CLI QB English

Model Question Bank for the Post Of Chief Loco Inspector/Hyderabad
Division For CLI’s as per the notification issued by

Sr.DPO/HYB’s Lr. No. SCR/P-HYB/210/ELR/6/CLI/Vol-II dt: 19.12.2019
S. No. List of Subjects No. of Questions

1 G & SR and ACCIDENT MANUAL 403
2 ALCO LOCOMOTIVES 200
3 HHP LOCOMOTIVES 200
4 DEMU 51
5 CREW MANAGEMENT SYSTEM 26
6 LEAVE RULES 41
7 PASS RULES 34
8 RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 30
9 POWER PLAN AND ENGINE LINKS 24
10 RAJ BHASHA 92
11 RCD 76
TOTAL 1178
NOTE:
1. This question bank is for guidance only.
2. The question bank is prepared as per the syllabus and
for general guidance of applicants only. These are some
model questions, but not exhaustive.
General and Subsidiary Rules
Chapter – 1 & 2
1. Under Rule ______of the Railways Act 1989, the General Rules 1976 for the existing lines
of Railways were made by the Government of India. (B)
A)196 B)198 C)197 D) 168
2. Ordinary rules may be amended by the (A)
(A) Railway Board B) Railway safety commissioner C) Print D) Indian government
3. Approved special instructions are issued or approved by _______ (A)
A) CRS B) COM C) MOSR D) PM
4. ___________ is the authorized officer of South Central Railway (C)
A) CCRS B) CRS C) COM D) CEE
5. Subsidiary rules are framed by _____ (C)
A) COM B) CRS C) Authorized officer D) MRS
6. Who is the Commissioner of Railway Safety for South Central Circle? (B)
A)D K Singh B) Ram kripal C) A A Padhkee D) M G Sekharam
7. Present COM of SCR ____________ (B)
A) NSR Prasad B) K Siva Prasad C) B B Singh D)N Madhusudan Rao
8. A Stop Signal of a station controlling the entry of trains into next block section is called
A) First stop signal B)Starter signal C)Shunt Signal D)Last stop signal (D)
9. A train, which has started under an ATP and has not completed its journey, is called (A)
A) Running train B) Material train C)Special train D)FTR Train
10. Special Instructions are issued by ______ (C)
A) COM B)CRS C)Authorized officer D) Railway Board
11. Station Limits are available between the ________ signals at a Block Station (A)
A) Outermost B)Innermost C) Both A & B D)None of the above
12. At Class ‘D’ station, station limits are available between (B)
A) Home signals B) Last Stop signals C) The ends of the Platform D) Both A&B
13. On Double Line Class ‘__’ station Multiple Aspect Signaling (MAS), station section lies
between the outermost facing points and the LSS of the station in either direction (B)
A) A B) B C) C D) Spl. class
14. On Single Line Class __ station MAS, station section lies between the shunting limit
boards or advanced starters (B)
A) A B) B C) C D) Spl class
15. _________________ means the system adopted for the time being for the working of trains
on any portion of a railway (C)
A) Loco Pilot B) Division C) System of working D) signaling system
16. _____stations are sub-classified as Class ‘A’, Class ‘B’, Class ‘C’ & Special Class (B)
A) non block B) Block C) All D) Indian Railway
17. The classification of a station shall be mentioned in the __________ (C)
A)SWR B)WTT C) Both A&B D)Operating Manual
18. Any Block Station which cannot be worked under Class ‘A’, Class ‘B’ or Class ‘C’
conditions is termed as ______________ (C)
A) D class B) IB station C) special class D) metro
19. Whenever LPs/ALPs/SMs/Guards/Switchmen join this Zonal Railway, on transfer,
they shall attend _________ before taking independent charge (A)
A) Refresher course B) Promotional course C) Initial Course D) No training required
20. No Railway Servant directly connected with the working of trains shall take or use any
alcoholic drink, sedative, narcotic or stimulant drug or preparation within ____Hrs.
before the commencement of his duty (D)
A) 12 B) 16 C) 10 D) 8
21. If train parting is observed by any Railway Servant ___ signal should not be exhibited (A)
A) STOP hand B)Proceed hand C)Flag as low as high D) None of the above
22. If any railway servant notices that a train has parted, he shall try to attract the attention
of the ____ by shouting that the train has parted and put both his hands together above
his head and separate them smartly (D)
A) LP B) Guard C) SM D) LP & Guard
23. When train caught in cyclone, storm or strong wind, after stopping the train, the Guard
and the Loco Pilot of the train in co-operation with the Railway Staff shall try to see that
doors and windows of the coaches are kept ____ by the passengers to allow free passage
of the wind (A)
A) open B) close C) partially open D) closed and locked
24. Wind velocity can be measured by (C)
A) velocity meter B) Barometer C) anemometer D) Air meter
CHAPTER – 3
1. Signals used for controlling movement of trains as per G & SR are (D)
A) Fixed signals B) Hand signals C) Detonating & Flare signals D) All the above
2. Under special instructions wherever any signal is located on right side of the track, that
signal post shall have an ________ showing the line to which the signal is referred (A)
(A) Arrow B) P Marker C) G Marker D) S Marker
3. In color lights area Distant signal is identified by (B)
A) A Marker B) P Marker C) G Marker D) S Marker
4. The normal aspect of Distant signal is (C)
A) Proceed B)Attention C)Caution D)Stop
5. Whenever two yellow lights are exhibited in Distant signal the aspect is (B)
6. Whenever one yellow light is exhibited in Distant signal the aspect is (C)
7. The indication of the Distant signal in Caution aspect (A)
A) Proceed and be prepared to stop at the next Stop signal
B) STOP
C) Proceed and be prepared to pass next signal at such restricted speed as may be
prescribed by special instructions
D) None of the above
8. Distant signal tells about the aspect of ___ signal ahead (B)
A) Shunt B)Stop C)Warner D) Proceed
9. Whenever Inner Distant is provided, Distant signal is capable of displaying ___ aspects
only (A)
A) Attention and Proceed B) Proceed and Caution
C) Caution and Proceed D) Attention
10. The normal aspect of Distant signal on double distant signal area is (C)
A) Caution B)Proceed C)Attention D)STOP
11. When color light Distant signal is combined with Gate/LSS, the normal aspect of that
signal is (D)
A) Caution B)Attention C) Proceed D) STOP
12. When the LC gate is open to road traffic gate-cum-distant signal shows (B)
A) Yellow B)Red C)Double Yellow D)Green
13. When the LC gate is closed and the train is required to stop at the home signal gate-
cum-distant signal shows__ (A)
A) Yellow B)Green C)Red D)Double Yellow
14. When the LC gate is closed and the train is required to stop at the main line starter or loop
line starter or is required to pass through via loop line gate-cum-distant signal shows __ (D)
15. Whenever the block section ahead is not clear IBS-cum-distant signal shows (C)
16. When the train is required to stop at the home signal of station ahead IBS-cum-distant
signal shows (A)
17. When the train is required to stop at the main line or loop line starter or is required to
pass through via loop line IBS-cum-distant signal shows (D)
18. When the block section ahead is clear, train is to pass run through the station via main
line IBS-cum- distant signal shows (B)
19. When the line clear has not been obtained from the station in advance last stop signal-
cum-distant signal of LC gate shows (C)
20. When the line clear has been obtained and the LC gate is open to road traffic last stop
signal-cum- distant signal of LC gate shows (A)
21. When the line clear has been obtained and the LC gate is closed to road traffic last stop
signal-cum- distant signal of LC gate shows (B)
22. When the block section is not clear for an adequate distance beyond IBS last stop signal-
cum-distant signal of IBS shows (C)
23. When the block section is clear for an adequate distance beyond IBS and the train is
required to stop at IB signal, last stop signal-cum-distant signal of IBS shows (A)
24. When the train is required to pass IBS last stop signal-cum-distant signal of IBS shows (B)
25. Distant signal is provided at a distance of ___ meters in rear of the stop signal (C)
A) 1400 B)1200 C)1000 D)2000
26. Whenever double distant is provided, distant signal location is __ meters from the stop signal (D)
A) 1400 B)1200 C)1000 D)2000
27. ____ is eliminated wherever two distant signals are provided (A)
A) SWB B)Calling on Board C) Distant D)Home Signal
28. At stations provided with___, the advanced starter shall be taken off and then the
starter (B)
A) Starter, Advance starter B) Advance starter, Starter
C) No Priority D) None of the above
29. When a color light distant is combined with LSS/Gate signal, __ marker shall be
dispensed with on the signal post (A)
A) P B)A C)G D)C
30. Color light calling-on signal is identified by ___ marker (D)
A) P B)A C)G D)C
31. Calling-on signal may be provided below any stop signal expect ___ (C)
A) Starter B)Home C) LSS D)None of these
32. Calling-on signal will show ___ light in ON position (B)
A) Miniature Yellow B)No C)Green D)Red
33. Calling-on signal shows ____ color light in OFF position (A)
A) Miniature Yellow B)No C)Green D)Red
34. The aspect of the calling-on signal when taken OFF is (B)
A) Stop B)Proceed slow C)Proceed D)All the above
35. Calling-on signal cannot be taken OFF during ___ (end) point failure (A)
A) Facing B)Trailing C) Facing or Trailing D)All the above
36. Calling-on signal is to be used only on two occasions, they are (C)
A) Whenever the stop signal placed above becomes defective
B) Whenever train is to be received on obstructed line
C) Whenever the stop signal placed above becomes defective or whenever train is to be
received on obstructed line
D) None of the above
37. Condition for taking OFF ______ signal is that the train has been brought to a stand at
the stop signal (D)
A) shunt B) shunting permitted indicator C) starter D) calling on
38. To take OFF calling-on signal, the train must be in the calling-on zone and if calling-on
is taken OFF, it will take ____ time (C)
A) 180 seconds B) 60 seconds C) 120 seconds D) 3 minutes
39. ____ signals are of 3types, and they are disc type, position light type and miniature
semaphore arm type (A )
A) shunt B) repeater C) Class A station D) two aspect
40. Shunt signal may be provided below any stop signal except ___ (C)
A) LSS B)Starter C)FSS D)Both A & B
41. Shunt signal below stop signal will show ____ in ON position (B)
A) Miniature Yellow B) No light C)Two lights are burning diagonal D)Red
42. Position light shunt signal shows ____color lights in OFF position (C)
A) Miniature Yellow B)No C)Two lights are burning oblique/diagonal D)Red
43. The aspect of the shunt signal when taken OFF is ___ (B)
A) Stop B)Proceed slow C)Proceed D)All the above
44. The aspect of the shunt signal at ON is ___ (A)
A) Stop B) Proceed C) Proceed slow D) wait 2 mins
45. Shunt signal detects the ___ points (A)
A) Facing B)Trailing C) Facing or Trailing D)All the above
46. _____ of shunt signals shall be provided in color light area (B)
A) Disc type B)Position light type C)Miniature semaphore arm type D) Both B & C
47. _____ is the authority to pass defective independent shunt signal or shunt signal below
stop signal at ON (B)
A) T/369(3b) B)T/369(3b) + PHS C)T/369(1) D)T/369(1) + PHS
48. When shunting permitted indicator is defective, ___ is the authority for the LP (C)
A) T/369(3b) B)T/369(1) C)T/369(3b) + PHS D)T/369(1) + PHS
49. Detailed working instructions about shunting permitted indicator are available in (B)
A) WTT B)SWR C)BWM D)Operating Manual
50. IB signal is identified by __ marker board (C)
A) A B)P C)IB D)G
51. Gate signal in automatic section is identified by (D)
A) A Marker B)G Marker C)Illuminated A Marker D)Both B&C
52. When a fixed signal is not in use, it shall be distinguished by (C)
A) Three cross bars B) Two parallel bars C)Two cross bars D)No Bars
53. Route indicators are treated as (B)
A) Permissive Signals B)Stop Signals C)Semi-automatic signals D) Subsidiary
Signals
54. Route indicators are of (D)
A) Junction type B) Multi-lamp type
C) Multi-lamp type and Stencil type D) Junction, Multi-lamp and Stencil type
55. When a signal is newly erected or shifted, it shall be jointly inspected by sighting
committee consisting of transportation, (D)
A) TI,LI B)LI,SI C)TI,SI D)TI,LI,SI
56. When a signal is newly erected or shifted, caution order shall be given for a period of 90days. (D)
A) 10 B)45 C) 30 D)90
57. Signal sighting committee will go on footplate inspection once in _______ (A)
A) 3 Months B) 6 months C) 12 MONTHS D) 7 days
58. Shunting limit board/advanced starter is provided at a single line station where
shunting (obstruction) is permitted outside the outermost facing points in the direction
of (B)
A) A Following Train B) An approaching train C) A Running train D) Material train
59. Block section limit board is provided at ___ station with multiple aspect signals where
the first point is a trailing point or where there are no points (B)
A) Class ‘A’ B) Class ‘B’ C) Class ‘C’ D) Class ‘D’
60. Gate signal is identified by ____ (C)
A) ‘P’ marker board B) ‘A’ marker board C) ’G’ marker board D) ÍB’ marker board
61. Detailed working instructions about outlying siding are incorporated in ___ (A)
A) SWR B) WTT C) BWM D) Operating Manual
62. Outlying siding points are indicated by ____ (D)
A) ‘P’ marker board B) ‘A’ marker board C) ’G’ marker board D) ‘S’ marker board
63. The speed of a goods train while entering goods terminal yard is restricted to __ (B)
A) 10 KMPH B) 15 KMPH C) 8 KMPH D) 30 KMPH
64. A signal which is taken OFF for a train will be put to ON position only in emergency to(C)
A) Give precedence C) Plan Crossing C) Avert accident D) Give ELB
65. To put back starter/advanced starter for departing train LP of the train should be
advised by a ____ and obtain acknowledgement (C)
A) PLCT B) T806 C) Written memo D) T369/1
66. Fixed signals except automatic signals shall always show their ___ aspect in the normal
position (B)
A) Proceed B) Most restrictive C) Stop D) Caution
67. Even though departure signals are taken OFF, LP shall stop at stations where stoppages
are scheduled in the ___ (D)
A) SWR B) Operating Manual C) BWM D) WTT
68. Signal overlap in MAS shall not be less than ___, which shall be reckoned from ____ on
single line (B)
A) 120,Facing points B)120,Trailing Points C)120,Starter D)180, Starter
69. Signal overlap in MAS shall not be less than ____, which shall be reckoned from ____ on
double line (C)
A) 120,Facing points B)120,Trailing Points C)120,Starter D)180, Starter
70. _____ signals are prohibited to be used for shunting purpose (A)
A) Home and LSS B)Starter and LSS C)Starter and Home D)Home and Shunt
71. Slip siding is intended to protect (A)
A) Block section B) Station section C)Both A & B D)None of the above
72. Catch siding is intended to protect (B)
A) Block section B) Station section C)Both A & B D)None of the above
73. When there is a falling gradient of ___ towards station the provision of catch siding is
compulsory (A)
A) 1 in 80 B) 1in 100 C)1 in 260 D)1 in 600
74. When there is a falling gradient of ___ towards block section the provision of slip siding is
compulsory (B)
A) 1 in 80 B) 1in 100 C)1 in 260 D)1 in 600
75. Catch and slip sidings shall not be used for ______ purposes (A)
A) Shunting and stabling B) shunting and push back
C) Piloting and stabling D) crossing and shunting
76. Normal setting of points wherever catch/slip sidings are provided is for (A)
A) Main line B) Loop line C) Main or Loop line D)Catch/Slip
77. When trap indicator is provided, it shall show ____ during day and ___ light during night
when it is in open position (A)
A)Red target,Red B)White target,White C)Green Target,No D)No Target,Green
78. All points shall normally be set for the (B)
A)Loop line B)Main line C) Goods Loop C)Sand hump
79. Point indicator wherever available shall show ___ during day and __ light during night
when point is set for main line (B)
80. Point indicator, wherever available shall show ____ during day and ___ light during night
when point is set for loop line (D)
81. From the time of disconnection to reconnection, the trains shall be admitted by __ (B)
A) pilot out B) pilot method C) On 369(3)b D) PLCT
82. By waving green flag by day and a white light by night up and down vertically as high
and as low as possible indicate____ (B)
A) Stop dead B) Proceed cautiously
C) Move away from the person signaling D) All the above
83. Violently waving a white light horizontally across the body of a person indicates (A)
A) Stop dead B)proceed cautiously C)move away D)All the above
84. A green flag/green light moved slowly up and down indicates (C)
A) stop dead B) proceed cautiously
C) move away from the person signaling D) All the above
85. Detonators are also known as (D)
A)Fixed signal B)Flare signals C)Hand Signals D)Fog Signals
86. Fog Signal Post is painted ___ alternatively (C)
A)White & Yellow B)White & Black C)Yellow & Black D)Black & White
87. ____ number of detonators are given to each fog signalman (A)
A)24 B)20 C)10 D)12
88. Fog Signal Post is located at ___ meters from FSS signal (B)
A)120 B)270 C)180 D)600
89. When LP judges that visibility is impaired due to thick, foggy or tempestuous weather he
shall reduce the speed of the train so as to be prepared to stop. Maximum speed of a
train shall be restricted to __ kmph during dense fog on absolute block system (B)
A)75 B)60 C)30 D)Restricted Speed
90. Maximum speed of trains during dense fog in automatic block system is __ kmph when
aspect of signal ahead is Proceed (B)
91. Maximum speed of trains during dense fog in automatic block system is ___ kmph when
aspect of signal ahead is Attention (C)
92. Maximum speed of trains during dense fog in automatic block system is __ when aspect
of signal ahead is Caution (D)
93. During foggy weather a red tail lamp of approved design displaying a __ during day or
night, should be provided on the last vehicle (D)
A) red flag B) yellow flashing light C) flashing light D) flashing red light
94. The knowledge of the staff that is required to use detonators shall be tested by the
testing officials once in ___ (C)
A)3 Months B)6 Months C) One year D)5 Years
95. Normal life of a detonator manufactured during the year 2010 and afterwards is __ years (B)
A)7 Years B)5 Years C) 6 years D)8 Years
96. Normal life of a detonator manufactured prior to the year 2010 is __ years (A)
A)7 Years B)5 Years C) 6 years D)8 Years
97. After testing the detonator, the life can be extended by a maximum of __ extensions (C)
A)1 B)2 C) 3 D)4
98. Testing of detonator shall be done by moving an empty wagon hauled by a locomotive at
a speed of __ kmph (B)
A)10 to 15 B)8 to 11 C)5 to 8 D)15 to 30
99. Whenever a signal which is detecting a point becomes defective, these points are treated
as ___ (C)
A) defective B) trailing C) non interlocked D) KL points
100. A blank signal under complete power off situation is to be treated as ____ signal (B)
A) blank B) defective C) permissive D) automatic
101. Pre-warning about defective ____ signal is not required when there is calling-on signal
provision or when signal post telephone is provided (C)
A) departure B) shunt C) reception D) any
102. When home is defective and pre-warning is given, the LP may pass such signal on receipt
of ___ at the foot of the signal (B)
A)T/369 (3b) B)PHS C) T/369(1) D)T/369(3b)+PHS
103. Pre-warning when given it will be given in the Form No. (B)
A)T/369(3b) B)T/369(1) C)PLCT D)T/369(3b)+10 Kmph C.O
104. Authority to pass defective starter signal (if it is not LSS) is (A)
A)T/369(3b) B)T/369(1) C)PLCT D)T/369(3b)+10 Kmph C.O
105. When IB distant fails in OFF position ___is the authority for trains before dispatching (C)
A)PLCT B)PLCT+T/369(1) C)PLCT+T/369(3b) D)T/369(3b)
106. On double line absolute block section when LSS is defective _ is the authority to start a train (A)
107. On single line token less section when LSS is defective ___ authority shall be given to LP (A)
A) PLCT B)PLCT+T/369(1) C)PLCT+T/369(3b) D)T/369(3b)
108. When LP passes starter at ON partly and stopped before advanced starter, subsequently
line clear is taken, (D)
A)T/369 (3b) B) Memo (counter signed by Guard) + PHS
C) Memo (counter signed by Guard) + PHS + ATP D) All the above
109. When Gate signal is at ON, the LP shall wait __ minutes by day/night and gateman not
available, LP may pass the gate on the hand signals of ALP after ensuring that gate is
closed (A)
A) 1 / 2 B) 2 / 1 C) 5 / 10 D) 2 / 4
110. When LP passed the Gate signal at ON and gateman is not available, the LP of the first
train shall report the absence of the Gateman to the ________ (A)
A) next SM B) SCOR C) PRC D) CCC
111. Gate-cum-distant signal will be located at a distance of ____ meters in rear of the gate (C)
A)120 B)1000 C)180 D)270
112. When LP finds a reception stop signal in semaphore area in OFF condition without light,
he shall observe _______ (C)
A)Most restrictive aspect B)Caution aspect C)Day Aspect D)Night Aspect
113. Whenever color light signal is flickering/bobbing and does not pick up a steady aspect at
least for _____ time, the signal shall be treated as defective (B)
A)30Seconds B)60Seconds C)90Seconds D)240Seconds
114. When IBS is defective ______ is the authority to be given to LP (C)
115. IB signal will have _____ facility (A)
A)Telephone B)Calling On C)Both A & B D)None of the above
116. When IBS is at ON the LP shall stop and contact _____ immediately (B)
A)SCOR B) SM of the station in rear C) SM of the station in advance D) B or C
117. When IBS is at ON and the telephone is out of order, LP after waiting for _ minutes shall
proceed at a speed of _ kmph when view is clear/not clear up to next stop signal ( C)
A) 5, 20/10 B) Immediately, 20/10 C) 5, 15/08 D) immediately,15/08
118. Whenever LP passes IBS at ON after waiting for 5 minutes and unable to contact SM
shall proceed with 15kmph view ahead is clear 8kmph view ahead is not clear up to the
FSS of the next station even if the _ signals is showing proceed aspect. (C)
A) IB B) Starter C) FSS D) LSS
119. Wherever IBS is provided, LSS is interlocked with ____ and IBS is interlocked with __ (A)
A) Axle counters, Block instruments B) Block instruments, Axle counters
C) Both A and B D) None of the above
120. When LP pass IBS at ON ___ indication will appear to SM in rear (A)
A)K1 B)K2 C)K3 D)K4
121. Under no circumstances should a train be backed over the ___________ points (B)
A)Facing B) Trailed through C)Trailing D)Non Interlocked
122. The LP shall whistle intermittently when his engine explodes detonator and take every
possible caution including _____ as necessary (D)
A) Increasing of speed B) Switching On flasher light
C) Switching On Head light D) Reduction of Speed
123. After exploding the detonator, the LP shall proceed cautiously up to a distance of ____
and can pickup normal speed if there is no obstruction beyond that distance (D)
A)1 Km B) 15Km C) 1.6 Km D)1.5 Km
124. When the LP notices a signal warning of an obstruction, except detonator, he shall ___
immediately (C)
A) Sound whistle B) Switch on Flasher light C) Stop D) All the above
125. When the LP notices a signal warning of an obstruction and no further details are
noticed, after stopping 1/2 by day/night, he shall proceed ____ up to the next block
station (D)
A) 15 KMPH B) 30 KMPH C) 50 KMPH D) cautiously
126. Signal warning board is located at a distance of ____ meters in rear of a stop signal (C)
A)1000 B)1200 C)1400 D)2000
127. The LP shall clearly understand that if no signal indication is available from the warning
board he should control the speed as if the stop signal ahead is at __ (D)
A)Off B) Proceed C)Caution D) On
128. The LP and Guard will be given ___ no. of LR trips in absolute section before they are
booked for regular working including one trip between 20:00 to 06:00hours (D)
A)6 B)2 C)1 D)3
129. If LP has not operated on a section for 3 to 6 months, he should be given ___ road
learning trips in absolute/automatic sections. (B)
A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C)2/3 D) 3/3
130. A register to record observations of LP during his run must be maintained in all ___ (C)
A) Stations B) running room C) lobbies D) RCD
CHAPTER - 4
1. Guard shall set his watch by the station clock or the clock at the authorized place of
reporting for duty and communicate the time to the LP and make entry in the……. (A)
A) CTR B)LP rough journal C)VG D)all above
2. ODC shall be allowed to be attached by a train for transport only with the prior sanction of … (C)
A)CME B)CSO C)COM D) SM
3. All passenger carrying trains should run at ……….even under normal circumstances
subject to observance of permanent/temporary speed restrictions in force (D)
A) Booked speed B) 10% less than MPS C) 100 kmph D) MPS
4. LP shall not make up between any two stations more time than is allowed in ….. (B)
A) G&SR B) WTT C) LP rough journal D) non of the above
5. In case of speedometers of loco is defective at crew changing points, the train should not
be ………..till attended or loco changed (A)
A)moved B)handed over charge C)un manned D) released
6. In case of speedometers/recorder of loco is defective during run, train should run with
……... reduction in MPS up to the crew changing point (D)
A)8% B)12% C)less than 10% D)10%
7. Unless permitted under approved special instructions the maximum speed permitted on
loop line is …..kmph (B)
A) 15 B) 30 C) 8 D) MPS
8. The speed of trains over non-interlocked points, turnouts and crossover shall not exceed
……..kmph normally (C)
A)30 B)8 C)15 D)10
9. The speed of a passenger/goods train on 1 in 8½ turnouts (straight switch) is restricted to
……..kmph. (C)
A)8/8 B) 15/15 C) 10/15 D)10/10
10. The speed of a passenger/goods train on 1 in 8½ turnouts (curved switch of 52/60 km
rails) on PSC sleepers is restricted to ……...kmph (A)
A) 15/15 B) 15/8 C)30/15 D)30/30
11. Isolation is necessary where the trains are permitted to run through a station at a speed
exceeding …...kmph (D)
A)30 B) 15 C) 75 D) 50
12. Engine pushing is not permitted without the prior permission of ……. (B)
A) GUARD B) SM in rear C) Section controller D)SS
13. When engine is pushing a train and Guard is travelling in brake van, which is leading,
the speed shall not exceed …...kmph, and Guard is not travelling in leading vehicle, the
speed shall not exceed …..kmph (D)
A) 15 & 8 B) 25 & 10 C) 40 & 15 D) 25 & 8
14. During engine pushing, in the absence of PHS of Guard, LP shall ……………… (C)
A) Give 2 short whistle B) enquire on walkie talkie
C) stop the train at once D) reduce speed
15. When engine is pushing a train without Guard, the duties of Guard is devolved on … (B)
A) LP B) ALP C) points man D) Goods Loco Pilot
16. When the train is working without BV, while pushing back the LP has to observe the
……..signals of Guard and proceed with ………….speed (A)
A) PHS & walking B) hand & walking C) PHS & 8 kmph D) No & walking
17. An engine exclusively deployed for shunting purpose shall put on ……..color marker lights
on both sides. (D)
A) white B) yellow C) blue D) red
18. When head light is defective after putting marker lights ON the train can go with a
restricted speed of …….kmph (C)
A) 25 B) 60/30 C) 40 D) 50% of MPS
19. In normal position side lights of BV shall show ……..light towards rear and …….. light
towards engine (A)
A)Red & white B) white & white C) No & white D) red & no
20. At night, when passenger carrying train waiting at a station for precedence, Guard shall
change the side light adjacent to the line on which the following train is to be admitted,
to show …….light towards rear and …….light towards engine (B)
A)Red & white B) white & red C) No & white D) red & no
21. Side lights may be dispensed with for ……...and ………. trains (C)
A)LE & ER B) diverted & ballast C) EMU & goods D) all the above
22. Last vehicle indicator during night shall be . (B)
A) Red flag B) red tail lamp light C) illuminated tail board D) any light
23. When an assisting engine is attached in rear of a train, … or ...shall be fixed behind the
assisting engine (A)
A) Tail lamp or tail board B) illuminated lamp or A board
C) marker lights or classification lights D) VL board or white light
24. It will be the duty of the ………….. to ensure that tail lamp or tail board is affixed only in
the rear of the last vehicle. (C)
A) Points man B) station master C) guard D) TNC
25. Light engines or coupled engines shall have red marker lights ……….in rear. (C)
A) Blinking B) OFF C) ON D) flashing
26. In case of obstruction on track, Guard must exhibit the flashing red hand signal lamp at
………. or red flag at……. (D)
A) Evening & Morning B) day & night C) station & block section D) night & day
27. Whenever alarm chain is pulled the Guard shall record the fact in the …….and submits
a special report to ……. (C)
A) VG & Sr DSO B) memo & SS C) CTR & DRM D) CTR & Sr DOM
28. Guard shall report to the SM of the next important station, any stoppage or other
irregularities in train working record the details in __ and send a special report to the (C)
A) VG & Sr DSO B) memo & SS C) CTR & DRM D) CTR & Sr DOM
29. ____ is provided in the personnel equipments of the Guard for opening/closing of the
Guard’s compartment of SLR (D)
A) BL B) OTL C) Special D) Universal key
30. The full form of OTL of BV equipment is ………………. lock (A)
A) One time B) other tool C) office tools D) none of the above
31. Dy.SS/TNC of the originating station shall record the intactness and availability of the
BV equipment in the register and obtain acknowledgement of the ……in the register
apart from VG (D)
A) ALP B) asst guard C) points man D) guard
32. Fire extinguishers: Replacement shall be done once in ………. (B)
A) A month B) a year C) 3 months D) 6 monthly schedule
33. The 2/4 wire telephone will be tested once in _ months by the SE/JE-Tele (D)
A) Every B) 3 C) 12 D) 6
34. Contents of the EL box shall be tested once in _ months by the SE/JE-TL (D)
A) Every B) 3 C) 12 D) 6
35. Guard shall obtain acknowledgement of Dy.SS or SE/JE-C&W in the _ book at
destination station about the intactness of OTL and seal (D)
A) VG B) rough journal book C) CTR D) VG & Rough journal
