MODULE 3A - Code of Ethics
MODULE 3A - Code of Ethics
PREFACE
1. Which statement is incorrect regarding the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants in
the Philippines?
a. Professional accountants refer to persons who are Certified Public Accountants (CPA)
and who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy.
b. Where a national statutory requirement is in conflict with a provision of the IFAC Code,
the IFAC Code requirement prevails.
c. The Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants in the Philippines is mandatory for all
CPAs and is applicable to professional services performed in the Philippines on or
after January 1, 2004.
d. Professional accountants should consider the ethical requirements as the basic
principles which they should follow in performing their work.
2. Which statement is correct regarding the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants in
the Philippines?
a. Professional accountants refer to persons who are Certified Public Accountants (CPA)
in public practice and who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy.
b. It is practical to establish ethical requirements which apply to all situations and
circumstances that professional accountants may encounter.
c. Professional accountants should consider the ethical requirements as the ideal
principles which they should follow in performing their work.
d. All CPAs are expected to comply with the ethical requirements of the Code and other
ethical requirements that may be adopted and approved by IFAC. Apparent failure to
do so may result in an investigation into the CPA’s conduct.
4. The following are modifications to the IFAC Code to consider Philippine regulatory
requirements and circumstances, except
a. The period for rotation of the lead engagement partner was changed from five to seven
years.
b. Advertising and solicitation by individual professional accountants in public practice
were not permitted in the Philippines.
c. Additional examples relating to anniversaries and websites wherein publicity is
acceptable, as provided in BOA Resolution 19, Series of 2000, were included.
d. Payment and receipt of commissions were not permitted in the Philippines.
DEFINITIONS
5. Assurance engagement include the following, except
a. An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter
conforms in all material respects with identified suitable criteria.
b. An engagement conducted to provide a moderate level of assurance that the subject
matter is plausible in the circumstances.
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12. A financial interest beneficially owned through a collective investment vehicle, estate, trust
or other intermediary over which the individual or entity has no control.
a. Indirect financial interest c. Financial instrument
b. Direct financial interest d. Clients’ monies
13. A combination of impartiality, intellectual honesty and a freedom from conflicts of interest.
a. Objectivity c. Professional skepticism
b. Independence of mind d. Independence
16. The Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants in the Philippines defined “practice” as
a. A distinct sub-group, whether organized on geographical or practice lines.
b. An entity under common control, ownership or management with the firm or any entity
that a reasonable and informed third party having knowledge of all relevant information
would reasonably conclude as being part of the firm nationally or internationally.
c. Any service requiring accountancy or related skills performed by a professional
accountant including accounting, auditing, taxation, management consulting and
financial management services.
d. A sole proprietor or a partnership of professional accountants which offers professional
services to the public.
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17. The communication to the public of facts about a professional accountant which are not
designed for the deliberate promotion of that professional accountant.
a. Publicity c. Indirect promotion
b. Advertising d. Solicitation
20. The term professional accountant in public practice includes the following, except
a. A sole proprietor providing professional services to a client.
b. Each partner or person occupying a position similar to that of a partner staff in a
practice providing professional services to a client.
c. Professional accountants employed in the public sector having managerial
responsibilities.
d. A firm of professional accountants in public practice.
22. Related entity is an entity that has any of the following relationships with the client, except
a. An entity that has direct or indirect control over the client provided the client is material
to such entity.
b. An entity with a direct financial interest in the client even though such entity has no
significant influence over the client provided the interest in the client is material to such
entity.
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INTRODUCTION
23. A profession is distinguished by certain characteristics including
I. Mastery of a particular intellectual skill, acquired by training and education.
II. Adherence by its members to a common code of values and conduct established by its
administrating body, including maintaining an outlook which is essentially objective.
