates
d. Financial cybermediary
69. What is the name for direct computer-to-computer transfer of transaction information
contained in standard business documents?
a. internet commerce
b. e-commerce
c.transaction information transfer
d. electronic data interchange
70. Which type of e-commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2Bs
d. C2C
71. Digital products are best suited for B2C e-commerce because they:
a. Are commodity like product
b. Can be mass-customized and personalized
c. Can be delivered at the time of purchase
d. All of the above
73. What are materials used in production in a manufacturing company or are placed on
the shelf for sale in a retail environment?
a. Direct materials
b. Indirect materials
c.EDI
d. None of the above
76. Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for
marketing outcome is classified as
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c branding website
d. viral website
78. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites
and blogs where people exchange opinions is classified as
a. inbound social networks
b. outbound social networks
c offline social networks
d. online social networks
79. Website used to build customer goodwill, supplement sales channels and collect
customer feedback is classified as
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c branding website
d. viral website
81.Company marketing mix that target market segments very broadly is called
a. mass marketing
b. segmented marketing
c niche marketing
d. micromarketing
84.Which of the following would be the most appropriate example of a transaction site?
a. Amazon.com
b. Yahoo
c AOL
d. eBay
96. Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the internet?
a. Books
b. PCs
c. CDs
d. All of the above
98.Which form of e-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same
industry?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Integrated
d. Inclined
103.A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?
a. picture
b. image
c. img
d. src
107.Which of the following factors is not considered when determining your quality
score?
a. Cost-Per-Click (CPC) Bid
b. Click through Rate (CTR)
c. Ad Text and Keywords
d. Landing Page Relevance
113.___________ techniques can be used to learn more about current and potential
customers.
a. Strategic partnerships
b. Customer loyalty
c. Data mining
d. Efficient customer response (ECR)
132. In which stage or phase of Product Life Cycle, Sales Volume is at Peak Point
a) Growth
b) Saturation
c) Maturity
d) Decline
134. The pricing method in which the selling price of the product is fixed by adding a
margins to the cost price is called
a) “All the traffic will Bear pricing”
b) Skimming Price
c) Penetration pricing
d) Mark-Up pricing
135. When a firm seeks to enter a new market with a completely new product then it is
known as
a) Product Development
b) Product Diversification
c) Product Division
d) None of these
136. The strategy of offering a different product charging a different price and using
different promotion and distribution process is called
a) Market segmentation
b) Market Penetration
c) Market Development
d) None of these
137. The technique of charging high price and high profits at the initial stage of
marketing the product is called
a) Skimming pricing
b) Penetration pricing
c) Mark-up pricing
d) “What the traffic can bear” pricing
138. The device which create significant opportunities for marketer to use and increase
their awareness and build connection between them and customers is known as
a) E-mail marketing
b) Viral marketing
c) Mobile marketing
d) E-business
139. The use of email to transmit a promotional message to another potential customer is
called as
a) Blog marketing
b) Viral marketing
c) Logo
d) None of these
140. The process of creating all the visual aspects of the elements such as buttons and
links is
a) Web design
b) Digital development
c) Visual medium
d) Above all are true
142. The most prominent way to reinforce company brand identity on the website is
known as
a) Designing
b) Logo
c) Domain views
d) None of these
149. What is the name of the card which can be used by the buyers during he time of
purchase and in which the amount will be immediately debited from the buyers account?
a. E-Distributor
b. Debit Card
c. Credit Card
d. Power Card
150. Locating a brand in consumer’s minds over and against competitors in terms of
attributes and benefits is known as
a) Positioning
b) Branding
c) Mapping
d) Infusion
155. ...............................is a type of online advertising where you only pay when
somebody clicks on company ads.
a) Pay per click
b) Use per visit
c) Give per login
d) Payment per access
156. Under Web Content Management System duties are divided into
a) Content editors
b) Content administrators
c) Content publishers
d) All are included
157. Which of the following describe E-commerce?
a) Doing business electronically
b) Doing business
c) Scale of goods
d) All of the above
159. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click
on an ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?
a) Affiliate programs
b) Click-through
c) Spam
d) All of the above
160. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chief on
which digital information can be stored?
a) Customer relationship management system cards
b) E-government identity cards
c) FEDI cards
d) Smart cards
162. If it is easy for competitions to enter the market, the threat of new entrants is
considered:
a) High
b) Low
c) More
d) Less
163. Which one is not an E-payment method used in India
a) Debit card
b) Credit card
c) E-cheque
d) None of the above
165. What is an arrangement made between marketing site that direct users from one
site to the other?
a) Spam
b) Viral marketing
c) Affiliate programs
d) None of the above
170. A business cannot be all things to all people, instead, a business must
a) Identify target customers
b) Indentify the value of product/services as perceived by customers
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
172. Which form of E-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers form the same
industry?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Integrated
d) Inclined
174. What is the name for direct computer to computer transfer of transaction
information contained in business document?
a) Internet commerce
b) E-commerce
c) Transaction information transfer
d) Electronic data interchange
175. Which factor determines when your IT system will be available for knowledge
worker to access?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) None of the above
197. The________is a blueprint that links the firms e- business strategy with
technologty driven marketing strategies.
a) E-marketing plan
b) Business model
c) Situation analysis
d) Strategic plan
198. The strategy of applying different price vleves for different customers or situation
is known as ______.
a) Dynamic pricing
b) Online bidding
c) Direct marketing
d) Agent e-business model
199. E-marketers working in emerging economics should know and understand _____.
a) How many credit cards are in circulation
b) Consumer attitude towards credit card purchase
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
200. Considering non personal communication channels, social networking sites, email
and company websites are considered as
a) Broadcast media
b) Display media
c) Online media
d) Print media
201) When a company strives to appeal to multiple well defined market
segments with a strategy tailored to each segment, it is applying
a. undifferentiated marketing
b. differentiated marketing
c. concentrated marketing
d. the majority fallacy