36. In case of emergency the ALP can be authorized to drive the train at a restricted speed not
exceeding ___ up to the nearest point where he can be relieved. (A)
A) 40 kmph B) 10% less than MPS C) 30 kmph D) 60 / 30 kmph
37. When leading compartment of an electric engine is defective and the train is driven from
trailing compartment by ALP, the speed shall not exceed ________ (A)
A) 40 kmph B) 10% less than MPS C) 30 kmph D) 60 / 30 kmph
38. When leading compartment of an electric loco is defective and the train is driven from
trailing compartment by LP the speed shall not exceed ________ (D)
A) 40 kmph B) 10% less than MPS C) 30 kmph D) 15kmph
39. In any case, there shall not be more than __ officials/staff including engine crew at any
time on the engine except in emergencies (D)
A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
40. The number of persons permitted to travel in the brake van of goods trains, in addition
to the Guard, should not exceed ___ (D)
A)3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
41. In emergency a goods train without brake van is ordered by Sr.DOM or DOM (C)
A) COM B) Chief Control C) Sr DOM D) Sr DSO
42. Maximum number of coaches in addition to the officer’s inspection coach attached in
rear of SLR of passenger or mail & express trains is __ (A)
A)3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
43. Maximum number of bogies or its equivalent attached by a goods train is 2bogies. (C)
A)3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5
44. Only __ damaged vehicle or damaged engine shall be attached behind the rear brake van
of goods/mixed train (C)
A)3 b) 4 C) 1 D)52
45. Attaching of damaged vehicle/engine may be done during _____ and in clear weather (A)
A) Day light B) no trains in station C) night D) block
46. All irregularities in connection with the working of trains or accidents must be reported
in the ___ by Guard (C)
47. Entries of vehicles attached to a train at intermediate stations must be made by the
station staff at those stations (C)
A) Guard B) SM only C) station staff D) points man only
48. Before starting, the Guard will be responsible for checking the load on the train with the
entries on the __ of a wagon numbers, booking and destination stations, type of wagons
etc (A)
49. In an emergency, a goods train without Guard can be ordered by ____ (C)
A)COM B) Chief Control C) Sr DOM D) Sr DSO
50. ______ shall be issued to the LP by SM with necessary endorsement stating that the train
is to run without Guard (B)
A) BPC B) CAUTION ORDER C) T806 D) VG
51. Where IBS is provided, the SM shall not dispatch a train in rear of the train running
without Guard reaches the _____ (B)
A) IBS B) next station C) FSS of next station D) destination
52. In automatic block territory, no train shall be allowed to follow a train without brake
van/guard until it arrives complete at the ______ station in advance (B)
A) Any Next B) next reporting C) next block D) none
53. Running of goods train _____ strictly prohibited during tempestuous weather, total
interruption of communications and during temporary single line working (B)
A) With roller bearings B) with out guard C) with loaded D) with empties
54. Running of goods trains without Guard may be permitted if the last vehicle is ___ (B)
A)With roller bearings B) brake van C) with loaded D) with
empties
55. Trucks loaded with girders, machinery, long timber, etc., shall be inspected by Guard at
_____ and if the fastenings have slackened or the loads shifted, they shall be re-secured
before the train is allowed to proceed or else the trucks detached. (B)
A) At block station B) stopping stations C) reporting stations D) crew change stations
56. In case a hot axle box found running between stations, the train shall be brought to a __
immediately and after attending LP should exercise his discretion with regard to the
restricted speed at which it is safe for the vehicle to run (D)
A) 10 kmph B) 8 kmph C) stop and start D) stand
57. When SM receives advice of hot axle, that train shall preferably be admitted on the __ line (B)
A) Siding B) main C) loop D) isolated
58. The fit to proceed (BPC Form No. RS6) must be possessed by the LP of the train till the
train completes its ____ (B)
A) Brake power test B) journey C) first trip D) 1000 kms
59. At the station after loading or unloading or tiling or while clearing stabled stock from a
station or incase of invalid BPC, the ____ check shall be conducted (C)
A) Intensive B) BPC C) GLP D) safety
60. Whenever train engine is changed, continuity test should be conducted and same shall
be recorded by the LP and Guard in their memo book (C)
A) Brake feel B) brake power C) continuity D) self
61. Time permitted for GLP check of a train consisting of 60 units is __________ (D)
A) 30 seconds B) 60 Minutes C) 45 minutes D) 30 minutes
62. Guard and LP shall prepare a GLP check memo jointly on a plain sheet in ________ (B)
A) Duplicate B) triplicate C) black ink D) blue ink
63. When a train is ordered without guard and GLP check is necessary the __ is completely
responsible for conducting GLP check. However, one points-man from the station shall
be deputed to assist the LP in conducting GLP check (A)
A) LP B) ALP C) guard & LP D) ALP & PM
64. The time prescribed for GLP check of train consisting of 60 units is __ minutes (C)
A) 45 B) 60 C) 30 D) 15
65. When the train is ordered without Guard, if GLP check is necessary and LP is alone
conducting GLP check ___ minutes time is allowed for a rake consisting of 60 units
(units may be a 4 wheeler or 8 wheeler) (B)
A) 45 B) 60 C) 30 D) 15
66. Guard shall report to SM of the next station, any stoppage or other irregularities in train
working, record the details in the ___ (A)
A) CTR B) CMS C) TSR D) NONE
67. While at a station, the LP is to obey SM orders (D)
A) CLI B) CCC C) GUARD D) SM
68. The LP and ALP shall identify each signal, call out the __ of the signal to each other (C)
A) signal number B) station name C) aspect D) colour
69. The validity of CC rake BPC is ___ whichever is earlier (A)
A) 35/7500 B)30/7000 C) 30/7500 D) 35/6500
70. The validity of premium rake BPC is _____ days (D)
A) 12+4 B) 10+3 C) 35+3 D) 12+3
71. The grace period given for premium end to end BPC is _____ (B)
A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 500 kms D) till reaching HQ
72. The validity of ___ BPC is up to loading point & further up to unloading point (B)
A) Premium B) end to end C) CC rake D) container rake
73. LP and ALP shall ___ frequently during journey to see whether the train is following in a
safe and proper manner (A)
A) Look back B) call out C) exchange D) whistle
74. The LP/ALP and Guard must look back at the gang staff and LC gates to see whether
any danger signal is exhibited by them (B)
A) Proceed B)Danger C) caution D) board
75. After clearance of the loop line cross-over points, when a train passes through loop line
the LP and Guard shall exchange all right signals ( C)
A) SM B) guard C) ALP D) cabin man
76. SM shall arrange points man to show all right signals for a run through train from off side
(D)
A) Sr DOM B) guard C ) controller D) SM
77. LPsof DEMUs, DHMUs, EMUs and MEMUs are exempted from exchanging all right
signals (A)
A) LP B) guard C) ALP D) SM
78. Cut off angle cock must be in open position except front side of loco and read side of LV
to ensure brake continuity. ( C)
A) Close B) partially open C) open D) partially close
79. A goods train having 56 wagons, the BP pressure in engine shall be 5 kg/cm2 and in BV
shall be 4.8 kg/cm2 (B)
A) 5/4.7 B) 5/4.8 C) 5.1 /4.8 D) 5.2/4.9
80. Normally 45minutes allowed to goods trains to start after engines have been attached.
However, in case of formations tested by air compressors, the time taken for staring the
train, after engine is attached, shall not exceed 20minutes (C)
A) 45 &30 B) 90&20 C)45&20 D)30&45
81. Empty/load handle shall be kept in load position when the gross load is above _ tones (A)
A) 42.5 B) 42 C) 41 D) 41 or 42
82. At the first opportunity, after starting, destroy a part of air pressure in order to get an
idea of the _______ your train (C)
A) Sanders B) loco brake power C) brake power D) guards exchange
83. When train is stabled for more than 72 Hrs in case of non-closed circuit rake and more
than 24 Hrs in case of closed circuit rake at station other than loading or unloading
station, fresh BPC is required (A)
A) 72 & 24 B) 72 & 36 C) 12 & 24 D) 24 & 12
84. Fresh BPC is required whenever more than 4eight wheeler vehicles are attached or
detached, to/from a train (C)
A) 6 B) 5 C)4 D) 10
85. All passenger carrying trains of all description shall have 100 % operative vacuum
cylinders with effective brake power at the starting station (D)
A) 90 B)95 C)85 D)100
86. DV isolating handle in vertical position indicates DV is in service position (B)
A) Working B) isolate C) attached to train D) hand brake applied
87. DV isolating handle in horizontal position indicates DV is in isolation position (B)
A) Working B) Isolation C) Defective D) None of the above
88. Reduction in BP pressure causes application of brakes (A)
A) application of brakes B) release of brakes
C) release of hand brake D) application of SLR brake
89. Creation of BP pressure causes release (B)
A) Application of brakes B) Release of brakes
C) Release of hand brake D) Application of SLR brake
90. All coaching trains shall have twin pipe working (C)
A) SCR B) goods C) coaching D) none of above
91. The effective brake power in case of mail/express at the originating station should be
100% and enroute can be not less than 90% (D)
A) 100 & 85 B) 100 & 100 C) 95&90 D) 100 & 90
92. The effective brake power in case passenger and CC rakes at the originating station
should be 100% and enroute shall be not specified (D)
A) 100 & 85 B) 100 & 100 C) 95&90 D) 100 & not specified
93. When a train is held up at FSS for more than _ minutes, the LP shall depute ALP to go to station.
(B)
A) 15 B) 5 C) 10 D) not required
94. When a train is held up at FSS for more than __ minutes, the Guard shall proceed to protect in
rear (A)
A) 15 B) 5 C) 10 D) not required
95. Whenever the engine is to be detached outside station limits when the gradient is not
steeper than 1 in 600 hand brakes of the brake van and also hand brake of at least 18
vehicles must be applied (A)
A) 1in 600 B) 1 in 400 C) 1 in 260 D) any gradiant
96. Whenever the engine is to be detached outside station limits when the gradient is steeper than 1
in 600 hand brakes of the brake van and also hand brakes of all vehicles must be applied (A)
A) 1in 600 B) 1 in 400 C) 1 in 260 D) any grade
97. Guards have to verify application of brakes by observing the drop in ------ pressure
gauge provided in SLR/BV (B)
A) FP B) BP C) FP&BP D) Non of the above
98. Within station limits where gradient is 1 in 400, to detach the loco of goods train, BV
and 6number of wagons hand brakes are to be put ON (B)
A)8 B) 6 C) 12 D) all
99. When working a passenger train the LP shall ensure that the passenger bogies do not
overshoot the platform (C)
A) passengers B) LC gate C) platform D) Name board
100. Whenever a train is stopped on a gradient for any reason like accident, loco failure, OHE
supply failures, etc., it is essential and important to apply the A9 & SA9so as to hold the
train safely on the gradient. (D)
A) Dynamic brake B) D1 emergency valve C) only skids D)A9 and SA9
101. When SM/station staff does not exchange all right signals, the LP shall give __engine
whistle code (C)
A) 000 B) 0_0 C) 00 D)_0_
102. The whistle board in case of approach to unmanned LC gates is at a distance of __
meters. On single line it should be reduced to __ meters when view is clear (D)
A) 600,250 B)250,600 C)600,500 D) 600,350
103. When engine whistle fails on run, after clearing block section, the loco shall be attended
or it shall be _____ (A)
A) ask for relief Loco B) push backed C) work from rear cab D) protect train
104. Engine whistle code for Guard to protect in rear is (D)
A) 0 0 0 B) _ _ _ C) _ 0 _ 0 D) 0 0 0 0
105. Engine whistle code for Guard to come to engine is (D)
A) 0 0 0 B) _ _ _ C) _ 0 _ 0 D) _ _ 0 0
106. Passing signal at ON with proper authority, the LP shall sound ____whistle (B)
A) 0 0 0 B) _ 0 _ _ C) _ 0 _ 0 D) 0 0 0 0
107. Engine whistle code ___ indicates ACP (D)
A) 0 0 0 B) _ _ _ C) _ 0 _ 0 D) 0 0 _
108. The bell code used in EMU/DMU trains for automatic signal or IBS passing in ON when
telephone is defective is ___ (C)
A) 0000-00 B) 00-00 C) 000-000-0 D)000-0-00
109. The bell code used in EMU/DMU for zone of speed restriction is over and to resume
normal speed is ____ (D)
A) 0000-00 B) 00-00 C) 000-000-0 D) 0-0
110. Whenever train stopped without clearing fouling mark, Guard shall inform the SM at
once and _____ to prevent any movement on the fouled line (C)
A) left hand B) Right hand C) wave a stop hand signal D) tail lamp
111. Material train shall be ordered to work with the permission of ____ (D)
A) SM B) Chief Controller C) Sr DOM/DOM D) DRM
112. To dispatch a material train for working in the block section and return back to the same
station, __ authority is given to the LP (B)
A) T462A B) T462 C) T369(3)b D) PLCT
113. The required brake power of material train shall be __ (C)
A) 85% B) 100% C) 90% D) 95%
114. While stabling a material train at a station, the responsibility to secure it lies with the(A)
A) SM and Guard B) SM and LP C) GLP D) points man and guard
115. The maximum speed of TTM is __ kmph and over points and crossing is __kmph (C)
A) 15 & 10 B) 25 & 15 C) 40 & 10 D) 50 & 15
116. TTM is permitted to work in the block section only during ___ period (D)
A) Winter season B) S&T block C) Power block D) traffic block
117. When TTMs are following each other the distance to be kept between each is 120meters (C)
A) 100 meters B) 3 clear OHE masts C) 120 meters D) 180 meters
118. When TTMs are following each other the speed of the second TTM is restricted __ kmp (B)
A) 15 & 10 B) 25 & 10 C) 40 & 10 D) 50 & 15
CHAPTER - 5
1. To receive a train on to an obstructed line, the LP shall be given ___authority where there
is no calling-on signal and signal post telephone (A)
A) T/509 B) T/511 C)T/510 D) T/512
2. While receiving a train on obstructed line, SM shall arrange to post one competent
railway servant to show __ hand signal from __ meters before the obstruction (D)
A) Proceed,30 B) Stop,30 C) Proceed,45 D) Stop,45
3. To receive a train on to non-signaled line, the LP shall be given (C)
A)T/511 B) T/512 C)T/509 D) None of the above
4. To start a train from a station having common starter, the LP shall be given (D)
A)T/512 B)ATP+Common starter taken off C) T/512+ATP D) Both A and B
5. To dispatch a train form non-signaled line, where tangible authority is not given as ATP,
__ authority should be given in addition to ATP (C)
A)T/509 B)T,/512 C)T/511 D)T/609
6. The speed during shunting operations shall not exceed ________ (B)
A)8 Kmph B) 15 Kmph C) 10 Kmph D)20 Kmph
7. The shunting staff need not accompany during shunt movement of light engine(s) on to a
(D)
A) Free line not governed by fixed signals B) Occupied line governed by fixed signals
C) Both A and B D) Free line governed by fixed signals
8. Slip coaches shall not be kept on blocked line in the rear of a (D)
A) Train without passengers B) Train carrying passengers
B) C) Both A and B D) Train carrying passengers
9. While performing shunting on passenger carrying trains, the shunting engine or train
engine with or without sectional coaches, before coming on to the formation should be
stopped 20meters before the formation (A)
A)20 B)45 C) Both A and B D) All the above
10. At station where separate shunting staff are not employed, shunting operations shall be
personally supervised by Guard (B)
A) SM B) GD C) ALP D) LP
11. While backing a full train from one line to another via main line the shunting supervision
is done by Guard (C)
A) Shunting Master B) Station Master C) Guard D) Anyone of A,B,C
12. Carriages containing passengers shall not be moved for shunting without the personal
order of the SM and Guard (D)
A) SM B) Guard C) LP D) Both A and B
13. While performing shunting, the points which are not protected by signals must be locked
by clamped or cotter bolted and padlocked method (C)
A) Clamped B) cotter bolted and padlocked
C) Clamped or cotter bolted and padlocked D) Both A and B
14. While shunting wagons containing explosives, the supervision shall be done by SM (A)
A) SM B) Guard C) A or B D) None of the above
15. The maximum speed while shunting of wagons containing explosives and POL products
shall be __ kmph (B)
A)10 B) 8 C) 15 D) 5
16. Where shunting operations are supervised by Guard/SM, LP shall be given Form No.(A)
A) T/608 B) T/602 C) T/609 D) T/806
17. Shunting of roller bearing vehicle on a steep gradient shall be done only with loco
attached towards the ___ (B)
A) Raising side of the gradient B) falling side of the gradient
C) A or B D) All the above
18. For shunting purpose ___ gradient is considered as steep gradient for roller bearing
wagons and 1 in 400gradient for non-roller bearing wagons (C )
A) 1 in 400, 1 in 260 B) 1 in 600, 1 in 400 C) 1 in 260 , 1 in 400 D) 1 in 260,1 in 600
19. Maximum hand shunting speed is 5kmph (D)
A)10 B) 8 C) 15 D) 5
20. To detach loco of a goods train having BOXN/BCN/BRH, etc., minimum 6no. of vehicles
hand brakes are to be applied from each end in addition to the hand brakes of BV (C)
A) 12 B) ⅓ of formation C) 6 D) 18
21. Before leaving the station/yard, the LP and Guard should jointly sign record in the
___________register to be maintained with SM that the load & loco has been secured (C)
A) Abnormality B) Shunting C) Stable load D) Sign off
CHAPTER - 6
1. When LP of the train experienced any abnormal condition in the track, stop his train at
FSS of the next station and inform SM ( C)
A) At effected KM. B) At Station building C) At FSS of the next
station D) At Starter of the next station
2. Rail fracture of less than 30mm, the speed of first train shall be 10kmph, the speed of
second and subsequent trains shall be 15kmph. (B)
A) 15,30 B) 10,15 C) 30,45 D) 15,30
3. The SM who received the message about the rail fracture through LP, he shall arrange to
issue caution order of 15kmph over the fractured rail (D)
A) 10 B) 30 C) 45 D) 15
4. Rail fracture of more than 30mm or multiple fractures, certification by PWM/PWIis
required to pass trains (D)
A) ADEN B) DEN C) Sr.DEN D) PWI/PWM
5. When a train is dispatched on T/J 602 (shall not be passenger carrying train), the speed
shall not exceed ___ kmph (C)
A) 10/08 B) 15/10 C) 15/8 D) 30/15
6. During TSL working, LP and Guard shall be given authority ______ (B)
A) T/C602 B) T/D602 C) T/A 602 D) T/B602
7. During TSL working, the speed of first train shall be ___ kmph (C)
A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) Run at their booked speed
8. During TSL working, the speed of second and subsequent trains shall ___ (D)
A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) Run at their booked speed
9. During TSL working, when the train is proceeding on wrong line, the train shall be piloted
out on a (B)
A) written authority issued by the SCOR B) written authority issued by the SM
C) written authority issued by the GD D) Any of the above
10. During TIC on double line __ is the ATP authorizing the LP to proceed with a restricted
speed of __ kmph (A)
A) T/C602, 25/10 B) T/C602, 15/10 C) T/B602, 25/10 D) T/B602, 15/10
11. When trains are dealt on T/C 602, the time interval between two trains shall be __
minutes (D)
A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 30
12. During TIC on double line, when a train is stopped in the block section on account of
accident, Guard shall protect the train by placing one detonator at __ meters and two
detonators, 10 meters apart, at __ meters from the train (D)
A) 600,1200 B) 90,180 C) 250,270 D) 250,500
13. During TIC on double line, if no one from the station turns up within 10minutes, Guard
shall protect the train in rear and ALP may be sent to station. (A)
A) 10 B) 20 C) 5 D) 0
14. Light engine/vehicle which is going to open communication shall proceed on authority
(B)
A) T/A602 B) T/B602 C) T/J602 D) T/I602
15. When enquiry is made for more than one train during TIC on single line, __ forms are
given to the light engine/vehicle which is going to open communication (A)
A) T/B 602 & T/E 602 B) T/B 602 & T/I 602
C) T/C 602 & T/E 602 D) T/C 602 & T/I 602
16. Light engine/vehicle, which is going for opening of communication, shall proceed with a
restricted speed of 15/10kmph (B)
A) 15/8 B) 15/10 C) 10/8 D) 25/10
17. After opening communication conditional line clear ticketis ATP for the light
engine/vehicle to come back (C)
A) Paper line clear ticket B) conditional line clear ticket
C) Pilot in Memo D) Pilot out Memo
18. UP/DN CLCT is prepared in Form No. T/G 602 or T/H 602 (B)
A) T/A 602 or T/B 602 B) T/G 602 or T/H 602 C) T/E 602 or T/I 602 D)T/C
602 or T/D 602
19. When there is even flow of trains, enquiry and reply messages are sent through the (C)
A) Points man B) Off duty SM C) The Guard of the preceding train D) None of the
above
20. If enquiry is made for more than one train and reply is also received, the second train
can be allowed to go with a restricted speed of _ kmph, after a clear interval of __
minutes (C )
A) 25/10, 10 C) 25/10, 30 C) 15/8, 30 D) 25/10, 15
21. If it is required to dispatch a relief engine or relief train into obstructed block section, it
can be dispatched by issuing T/A 602 (A)
A) T/A602 B) T/B602 C) T/C602 D) T/D602
22. If a passenger train/goods train does not turn up even after normal running time and
10/20minutes, SM shall arrange to send competent railway servant (B)
A) 20/10 B) 10/20 C) 15/10 D) 15/20
23. When engine disabled, if the LP expects that putting the engine in working order will take
more than 5 minutes, he will request the Guard to arrange for a relief engine ( A)
A) 15 B) 10 C) 5 D) 30
24. If LP enters block section without authority and subsequently sends his ALP with a
memo to SM in rear, that SM shall give PLCT (B)
A) Caution order B) PLCT C) Pilot out memo D) CLCT
25. If LP enters block section without authority and subsequently sends his ALP with a
memo to SM in advance, that SM shall give Caution Order (A)
B) Caution order B) PLCT C) Pilot out memo D) CLCT
26. When a train parts, if the LP finds it necessary to proceed to the station ahead, he shall,
on approaching the station give one long, one short, one long, one short whistle and act
as per aspects of signals of station/gate (B)
A) one short, one long, one short,one long B) one long, one short, one long, one short
C) One long, two short D) Two short, one long
27. During divided train working, the Guard will prepare a written permission in the form
(T/609) in duplicate and give to LP to proceed to the next station (B)
A) Single copy B) Duplicate C) Triplicate D) Four copies
28. During night or thick foggy or tempestuous weather impairing visibility, the second
portion of the train left in section shall be protected in the front by Guard (A)
A) night or thick foggy or tempestuous weather impairing visibility
B) Day or thick foggy or tempestuous weather impairing visibility
C) Night or tempestuous weather impairing visibility
D) D)night or thick foggy weather
29. During divided train working, on approaching the station, the LP shall stop at home
signal even though it is OFF and give _______ whistles. (A)
A) _0_0 B) 0_0_ C) 0 0 _ _ D) _ _ 0 0
30. When a train without guard is divided in the section, after dropping the first portion,
light engine returning to pick up second portion shall proceed on T/A 602authority (B)
A) T/609 B) T/A602 C) T/B602 D) T/C602
31. In case of fire accident in a passenger carrying train, the first objective to be achieved is
to save life and property (C)
A) Clear the section B) Record coach number
C) save life and property D) Inquire about incident
32. Water shall not be used for extinguishing fires on electrical equipment (B)
A) Sand B) Water C) Fire extinguishers D) All the above
CHAPTER – 7, 8 & 9
1. The system of working used between Lingampally – Secunderabad junction – Moula Ali
of SC division is ____ (A)
A) Absolute block system B) Automatic block system
C) One train only system D) Pilot train system
2. On SCR single line, automatic block system is used between Vijayawada Jn. And
Krishna Canal Jn. (3rdline) (A)
A) BZA and KCC (3Rd line) B) SC and KZJ C) BZA and MTM D)LPI and HYB
3. The automatic signal shall not assume OFF position unless the line is clear not only up
to the next automatic signal but also for any adequate distance of not less than
120meters on double line. (A)
A) 120 B)180 C)150 D)300
4. Automatic stop signal is identified by ‘A’ marker board (B)
A) Illuminated ‘A’marker B) ‘A’ Marker C) ‘G’Marker D) Both B and C
5. Semi-automatic stop signal is identified by illuminated ‘A’ marker light when working as
automatic signal (A)
A) Illuminated ‘A’marker B) ‘A’ Marker C) ‘G’Marker D) Both A and C
6. Normal aspect of automatic signal is proceed (C)
A) Caution B) STOP C) proceed D) Attention
7. All Guards, LPs, ALPs, Motormen who are required to work in automatic block system
shall undergo one day intensive training and a certificate shall be renewed once in__ (D)
A) One Year B) Six years C) Three years D) Six months
8. When LP passes an automatic signal at ON, he shall observe an SR of 10kmph (C)
A) 10/8 B) 15/10 C) 10 D) 15/8
9. The Guard shall show a stop hand signals towards the rear when the train has been
stopped at an automatic stop signal. (B)
A) Proceed B) STOP C) No Hand signal D) None of the above
10. After passing an automatic signal at ON, the LP of the following train hauled by any loco
shall ensure that a minimum distance of 150meters is maintained between his train and
preceding train. The distance may be reduced to 75meters in case of EMU train (D)
A) 150,120 B) 75,150 C) 120,75 D) 150,75
11. When LSS fails on single line automatic block system, T/C 1425 (UP) or T/D 1425 (DN)
and the written authority in the prescribed form ___ shall be given to LP of the train. (D)
A) PLCT+T/B 912 B) PLCT+ T/C912 C) T/369 (3b)+ 10 KMPH C.O D) PLCT+T/A912
12. When LSS fails on double line automatic block system, T/369(3b)shall be given to LP of
the train to go with a restricted speed of 10kmph (C)
A) PLCT+T/B 912 B) PLCT+ T/C912
B) C) T/369 (3b)+ 10 KMPH C.O D) PLCT+T/A912
13. When a train is stopped in an automatic block signaling section on single line and train
cannot proceed further, the Guard shall protect in rear duly placing one detonator at
90meters and 2 detonators, 10 meters apart at 180meters (B)
A) 90,190 B) 90,180 C) 600,1200 D) 250,500
14. During prolonged failure of signals but communications are available on double line
automatic block system, the authority given to LP T/D 912. The LP of first train shall go
with a restricted speed of 25kmph (D)
A) T/912, 25 B) T/B912 ,25/10 C)T/C 912,15 D)T/D912, 25
15. When signals and communication fail on double line automatic block system, the
authority given to the LP is T/B 912which authorizes the LP to go with a restricted speed
of 25/10kmph (B)
A) T/912, 25 B) T/B912 ,25/10 C)T/C 912,15 D)T/D912, 25
16. The time interval between two trains during signal and communication failure on double
line automatic block system shall be 15minutes (C)
A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 30
17. During TSL working automatic block system, the first train proceeding on right line
when signal and communications are working shall proceed on T/D 602 & T/A
912authorities (D)
A) T/D602 B) T/A912 C) PN D) Both A & B
18. During TSL working automatic block system when signals and communications are
working, the second and subsequent trains proceeding on right line shall proceed on
private numbers (C)
A) T/D602 B) T/A912 C) PN D) Both A & B
19. The first train running in the wrong direction during TSL working on automatic block
system shall proceed with a restricted speed of 25kmph ( C)
A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) Normal Speed
20. The second and subsequent trains running in the wrong direction during TSL working
on automatic block system shall proceed with a speed of normal speed (D)
A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) Normal Speed
21. Authority to dispatch a light engine on single line automatic block system during
prolonged failure of all signals when no communications are available is T/B 602 (B)
A) T/A912 B) T/B912 C)T/C 912 D) T/D 912
22. To dispatch a relief loco/train into the occupied block section T/C 912is given as the
ATP for the relief loco/train in the automatic block system. (B)
A) T/C 602 B) T/C 912 C) T/B 602 D) T/B912
23. Relief loco/train shall proceed with a restricted speed of 15/10kmph. (C)
A) 10/8 B)15/8 C)15/10 D) 25/10
24. A fixed signal which can be operated either as an automatic stop signal or a manual stop
signal, as required, is called semi-automatic stop signal (B)
A) Automatic stop signal B) Semi-automatic stop signal C) A or B D) A and B
25. Gate stop signal in automatic signaling territory is distinguished by the provision of ‘G’
marker and illuminated ‘A’ marker when gate is closed condition. (A)
A) ‘G ‘ Marker B) ‘A’ Marker C) ‘P’ Marker D) None of the above
26. When gate signal in automatic signaling territory is at ON and ‘A’ marker is illuminated,
LP shall follow the rules of passing automatic signal at ON (B )
A) Gate B) Automatic C) Both A and B D) A or B
27. When gate signal in automatic signaling territory is at ON and ‘A’ marker is not
illuminated, LP shall follow the rules of passing gatesignal at ON till he passes the gate
and further follow the rules of passing automatic signal at ON (C )
A) Gate B) Automatic C) Both A and B D) A or B
28. LP shall pass a semi-automatic signal with extinguished ‘A’ marker at ON, on receipt of
written authority T/369 (3b) & PHS (D)
A) T/A912 B) T/A912+ PHS C) T/369 (3b) D) T/369
(3b) + PHS
CHAPTER – 14, 15 16 & 17