III. Acceptance of a duty to society as a whole (usually in return for restrictions in use of a
title or in the granting of a qualification).
a. I, II and III c. III only
b. I and II only d. II and III only
OBJECTIVES
25. The Code recognizes that the objectives of the accountancy profession are to work to the
highest standards of professionalism, to attain the highest levels of performance and
generally to meet the public interest requirement set out above. These objectives require
four basic needs to be met including the following, except
a. Credibility c. Quality of Services
b. Professionalism d. Integrity
FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLES
26. In order to achieve the objectives of the accountancy profession, professional accountants
have to observe a number of prerequisites or fundamental principles. The fundamental
principles include the following, except
a. Objectivity
b. Professional Competence and due Care
c. Technical Standards
d. Confidence
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d. Act in a manner consistent with the good reputation of the profession and refrain from
any conduct which might bring discredit to the profession.
28. Which of the following is not explicitly referred to in the Code of Ethics as source of
technical standards?
a. Commission on Audit (COA)
b. Auditing Standards and Practices Council (ASPC)
c. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
d. Relevant legislation
THE CODE
29. Which statement is incorrect regarding the Code of Code of Ethics for Professional
Accountants in the Philippines?
a. The objectives as well as the fundamental principles are of a general nature and are
not intended to be used to solve a professional accountant’s ethical problems in a
specific case.
b. The code is divided into two parts, part A and part B.
c. Part A applies to all professional accountants unless otherwise specified.
d. Part B applies only to those professional accountants in public practice.
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33. Which of the following is the least required in attaining professional competence?
a. High standard of general education.
b. Specific education, training and examination in professionally relevant subjects.
c. Period of meaningful work experience.
d. Continuing awareness of development in the accountancy profession.
SECTION 4 - Confidentiality
34. Which of the following is incorrect regarding confidentiality?
a. Professional accountants have an obligation to respect the confidentiality of
information about a client’s or employer’s affairs acquired in the course of professional
services.
b. The duty of confidentiality ceases after the end of the relationship between the
professional accountant and the client or employer.
c. Confidentiality should always be observed by a professional accountant unless specific
authority has been given to disclose information or there is a legal or professional duty
to disclose.
d. Confidentiality requires that a professional accountant acquiring information in the
course of performing professional services neither uses nor appear to use that
information for personal advantage or for the advantage of a third party.
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38. When a professional accountant learns of a material error or omission in a tax return of a
prior year, or of the failure to file a required tax return, the professional accountant has a
responsibility to do the following, except
a. Promptly advise the client or employer of the error or omission and .recommend that
disclosure be made to the revenue authorities.
b. Immediately inform the revenue authorities.
c. Take reasonable steps to ensure that the error is not repeated in subsequent tax
returns if the professional accountant concludes that a professional relationship with
the client or employer can be continued.
d. Inform the client or the employer that it is not possible to act for them in connection
with that return or other related information submitted to the authorities if the client or
the employer does not correct the error.
SECTION 7 - Publicity
40. In the marketing and promotion of themselves and their work, professional accountants
should
a. Not use means which brings the profession into disrepute.
b. Not make exaggerated claims for the services they are able to offer, the qualifications
they possess, or experience they have gained.
c. Not denigrate the work of other accountants.
d. All of the above.
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41. Whether a particular engagement is an assurance engagement will depend upon whether
it exhibits all the following elements, including:
I. A three party relationship involving a professional accountant, a responsible party, and
an intended user
II. A subject matter
III. A suitable criteria
IV. An engagement process
V. A conclusion
a. I, II, III, IV and V c. I, II, and III
b. I, II, III and V d. I, II, III and IV
42. There is a broad range of engagements to provide a high or moderate level of assurance.
Such engagements may include
I. Engagements to report on a broad range of subject matters covering financial and
non-financial information
II. Attest and direct reporting engagements
III. Engagements to report internally and externally
IV. Engagements in the private and public sector
a. I, II, III and IV c. II only
b. I, II and III d. I and II only
43. Not all engagements performed by professional accountants are assurance engagements.
Other engagements frequently performed by professional accountants that are not
assurance engagements include the following, except
a. Agreed-upon procedures
b. Compilation of financial or other information
c. Management consulting
d. Examination of prospective financial information
44. For assurance engagements provided to an audit client, the following should be
independent of the client
a b c d
The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes
The firm Yes Yes No No
Network firms Yes No No Yes
45. For assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the report is
not expressly restricted for use by identified users, the following should be independent of
the client
a b c d
The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes
The firm Yes Yes No No
Network firms Yes No No Yes
46. For assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the
assurance report is expressly restricted for use by identified users, the following should be
independent of the client
a b c d
The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes
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47. The firm should be independent of the client in the following engagements
a b c d
Assurance engagements provided to an audit Yes Yes Yes Yes
client
Assurance engagements provided to clients Yes Yes No No
that are not audit clients, when the report is
not expressly restricted for use by identified
users
Assurance engagements provided to clients Yes No No Yes
that are not audit clients, when the assurance
report is expressly restricted for use by
identified users
49. Occurs when a firm or a member of the assurance team could benefit from a financial
interest in, or other self-interest conflict with, an assurance client.
a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
52. Occurs when any product or judgment of a previous assurance engagement or non-
assurance engagement needs to be re-evaluated in reaching conclusions on the
assurance engagement or when a member of the assurance team was previously a
director or officer of the assurance client, or was an employee in a position to exert direct
and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement.
a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
53. Examples of circumstances that may create self-review threat least likely include
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54. Occurs when a firm, or a member of the assurance team, promotes, or may be perceived
to promote, an assurance client’s position or opinion to the point that objectivity may, or
may be perceived to be, compromised. Such may be the case if a firm or a member of the
assurance team were to subordinate their judgment to that of the client.
a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
55. A CPA-lawyer, acting as a legal counsel to one of his audit client, is an example of
a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
56. Occurs when, by virtue of a close relationship with an assurance client, its directors,
officers or employees, a firm or a member of the assurance team becomes too
sympathetic to the client’s interests.
a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
57. Examples of circumstances that may create familiarity threat least likely include
a. A member of the assurance team having an immediate family member or close family
member who is a director or officer of the assurance client.
b. A member of the assurance team having an immediate family member or close family
member who, as an employee of the assurance client, is in a position to exert direct
and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement.
c. A former partner of the firm being a director, officer of the assurance client or an
employee in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter
of the assurance engagement.
d. Dealing in, or being a promoter of, share or other securities in an assurance client.
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60. When threats to independence that are not clearly insignificant are identified, the following
are appropriate, except
a. Professional judgment is used to determine the appropriate safeguards to eliminate
threats to independence or to reduce them to an acceptable level.
b. In situations when no safeguards are available to reduce the threat to an acceptable
level, the only possible actions are to eliminate the activities or interest creating the
threat, or to refuse to accept or continue the assurance engagement.
c. When the firm decides to accept or continue the assurance engagement, the decision
need not be documented provided the threats identified were eliminated.
d. The evaluation of the significance of any threats to independence and the safeguards
necessary to reduce any threats to an acceptable level, takes into account the public
interest.
61. Consideration of the nature of the safeguards to be applied will be affected by matters such
as the
a b c d
Significance of the threat Yes Yes Yes Yes
Nature of the assurance engagement Yes Yes Yes No
Intended users of the assurance report Yes Yes No Yes
Structure of the firm Yes No No No
62. The safeguards available to eliminate the threats or reduce them to an acceptable level
include
a b c d
Safeguards created by the profession, Yes Yes Yes Yes
legislation or regulation
Safeguards within the assurance client Yes Yes No No
Safeguards within the firm’s own systems and Yes No No Yes
procedures
63. Safeguards created by the profession, legislation or regulation, include the following,
except
a. Educational, training and experience requirements for entry into the profession.
b. Continuing education requirements.
c. Legislation governing the independence requirements of the firm.
d. Policies and procedures that emphasize the assurance client’s commitment to fair
financial reporting.
64. Safeguards within the assurance client, include the following, except
a. Professional standards and monitoring and disciplinary processes.
b. The assurance client has competent employees to make managerial decisions.