1. OFF position of LSS is the normal authority to proceed on single line token less sections
or double line sections (A)
A) Off position of LSS B) Off position of Home C) Toke issuing D) PHS of SM
2. At stations where cabin is not provided, the Guard of the train, after verifying the last
vehicle is standing clear of the fouling mark, shall give an all right signal to SM by
waving his arm by day and a white light by night (B)
A) green light B) white light C) green flag D) both arms
3. On double line or on single line when block instrument is defective PLCT is given as ATP
for the LP (C)
A) T369(3)b B) T369(1) C)PLCT D)shunt key
4. Integrated block means blocking of a portion of line for maintenance work by more than
one department (D)
A) Combined B) engineering C) Multiple D) Integrated
5. Shadow block means a block, availed from either end of the block section between two
block stations simultaneously (B)
A) Combined B) Shadow C) Multiple D) Integrated
6. Number of material trains permitted during the line block or integrated block or shadow
block is only one (D)
A) 2 B) more than 2 C) One Loco and one train D) one
7. During line/integrated/shadow block, if the units are allowed on to the wrong line, units
shall be piloted out on pilot out memo after ensuring correct setting, clamping and
padlocking of the points (A)
A) Pilot out memo B) T369(3)b C) PLCT D) PLCT+PHS
8. During line block, to receive the units coming on right line, the first unit can be received
on reception signals and the following units will be admitted on calling-on signal or
written authority __ (C)
A) T511 B) T602C C) T509 D)T509A
9. During line /shadow block, if the units are coming on the wrong line, units shall be
received on __ after ensuring correct setting, clamping and padlocking of the points (B)
A) Pilot out memo B)pilot-in memo C) taking off signals of right line D) T369(3)b
10. When the train is required to stop and the restriction is likely to last only for a day or
less, a banner flag shall be exhibited at a distance of 600 meters on BG. In addition, stop
hand signal shall be shown at a distance of 30meters from the place of obstruction, at
the banner flag and at a distance of 45 meters from the 3 detonators (A)
A) 600 & 30 B) 400 & 30 C) 1200 & 600 D) 180 & 90
11. Stop indicator is located at 30 meters from the obstruction (A)
A) 30 B) 90 C) 1200 D) 45
12. Speed indicator is located at 30 metersfrom the obstruction (A)
A) 30 B) 90 C) 1200 D) 45
13. ___ indicators are caution indicator, speed indicator, stop indicator and termination
indicator (C)
A) safety B) block section C) engineering D) track
14. Caution indicator is located at 1200 meters before the spot on BG and _ meters on MG (A)
A)800 B) 90 C) 1200 D) 180
15. After stopping at the stop indicator, the LP shall sign in the __ book and proceed with
8kmph (A)
A) ER-7 B) ER-1 C)ER-8 D) ER-stop and proceed
16. When major work such as relaying and re-gardening is in progress a speed restriction of
50kmph shall be observed on the adjoining line of double line or multiple line section (D)
A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D)50
17. When water over tops the ballast level but is below rail level, the track should be walked
over by two men abreast one at either end of the sleepers (C)
A) track B)ballast C) Sleepers D) Locomotive
18. When water over tops the rail __ shall certify by walking over and probing that the track
is safe and allow the train to go at a speed not exceeding 8 kmph (D)
A) gang man B) AEN C) Guard D) PWI
19. When SMs of both ends received trolley/lorry notice, they shall stop all the trains
entering into the section and issue _____ (A)
A) T409 B)T/A409 C) PLCT D) pilot out memo
20. Neutral section lies between two consecutive sub-stations (B)
A) Block-stations B) Sub- stations C) Automatic- sections D) Both A and C
21. Danger zone means the zone lying within 2meters radius around any live equipment (A)
A) 2 B) 2.5 C) 3 D)5
22. Engine crew of all trains shall report any defect/irregularity noticed in the OHE to ( C)
A) PRC B) TLC C) TPC/SCOR D) None of the above
23. Warning boards shall be fixed on the OHE masts in rear of neutral sections at a distance
of 500 and 250meters respectively ( A)
A) 500,250 B) 300,200 C) 180,120 D) 90,190
24. The speed of the train while passing through neutral section shall not be less than __
kmph (C)
A) 25 B) 10 C) 30 D) 8
25. During power block ___ trains are only permitted to run (B)
A) Electrical B) Diesel C) A and B D) A or B
26. The Guard shall not allow the train with the ODC to enter the section (electrified) until
the permit-to- work is received by TPC (A)
A) TPC B) DOM C) DEN D) PWI
ACCIDENT MANUAL
1. Accidents are classified ___ (D)
A) Train, yard accidents B) Indicative accidents
C) Equipment failue & Unusual incidents D) All the above
2. An example of consequential train accident is collision, fire, LC gate & derailment (A)
A) Collision, fire, LC gate & derailment B) SPAD, averted collision & breach of block
C) SPAD & Fire D) Breach of block
3. An example of indicative accident is ____ (B)
A) Collision, fire, LC gate & derailment
B) SPAD, averted collision & breach of block rules
C) Yard Derailment
D) Equipment Failure
4. Train passing signal at danger is classified under indicative accidents (C)
A) train B) yard C) indicative D) equipment failure & unusual incidents
5. In an accident if the damage to railway property the value of which exceeding Rs. 2
crores, such accident shall be treated as a ___ accident (C )
A) Major B) Minor C) Serious D) Normal
6. For statistical purpose, accidents have been classified under categories ‘A’ to ‘R’,
excluding I and O (D)
A) Q and O B) I and J C) K and L D) I and O
7. If, outside the station limits, the distance between the two trains is 400 metersor more,
such occurrence may not be treated as averted collision (B)
A) 200 Meters B) 400 Meters C) 100 Meters D) 300 Meters
8. When SM receives message about unsafe condition of tanks, rivers and bunds, he shall
stop the train and issue CO to observe ____ and reduce speed as necessary (C)
A) Speed restriction B) Caution C) Special Caution D) 10 Kmph
9. When persons are knocked down or run over and dead, no responsible person is
available, body shall be handed over to nearest gate lodge or next station in the direction
of movement (B)
A) Police station, gate lodge B) Gate lodge, Next station
C) Police station, Hospital D) Any of the above
10. When murder took place in a second class or sleeper class compartment, the carriage
will be detached at the station where the crime was detected (C)
A) BPC issued B) Crew Changed
C) Crime was detected D) Separate shunting staff available
11. As per classifications, collisions come under class (A)
A) A B) B C) C D) H
12. As per classifications, fire in train come under class B (B)
A) A B) B C) C D) H
13. An example of breach of block rules is _______________________ (A)
A) train dispatch/received from/on wrong line B) Fire on train
C) Derailment D) Gate open
14. Accident siren 3 long indicates _____ (B)
A) outstation main line is obstructed B) outstation main line clear
C) Yard accident D) outstation main line clear and MRT Required
15. Accident siren when accident takes place at out station, main line obstructed and MRT
required is (D)
A) 2long B) 3long 1 short C) 3 long D) 4 long 1 short
16. The target time for turning out ART is ___ minutes by day and ___ minutes by night (A)
A) 30 and 45 B) 45 and 30 C) 15 and20 D) 20 and15
17. The target time for turning out MRT is _____ minutes for direct/indirect dispatch (C )
A) 30/45 B) 45/30 C) 15/20 D) 20/15
18. Mock drills for ART shall be conducted once in __ months (B)
A) A Month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) A year
19. Rainfall above __cm in 24 hours is considered as dangerous for running trains (B)
A) 2 B) 5 C) 8 D) 10
20. Heavy wind above ___kmph is considered dangerous for running trains (D)
A) 25 B) 50 C) 60 D) 65
21. SCR is divided into ___zones for the purpose of weather warning (B)
A) 5 B) 7 C) 6 D) 8
22. Whenever accident takes place, GLP has to prepare report in form no. ___respectively (D)
A) Acc-1 B) Acc-9 C) Acc-12 C) Acc-3
23. The amount of compensation to be paid in case of death in railway accident is (A)
A) 4 lakhs B) 6 lakhs C) 3 lakhs D) 12 lakhs
24. The claim for compensation shall be made within __ from the date of accident through__
(B)
A) 6 months, CAT B) 1 year, RCT C) 6 MONTHS, RCT D) 1 YEAR, CAT
*****END*****
ALCO LOCOMOTIVES
1. When emergency brake application is done through A-9 in flasher light modified loco the
condition of loco will be (A)
(A) Loco comes to idle and nothing else happens
(B) Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on
(C)Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows
(D) Loco does not come to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows
2. Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is (C)
(A) Kg/cm2 (B) Pound / inch (C) Wagon reading (D) Km/h
3. How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has (A)
(A) Two position setting (B) One position setting
(C)Three position setting (D) No different setting
4. Air supply for horn is from.. (A)
(A) MR-1 tank (B) MR-2 tank (C) J‟ filter (D) HS-4
5. Overcharging (In air brake system) feature is applied by which air brake valve (C)
(A)C3 W distributor valve (B) VA-1B control valve
(C)C2-W relay valve (D) VA-1 release valve
6. Above C2- relay diaphragm air pressure comes from (A)
(A) A-9 valve (B) SA-9 valve (C) MR pressure (D) Synchronization on
pressure
7. Duplex check valve operates when MR pressure reaches at pressure (kg/cm2) (A)
(A)5 kg/cm2 (B) 6kg/cm2 (C) Always open (D) 10 kg/cm2
8. Max. Permissible time for loco brake release in seconds is. The loco fitted with chock in C2
relay valve. (C)
(A) 50 sec (B) 40 sec (C) 24 sec (D) 30 sec
9. In automatic switching on flasher light modification of locos the TDR (time delay relay)
is set at... (C)
(A)40 sec (B) 15 sec (C) 60 sec (D) 120 sec
10. The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is (C)
(A) Orange (B) Purple (C) Blue (D) White
11. Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to (PSI) (A)
(A) 100 PSI (B) 200 PSI (C) 150 PSI (D) Immediately as loco start
12. Thread diameter of BP & FP angle cocks (in inch) is... (D)
(A) 1” (B) 3” (C) 2” (D) 1¼ “
13. MR safety valve is set at pressure (in kg/cm2) (C)
(A) 10.0 kg/cm 2 (B) 6.0 kg/cm 2 (C) Above 10.5 kg/cm 2 (D) Below 6.0 kg/cm2
14. When 7.5-mm dia hole palm end is fitted in BP pipe, the change in BP pressure is (C)
(A) Should remain same in one minute
(B) Should fall below 4.0 kg/cm2 in one minute
(C) Should not fall below 4.0 kg/cm2 in one minute
(D) Should come down to 3 cm in one minute
15. Auto drain valve blows during (B)
(A) Loading of compressor (B) Unloading of compressor
(C) When „MR safety valve blow (D) MR pressure is above 10.5 kg/cm2
16. Feed valve is charged from (A)
(A) MR-1 tank (B) MR-2 tank (C) “J” filter (D) BP pipe
17. When driver is working from right control stand and A-9 is applied from left control
stand in emergency position, what will happen? (A)
(A) Loco will come to idle (B) Loco will not come to idle
(C) Loco will shutdown (D) Only BP will drop and nothing else will happen
18. Additional C-2 relay valve is used in air brake system for (B)
(A) MR pipe charging (B) BP pipe charging
(C) Vacuum train pipe charging (D) Feed pipe charging
19. When does auto drain check valve operates (B)
(A) At the time of loading of compressor (B) At the time of loading of compressor
(C) In above both cases (D) When loading/unloading of compressor is defective
20. MR pressure outlet pipe of air flow measuring valve goes to (B)
(A) C-2 relay valve (B) Ad(D) C-2 relay valve
(C) A-9 brake valve (D) SA-9 brake valve
21. In case BP pressure is fluctuating the possible defect is in which valve (B)
(A) C-2 relay valve defective (B) Add C2 relay valve is defective
(C) SA-9 is defective (D) C3W distributor valve is defective
22. Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm).... (A)
(A) 5.0 mm (B) 6.0 mm (C) 7.0 mm (D) 8.0 mm
23. Exhaust choke size of additional C-2 relay valve is (in mm)..... (C)
(A) 5.0 mm (B) 5.5 mm (C) 6.0 mm (D) 6.5 mm
24. Air supply to power contractor is from (A)
(A) MR-1 (B) MR-2 (C) BP pressure (D) FP Pressure
25. In lead position of MU2B valve which ports dose not connect with each other (C)
(A) 2&20 (B) 53&63 (C) 13&30 (D) 3&13
26. The governor of air compressor get supply from...... . (A)
(A) MR-1 pressure (B) MR-2 pressure (C) BP pressure (D) (B)(C) pressure
27. To operate sander valve the air supply is received from (A)
(A) MR-1 pressure (B) MR-2 pressure (C) BP pressure (D) (B)(C) pressure
28. During which stroke both valves closed (B)
(A) Suction (B) Compression (C) Power (D) Exhaust
29. How many cam shaft bushes are fitted in one 16 cylinder block (C)
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20
30. How many teeth are in split gear (D)
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 36
31. During setting of cam gear timing which piston is kept atTDC (A)
(A) R-1 (B) L-1 (C) R-8 (D) L-8
32. In WDM-2c loco, how many counter weights are on one crankshaft? (C)
(A) 2 Nos. (B) 3 Nos. (C) 8 Nos. (D) 4 Nos.
33. Main crankshaft vibration damper is fitted near which main bearings (in WDM-2)locos (D)
(A) No-5 (B) No-7 (C) No-9 (D) No-1
34. In Alco loco, single exhaust manifolds have following no. of pieces (B)
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 5
35. Water pump is driven from........................... . (C)
(A) Split gear (B) Cam gear (C) Extension shaft gear (D) Main generator gear
36.Lube oil pump is driven from........................... . (C)
(A) Split gear (B) Cam gear (C)Extension shaft gear (D) Main generator gear (A)
37.Universal shaft is used to drive radiator fan because (C)
(A) It is rigid (B) It is strong
(C) It is self again (D) It is weak
38.GE Governor is operated………………. (B)
(A) (A) Mechanically (B) (B) Hydraulically
(C) (C) Pneumatically (D) (D) None of these
39. TSC surging on higher notches is due to …………. (D)
(A) Excess fuel rack (B) Chocked air maize
(C) Less area of nozzle ring (D) Any of the above
40. Hammering sound is coming from engine is due to … ………… (D)
(A) Exhaust valve bend (B) Fuel cam worn out
(C) X-head roller worn out (D) Any of the above
40. Smoke is coming from „SMOKE‟ hole of cylinder Head indicates……………. (A)
(A) Injector seal is not proper (B) Over torquing
(C) Injector crack (D) Injector not fitted
41. Engine air inlet elbow bolt torquing is done at …………… (D)
(A) 150 ft. lbs (B) 40 ft. lbs
(C) 30 ft. lbs (D) 75 ft. lbs
42. TSP treatment is done for……………….. (A)
(A) To remove scaling (B) To decrease the cooling efficiency
(C) To avoid any chemical reaction (D) To improve chloride value
(E)
44.When hot engine alarm is operated, the condition of loco comes to (B)
(A) Idle (B) Run on same speed
(C) Shut down (D) None of above
45.What is the unit of S.F.(C) (Specific Fuel consumption) (A)
(A) gm/hp/hr. (B) Liters/Kwhr/minutes
(C) Kg/Newton/hr (D) None
46.The temperature difference between the two consecutive main bearings should not
exceed by (C)
(A) 5 C (B) 2 C
(C) 10 C (D) 20 C
47.CCE motor giving thick black smoke is due to (A)
(A) Increase liner wear (B) Valve guide clearance more
(C) TSC rotor defective (D) Fuel motor defective
48.Fuel test cock pressure is used for checking ………….. (C)
(A) Lube oil pressure dropping (B) Booster pressure dropping
(C) Fuel pressure dropping (D) Air pressure dropping
49.Exhaust gas temperature at ABB TSC inlet is ………. (C)
(A) 700 C (B) 600 C
(C) 450 C (D) 750 C
50.Exhaust gas temperature at ALCO TSC inlet is ……… (B)
(A) 300 C (B) 590 C
(C) 400 C (D) 800 C
51.Which of the following is the reason of hot engine (D)
(A) ETS setting defective (B) Radiator fan not working
(C) Radiator fins chocked (D) Any of above
52.Engine giving blueish smoke indicates…………… . (C)
(A) Water mix in fuel oil (B) Injector hole chocked partially
(C) Cylinder head valve guide (D) FIP delivery less
clearance more
53.White smoke given by engine is due to …….. (C)
(A) FIP not responding (B) Tappet phasing disturbs
(C) Cylinder head crack internally (D) X-head having abnormal sound
54.For the same HP and bore size, which engine will be heavier (B)
(A) Petrol engine (B) Diesel engine
(C) Jet engine (D) None of the above
55. Reverser Contactor used on diesel loco is …… (A)
(A) To change the direction of field (B) To use the Dynamic braking
(C) To pass the power supply to (D) None of the above
T/Motors
56. Minimum RPM of engine with low idle feature is (C)
(A) 390 (B) 410
(C) 350 (D) 370
57.Which of the following is not the safety item of locomotive (C)
(A) OST (B) LWS
(C) Governor (D) ACP
58. BAP is not building up due to ………. (D)
(A) TSC rotor jam (B) Gov. defective
(C) Air Intel gasket burst (D) Any one of above
59. Which of the following is not the reason of low BAP (D)
(A) Unmodified FIP (B) Unmodified after cooler
(C) Radiators fins chocked (D) None of these
60. Which of the following is not item of fuel efficient loco (C)
(A) Steel cap piston (B) Modified FIP
(C) ALCO TSC (D) Large After Cooler
61.Which of the following statement is not true (D)
(A) Comp. Ratio in diesel engine is more then Petrol engine.
(B) For high HP diesel engine are use(D)
(C) Ignition in diesel engines takes place by comp. of air.
(D) For the same HP diesel Engine are lighter as compare to Petrol engine.
62.What are the possible causes of injector not responding (D)
(A) Injector nozzle hole chocked (B) Phasing on up position
(C) Fuel cam lob damage (D) Any of the above
63.What is the delivery of unmodified FIP on test bench at full rack position (B )
(A) 400 CC (B) 350 CC
(C) 425CC (D) 500 CC
64.Which of the following is prime mover (A)
(A) Engine (B) Traction Generator
(C) Traction Motor (D) None of the above
65.High viscosity indicates (C)
(A) Mixing of water in lube oil (B) Mixing of fuel in lube oil
(C) Mixing of carbon contents (D) None of these
66.What is the cause of increase silicon in lube oil (C)
(A) Linear wear (B) X-head wear
(C) Dust (D) Water leakage
67.Cyl. Head hydraulic testing is done at (A)
(A) 5.0 kg/cm2 (B) 10.0 kg/cm2
(C) 7.5 kg/cm 2 (D) 2.5 kg/cm2
68.In scavenging period burnt gases are pushed out by (A)
(A) Fresh air (B) By burnt gases
(C) By TSC (D) Nothing of these
69. During over lapping period inlet and exhaust valve remain in (B)
(A) Closed position (B) Open position
(C) Open & close position (D) Nothing of these
70.Engine hunting is due to (A)
(A) Rake movement not free (B) Excess fuel pressure
(C) Low fuel pressure (D) Nothing of these
71.Low phasing means (A)
(A) After burning of fuel (B) Correct burning of fuel
(C) Without burning of fuel (D) Nothing of these
72.Engine given thick black smoke due to (A)
(A) Low BAP (B) Less fuel oil level
(C) Defective CCE motor (D) Defective manifold
74.In fuel injection pump (FIP) meaning of “No Fuel Position “ is (A)
(A) Helix of plunger is to be in front (B) Helix of plunger is to be
of spill port separated from split port
(C) Either or above (D) None of these
75.Out of which safety device, engine comes to idle (C)
(A) OST (B) LWS
(C) ACP (D) Low lube oil indication
76. ECC (Eddy current clutch), clutching of inner and outer drum is through (C)
(A) Mech. Clutch (B) Electrical clutch
(C) Magnetic clutch (D) By pulley arrangement
77. ETS-2 is set at temp. Degree centigrade (B)
(A) 64 0C (B) 68 0C
(C) 90 C0 (D) 86 0C
78. Total numbers of carbon brushes used in BKBL/Grid blower motors are (C)
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 8 (D) 6
79. Tacho-generator have total numbers of magnetic poles (C)
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 8
80. Total numbers of interlopes fitted in Traction Generator GE type are (C)
(A) 10 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 8
81 Tacho generator output voltage is … (C)
(A) A/C single phase (B) DC
(C) A/C three phase (D) Pulsating DC
(E)
82. Which solenoids are operate on idle condition in WW Gov. (D)
(A) A Solenoid (B) B Solenoid
(C) A Solenoid (D) None
83. Which solenoid operated when LWS worked in WW Gov. is (C)
(A) C Solenoid (B) B Solenoid
(C) D Solenoid (D) None
84.Low lube oil shut down pressure setting in WW governor fitted locomotive. (B)
(A) 2.0 Kg/cm2 (B) 1.3 Kg/cm2
(C) 2.5 Kg/cm 2 (D) 3.0 Kg/cm2
85.On 3 notch solenoid operated in WW governor
rd (C)
(A) D Solenoid (B) A Solenoid
(C) C Solenoid (D) A-C Solenoids
86.In WW Governor which solenoid operated on operation of Low Lube oil plunger.
(D)
(A) C Solenoid (B) CD Solenoids
(C) AD Solenoids (D) None
87.Current rating of MB2 circuit breaker in WDM2, DC/DC loco is (D)
(A) 100 Amp (B) 250 Amp
(C) 200 Amp (D) 150 Amp
88. The higher temp. of the electrolyte in the battery caused life of battery to.. (C)
(A) Increased (B) No effect on life of battery
(C) Decreased (D) Excess temp. is must for good life
89. Blowing air pressure in TG/TA is recommended between… (B)
(A) 0.2 Kg/cm2 (B) 2 to 4 Kg/cm2
(C) 8 to 10Kg/cm2 (D) Pressure of the blowing air is not
specified
90. The function of slip rings in Traction Alternator is (B)
(A) Work as commutator (B) Work as a current collector
(C) Work for balancing of Tr. Alt. rotor (D) None of the above
91. The full form of SAR is a (C)
(A) Speed adjusting relay (B) Speed adjusting resistance
(C) Safety auxiliary relay (D) None of the above
92. Generator field cover load relay operating current limit is.. (C)
(A) 50 Amp (B) 100 Amp
(C) 280 Amp (D) 400 Amp
93. Which safety device is provided for diesel engine (C)
(A) Cattle Guard (B) Heat light
(C) LWS (D) F/Light
94. The function of Field Control Penal in diesel Electric locomotive is. (C)
(A) To control the head light voltage (B) To control the battery charging
voltage
(C) To control the exciter field (D) To control the Techo Generator
voltage voltage
95. Total nos. of capacitors used in power rectifier panel ofAC/DC locos are…… (A)
(A) 06 (B) 08
(C) 12 (D) 04
96. In AC/DC loco time delay relay (TDR) is provided for time delay of (C)
(A) 4 seconds (B) 8 seconds
(C) 1.8 seconds (D) 12 seconds
97. The generator used on WDM2 diesel locomotive is …… (B)
(A) Shunt Generator (B) Separately excited generator
(C) Compound generator (D) None of the above
98. The lubrication of roller bearings in Traction Alternator/ Traction Generator is done
by (C)
(A) Through greasing externally (B) No lubrication is required
(C) Through gear of Aux. Gen. (D) Once lubrication done during
Exciter & idler gear overhauling is sufficient
99. Which relay has lowest value of coil resistance…….. (B)
(A) ERR (B) GR
(C) ERR (D) ESR-1
100. GFLOR relay is provided in AC/DC locos for safety of (A)
(A) Phase to Phase shorting of Tr. Alt. (B) Flash over between GF contacts
(C) Earthing of Tr. Alternator (D) GF Contactor
101. If SAR relay is not energized what will happen (A)
(A) Engine will over speed (B) Engine will start
(C) Engine will start normally but GF (D) Engine will start normally but could
will not P/up not be notched up
102. OST RPM is adjusted by which SAR of ECP (C)
(A) SAR (B) 1
(C) SAR (D) 2
103. Welding of FS contactor tips will give the indication of (C)
(A) Ground relay operating (B) EP contactor fluctuating
(C) Wheel slip on Ist notch onwards (D) GF not picking up
104. If the reference voltage is more than 24.4 volts, the defects in (A)
(A) LCP (B) SP
(C) GCR (D) Pilot valve
105. In MU operation both the loco can be shut down through… (C)
(A) Stop Button (B) OST
(C) MUSD (D) Lube oil plunger
106. The combination of Tr. Motors across WSR-1 in parallel is (A)
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 4
107. The combination of Tr. Motors across WSR-3 in parallel is (D)
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 2 (D) 5
108. The gap between ECC slip rings & brush holder is to be kept (C)
(A) 5mm (B) 8mm
(C) 2mm (D) 15mm
109. Reverser Contactor used on diesel loco is …… (A)
(A) To change the direction of field (B) To use the Dynamic braking
(C) To pass the power supply to (D) None of the above
T/Motors
110. What is the minimum Head light Focusing distance required in the locomotives
provided with electrical headlight? (D)
(A) 100 meters (B) 1000 meters
(C) 2000 meters (D) 250 meters andAbove
111 . When OPS drops or LLOB trips, the engine will_______. (B)
(A) Raise (B) Shutdown
(C) Comes to Idle (D) Hunting
112 . Expressor lube oil pump is driven by____________ (B)
(A) Gear (B) Chain
(C) Motor (D) Belt
113 one of the following is the equipment in Nose Compartment (C)
(A) MR1 (B) MR2
(C) Control air pressure (D) All the above
Reservoir
114 114. What is the effective Rundown test timing (in seconds) of NAPIER
Turbo? In seconds (C )
(A) 120 to 200 (B) 90 to 180
(D) 200 to 280
(C) 25 to 65
115 If SAR coil is open circuited during cranking (C)
(A) GR trips (B) nothing willHappen
(C) OSTA trips (D) Throttle will not respond
116 If CK1 bridge interlock defect …………trouble. (A)
(A) not cranking (B) not holding
(C) ck1/ck2 fluttering (D) not firing
117 In WDM2 GE governor loco, when stop switch is presse(D)...will be
energize(D)(C)
(A) ESR4 (B) Clutch coil
(C) stabilising coil (D) SAR coil
118 On WDM2 if engine not cranking………….powercontactor NCI to be checke(D)(A)
(A) P22/S1 (B) P21/S1
(C) P22/S21 (D) P22/S31
119 TDR in WDM3a (cranking circuit) is set at (B)
(A) 1.5 minutes (B) 1.5seconds
(C) 2seconds (D) 1second
120 During cranking if engine not holding may be due to (D)