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65. Safeguards within the firm’s own systems and procedures, include the following, except
a. Firm leadership that stresses the importance of independence and the expectation that
members of assurance teams will act in the public interest.
b. External review of a firm’s quality control system.
c. Policies and procedures to implement and monitor quality control of assurance
engagements.
d. Policies and procedures that will enable the identification of interests or relationships
between the firm or members of the assurance team and assurance clients.
66. When the safeguards available are insufficient to eliminate the threats to independence or
to reduce them to an acceptable level, or when a firm chooses not to eliminate the
activities or interest creating the threat, the only course of action available will be the
a. Issuance of an adverse opinion.
b. Issuance of qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion.
c. Issuance of unqualified opinion with explanatory paragraph.
d. Refusal to perform, or withdrawal from, the assurance engagement.
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c. Dispose of a sufficient amount of the indirect financial interest so that the remaining
interest is no longer material prior to the individual becoming a member of the
assurance team.
d. Limit the participation of the member of the assurance team.
69. If a member of the assurance team, or their immediate family member receives, by way of,
for example, an inheritance, gift or, as a result of a merger, a direct financial interest or a
material indirect financial interest in the assurance client, a self-interest threat would be
created. The following safeguards should be applied to eliminate the threat or reduce it to
an acceptable level:
a. Disposing of the financial interest at the earliest practical date.
b. Removing the member of the assurance team from the assurance engagement.
c. Either a or b.
d. Neither a nor b.
70. When a member of the assurance team knows that his or her close family member has a
direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the assurance client, a
self-interest threat may be created. Safeguards least likely include:
a. The close family member disposing of all or a sufficient portion of the financial interest
at the earliest practical date.
b. Discussing the matter with those charged with governance, such as the audit
committee.
c. Involving a professional accountant who took part in the assurance engagement to
review the work done by the member of the assurance team with the close family
relationship or otherwise advise as necessary.
d. Removing the individual from the assurance engagement.
71. When a firm or a member of the assurance team holds a direct financial interest or a
material indirect financial interest in the assurance client as a trustee, a self-interest threat
may be created by the possible influence of the trust over the assurance client.
Accordingly, such an interest cannot be held when:
a. The member of the assurance team, an immediate family member of the member of
the assurance team, and the firm are beneficiaries of the trust.
b. The interest held by the trust in the assurance client is not material to the trust.
c. The trust is not able to exercise significant influence over the assurance client.
d. The member of the assurance team or the firm does not have significant influence over
any investment decision involving a financial interest in the assurance client.
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74. The following self-interest threat created would be so significant no safeguard could
reduce the threat to an acceptable level, except
a. If a firm, or a network firm, has a direct financial interest in an audit client of the firm.
b. If a firm, or a network firm, has a material indirect financial interest in an audit client of
the firm.
c. If a firm, or a network firm, has a material financial interest in an entity that has a
controlling interest in an audit client.
d. If the retirement benefit plan of a firm, or network firm, has a financial interest in an
audit client
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78. An inadvertent violation of the rules on family and personal relationships would not impair
the independence of a firm or a member of the assurance team when:
a. The firm has established policies and procedures that require all professionals to
report promptly to the firm any breaches resulting from changes in the employment
status of their immediate or close family members or other personal relationships that
create threats to independence.
b. Either the responsibilities of the assurance team are re-structured so that the
professional does not deal with matters that are within the responsibility of the person
with whom he or she is related or has a personal relationship, or, if this is not possible,
the firm promptly removes the professional from the assurance engagement.
c. Additional care is given to reviewing the work of the professional.
d. All of the above.
80. If a member of the assurance team, partner or former partner of the firm has joined the
assurance client, the significance of the self-interest, familiarity or intimidation threats
created is least likely affected by
a. The position the individual has taken at the assurance client.
b. The amount of any involvement the individual will have with the assurance team.
c. The length of time that the individual was a member of the assurance team or firm.
d. The former position of the individual within the assurance team or firm.
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81. A former officer, director or employee of the assurance client serves as a member of the
assurance team. This situation will least likely create
a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat
b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat
Long Association of Senior Personnel with Assurance Clients – Audit Clients that are Listed
Entities
84. Which statement is incorrect regarding long association of senior personnel with audit
clients that are listed entities?
a. Using the same lead engagement partner on an audit over a prolonged period may
create a familiarity threat.
b. The lead engagement partner should be rotated after a pre-defined period, normally no
more than seven (7) years.
c. A partner rotating after a pre-defined period should not resume the lead engagement
partner role until a further period of time, normally two years, has elapsed.
d. When audit client becomes a listed entity the length of time the lead engagement
partner has served the audit client in that capacity should be considered in determining
when the partner should rotated.
85. The partner may continue to serve as the lead engagement partner before rotating off the
engagement for how many years after audit client becomes a listed entity?
a. One year c. Three years
b. Two years d. Four years
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86. While the lead engagement partner should be rotated after such a pre-defined period,
some degree of flexibility over timing of rotation may be necessary in certain
circumstances. Examples of such circumstances include:
a. Situations when the lead engagement partner’s continuity is especially important to the
audit client, for example, when there will be major changes to the audit client’s
structure that would otherwise coincide with the rotation of the lead engagement
partner.
b. Situations when, due to the size of the firm, rotation is not possible or does not
constitute an appropriate safeguard.
c. Both a and b.
d. Neither a nor b.
89. These following services are considered to be a normal part of the audit process and do
not, under circumstances, threaten independence, except
a. Analyzing and accumulating information for regulatory reporting.
b. Assisting in the preparation of consolidated financial statements.
c. Drafting disclosure items.
d. Having custody of an assurance client’s assets.
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Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements – Audit Clients that are not Listed
Entities
91. The firm, or a network firm, may provide an audit client that is not a listed entity with
accounting and bookkeeping services, including payroll services, of a routine or
mechanical nature, provided any self-review threat created is reduced to an acceptable
level. Examples of such services least likely include:
a. Recording transactions for which the audit client has determined or approved the
appropriate account classification.
b. Posting coded transactions to the audit client’s general ledger.
c. Preparing financial statements based on information in the trial balance.
d. Determining and posting journal entries without obtaining the approval of the audit
client.
92. The safeguards necessary to reduce the threat, created by providing accounting and
bookkeeping services to an audit client that is not a listed entity, to an acceptable level
might include the following, except
a. Making arrangements so such services are not performed by a member of the
assurance team.
b. Implementing policies and procedures to prohibit the individual providing such services
from making any managerial decisions on behalf of the audit client.
c. Requiring the source data for the accounting entries to be originated by the assurance
team.
d. Obtaining audit client approval for any proposed journal entries or other changes
affecting the financial statements.
Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements – Audit Clients that are Listed Entities
93. The provision of accounting and bookkeeping services of a routine or mechanical nature to
divisions or subsidiaries of listed audit clients would not be seen as impairing
independence with respect to the audit client provided that the following conditions are
met, except
a. The services do not involve the exercise of judgment.
b. The divisions or subsidiaries for which the service is provided are collectively
immaterial to the audit client.
c. The services provided are collectively immaterial to the division or subsidiary.
d. The fees to the firm, or network firm, from such services are collectively significant.
Valuation Services
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95. If the valuation services involves the valuation of matters material to the financial
statements and the valuation involves a significant degree of subjectivity, the self-review
threat created (choose the incorrect one)
a. Could not be reduced to an acceptable level by the application of any safeguard.
b. Could be reduced to an acceptable level by the application of safeguards.
c. Such valuation services should not be provided.
d. The assurance team should withdraw from the audit engagement, if the team opted to
perform the valuation services.
96. The following would not generally create a significant threat to independence, except
a. When a firm, or a network firm, performs a valuation service for an audit client for the
purposes of making a filing or return to a tax authority.
b. The firm provides formal taxation opinions and assistance in the resolution of tax
disputes to an audit client.
c. The firm renders internal services involving an extension of the procedures required to
conduct an audit in accordance with Philippine Standards on Auditing to an audit
client.
d. When the firm, or a network firm, provides assistance in the performance of a client’s
internal audit activities or undertakes the outsourcing of some of the activities.