(A) CK1 bridge interlock (B) MUSD
(C) FPB (D) OPS
121 FS21 and FS22 coils get supply through these breaker (B)
(A) FPB (B) MFPB
(C) CCEB (D) MCB
122. While working on higher notches with full load if (B)(A)P is repeatedly dropping and
Raising is called (C)
(A) Sneezing (B) Hunting
(C) Surging (D) None
123. In WDM2 GE governor loco, when stop switch is pressed ------- will be energized (C)
(A) ESR4 (B) Clutch coil
(C) Stablising COIL (D) SAR coil.
124. On WDM2 if engine not cranking ---------- power contactor NCI to be checke(D) (A)
(A) P22/S1 (B) P21/S1
(C) P22/S21 (D) P22/S31
125. TDR in WDM3A (cranking circuit) is set at . (B)
(A) 1.5 minutes (B) 1.5 seconds
(C) 2 seconds (D) 1 second
126. During cranking if engine not holding may be due to . (D)
(A) CK1bridgeinterlock (B) MUSD
(C) FPB (D) OPS
127. FS21 and FS22 coils get supply through these breaker. (B)
(A) FPB (B) MFPB
(C) CCEB (D) MCB
128. Stabilising and clutch coil get supply through these brakers. (D)
(A) FPB (B) CCEB
(C) MCB (D) MFPB
129. ECC coil get supply through braker. (A)
(A) FPB (B) CCEB
(C) MCB (D) MFPB
130. For 10 minutes time gained by loco ------- ltrs of fuel is allowe(D). (C)
(A) 25 (B) 35
(C) 50 (D) 60
131. In fuel oil system -------- type of filters are use(D) (D)
(A) Socks type (B) Foam type
(C) Mesh type (D) Paper type
132. Now a days the following item is remove on WDM2. (B)
(A) Transition switch (B) Lube oil by pass
(C) VCD system (D) Vacuum brake
133. While on run if SPM drops to zero and transition also drops it may be due to (D)
(A) Emergency brake (B) ACP
(C) Defect in mother card (D) ADA dropped/defective
134. When wheel is floated speed is restricted ---- kmph (B)
(A) 25 (B) 30
(C) 35 (D) 40
135. WDM2 expressor is having ---------- couplings. (A)
(A) Fast and flexible (B) CBC and Baby
(C) ABC and fast (D) Universal and flexible
136. Excess Brake cylinder pressure can cause (C)
(A) Quick speed drop (B) Train brakes not required
(C) Wheel skidding (D) Dynamic brake not necessary
137. Is SAR coil open circuited during (A)
(A) GR trips (B) Nothing will happen
(C) OSTA trips (D) Throttle will not respond
138. If CK1 bridge interlock defect------ trouble (A)
(A) Not cranking (B) Not holding
(C) Ck1/ck2 fluttering (D) Not firing
139. If batteries are weak during cranking can be identified by (A)
(A) Battery ammeter (B) Fluttering of CK1, CK2
(C) Starting lamp (D) Smoke from batteries
140. GFC not picking up in motoring due to (A)
(A) Ck1 welded (B) ECS run
(C) Rev. at motoring (D) Throttle notch 1
141. LWS is connected to (B)
(A) Water left side return header (B) Water expansion tank
(C) Water right side return header (D) All the above
142. Main reservoir (compressed air pressure) unloading will takes place at ---- kg/cm2.
(C)
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11
143. N1 reducing valve is located in (C)
(A) Radiator room (B) Expressor room
(C) Nose compartment (D) Rear
144. If the VRR fuse is fused, the ------ indication will come. (D)
(A) CK1 and CK2 contactor (B) Battery over charging
(C) Green lamp and engine idle (D) Battery discharge
145. N1 reducing valve is located in (C)
(A) Radiator room (B) Expressor room
(C) Nose compartment (D) Rear
146. From where the control air pressure will get air pressure ---------- (B)
(A) MR2 (B) MR1
(C) BKTs (D) J filter
147. Water leaking continuously form water telltale pipe (B)
(A) Dummy it and work further (B) Fail the loco
(C) Do fast pumping (D) Work on lower notches
148. Cooling water capacity in WDM2 Locomotive is ----- liters. (D)
(A) 900 (B) 910
(C) 1300 (D) 1210
149. During one of the following occasions Hot engine alarm indication will get. (C)
(A) Continuous 8 th notch (B) Excess load
(C) Water pump not working (D) Full water in expansion tank
150. The rundown test of NAPIER turbo is to be conducted on ------- notch. (A)
(A) Idle (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 2
151. Lube oil filter drum is located in (D)
(A) Nose compartment (B) Generator room
(C) Engine block (D) Radiator room
152. How many kinds of brakes are provided on diesel locomotive WDM2 (A)
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 9
153. GFC not picking up in motoring due to . (A)
(A) CK1 WELDED (B) ECS RUN
(C) REV. at motoring (D) Throttle notch 1
154. Main reservoir ( compressed air pressure) unloading will takes place at --- kg/cm2
(C)
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11
155. The VRR fuse is fused, the --------------- indication will come. (C)
(A) CK1 and ck2 contactor (B) Battery over charging
tips welded
(C) Green lamp and engine (D) Battery discharge
idele
157. In MU operation both the loco can be shut down through… (C)
(A) Stop Button (B) OST
(C) MUSD (D) Lube oil plunger
158. The combination of Tr. Motors across WSR-1 in parallel is (A)
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 4
159. DMR picking up in idle but dropping on opening throttle mean (C)
(A) Week DMR (B) DMR all interlocks defective
(C) Self interlocks defective (D) Out
160. The function of slip rings in Traction Alternator is (B)
(A)Work as commutator (B)Work as a current collector
(C)Work for balancing of Tr. Alt. (D)None of the above
rotor
161. If battery ammeter shows discharging, what should be checked on front panel (A)
(A) AGFB Breaker (B)MB1
(C)Battery knife switch (D)G.F.Switch
162. If engine is cranking but not firing with indication what may be the reason (A)
(A)LWS Operated (B)OSTA TRIPPED
(C)SAR Defective (D) All the above
163. If (B)A shows over charging due to defective battery, the following action to be
taken (A)
A) (B)S to be taken B) shut down the engine
C) Engine to be brought to Idle D) No action required
164. If engine is not cranking which contactors are to be checked (D)
A .FPC Contactor (B)BK1 contactor
(C)CK2 contactor (D)All the above
165. What happens if amphenol plug slack on run on GE governor loco’s (A)
(A) Engine shut down (B)Engine Idle
(C)Load meter not responding (D)no problem
166. In micro propulsion system for engine cranking which item to be used(GE) (B)
(A)start button (B)Engine starting switch
(C)Engine control switcg (D)None of the above
167. In Ac/DC loco’s engine is cranked by (B)
A .Main generator (B)Auxiliary& Exciter Generator
(C)Auxilitary Generator (D)Exciterganerator
168. If engine is not cranking which power contactor interlocks are to be checked (A)
(A)P22,S1 (B)P22,S2 (C)P22, S1 (D)P1,S1
169.What Is the reason if engine shutdown with out any indication on run in GE governor
(A)
(A)Tacho Generator failure (B)LWS
(C)OPS (D)LLOB
170 .What is the effect of GR tripping (D)
(A)load meter ZERO (B)Engine comes to idle
(C)GR indication with bell (D)All the above
171.If engine shutdown with hot engine alarm which safety device operates (B)
(A)ETS (B)LWS
(C)SAR (D)OPS
172.What happens if Amphenol plug slack on run on GE Gov. locos (A)
(A)Engine shut down (B)Engine idle
(C)Load meter not responding (D)no problem
173.If engine is running with HOT engine alarm which safety device is operated (A)
(A)ETS (B)LWS
(C)SAR (D)OPS
174. What is the effect of WSR (D)
(A)LM gradually drops to ZERO (B)sanders operate
(C)wheel slip indication with buzzer (D)all the above
175.if head light fails what is the action to be taken by the driver (B)
(A) fail the loco (B)Follow G&SR rule
(C)work with classification lights (D)work normally
176. what may be the reason for throttle is not responding (D)
(A)DMR De-energised (B)GR TRIPPING
(C)GFOLR Tripping (D)All the above
177. Which breaker is to be checked if engine shutdown on RUN (C)
(A)MB1 (B)MCB & MCB2
(C)FPB Tripped (D)All the above
178.what happens if Amphenol plug is slack on GE governor loco (B)
(A) Not cranking (B)Not firing
(C)Not holding (D)No problem
179. In AC/DC Locos during cranking which relay protects Auxiliary and Exciter
generator (C)
(A)SAR (B)GR
(C)TDR (D)WSR
180. If BKT or Reverser is not operating properly what is the action to be taken (B)
(A) Fail the loco (B)Operate Manually with L rod
(C)shutdown engine (D)engine idle
181. what is the reason if engine shutdown automatically on RUN (D)
(A)MB2 TRIPPED (B)MFPB1 &MFPB2 Tripped
(C)FPB Tripped (D)All the above
182. what is the effect if OPS is in stuck up in pickup condition while starting (B)
(A) Engine not cranking (B)Engine cranking but not firing
(C)Engine cranking, firing but not (D)All the above
holding
183. To get quick charging of BP which should be operated (B)
(A) SW1 & SW2 (B)SP1 & SP2
(C)MCB1 & MCB2 (D)MFPB1 & MFPB2
184.What is the purpose of VRP (C)
(A) To safe guard battery (B)To safe guard control circuit
(C)To maintain 72V (D)To safe guard loco pilot
irrespective of engine speed
185. In medha micro propulsion locos for isolating TM which item to be used (A)
(A) Toggle switch (B)spring loaded toggle switch
(C)Breaker (D)All the above
186. In place of AC governor, which governor is provided for compressor loading and
unloading (A)
(A) EPG (B)GE
(C)W.W (D)Run release
187. If OSTA is tripping condition while starting problem will be (B)
(A) Engine not cranking (B)Engine not firing
(C)Engine not holding (D)No problem
188. The purpose of 28 VB valve is for application of (C)
(A) Loco brakes B .formation brakes
(C) conjunctional brakes (D)All the above
189. During A9 emergency BP becomes (C)
(A) 3.5 kg/cm2 (B)2.5kg/cm2
(C)1.8kg/cm2 (D)None of the above
190. Due to train parting , if BP drops below 4.4kg/cm2 which pressure switch operates
(B)
(A) P1 (B)P2
(C)P1+P2 (D)None of the above
191. CAM gears are lubricated by, which headers (A)
(A) auxiliary header (B) cylinder header
(C)Water header (D)None Of the above
192. IF Fuel oil contaminated with lube oil, viscosity will be (B)
(A) more (B)less
(C)Nothing will happen (D)None of the above
193. The purpose of water pump tell tale pipe is to know the condition of (C)
(A) oil seal (B)water seal
(C)oil seal/ water seal (D)None of the above
194. What is the purpose of GFOLR in AC/DC locomotives (C)
(A) to protect main generator field
(B)To protect Rectifier panel
(C)To protect main generator field and rectifier panel
(D)To protect auxiliary generator
194. What is the purpose of GFOLR in AC/DC LOCOMOTIVES? (C)
195. Improper control air pressure leads to (D)
(A) power contactors fluttering (B)Flash overs
(C)Power ground (D)all the above
196. What is the purpose of GFOLR in AC/DC locomotives (C)
197. TRD timing for 350C model Turbo (B)
(A) 60-120seconds (B)90-180 seconds
(C)180-220 seconds (D)None of the above
198. Dis colourization of lube oil to gray brown or milky colour is evidence of (A)
(A) Water mixed with lube oil (B)fuel oil mixed with lube oil
(C)Less lube oil in the sump (D)all the above
199. How many times resetting of GR & GFOLR will be done (A)
(A) 3 (B)6
(C)work on lower notches (D)work up to destination
200. How do you adjust control air pressure (C )
(A) A9 Feed valve (B)SA9 feed valve
(C)N1 reducing valve (D)Hs4 valve.
*****END*****
1
HHP LOCOMOTIVES
1. What is the Horse power of WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotives

A. 3000 HP B. 3500 HP
C. 4000 HP D. 4500 HP
2. What is the compression ratio of WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotives
A. 16:1 B. 14:1
C. 13:1 D. 15:1
3. Which type of diesel engine is fitted in HHP locomotive
A. Four stroke B. Three stroke
C. One stroke D. Two stroke
4. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 D & WDP4 B loco is
A. 17:90 B. 17:77
C. 65:18 D. 90:35
5. Maximum speed of WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotive is
A. 130 Kmph B. 160 Kmph
C. 150 Kmph D. 180 Kmph
6. What is the fuel tank capacity in WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotive
A. 5000 Litter B. 6000 Litter
C. 4000 Litter D. None of these
7. Transmission in WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotive is
A. AC - DC B. AC - AC
C. DC - DC D. DC - AC
8. Total weight of WDP4 D loco is
A. 115.8 Tones B. 119.8 Tones
C. 121.8 Tones D. 123.0 Tones
9. Total weight of WDP4 B loco is
A. 115.8 Tones B. 119.8 Tones
C. 121.2 Tones D. 123.0 Tones
10. What is the maximum speed of the WDG 4 locomotive
A. 150 Kmph B. 140 Kmph
C. 120 Kmph D. 100 Kmph
11. What is the fuel tank capacity of WDG4 Locomotive
A. 5000 Liters B. 6000 Liters
C. 4000 Liters D. 7000 Liters
12. Length of WDG4/WDP4B loco over buffer is
A. 19964 mm B. 23000mm
C. 20000mm D. 21000mm
13. Length of WDP4D loco over buffer is
A. 19964 mm B. 23000mm
C. 20000mm D. 21000mm
14. Maximum Tractive effort of WDG4 loco is
A. 41 Tones B. 53Tones
C. 50 Tones D. 123.0 Tones
15. Maximum Tractive effort of WDP4B/WDP4D loco is
A. 41 Tones B. 53Tones
C. 50 Tones D. 123.0 Tones
16. Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in HHP locomotive
A. ALCO-251 B. GT46
C. 710 G3B D. GT 46MAC
17. How many cylinders are used in HHP Loco Engine
A. 16 Nos B. 08 Nos
C. 12 Nos D. 14 Nos
18. Which type of Traction Motors fitted in HHP LOCO?
A. 3-Phase AC Motors B. DC Séries Motors
C. Both A & B D. None of these
19. Which type of Main Generator fitted in HHP LOCO?
A. DC Generator B. 3 phase Alternator
2
20. Main role of Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO?
A. To control 3-Phase AC Induction Motors B. To control 3 phase Alternator
21. Traction Inverters converts in HHP Loco?
A. DC power into 3 Ph AC power for variable frequency B. AC power into 3Ph AC power
C. Both A & B D. None of thèse
22. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In Medha make Traction System)
A. 6 B. 5
C. 4 D. 3
23. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In EMD make Traction System)
A. 6 B. 2
C. 4 D. 3
24. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In SIEMENS make Traction System)
A. 6 B. 2
C. 4 D. 3
25. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In EMD make Traction System:).
A. ECC1 B. ECC2
C. TCC D. ECC3
26. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In SIEMENS make Traction System)
A. ECC1 B. ECC2
C. TCC D. ECC3
27. In HHP Loco , Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In Medha make Traction System:).
A.ECC1 B. ECC2
C. TCC D. ECC3
28. In HHP Loco, LCC in house of ( In Medha make Traction System:).
A. ECC1 B. ECC2
C. TCC D. ECC3
29. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Medha make Traction System)
A. 18 B. 6
C. 12 D. None of these
30. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In EMD make Traction System)
A. 18 B. 6
31. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Siemens make Traction System)
A. 18 B. 6
32. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In Medha make Traction System)
A. ABB make,V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 2 B. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6
devices/phase module devices
C. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, D. None of these
I=1200Amps, 4 devices /phase module
33. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In SIEMENS make Traction System)
34. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In EMD make Traction System)
35. Input voltage & current of TCC is.
A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DC B. 0 V AC--- 2000 V, max 1100 A AC
C. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DC D. None of these
36. Output voltage & current of TCC is.

A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DC B. 0 V AC- 2000 V, max 1100 A AC
C. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DC D. None of these
3
37. Weight of TCC is.
A. 2400Kg B. 2000Kg
C. 1500Kg D. None of these
38. Outer Dimension (lxbxh) of TCC is.
A. 1833x2140x1450mm B. 1530x2140x1450mm
C. 2133x2140x1450mm D. None of these
39. Current rating of COMPUTER CONTROL, AC CONTROL, AIR DRYER, Circuit breaker
in HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp D. 25 Amp
40. Current rating of FUEL PUMP, TURBO, LIGHT, GOV. BOOSTER PUMP, LOCAL
CONTROL, TCC BLOWER, FILTER BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 30 Amp B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp D. 25 Amp
41. Current rating of Head Light circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp D. 35 Amp
42. Current rating of CONTROL circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 40 Amp B. 50 Amp
C. 90 Amp D. 35 Amp
43. Current rating of GEN FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 40 Amp B. 50 Amp
C. 90 Amp D. 35 Amp
44. Current rating of TCC1 Computer, TCC2 Computer, AUX.GEN FEEDBACK, AUX.GEN
FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp B. 20 Amp
C. 30 Amp D. 35 Amp
45. Current rating of TCC1-TCC2 BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco is

A. 10 Amp B. 50 Amp
C. 30 Amp D. 35 Amp
46. Current rating of DCL Control, EVENT RECORDER circuit breaker in
HHP loco is
A. 03 Amp B. 5 Amp
C. 10 Amp D. 15 Amp
47. How much DC LINK switch gears in HHP LOCO?
A. 6 B. 5
C. 4 D. 3
48. Traction Control Cabinet (TCC) consists of
A. Six Traction Computers, 6 DCL switch B. 6 IGBT based Inverters, DC link
gears Capacitors and Crow bar circuit
49. TCC converts during dynamic brake. In HHP Loco?
A. DC power into 3 phase AC power B. 3 phase AC power into DC power
50. In HHP Locos ECC-2 are located in
A. Driver cabin B. Under Truck
C. Near Radiator room D. None of thèse
51. In HHP Locos STA & ST Contactors are located in
A. ECC B. 1
C. ECC D. 2
52. In HHP Locos AGAI &AGAV Sensors are located in
A. ECC B. 1
C. ECC D. 2
53. In HHP Locos Battery charger & Aux Gen CB are located in
A. ECC B. 1
11
C. ECC D. 2
54. WDP4D Locos, ECC2 same as
A. WDP4 B. WDG4
C. WDP4B D. All of above
55. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-1 are located in
A. Driver cabin B. Near Radiator room
C. Under Truck D. None of thèse
56. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-3 are located in
A. Driver cabin B. Near Radiator room

C. Under Truck D. None of these
57. ………………..type of speedometer is available onWDG4.
A. Mechanical B. Electrical
C. Radar sensor D. Electronic
58. How many Power Contactors are available in WDG4 Locomotive?
A.8 B.9
C.0 D.6
59. In WDG4 loco compressor is cooled by
A. Nature B. Air
C. Oil D. Water
60. In WDG4 turbo is cooled by
A. Nature B. Air
C. Oil D. Water
61. In WDG4 power contactors are replaced with
A. FS contactor B. only relays
C. BKT/REV D. DC Link
62. In WDG4 when driver fails to acknowledge the alerter it gives audio warning for ….sec.
A. 10 B. 17
C. 25 D. 8
63. For quick charging of BP in WDG4 ........................ is used.
A. Foot pedal B. A9 release
C. SP1/SP2 D. None of these
64. In WDG4 hot oil detector is set at….degrees centigrade
A.126 B. 100
C.150 D .200
65. Blended brake is mixture of
A. Vacuum +Air B. Dynamic +Loco
C. Formation +Dynamic+ loco D. Formation +Loco
66. In WDP4 when the loco is moving in opposite direction to the reverser position will
happen soon the speed increases to 5 kmph
A. Dynamic brake come into action B. alerter will come into function
C. power ground will take place D. Loco will shutdown
67. The only loco provided with two dipstick gauges to measure lube oil is
A. WDM2 B. WDP4
C. WDG4 D. WDG3A
68. WDG4 engine cylinders are cooled by
A. Water B. oil and water
C. super charged air and water D. air conditioning
69. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDP4 loco?
70. What is the full speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 1000 RPM B. 904 RPM
C. 900 RPM D. 950 RPM
71. What is the IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 300 RPM B. 200 RPM
C. 269 RPM D. 904 RPM
72. What is the low IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 300 RPM B. 200 RPM
12
C. 269 RPM D. 904 RPM
73. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDG4 loco?
74. What is the coolent water capacity in the HHP locomotive
75. Capacity of sand box in the WDG 4 locomotive
A.1 Ft3/ box B. 2 Ft3/ box
C.1.5 Ft3/ box D.3 Ft3/ box
76. Capacity of sand box in the WDP 4 locomotive
A. 1.5 Ft3/ box B. 02 Ft3/ box
C. 01 Ft3/ box D. 3 Ft3/ box
77. What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG4 locomotive
A. 21.5 Kmph B. 22.5 Kmph
C. 20.5 Kmph D. 23.5 Kmph
78. Which type of bogie fitted in the HHP locomotive
A. Single suspension B. Double suspension
C. Triple suspension D. None of these
79. In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in HHP locomotive
A. Unit injectors B. Injectors with HP line
C. Injector with cam D. None of these
80. In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with
A. Inlet & Exhaust valves B. Only Inlet valves
C. Only Exhaust valves D. None of these
81. In the HHP locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by
A. Exhaust Gas B. Gear Train
C. Gear Train & Exhaust gas D. None of these
82. In the WDP 4 & WDG4 locomotive engine how many lube oil pumps used
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
83. In the HHP locomotive, the air compressor is........
A. Air cooled B. Water cooled
C. Oil cooled D. None of these
84. In the WDP 4 & WDG 4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is
A. Engine coolant B. Compressor coolant
C. Raw water D. None of these
85. Air compressor lube oil sump capacity is
A.10 Liters B.12 Liters
C.15 Liters D.23 Liters
86. Air compressor in the HHP locomotive is

A. Single stage B. Two stage
C. Three stage D. Four stage
87. How many brake cylinders are used per bogie
A. 06 Nos B. 04 Nos
C. 02 Nos D. 05 Nos
88. Which type of bogie is used in HHP locomotive
A. Fabricated bogie B. Cast steel
C. High tensile cast steel D. None of these
89. In HHP locomotive Air brake is controlled by
A. Mechanically B. Electrically
C. Computer D. None of these
90. Brake system in WDP4 &WDG4 loco is
A. 28LAV-1 B. 28LV-1
C. CCB-KNORR D. None of these
91. In HHP locomotive the first schedule carried out after
A. One month B. Three month
C. Four month D. 15 Days
21
92. In WDP4/WDG4 when continuous wheel slip is experienced due to locked axle
A. Isolate the defective TM B. Isolate the defective speed sensor
C. Fail the loco immediately D. Isolate the defective truck
93. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if water pressure is less
A. LLOB trips B. Low water pressure button will trip
C. Crank case pressure button will trip D. Both A and B
94. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test on working control stand.
A. A9 handle should be kept in run position B. SA handle should be kept in release position
C. LT switch in trail position D. Both A and B
95. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test in working control stand
A. A9 handle should be kept in FS B. SA9 should be kept in release
C. Both a and b D. LT switch in Trail
96. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead position B. Trail position
C. TEST position D. Helper
97. In WDP4/WDG4 loco Load meter will not respond if
A. GFB trips B. AGFB trips
C. Both A & B D. MAB trips
98. In WDP4/WDG4 loco when PCS is knocked out
A. MAB breaker should be recycled B. TCC breaker should be recycled
C. Air drier breaker D. Both A and B
99. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test. L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead B. Trail
C. Helper D. Test
100. In WDP4/WDG4 loco speed sensor should be isolated when
A. False locked axle indication B. Traction motor is burnt experienced
C. Axle locked condition D. Both A and B
101. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if LLOB is in tripped position during cranking engine will
A. Crank B. Not Fire
C. Not hold D. Not crank
102. In WDP4 /WDG4 loco before conducting air brake self test
A. Recycle MAB B. Recycle TCC1 and TCC2
C. Recycle Air drier breaker. D. Both A & B
103. Location of EST in WDG4 loco is in
A. Control stand B. control panel
C. Generator room D. Accessories room
104. In WDG4 loco LLOB is located in
A. Accessories room B. Compressor room
C. Engine power take off end D. ECC3
105. In WDP4/WDG4 loco during false locked axle indication
A. Isolate the defective truck B. Isolate the defective speed sensor
C. Isolate the defective TM D. Fail the loco
106. In WDP4/WDG4 dead loco for quick release of loco brakes open one side
A. MR equalising cock B. BC equalising cock
C. BP equalising pipe D. Both A & B
107. Location of BS in WDG4 Loco is
A. On foot plate B. In Accessories room
C. In LP's cab D. In ECC 3
108. In WDP4/WDG4 Loco when lube oil temperature exceeds 124 degree centigrade.
A. Hot oil detector operates B. LLOB operates
C. OSTA trips D. Both A and B
109. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working control stand A9 should be kept in