98. Which of the following is least likely considered to create a threat to independence?
a. The provision of services by a firm or network firm to an audit client which involve
either the design or the implementation of financial information technology systems
that are used to generate information forming part of a client’s financial statements.
b. The provision of services in connection with the assessment, design and
implementation of internal accounting controls and risk management controls.
c. The lending of staff by a firm, or network firm, to an audit client when the individual is
in a position to influence the preparation of a client’s accounts or financial statements.
d. The provision of litigation support services to an audit client, which include the
estimation of the possible outcome and thereby affects the amounts or disclosures to
be reflected in the financial statements.
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litigation or other legal dispute, and assistance with document management and
retrieval in relation to a dispute or litigation.
d. Any services for which the person providing the services must either be admitted to
practice before the Courts of the jurisdiction in which such services are to be provided,
or have the required legal training to practice law.
104. A client company has not paid its 2003 audit fees. According to the Code of Professional
Conduct, for the auditor to be considered independent with respect to the 2004 audit, the
2003 audit fees must be paid before the
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105. Fees calculated on a predetermined basis relating to the outcome or result of a transaction
or the result of the work preformed.
a. Contingent fees c. Flat sum fees
b. Retainer fees d. Per diem fees
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110. The Rules of Conduct will ordinarily be considered to have been violated when the
professional accountant represents that specific consulting services will be performed for a
stated fee and it is apparent at the time of the representation that the
a. Actual fee would be substantially higher.
b. Actual fee would be substantially lower than the fees charged by other professional
accountants for comparable services
c.Fee was a competitive bid.
d. Professional accountant would not be independent.
111. Which of the following fee arrangements would violate the Code of Professional Conduct?
a. A fee based on the approval of a bank loan.
b. A fee based on the outcome of a bankruptcy proceeding.
c. A per hour fee that includes out-of-pocket expenses.
d. A fee based on the complexity of the engagement.
112. Which of the following actions by a professional accountant in public practice will not result
in violation of the Code of Ethics regarding commissions?
a. Accepting commission for referring a client to a third party.
b. Accepting commission for the referral of the products or services of others.
c. Receipt of referral fees by the referring accountant when no services are performed by
the referring accountant.
d. Entering into an arrangement for the purchase of the whole or part of an accounting
practice requiring payments to individuals formerly engaged in the practice or
payments to their heirs or estates.
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116. Communication between the receiving accountant and existing accountant is not intended
a. To protect a professional accountant in public practice from accepting an appointment
in circumstances where all the pertinent facts are not known.
b. To protect the minority proprietors of a business who may not be fully informed of the
circumstances in which the change is proposed.
c. To protect the interests of the existing accountant when the proposed change arises
from, or is an attempt to interfere with, the conscientious exercise of the existing
accountant's duty to act as an independent professional.
d. To restrict the client’s freedom to choose their professional advisers and to change to
others.
117. The existing accountant, on receipt of the communication from the proposed professional
accountant in public practice, should not
a. Reply, preferably in writing, advising whether there are any professional reasons why
the proposed professional accountant in public practice should not accept the
appointment.
b. Ensure that the client has given permission to give details of this information to the
proposed professional accountant in public practice.
c. Report the fact, that the permission is not granted, to the proposed professional
accountant in public practice.
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122. Professional accountant who author books or articles on professional subjects, may state
a b c d
His or her name Yes Yes Yes Yes
Professional qualifications Yes Yes Yes No
Name of organization Yes Yes No No
Information as to the services his or her firm
provide Yes No No No
123. A professional accountant may invite the following to attend training courses or seminars
conducted for the assistance of staff
a b c d
Clients Yes Yes No No
Staff Yes Yes Yes Yes
Other professional accountants Yes Yes No No
Potential clients Yes No Yes No
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