A. FS position B. Run position
22
C. Release position D. Emergency position
110. In WDP4/WDG4 loco engine should not be cranked when
A. Low water button is tripped B. crank case pressure button is tripped
C. LLOB is in tripped D. OSTA is tripped
111. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working CS, L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead B. Trail
C. HLPR D. Test
112. In WDP4/WDG4 loco defective speed sensor should be isolated if
A. False locked axle indication B. GR trips more than 3 times within
experienced 10 minutes
C. Any one TM is defective D. Crow bar fires
113. Oil visibilty in bye pass sight glass indicates that

A. Primary filter is choked. B. Spin on filter choked.
C. Lube oil filter choked. D. Lube oil strainer choked.
114. In WDP4/WDG4 loco choking of fuel oil primary filter is indicated by
A. Filter condition guage. B. Oil visibility in bye pass sight glass.
C. Both A & B D. Oil visibility in sight glass near to engine
block
115. WDP4/WDG4 MU trailing loco L/T switches in both control stand should be kept in
A. Lead B. Trail
C. test D. Helper
116. Oil lubricated TM gear case is provided in
A. WDM 2 B. WDM 3D
C. WDG 3A D. WDP4
117. If AGFB tripped in WDP4/WDG4 locos
A. Battery will discharge B. Load meter will not respond
C. Both A and B D. Engine will shut down
118. Firing order of HHP Loco
A.1,8,9,16,3,6,11,14,4,5,12,13,2,7,10,15 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16
C. 1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,16,2,4,6,8,10,12,14 D. None of these
119. Model of Main Generator assembly in WDG4 Loco
A.TA17-CA6B B. 5A-8147
120. Model of AC AUX. Generator in WDG4 Loco
A.TA17-CA6B B. 5A-8147
121. Model of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco
A.TA17-CA6B B. 5A-8147
C. TB26221 D. None of these
122. Speed of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco
A. 3220 RPM B. 2000 RPM
C. 904 RPM D. None of these
123. Horse Power of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco
A. 500KW B. 600KW
C. 1430KW D. None of these
124. In WDG4 Loco Traction Motor is……
A. Force air ventilated cooled B. Oil cooled
C. Water cooled D. None of these
23
125. Nominal AC Aux. Generator Voltage in WDG4 Loco
A. 64VDC B. 55V AC
C. 74VDC D. None of these
126. Rectified Voltage of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 Loco
A. 64VDC B. 55V AC
C. 74VDC D. None of these
127. Max Power output of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 Loco
A. 18KW B. 25KW
C. 20KW D. None of these
128. Total nos. of Batteries in WDG4 Loco Lead acid type
A. 10 B. 02
129. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)
A. 32 B. 50
130. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)
A. 32 B. 50
131. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)
A. 1.5V B. 2.1V
C. 2.5V D. None of these
132. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)
A. 1.5V B. 2.1V
C. 2.5V D. None of these
133. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)
A. 68V B. 75V
C. 72V D. None of these
134. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)
A. 68V B. 75V
135. Total nos of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)
A. 10 B. 02
136. Total nos of Cylinder of Air Compressor in WDG4 Loco
A. 06 B. 03
137. Capacity of lube oil of Air Compressor in WDG4 Loco
A. 9.98Litter B.12 Litter
C.06 Litter D. None of these
138. Model of WDG4. Loco

A.GT46MAC B.GT46PAC
C.Both A & B D. None of these
139. Model of WDP4. Loco
A.GT46MAC B.GT46PAC
140. Nos of Axles in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

A.06 B.04
C.08 D.None of these
141. How many Traction Motors in WDP4 Locos
A.06 B.04
24
C.08 D. None of these
142. In WDP4 Locos Traction Motor fitted on
A. Axles no.1, 2 & 5, 6 B. All Axles
C. Axles no.1, 2 & 3, 4 D. None of these
143. In WDP4 Locos Engine starting switch is located
A. ECP B. Engine room
C. Control stand D. None of these
144. In WDG4 Locos Engine starting switch is located
A. ECP B. Engine room
C. Control stand D. None of these
145. In WDG4 Locos RADAR is located
A. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tank B. Engine room
C. Between Front bogie & Fuel tank- D. None of these
146. In WDP4 Locos RADAR is located
A. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tank B. Engine room
C. Between Front bogie & Fuel tank D. None of these
147. Blended brake, Low water level switch, Temperature gauge & color code are provided in
A. WDP4 B. WDG4
148. Starting Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 400KN D. 200KN
149. Starting Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 400KN D. 200KN
150. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 400KN D. 200KN
151. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 400KN D. 200KN
152. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 40 KMPH to 0) of WDG4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 400KN D. 200KN
153. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 68 KMPH to 1) of WDP4 Loco is
A. 540KN B. 270KN
C. 160KN D. 200KN
154. Dead engine cut-off cock & C3W Distributor valve in WDP4/WDG4 Locos are
located in
A. Nose compartment B. Driver Cabin
C. Engine compartment D. Radiator compartment
155. Lead/Trail Air Brake Set-up Switch mounts on
A. The lower right corner of the air brake B. Nose compartment
controller
C. Engine compartment D. Radiator compartment
156. How many braking position of A-9 valve have.
A. 05 breaking position B. 04 breaking position
C. 03 breaking position D. 01 breaking position
157. How many braking position of SA-9 valve have..
A. 03 position B. 02 position
C. 05 position D. 01 position
158. In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop up to (PSI)...
A. 0 to3 PSI B. 4 to 7 PSI
C. 8 to 11 PSI D. 12 to 15 PSI
159. In WDG 4 if false locked wheel indication is experienced
31
A. Isolate defective sensor B. Isolate defective truck
C. Isolate defective TM D. Fail the loco
160. In WDP4/WDG4 if GR (power) trips continuously three times within 10 minutes
A. Truck isolation is to be done B. Defective TM is to be isolated
C. Defective speed sensor is to be isolated D. Fail the Loco
161. In WDP4/WDG4 engine cranking but not starting due to
A. EPD Tripped B. Governor not advancing fuel racks
C. No fuel reaching in the cylinders D. Any one of above
162. In WDP4/WDG4 thick black smoke and poor hauling due to
A. Low fuel oil pressure & Low booster air B. Faulty turbo
pressure
C. Faulty injectors. D. Any one of above
163. Temperatures of Engine exhaust gas reach up to

A. 538°C B. 438°C
C. 338°C D. None of these
164. Main parts of KNORR/NYAB CCB 1.5 Brake system are
A. VCU & CRU B. PCU & KE Valve
C. BVC D. All of above
165. Total no. of Keys on EM2000 Display Panel are
A. 8 B. 16
C. 10 D. 12
166. No. of Radiator fan in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

A.02 B.01
C.03 D. None of these
167. No. of Grid Blower Motors in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos
A.04 B.02
168. No. of Brake blocks in HHP Locos

A.24 B.12
169. When Computer controlled Breaker is recycled the disabled speed sensor.
A. Remain Disabled B. Gets enabled but not to be disabled again
C. Remain disabled but to be enabled D. Get enabled automatically & has to be
disabled
170. Brake warning Indication
A. Excessive Main Alternator B. Excessive Breaking current in DB
C. Excessive Air Breaking D. Excessive Main Generator Current
171. When Reverser is thrown in forward direction, Sanders of
A. No (3) & (6) only work B. All sanders work
C. sanders works irrespective of Reverser D. No (1) & (4) wheels only work
172. Battery charger rectifies AC to DC of
A. Aux gen output B. Companion Alternator output
C. Main Alternator output D. None of the above
173. B.P continuity not getting to train from a working WDG4 Loco due to
A. Additional BP COC closed in train end B. BP angle cock defective
C. In train end no BP pressure in loco D. All of the above
174. On run GR Trip then the engine
A. Will shut - down B. Comes to idle
C. No effect on engine D. No effect on loco
175. What is the type of lubrication system being used in diesel loco
A. Gravity lubrication B. Force Feed lubrication
C. Force Feed & splash lubrication D. Capillary lubrication
176. To check engine sump level, engine should be in condition
32
A. Shout – down B. 4th Notch
C. Idle D. 2nd Notch
177. Each Traction Motor provided with

A. One speed sensor B. One speed sensor & one temp sensor
C. One temp sensor D. Two speed sensor
178. Diameter of new wheels in WDP4 locos is

A. 1090mm B. 1092mm
C. 1100mm D. 1080mm
179. When there is communication link failure and micro air breaker is active, the loco
will work
A. As lead in B. Only in trail mode
C. In both modes D. In helper mode
180. To recover PCS, it is compulsory to keep

A. Both throttle handle in idle B. Any one throttle handles in idle
C. Leading control stand throttle handle in idle D. Leading throttle handle in idle & reversor in
neutral
181. The companion alternator runs at the same speed as

A. Engine rpm B. Aux gen rpm
C. Turbo rpm D. Locomotive rpm
182. MR Pressure dropping on run due to

A. Air dryer defective B. Auto drain valve malfunctioning
C. Break cylinder pipe damaged D. All of above
183. WDP4/WDG4 Hand break applies on wheels

A. R4 B. R5
C. R4 D. L4
184. Break cylinder pressure in WDP4/WDG4

A. 5.2 kg /sq.cm B. 4.8 kg /sq.cm
C. 3.8 kg /sq.cm D. 3.5 kg /sq.cm
185. MR pressure not building up due to

A. MR EQ COC in open condition B. Pipe link chocked in MRPT system
C. Defective MVCC D. All of above
186. What is the effect of auto flasher operation

A. Engine comes to idle B. auto flasher indication
C. Buzzer D. All of above
187. ER/BP not creating

A. LT switch defective B. Air break failure
C. Penalty not reset D. All of above
188. Lube oil pumps provided In HHP

A. Scavenging pump B. Piston cooling pump & main lube oil pump
C. Turbo lube pump D. All of above
189. Radiator fan controlled by

A. EM2000 B. TCC
C. EM2000 & TCC D. None of these
190. Load demand of the traction motor is met by
A. EM2000 B. TCC
C. EM2000 & TCC D. None of these
33
191. Total No. of After coolers inWDP4/WDG4
A.4 B.3
C.2 D.5
192. Total no. of Water expansion tanks inWDP4/WDG4
A.1 B.2
C.3 D.4
193. In WDP4/WDG4 BA consists of two zones

A. Green zone & red zone B. Green zone & yellow zone
C. yellow zone & red zone D. None of these
194. In WDP4/WDG4 slipped pinion will be indicates clearly by
A. Loco not moving B. Train not hauling loads
C. High motor rpm in computer feedback D. None of these
195. Head light rating in WDP4/WDG4 loco is

A. 100W 32V B. 200W 30V
C. 250W 32V D.250W 34V
196. Governor is used in HHP Loco
A. GE Governor B. WW Governor
C. Both (A) & (B) D. None of these
197. Type of cooling water pump used in WDP4/WDG4 Locomotives
A. Centrifugal B. Reciprocating
C. Positive displacement D. None of these
198. OSTA in WDP4/WDG4 trip at minimum

A.960RPM B. 1000RPM
199. Flasher light working voltage
A. 72V B. 12V
200. No of Main bearings available in WDP4 Locomotives
A. 12 B. 14
34
ANSWER SHEET
Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER
1. D 26. C 51. B 76. C

2. A 27. C 52. B 77. B
3. D 28. A 53. B 78. B
4. B 29. A 54. D 79. A
5. A 30. C 55. A 80. C
6. A 31. C 56. B 81. C
7. B 32. A 57. C 82. D
8. D 33. A 58. C 83. B
9. C 34. C 59. D 84. A
10. C 35. A 60. C 85. A
11. B 36. B 61. D 86. B
12. A 37. A 62. B 87. B
13. B 38. A 63. B 88. C
14. B 39. B 64. A 89. C
15. A 40. A 65. C 90. C
16. C 41. D 66. A 91. B
17. A 42. A 67. B 92. C
18. A 43. C 68. C 93. D
19. B 44. A 69. C 94. D
20. A 45. C 70. B 95. B
21. A 46. A 71. C 96. C
22. A 47. A 72. B 97. C
23. B 48. C 73. C 98. A
24. B 49. B 74. C 99. D
25. A 50. B 75. C 100. A
35
Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER

101. D 126 C 151 C 176 C
102. A 127 A 152 B 177 B
103. D 128 B 153 C 178 B
104. A 129 A 154 A 179 B
105. B 130 B 155 A 180 D
106. C 131 A 156 A 181 A
107. A 132 B 157 A 182 D
108. D 133 A 158 B 183 A
109. A 134 B 159 A 184 A
110. B 135 A 160 A 185 D
111. C 136 B 161 D 186 D
112. A 137 A 162 D 187 D
113. B 138 A 163 A 188 D
114. D 139 B 164 D 189 A
115. B 140 A 165 B 190 B
116. D 141 B 166 A 191 C
117. C 142 A 167 B 192 A
118. A 143 A 168 B 193 A
119. A 144 B 169 D 194 C
120. B 145 C 170 B 195 C
121. C 146 A 171 D 196 B
122. A 147 A 172 A 197 A
123. A 148 A 173 D 198 A
124. A 149 B 174 B 199 B
125. B 150 D 175 D 200 C
*****END*****
DEMU
S No. QUESTION A B C D ANS
1 Shutdown coil is fitted on Fuel pump Starter 24 V None
motor A
alternator
2 Cut in condition of shut down coil is Mechanical Electrical Manual None
B
called Mode Mode mode
3 Cut out condition of shut down coil Mechanic Electric Manual None
A
is called al Mode al Mode mode
4 In mode engine could not be auto Mechanical Electrical Manual None
A
shutdown Mode Mode mode
5 If LLOP device operates, engine comes to RPM will gets No effect
Idle reduce C
Shutdown
6 If OSTA operates, engine comes to RPM will gets No effect
C
Idle reduce Shutdown
7 In 1400 DEMU over speed system 1800 2050 2070 3000
C
actuates at engine RPM above
8 Gear ratio in 700 HP DEMU 20:90 21:95 23:104 20:95 A
9 Gear ratio in 1600 HP DEMU 20:90 21:95 23:104 20:95 C
10 In 1600 HP DEMU Compressor Gear Electric Hydraulic None
C
is driven By al Motor motor
11 In 1600 HP DEMU Ventilator fan is Gear Electrical Hydraulic None
B
Driven By Motor motor
12 In 1600 HP DEMU compressor Main 110 V APC 24 V
Alternator Alternator C
motor gets supply from Generator
13 In 1600 HP DEMU Ventilator fan Main 110 V APC 24 V
motor Generator Alternator Alternator C
gets supply from
14 In 1600 HP DEMU Air Primary Secondar shock None
suspension provided in place of coil y coil absorbers B
springs
springs
15 DEMU is provided with type of Shako CBC Screw None
A
coupler
16 Number of safety straps per bogie 2 4 8 12
C
in DEMU
17 Number of 'U' brackets per bogie in 2 4 8 12
B
DEMU
18 Number of tie rod safety strips per 2 4 8 12
C
bogie
19 Maximum speed of 1600 HP DEMU is 95 100 105 110
D
KMPH
20 In 1400 HP locomotive Control Driver Engine Compress
ECP(Engine Control Panel) is panel Cabin room or room C
located in
21 Maximum BC pressure in TC during 1.6 kg/sq 3.8 kg/sq 3.5 kg/sq 5.0 kg/sq
B
brake application cm cm cm cm
22 In 1400 HP DEMU number of radiator 1 2 3 4
B
fans
23 110V battery knife switch is located in Driver Contro Engine ECP
B
Desk l panel room
24 In HHP DEMU hydraulic pump Engine Engine Engine Engine
located at power power free end free end
take off take off left side right side D
end left end right
side side
25 In 1400 HP LCC is located in Engine Contro Under None
B
room l Panel truck
26 In HHP DEMU TM overloaded when 400 600 800 1200
B
Load meter exceeds amps
27 In 1600 HP DEMU wheel diameter 852 952 1030 1050
B
for DPC is mm
28 In 1600 HP DEMU wheel diameter for 915 950 1030 1050
A
TC is mm
29 In 1600 HP DEMU Auxiliary Engine Under Radiator None
B
Inverter located in room truck room
30 In 1600 HP DEMU Auxiliary Inverter is Oil Air Water None
B
cooled
31 In 1600 HP DEMU Auxiliary Compress Lights Battery All of the
Inverter supplies power to or motor & fans charging above D
32 In 1600 HP DEMU motor driven Compress Under Radiator None

B
compressor is located in or room truck room
33 'MVB' stands for Main Motor Multifunct None
Vehicle Ventilator ion C
Brake Breaker
Vehicle Bus
34 In 700 HP DEMU wheel arrangement CO-CO BO-BO AO-AO BO1-1BO
B
is
35 In 700 HP DEMU maximum 100 90 105 110
A
speed of DPC is KMPH
36 In 700 HP DEMU wheel diameter for 852 952 1030 1050
B
DPC is mm
37 In 700 HP DEMU Idle RPM of DPC 700 800 900 1000 A
38 In 700 HP DEMU 8th RPM of DPC 1200 1400 1600 1800 D
39 In 700 HP DEMU OST trip RPM is 1900 1950 2000 2100 D
40 In 700 HP DEMU Fuel oil tank 1750 1800 1950 2000
capacity is A
liters
41 In 700 HP DEMU lube oil tank 95 100 102 110
C
capacity is liters
42 In 700 HP DEMU Lube oil pump driven Gear Belts Electrical Hydraulic
A
by motor Pump
43 In 700 HP DEMU hydraulic oil 200 250 300 350
capacity is A
liters
44 In 700 HP DEMU hydraulic pump 2 Belts 3 Belts 5 Belts 6 Belts
B
driven by
45 In 700 HP DEMU compressor driven 2 Belts 3 Belts 5 Belts 6 Belts
A
by
46 In 700 HP DEMU Starting 24 110 220 150
A
battery voltage is Volts
47 In 1400 HP engine gets shut down 90 98 102 110
when the coolant temperature reaches
C
to
degree centigrade
48 In 1600 HP DEMU water pump is Belts Gear Hydraulic Electrica
B
driven by motor l motor
49 In 1400 HP DEMU bogie arrangement 1A-A1 BO-BO CO-CO BO1-1BO
B
is
50 In 1400 HP locomotive Control Driver Engine Compress
ECP(Engine Control Panel) is panel Cabin room or room C
located in
51 In 1400 DEMU fuel tank capacity is 1750 2500 3000 5000
C
Liters.
*****END*****
Crew Management System
1. CMS is aimed to provide (D)
a Position of crew at HQ/OS
b Maintain status wise records
c PR, maintaining LR,PME details
d All of the above
2. Objectives of CMS (D)
a Optimization of crew
b Monitoring of LR and training schedules
c Monitoring of 10hrs duty and HOER
d All of the above
3. What is TA (B)
a Traffic Apprentices
b Traffic Advice
c Train Acknowledgement
d Train Application
4. CMS can work in (A)
a Online mode
b Offline mode
c Both A and B
d None of the above
5. Who creates the TA (A)
a Traffic supervisor
b BET
c CCC
d Both A and C
6. Sign-ON and Sign-OFF approval given by (B)
a TNC
b Traffic supervisor
c CCC
d Not required any approval
7. Username is unique for (D)
a Division Console
b Lobby Console
c Supervisor Console
d Both A and B
8. Browser for CMS reports (C)
a cms.indianrail.com.in
b cms.indianrailways.go
c cms.indianrail.gov.in
d 10.60.200.168/cmsreport
9. User password should not contain (D)
a User name and user ID
b Crew ID
c Special Character
d All the above
10. Password validity period months (C)
a 3
b 5
c 6
d 4
11. is responsible for Crew booking in CMS (B)
a TNC
b Supervisor
c Both
d CCC
12. Routes can be created at (D)
a Depot level
b Division level
c Zonal level
d CRIS/NDLS
13. Train pulling timings are for all Lobbies (B)
a Same
b Different
c Discrimination of on duty supervisor
d None of the above
14. Who is authorized for crew grading. (B)
a CCC
b CLI
c Any one of A & B
d Branch officer
15. Which one of the following is not belongs to crew biodata? (D)
a Others
b Training
c Loco competency
d Training pulling
16. In CMS LR due time can be configured at level as per logic. (B)
a Zonal level
b Division level
c Lobby
d Both A & B
17. The concept of crew serve call given from station A, but crew need to sign on at station B is
called (B)
a Parent Lobby
b Sister Lobby
c HQ Lobby
d Both A & B
18. Process of sign on crew will be shifted to new TA is called as (A)
a Swapping of crew
b Swapping of TA
c Resetting of TA
d Both B & C
19. What is FAFO? (C)
a First Arrival First Out
b First Available First Off
c First Available First Out
d First Arrival First Off
20. Sorting of HQ crew depends on which logic (D)
a FAFO
b FIFO
c Progressive hours
d Any one of the above
21. is called sorting of crew by arrival time. (A)
a FIFO
b FAFO
c Progressive hours
22. option is to be applied to get fortnight cumulative hours while crew booking (C)
a FIFO
b FAFO
c Progressive hours
23. Parameters to be checked in “Fetch crew as per Rule” is (D)
a PME & G and SR
b Traction, Tech training
c LR, Rest and Loco competency
d All of the above
24. Parameters to be checked in “Fetch crew All” is (D)
a PME
b G & SR
c Completion Rest
d Both A & B
25. Serving of calls to crew can be done (D)
a Automatically
b Manually
c Both A & B
d Any one of A and B
26. SMS will be triggered to crew in call serve. (A)
a Automatic
b Manual
c Both A & B
d None of the above
*****END*****
Leave Rules
1. How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway servant shall be
entitled to get?
a) 20 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 45 days
Ans:- (c) 30 days in a calendar year; (Para-523 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
2. How many days of HLAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?

Ans:- (c ) 20 days in a year; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol.-I,1995 edition)
3. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for

Ans:- (a) 135 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & Para-551 of IREC-Vol.I,1995 edition)
4. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity leave may be granted?.
a) 6 weeks b) 45 days c) 7 weeks d) 43 days.
Ans:- (b) 45 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 72/97 )
5. Paternity leave is admissible with less than two surviving children for a period of
Ans:- (c ) 15 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & 154/97)
6. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is

a) 120 b) 180 c) 190 d) 300 days
Ans:- (d) 300 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 172/97 )
7. LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of

a) 2½ days per month b) 3 days per month c) 2 days per month d) 1½ days per month
Ans:- (a) 2 ½ days per month; (Para-524 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
8. How many days of LAP per year can be credited to a school staff ?
a) 10 days b) 5 days c) 7days d) 8 days
Ans:- (a) 10 days; (Para-525 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
9. How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employee in his service life?
a) 300 days b) 450 days c) 600 days d) Un limited
Ans:- (d) Unlimited; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
10. A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children
a) Less than two b) One c) Four d) Three
Ans:- (a) Less than two surviving children; (Para-551(A) R-I)
11. Up to what limit, maternity leave may be combined with any kind of leave?
a) One year b) Two years c) Unlimited d) Six months
Ans:- (a) One year; (Para-551, R-I)

12. A Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding-----------
days per year.
Ans:- (d) 12 days; (Para-534, R-I)
13. Apprentice Mechanics in Railways Workshops may be granted leave on full stipend for period
not exceeding…...
Ans:- (a) 16 days; (Para-533, R-I)
14. Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding
………, if leave granted outside India.
Ans:- (b) 240 days; (RBE No. 42/92)
15. Study leave shall count for :-

a) Reckoning seniority b) Reckoning increment c) Earning LAP d) Earning LHAP
Ans:- (c ) Earning LAP (R-I, 556)
LEVEL-II
16. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?

a) Group ‘A’ b) Group ‘B’ c) Group ‘C’ d) Group ‘D’
Ans:- (d) Group ‘D’ only. (Para-554 of IREC, Vol.-I)
17. When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as
a) LAP b) LHAP c) SPL Leave d) Extra ordinary leave.
Ans:- (d ) Extra ordinary leave (Para 530, R-I)
18. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is…….

Ans:- (b) 180 days;
19. Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?

a) Senior Scale Officer b) J A Grade Officer c) DRM d) ADRM
Ans:- (d) ADRM (Rule 552, 553, R-I).
20. Leave of any kind can be combined with vacation in the case of
a) Officers b) Office Staff c) Running Staff d) Rly. School Teacher
Ans:- (d) Rly. School Teacher (Para 525, R-I).
21. What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant may be
granted?
Ans:- (c) 180 days; (Para 523, R-I)
22. What is the maximum limit of Leave not due that may be granted to a permanent Rly. Servant
during his entire service period?
a) 360 days b) 380 days c) Unlimited d) 300 days
Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E. S. No. 31/89 & Para 528,R-I, 1995 edition)
23. Within which period, Paternity Leave can be granted?
a) Six months b) Three months c) Four months d) 15days
Ans:- (a) 6 months; (E. S. No. 05/2000)
24. Special Disability Leave on average pay granted for accident on duty shall not exceed………
Ans:- (d) 280 days; (Para 553 (iii), R-I)
25. Paternity leave is also admissible to

a) Casual Labour b) Casual Labour with temporary status
c) After completion of 180 days of service d) After regular absorption
Ans:- (b) Casual labour with temporary status; (E. S. No. 143/99)
26. Staff of which Railway are entitled to avail extra Casual leave?
a) SER b) ECOR c) NFR d) ECR
Ans:- (c) NFR
27. Whom does the Compensatory Casual leave is admissible?

a) Supervisory staff b) Group ‘D’ staff
c) Group ‘C’ & Group ‘D’ staff but not supervisor d) Stenographer & Confidential Assistant
Ans:- (c) Group ‘C’ & Group ‘D’ staff but not supervisor; (E. S. No. 27/61)
28. Quarantine Leave

a) Withdrawn b) Admissible in critical diseases c) For Eye disease d) Wife’s Sickness
Ans:- (a) Withdrawn; (Para, 555, R-I)
LEVEL-III
29. Commuted leave is admissible on

a) Medical Certificate b) Request of an employee
c) Discretion of competent authority d) None
Ans:- (a) On Medical Certificate; (Para, 527, R-I)
30. If a Railway employee applies for a kind of leave say LAP, in advance, the competent
authority may……..
a) Sanction as CL b) sanction as LWP
c) refuse to sanction it d) convert it as commuted leave
Ans:- (c) Refuse to sanction it; (Para, 503, R-I)
31. A Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not exceeding……
a) 3 Years b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years
Ans:- (c) 5 years; (Para, 510, R-I)
32. Which of the following leave can be combined with vaction in case of a school teacher?
a) Only LAP b) Only LHAP c) Any kind of leave d) Special disability leave
Ans:- (c) Any kind of leave; (Para, 525 (d) , R-I)
33. How many occasions does a workshop staff be granted half a day’s LAP?
a) 6 occasions b) 10 occasions c) 6 occasions d) 12 occasions
Ans:- (a ) 6 occasions ( Para539/2, R-I)

34. Hospital leave granted to a Non-Gazetted Rly. Servant should not exceed a total of ……..when
combined with other leave
a) 24 months b) 26 months c) 28 months d) 18 months
Ans:- (c ) 28 months (554/4, R-I
35. What is the maximum limitation of Leave Not Due granted on medical certificate during the
entire period of service?
Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E .S.No.30/89)
36. Maximum of study leave that can be granted to an employee during his entire service period is
……..
a) 36 months b) 28 months c) 24 months d) 30 months
Ans:- (a ) 36 months (170/98 )
37. In case of ‘Cut in pension’, for compulsory retirement as a measure of punishment, leave
encashment is admissible for…
a) 360 days b) 150 days c) un utilized days d) not eligible
Ans:- (d) not eligible; (E.S.No.334/87)
38. Which of the following leave may be granted to a Rly. Servant, volunteered to donate blood in
Govt./Rly. Hospitals for railway employees.
a) Special Casual leave b) casual leave c) LAP d) LHAP
Ans:- Special Casual leave.
39. If a railway servant resigns from service during study leave, and it is converted into regular leave
as LAP/LHAP leaving balance, such a balance shall be treated as….
A) unauthorized absence b) Extra ordinary leave c) Study leave d) Leave not due
Ans:- (b) Extra ordinary leave (R-I, Appv./ul/2/w)
40. Who is the Authority to grant study leave abroad?

a) Rly. Board b) GM c) DRM d) CPO
Ans:- (a) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)
41. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave within India?
a) Rly. Board b) GM c) DRM/CWM d) CPO
Answer:- (b) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)
*****END*****
PASS RULES
Q 1. What is Pass?
(a) Pass is a Privilege
(b) To travel in Railway
(c) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing
him to travel in a train gratuitously
(d) None of these.
Answer: (c)
Q 2. Family means.
(a)Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent.
Bonafide student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter of any
age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter. Railway Doctor’s certified
invalid son daughter of any age.
(b) Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.
(c)Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age
(d) Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.
Answer: (a)
Q 3. How many sets of P.T.O. issued to the Railway employees?
(a) 6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date
of appointment.
(b) 4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date
of appointment.
(c) 3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date
of appointment.
(d) 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.
Answer: (d) (Rule-6) Railway Board’s Manual.
Q 4. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?

(a) 6 sets per year. (b) 4 sets per year.
(c) 3 sets per year. (d) 5 sets per year
Answer: 3 sets per year
Q 5. Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass?
(a) 3 months (Half-set) (b) 4 months (Full-set)

(c) 2 months (Half-set) (d) 5 months (Full-set)
(Answer : (d)
Q 6. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-

(a) Part time servant. (b) Servant
(c) Full time paid servant. (d) Any person.
Answer : (c)
Q 7. Pass to widows/widower of Railway employee was implemented w.e.f.
(a) 12.03.1987 (b) 12.03.1990 (c) 12.03.1989 (d) 12.03.1988
Answer: (a) Rule 9
Q 8. Maximum birth given for Reservation to Railway Officer on duty?

(a) 6 births (b) 4 births (c) 3 births (d) 2 births
Answer: (b)
Q 9. Eligibility for 1st Class Pass for Non-Gazetted staff. Who are appointed before
01.08.1969
(a) Basic Pay – 5375 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
(b) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
(c) Basic Pay – 5100 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
(d) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
Answer: (b)
Q 10. When Higher Class Pass issued

(a) On medical ground. (b) On Scouts & Guide
(c) None of these (d) Cultural functions
Answer: (a)
Q 11. Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey (Privilege/Duty), 2nd
Class Pass holder__
(a) Rs. 5/- (b) Rs. 10/- (c) Rs. 15/ (d) Rs. 20/-
Answer: (b)
1st Class Pass holder -

(a) Rs. 15/- (b) Rs. 25/- (c) Rs. 35/- (d) Rs. 50/-
Answer: (b)
Q 12. Loss of a Retired Complimentary Pass?
2nd Class Pass holder

(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 20/- (c) Rs. 30/ (d) Rs. 40/-
Answer: (a)
Q 13. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass.
2nd Class Pass holder

(a) Rs. 10.50/- (b) Rs. 12.50/- (c) Rs. 13.50/- (d) Rs. 14.50/-
Answer: (b)
Q 14. 1st & 1st ‘A’ Pass holder

(a) Rs. 35/- (b) Rs. 40/- (c) Rs. 45/- (d) Rs. 50/-
Answer: (a)
Q 15. Penalties for loss of a Gold Pass.
(a) Rs. 3009/- (b) Rs. 3309/- (c) Rs. 3109/- (d) Rs. 3209/-
Answer: (b)
Q 16. Penalties for loss of a Silver Pass.

(a) Rs. 1890/- (b) Rs. 1790/- (c) Rs. 1799/- (d) Rs. 1690/-
Answer: (b)
Q 17. Penalties for loss of a Bronze Pass.
(a) Rs. 1729/- (b) Rs. 1829/- (c) Rs. 1629/- (d) Rs. 1529/-
Answer: (a)
Q 18. Privilege issued Pass/P.T.Os. are admissible when a staff is on
(a) Any kind of leave. (b) Only extra ordinary leave.

(c) Only study leave. (d) Only special disability leave.
Answer: (a)
Q 19. Weekend are issued to:
(a) Any railway employee. (b) Married railway employee.

(c) If father is not alive of a railway employee. (d) Un married railway
employee.
Answer: (b)
Q 20. Passes are not admissible over Nilgiri Railway during the month (except Gazetted
staff)
(a) January, February, March (b) April, May, June

(c) July, August, September (d) October, November, December.
Answer: (b) Rule 6-3 (XVIII)
Q 21. Full form of P.T.O.

(a) Personnel Ticket Order (b) Permanent Ticket Order
(c) Privilege Ticket Order (d) Pass & Ticket Order.
Answer: (c) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (g)
Q 22. Set means

(a) Set means 3 sets of pass per year.
(b) Set means 6 sets of pass per year.
(c) Set means 3 sets of pass & 6 sets of P.T.O. per year.
(d) Set means One set of pass or P.T.O. for Outward and Return journey.
Answer: (d) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (k)
Q 23. Break journey is not permissible in case of

(a) Transfer Pass. (b) School Pass.
(c) Settlement Pass. (d) Post Retd. Complimentary Pass.
Answer: (c)
Q 24. On what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holders.
(a) Studying in Sindia School/Gwalior
(b) Studying in South Point School/Kolkata
(c) Studying in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur
(d) Studying in Oak Grove School/Jharipani/Dehradun.
Answer: (d) Rly.Bd.’s No.E(G) LIPS 5-1/5 dt. 29.3.61.
Q 25. How many sets of Pass will be deducted for un-authorized occupying Railway
quarter?
(a) One set will be deducted for two months.

(b) One set will be deducted for one month.
(c) One set will be deducted for one year.
(d) One set will be deducted for three months.
Answer: (b)
Q 26. How much Service (minimum) is required for Post Retired Complimentary Pass
(a) 20 years (b) 25 years (c) 15 years (d) 33 years
Answer: (a)
Q 27. What basic Pay is required for traveling in 1st AC on duty for self-only?
(a) All Group ‘B’ Officers. (b) JAG & above grade Officers. Rs. 14300/-
(c) Officers above Rs. 14300/- (d) SS grade officers. Rs. 14300/-
Answer: (b)
Q 28. How many break journeys are admissible in Privilege Pass?

(a) 6 nos. (b) 7 nos. (c) Any number (En-route) (d) 5 nos.
Answer: (c)
Q 29. On what routes Pass can be issued?

(a) Any route. (b) Shortest route & longest route but quicker.
(c) Longest route. (d) Shortest route with 30% of the longest route.
Answer: (b)
Q 30. Irregularity for use of Passes may be condon by

(a) CPO (b) GM (c) CME (d) COM
Answer: (b)
Q 31. How many School Certificates are required for School Card Pass in a year.
(a) One in a year (b) Four in a year
(c) Two in a year (d) One in whole service life
Answer: (c)
Q 32. Who is the competent authority for delayed issue of settlement pass beyond one year
of retirement of Group C & D employees.
(a) Any officer (b) Dy.CPO/Pass (c) GM/AGM or CPO/DRM (d) Dy.
Secretary (Pass)
Answer: (c) Pass Manual Schedule-VII – Rule XVI.
Q 33. Can Post Retired Complimentary Pass be issued to Quasi Railway Institutions?
(a) No (b) Yes (c) May be issued with the approval of GM. (d)
PHOD’s approval.
Answer: (a) Schedule VII, Rule XVIII
Q 34. Split Passes are issued to which Railway Servant?
(a) Only Group ‘A’ service (b) All Officers

(c) All Railway Servants (A, B, C & D) (d) Only GM/AGM.
Answer: (c)
*****END*****
D & A RULES
1. Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in
Railways? (c)
(a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968
(b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966
(c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(d) None of these
2. What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came
into force ? (c)
(a) On the first day of January, 1968
(b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968
(c) On the first day of October, 1968
(d) None of these
3 Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings? (c)
(a) SF-11 (b) SF-5
(c) SF-5 (d) None of these
4 Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties? (c)
(a) Rule-9 (b) Rule-11
(c) Rule-6 (d) None of these
5 Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority? (b)

(a) Not more than 5 members (b) Not less than 2 members
(c) Not less than 3 members (d) Not more than 4 members
6 Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing
authority? (c)
(a) Controlling Officer (b) DRM
(c) GM (d) CPO
7 Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably
pass? (b)
(a) Orders for penalty (b) Speaking order
(c) None
8 Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules? (a)

(a) President of India (b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Member(Staff) (d) Secretary Rly.Bd.
9 When casual labors can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules? (c)
(a) After 4 months from engagement date (b) After 6 months from engagement date
(c) After attaining temporary status (d) After regular absorption
10. Recognized Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defense counsel in DAR
cases in (b)
(a) 2 Nos. of cases (b) 3 Nos. of cases

(c) 5 Nos. of cases (d) Any number of cases
11.Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings? (c)
(a) Rule 9 (b) Rules 11
(c) Rule 13 (d) Rule 20
12. If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case,
this case should dealt with by the (c)
(a) Disciplinary Authority (b) Revising Authority
(c) The next higher authority (d) None
13. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules,
subsequently he is expired his case should be (d)
(a) Continue and finalized (b) Sent to Rly.Board
(c) Sent to GM (d) Closed
14 What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires

modification/addition (a)
(a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons
(b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued
(c) Continue the proceedings
(d) None of these
15 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed
suspension? (c)
(a) SF-1 (b) SF-3
(c) SF-2 (d) SF-4
16 How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum? (d)
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 4
17 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going

promotion to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the (a)
(a) Promotion of the grade for same period (b) But not result in greater monetary loss
(c) Retrospective effect
18 A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduced by
way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never
held before? (b)
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected (d) None
19. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defense counsel? (a)
(a) 2 No. of cases (b) 3 No. of cases
(c) 4 No. of cases (d) 5 No. of cases
20. How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense assistant at a
time? (b)
(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 3 (d) 8
21 Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made? (b)

(a) House Rent (b) P.F.subscription
(c) Income Tax (d) None
22 Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance? (c)

(a) House Rent (b) Income Tax
(c) Court attachment (d) Station debits
23 Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits employee with various
disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of
suspension? (b)
(a) During the period he cannot leave Hq. Without permission
(b) He need not sign attendance register
(c) Privilege passes cannot be availed
(d) No increment is drawn during suspension
24 When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor penalty is
imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as (c)
(a) Dies non (b) Non duty
(c) Duty (d) None
25 If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is

competent to sign the charge sheet? (c)
a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd.
b) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM
c) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the date of retirement
d) President of India
26 Staff major penalty namely. (a)

(a) Compulsory retirement (b) Stoppage of increment
(c) Reduction to the lower stage (d) None
27 A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to (c)

(a) Leave his head qrs. (b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM
(c) Act as defense counsel (d) None
28 An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written examination

required for selection to the promotion? (a)
a) May be called to appear during suspension b)May be called after suspension is over
c)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority. d)None of these
29 Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under (c)

(a) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993 (b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993
(c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993 (d) None
30 An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for grant of sick
leave? (d)
a) Grant of sick leave b) Grant of extraordinary leave
c) Grant of Half pay leave d) Not grant of sick leave
*****END*****
Power Plan, Outage, Load Trials and Engine Links
1. Performa maintained in the zonal power control organization for the statement of
outages, laid up of locos and heavy repairs of all sheds (a)
a) TP 101 b) TP 106
c) TP 104 d) TP 103
2. Performa maintained in the zonal power control organization for the statement of loss on
punctuality on loco account and also contribution if any (d)
a) TP 101 b) TP 106
c) TP 104 d) TP 103
3. Performa maintained in the zonal power control organization for the statement of engine
failures, unusual occurrences and causing damages to locos like CRO and Stallings. ( c )
a) TP 101 b) TP 106
c) TP 104 d) TP 103
4. Performa maintained in the zonal power control organization for the statement of
transfer of locos and movements, dead loco movement, link causality etc (b)
a) TP 101 b)TP 106
c) TP 104 d)TP103
5. While preparing power plan section wise bare requirement [outage] is worked out
basing on average utilization of the last ___ months over the section. (c)
a) 12 b)03
c) 06 d)24
6. Basing on the power plan the distribution of locomotives to division ___ percent is
taken for heavy schedules . (b)
a)05 b)10
c)15 d)20
7. Basing on the power plan the distribution of locomotives to division ___ percent is
taken minor schedules. (b)
a)05 b)10
c)15 d)20
8. Calculate the outage for a loco if worked from 10:00Hrs to 22:00Hrs (c)
a) 1.0 b)0.8
c) 0.5 d)0.6
09. Goods locos used on coaching service due to late running of corresponding link is
called) (c )
a)Effective Outage b)Ineffective outage
c) Goods on passenger d)Passenger on goods
10. _____ is an assessment of the requirement of locomotive /diesel /electrical powers

based on the number of trains and class of trains to run on particular section. (c)
a) Outage b) Utilization
c) Power Plan d) Bare requirement
11. ____ is that portion of locos of particular shed offered for the use of traffic for hauling
freight traffic) (b)
a) Power Plan b) Outage
c) Bare requirement d) Utilization
12. The calculation of how an engine is utilized per day this is one of the aspects for
assessing the efficiency of division / zone is called (d)
a) Power Plan b) Outage
c) Bare requirement d) Utilization
13. How much percent to be less while calculating shed target outage for heavy repair and
shops in case of WDG4 Locos. (b)
a) 10% b) 05%
c) 20% d) 01%
14. How many methods can be used to calculate the load factor? (b)
a) 1 b)2
c) 3 d)4
15.Load factor should not be exceed more than ___ % as fixed by railway board (c)
a) 100% b) 75%
c) 60% d) 50%
16. While conducting EBD test, stopping and restarting capabilities to be conducted
in ___ and ____ trials. (b)
a) 1st and 2nd b) 2nd and 3rd
c) 1st and 3rd d) Only in 3rd
17. How many trials to be conducted to fix load factor? (c)

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
18) Basic duty of Power controller (d)

a) To arrange motive power b) To guide running staff
c) Planning of locos to home shed for maintenance d) All of the above
19) As per HRC, for the purpose of preparation links only running duty should not exceed for
Mail/Express. (b)
a) 7 hrs b) 8 hrs
c) 9 hrs d) 10 hrs
20) Crew links are to be prepared based on (c)

a) Sanctioned strength b) Loco link
c) WTT d) Rake link
21) Running staff review should be carried out for every (b)
a) Year b) Six months
c) Two years d) Three months
22) Loco performance statics “statement -18” describes (a)

a) Engine hours b) Train & Engine kms
c) Fuel statistics d) Train & Engine hrs
23) Leave Reserve’ for Loco inspector is provided in the category of (b)
a) LP goods b) LP Pass
c) LP Mail & Exp. d) CL
24) Time taken between two consecutive block stations is called ___ (a)
a) Inter sectional running time b) Normal running time.
c) Minimum running time. D) Bare running time
*****END*****
Official Language (Rajbhasha)
1. What is the official language of the India?

a) Telugu b) Hindi c) Marathi d) Hindi in Devnagari Script
[Answer: d]
2. In which article of the constitution of India Hindi has been declared as Official Language?
a) Article 120 b) Article 210 c) Article 343 d) 3Article 351
[Answer: c]
3. As per the provisions of the Constitution of India Official Language Hindi shall be written in which
script?
a) Brahmi Script b) Sanskrit Script c) Roman Script d) Devnagari Script
[Answer: d]
4. Which forms of the numerals should be used in official purposes of the Union of India?
a) International form of Indian Numerals b) Devnagari numerals
c) Roman numerals d) None of the above
[Answer: a]
5. Hindi Day is celebrated in India on ........ every year.

a) 10th January b) 26th January c) 15th August d) 14th September
[Answer: d]
6. Why Hindi Day is celebrated in India on 14th September?

a) Constituent Assembly of India had adopted Hindi as Official Language of India on that day.
b) Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language had ordered to do so.
c) Railway Board had ordered to do so d) None of the above
[Answer: a]
7. In which article of the Constitution of India envisages setting up of Official Language Commissions?
a) Article 343 b) Article 344 c) Article 345 d) Article 346
[Answer: b]
8. Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Indian states to choose their own Official
Language?
a) Article 343 b)Article 351 c) Article 210 d) Article 345
[Answer: d]
9. If a state does not choose Official Language for itself from the languages spoken in the state what
language will be its Official Language?
a) All the languages spoken in the state b) Hindi Language
c) English Language d) None of the above
[Answer: c]
10. The authoritative texts of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto to be moved in either
House of Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be in which
language?
a) In Hindi b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India
d) None of the above
[Answer: b]
11. As per the prevailing provisions of the Constitution of India all proceedings in the Supreme Court and
in every High Court shall be in ........... language.
a) In Hindi b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India
[Answer: b]
12. In which article of the constitution of India the duty to promote the spread of the Hindi language
assigned to the Union of India?
[Answer: d]
13. Which of the following languages not included in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India?
a) Chhattisgarhi b) Maithili c) Dogri d) Bodo
[Answer: a]
14. As per the provisions of the Constitution of India vocabulary should be drawn primarily from which
language wherever necessary or desirable for enrichment of Hindi Language to serve as medium of
expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India?
a) English Language b) Hindustani Language c) Lingua Franca d) Sanskrit Language
[Answer: d]
15.In which article of the Constitution of India the provision contains that if a Member of Parliament does
not adequately express himself in Hindi or in English he/she would be permitted by the Chairman of the
Council of the States or speaker of the House of the People or person acting as such as the case may be,
to address the house in his mother tongue?
[Answer: a]
16. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to be used in
parliament has been contained.
[Answer: a]
17. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to be used in state
legislatures has been contained.
[Answer: b]
18. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision contains that if a Member does not adequately
express himself in Hindi or in English he/she would be permitted by the Chairman of the Council of the
States or speaker of the House of the People or person acting as such as the case may be, to address the
house in his mother tongue?
[Answer: b]
19. In clause-3 of which article of the Constitution of India empowers the parliament to make rule
regarding continuation of the use of English language even after the expire of 15 years of the
commencement of the constitution.
[Answer: a]
20. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision to constitute Official Language Commission at
the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration
of ten years from such commencement has been envisaged.
[Answer: c]
21. The 1st Official Language Commission has been constituted on 7th June 1955 as per the provisions of
the Constitution of India. Who was the Chairman of this commission?
a) K. M. Munshi b) Gopal Swami Ayengar c) B. G. Kher d) Govind Vallabh Pant
[Answer: c]
22. Who was the Chairman of the 2nd Official Language Commission?
a) Lal Bahadur Shastry b) Guljarilal Nanda c) Smt. Indira Gandhi d) None of the above
[Answer: d]
23. What is the Official Language of Unioin of India

a) Hindi in Devnagari Script b) Hindi c) Sanskrit d) None of these
[Answer: a]
24. On which date part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament
a)12.09.1949 b)14.09.1949 c)15.09.1949 9)21.09.1949
[Answer: b]
25. When was official language act 1963 passed

a)10.05.1963 b)10.05.1964 c)10.05.1965 d)10.05.1966
[Answer: a]
26. When was official language Act 1963 ammended

a)1963 a)1965 c)1967 d)1969
[Answer: c]
27. Union of India is classified into ------------Regions under Official Language Rules
a) A & B Regions a) C & D Regions c) A,B & C Regions d) None of these
[Answer: c]
28. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year
a) November 14 b) September 14 c) Noveember 21 d) September 21
[Answer: b]
29. According to official language rules, under which region Andaman and Nicobar islands come?
a) Region ‘A’ b) Region ‘B’ c) Region ‘C’ d) None of these
[Answer: a]
30. Which is the only Union territory classified under region ‘B’
a)Union territory of Chandigarh b)Union territory of Daman & Dieu
c) Pondicherry d) None of these
[Answer: a]
31. What is the official language of Arunachal Pradesh

a)Mizo b)English c)Hindi d) None of these
[Answer: b]
32. What is the act passed to give legal form to the assurances given to Non-Hindi speaking people?
a)Official Language Act (amended)-1967 b)Official Language Act (amended)-1969
c)Official Language Act (amended)-1965 d) None of these
[Answer: a]
33. From when did the section3(3) of official languages act take effect?
a)26.01.1961 b)26.01.1963 c)26.01.1965 d)26.01.1967
[Answer: c]
34. In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351 that give information about Official Language
available?
a)Part XV b)Part XVI c)Part XVII d)Part XVIII
[Answer: c]
35. Maximum how many Artists can participate in Hindi drama competitions?
a) Maximum 10 artists b) Maximum 15 artists
c) Maximum 18 artists d) Maximum 21 artists
[Answer: b]
36. How many inspections in a month are mandatory for Rajbhasha Adhikari of railways
a) One inspection per month b) Two inspections per month
c) Three inspections per month d) Four inspection per month
[Answer: a]
37. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth schedule of the constitution
a)20 b)21 c)22 d)23
[Answer: c]
38. In which article is the provision regarding OL policy available in part V of the constitution
a) Article 120 b) Article 343 c) Article 344 d) None of these
[Answer: a]
39. Name the article in which the provision of the Eighth schedule of the Constitution is available
a) Article 120 b) Article 343 c) Article 344 d) Article 344 (1) & 351
[Answer: d]
40. When was the Official Language Rules passed?

a)1974 b)1975 c)1976 d) None of these
[Answer: c]
41. How many articles are there in part XVII of the Constitution?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
[Answer: c]
42. In compliance of article 344 when was the official language commission formed in the year?
a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957 d) 1958
[Answer: a]
43. Who was the first chairman of the Official Language Commission?
a) B.G.Kher b) G.B.Pant c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) None of these
[Answer: a]
44. Who was the first chairman of the committee which was formed on the recommendation of the
official language commission
a) B.G.Kher b) G.B.Pant c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) None of these
[Answer: b]
45. As per the constitution, who is translating the statutory Rules, Regulations and Orders?
a)Law ministry b) Home ministry c) HRD ministry d) None of these
[Answer: a]
46. Which Official Language Rule of 1976, mentions about the working knowledge of the Officer/
Employee?
a) Rule-8 b) Rule-9 c) Rule-10 d) None of these
[Answer: c]
47. Which article comes under part VI?

[Answer: d]
48. Who chaired the first railway Hindi Salahkar Samiti constituted in 1973?
a) Sri Lalit Narayan Mishra b) Sri B.G.Kher c) Sri G.B.Pant d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
[Answer: a]
49. Who was the chairman of the parliamentary committee on official language constituted in the year
1976?
a) OM Mehta b) Sri B.G.Kher c) Sri G.B.Pant d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
[Answer: a]
50. In which year the post of Hindi Asst. was created in General Branch of Railway Board in compliance of
president’s order 1952?
a) 1952 b) 1953 c) 1954 d) 1955
[Answer: a]
51. In which year the Hindi translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway Minister
a) 1956- Lal Bahadur Shastri b) 1956- G.B.Pant
c) 1957- B.G.Kher d) 1957- L.M.Gupta
[Answer: a]
52. In which year Hindi (Parliament) section was established in Railway Board
a) 1956 b) 1958 c) 1960 d) None of these
[Answer: c]
53. a) Region’A’ b) Region’B’ c) Region’C’ d) None of these

[Answer: a]
54. The state of Jarkhand comes under which Region?

a) Region’A’ b) Region’B’ c) Region’C’ d) None of these
[Answer: c]
55. Which sub-committee of the parliamentary committee on official language inspects Railway Ministry
a) First sub-committee b) Second sub-committee
c) Third sub-committee d) Fourth sub-committee
[Answer: d]
56. What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi
a) Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme b) Rajbhasha group cash award scheme
c) Rajbhasha Samman award scheme d) None of these
[Answer: a]
57. What is the expansion for OLIC used by department of official language?
a) Official Language Implementation committee
b) Oriental Language Implementation committee
c) Other Languages Improvement committee
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
58. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for central government employees?
a)One b)Two c)Three d)Four
[Answer: d]
59. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for central government employees?
a) Praveen b) Pragya c) Parangat d) Prabodh
[Answer: d]
60. Who is the chairman of central Hindi Committee?
a) Prime Minister b) Home Minister c) President of India d) Vice President
[Answer: a]
61. Which committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in particular ministry/
department?
a) Hindi Salahkar Samiti b)Parliamentary Committee
c) Official Language Committee d) None of these
[Answer: a]
62. When was the present parliamentary committee on official language constituted?
a) September 1975 b) January 1975 c) September 1976 d) January 1976
[Answer: d]
63. How many members are there in the committee of parliamentary on official Language?
a)21 b)25 c)27 d)30
[Answer: d]
64. How many Lok Sabha members will be there in the committee of parliamentary on official language?
a)21 b)25 c)27 d) 20
[Answer: d]
65. At present, how many sub-committees are there in the parliamentary committee on official language
a) 2 sub-committees b) 3 sub-committees c) 4 sub-committees a) 5 sub-committees
[Answer: b]
66. What is the main duty of the committee of parliament on official language?
a) To review the progressive use of Hindi
b) To review the expenditure incurred for implementation of Hindi
c) To review the regions based on use of Hindi
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
67. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee constituted in major
cities
a) Senior most central government officer of the city
b) Senior most state government officer of the city
c) Senior most railway officer of the city
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
68. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Official Language Implementation Committee?
a) once in 3 months b) once in 6 months c) once in 9 months d) once in 12 months
[Answer: a]
69. What is the periodicity meeting of Town Officials Language Implementation Committee?
a) once in 3 months b) once in 6 months c) once in 9 months d) once in 12 months
[Answer: b]
70. Who prepares the annual program on Official Language?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of LAW
c) Ministry of HRD d) None of these
[Answer: a]
71. What are the Hindi courses prescribed for central government employees
a) Prabodh & Praveen b) Praveen & Pragya
c) Praveen, Pragya & Parangat d) Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat
[Answer: d]
72. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Clerical Cadre Employees Of Central Government
[Answer: c]
73. What are the training facilities available to a central government employee to get trained in the Hindi
courses
a) Regular b) Intensive c) Correspondence and Private d) All of these
[Answer: d]
74. How many times the regular Hindi exams are conducted in a year?
a) One Time b) Two Times c) Three Times d) Four Times
[Answer: b]
75. In which months regular Hindi examinations are conducted

a) April and October b) May and November c) June and December d) None of these
[Answer: b]
76. Who are eligible to be trained in the Hindi courses

a) All the central government employees b) All the central government employees in class III
c) All the central government employees in class III and above officials d) None of these
[Answer: c]
77. Name the newly introduced course in Hindi by Hindi teaching scheme?
[Answer: c]
78. Which course a category ‘C’ employee required to be trained

[Answer: b]
79. From which course a category ‘D’ employee required to be trained

[Answer: d]
80. What is the Lumpsum award for passing pragya?

a) Rs.1200 b) Rs.1600 c) Rs.2000 d) Rs.2400
[Answer: d]
81. How many officers/ employees are warded every year from southern railway under Railway Board’s
Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme
a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Eight
[Answer: d]
82. How many first prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under home
ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
[Answer: c]
83. How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under
home ministries award scheme?
d) None of these
[Answer: b]
84. How many third prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit under home
ministries award scheme?
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
85. In which order name, designation and sign boards are to be exhibited?
a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
86. In which order the forms used by public are to be prepared

a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
[Answer: a]
87. In which order rubber stamps are to be prepared

a) Hindi- English bi-lingual form-one line Hindi and one line English
b) English - Hindi bi-lingual form-one line English and one line Hindi
c) Both a and b d) None of these
[Answer: a]
88. What is the Lumpsum award for passing Hindi type writing examination by private study?
a) Rs.1200 b) Rs.1600 c) Rs.2000 d) Rs.2400
[Answer: b]
89. What is the foreign language included in the Eighth schedule

a) English b) Bhutanese c) Nepali d)Russian
[Answer: c]
90. Who is the chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation Committee?
a) Sr.DPO b) ADRM c) DRM d) Senior Rajbhasha Adhikari
[Answer: c]
91--------- ministry/ office is conducting the exams under Hindi Teaching Scheme for the central
government employees
a) Law ministry b) Home ministry c) HRD ministry d) None of these
[Answer: b]
92. Who is eligible for Lumpsum award

a) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 95%
b) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 85%
c) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by private efforts
d) None of these
[Answer: c]
*****END*****
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS OF RCD FOR CLI EXAMINATION
1. Abbreviation for RCD Ans. ( c )
a) Railway Customer Depot

b) Regional customer depot
c) Railway consumer depot
d) Regional consumer depot
2. Oil used in RCD is Ans ( c )
a) Petrol
b) Diesel
c) HSD
d) Petrol & Diesel
3. The Suppliers will prepare a monthly consolidated statement as per Ans (a)
Form
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-4
c) HSD-5
d) HSD-6
4. RTT means Ans (d)
a) Road Tank trucks

b) Railway truck tanks
c) Regional truck tanks
d) Road Truck tanks
5. In case of supply of HSD oil by RTTs, particulars should be furnished Ans (d)
a) RTT No. & carrying capacity

b) Net quantity loaded in litres and temperature at the time of loading
c) HSD oil density and date and time of loading
d) All the above
6. HSD-1 will prepare in Ans (c )
a) Single
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) Quadruplicate
7. Supply of HSD to RCD/KCG is by Ans (a)
a) RTTs
b) Tank wagons
c) Both
d) Pipe line
8. Register maintained by Depot official to deal with Oil tanks received Ans (a)
a) HSD-2
b) HSD-4
c) HSD-5
d) HSD-10
9. HSD-2 will be prepared in Ans (b)
a) Single
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) Quadruplicate
10. RTT should not be accepted if the shortage is on Ans (b)
a) Lower side
b) Higher side
c) Both
d) None
11. On placement of RTTs at level platform, it should be allowed to settle Ans (c )
for a period of
a) 5 min
b) 10 min
c) 15 min
d) 30 min
12. How many persons are allowed to climb on RTT while taking dip Ans (c )
Measurement?
a) No person
b) One person
c) Two persons
d) Three persons
13. Decanting of RTT after sun set Ans (c)
a) Allowed
b) Not allowed
c) Allowed in exceptional circumstances
d) Allowed by CLI/RCD
14. Measurement of quantity of oil in RTT will be done by Ans (a)
a) Dip rod or tape

b) Flow meter
c) Dip gauge
d) All the above
15. Tests to be conducted for oil before decanting are Ans (d)
a) Density test
b) Crackling test
c) Temperature test
d) All
16. Crackling test for oil before decanting to be done to find out Ans (a)
a) Moisture content
b) Density of oil
c) Quantity of oil
d) Colour of oil
17. What test to be done to find out water contamination in HSD oil Ans (b)
before decanting ?
a) Density test
b) Crackling test
c) Temperature test
d) Colour test
18. Measurement dips/tapes to measure quantity of oil in RTT will be Ans (c )

certified
a) Sr.DME/P
b) Dy.CME/R&L
c) Dept of weights and measurements
d) Oil supply company
19. The quantity of HSD oil as invoiced should be recorded in Ans (a)
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-6
c) HSD-5
d) HSD-2
20. Diversion of Tank wagons will be ordered by Ans (c )
a) Sr.DME
b) Oil company
c) Dy.CME/R&L
d) Incharge RCD
21. Form No. of Diversion memo of tank wagon Ans (c )
a) F-1
b) F-2
c) F-3
d) F-4
22. The register maintained at fuelling installation point for each storage Ans (c )
tank is
a) HSD-2
b) HSD-3
c) HSD-4
d) HSD-6
23. HSD – 4 shows Ans (d)
a) Receipts of HSD
b) Issues of HSD
c) Balance of HSD
d) All
24. Daily stock register of HSD at RCD is Ans (d)
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-3
c) HSD-4
d) HSD-5
25. RCD incharge must take the storage tank dip readings Ans (c )
every day at the time of
a) 8.00 AM and 14 hrs

b) 10.00 AM and 16 hrs
c) 8.00 AM and 17 hrs
d) 18.00 hrs
26. Samples of each storage tank for water contamination test to be Ans (b)
drawn at least once in
a) 15 days
b) 1 month
c) 2 months
d) Every day
27. Cleaning and painting of storage tank at RCD is to be undertaken Ans (d)
once in
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Three years
d) Four years
28. Cleaning and painting of storage tanks at RCD will be done by Ans (c)
a) Sr.DME
b) Dy.CME/R&L
c) Oil company
d) CLI/RCD
29. Issue of HSD oil to the locomotive is to be invariably undertaken through Ans (b)
a) Fuel oil gauge

b) Flow meter
c) Dip reading
d) Dip tapes
30. Permitted percentage of variation between Book balance and ground Ans (a)
Balance at RCD is
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 4%
31. Dip stick is used to measure at RCD is Ans (c )
a) Issue of HSD
b) To take readings of storage tanks
c) Tank wagon/Tank lorry
d) Water contamination
32. Flow meter is used to measure at RCD is Ans (a)
a) Issue of HSD
b) To take readings of storage tank
d) Density of HSD
33. Dip tape is used to measure at RCD is Ans (b)
a) Issue of HSD
b) To take readings of storage tank
d) Density of HSD
34. Calibration of flow meter at RCD will be done Ans (a)
a) Once in every year

b) Twice a year
c) Once in six months
d) Twice in six months
35. Codal life of flow meter is Ans (d)
a) 12 years
b) 13 years
c) 14 years
d) 15 years
36. Permitted ceiling of handling loss at RCD Ans (a)
a) 0.1%
b) 0.01%
c) 0.001%
d) 1%
37. HSD oil issued to all Diesel locomotives is called Ans ( a)
a) Traction use
b) Non traction use
c) Diesel use
d) All
38. HSD oil issued to generators of ARTs is called Ans (b)
a) Traction use
b) Non traction use
c) Generator use
d) ARTs use
39. Fuel issued to Locomotive will be made on Fuel voucher no. Ans (d)
a) F-2
b) F-6
c) F-10
d) F-12
40. F12 voucher should be made in Ans ( c )
a) Single
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) Quadruplicate
41. Daily stock register at RCD is Ans (b)
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-5
c) HSD-6
d) HSD-10
42. Monthly statement of issue of HSD oil to running engines Ans (c )
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-4
c) HSD-6
d) HSD-10
43. HSD-6 will be made as Ans (d)

a) Single
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) Quadruplicate
44. Monthly statement of miscellaneous issues Ans (c )
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-6
c) HSD-7
d) HSD-10
45. HSD-7 will be made as Ans (b)
a) Single
b) Duplicate
c) Triplicate
d) Quadruplicate
46. Monthly returns showing receipts, issues and balance of HSD oil Ans (c )
a) HSD-5
b) HSD-6
c) HSD-9
d) HSD-12
47. Monthly summary of oil issued to maintenance of locos under

various schedules, cleaning of filters, etc., Ans (d)
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-6
c) HSD-10
d) HSD-12
48. Fuel checkers daily diary Ans (d)
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-5
c) HSD-9
d) HSD-10
49. In a year Power officers should inspect RCD Ans (c )
a) 2 times
b) 4 times
c) 3 times
d) 6 times
50. Loco Inspector can inspect RCD in a year Ans (c )
a) 4 times
b) 6 times
c) Any number of times
d) 12 times
51. How many kilometers distance is free delivery zone
for supplying of RTT by Oil company to Railway? Ans (b)
a) 19 kms
b) 29 kms
c) 39 kms
d) 49 kms
52. Stock adjustment of RCD can be done by Ans (a)
a) Stock verifier
b) Accounts officer
c) Oil company
d) CLI/RCD
53. Capacity of KCG/RCD is Ans (b)
a) 290 KL
b) 390 KL
c) 490 Kl
d) 590 KL
54. Plate used for crackling test Ans (b)
a) Cold
b) Hot
c) Both
d) None
55. After the loco is fuelled the LP/Shunter should sign in Ans (a)
a) HSD-10 & F-12

b) HSD-10 & F-10
c) HSD-12 & F-10
d) HSD-12 & F-12
56. Monthly consolidated statement prepared by suppliers Ans (a)
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-4
c) HSD-6
d) HSD-9
57. Placement memo of tank wagon Ans (c)
a) Form No.3
b) Form No.5
c) Form No.7
d) Form No.9
58. All HSD oil tank wagons booked to the depot as advised from Ans (b)
the supplier on HSD-1 be entered in
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-2
c) HSD-3
d) HSD-4
59. Statement of enroute shortages during the month Ans (b)
a) HSD-1
b) HSD-3
c) HSD-4
d) HSD-5
60. Summary of all storage tank registers (HSD-4) is Ans (b)
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-5
c) HSD-6
d) HSD-9
61. Issuing of HSD is made for other than Loco purpose are Ans (c )
prepared in
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-7
c) HSD-8
d) HSD-10
62. Total receipts , issues and balance of oil during the month worked Ans ( c)
out and posted in the statement
a) HSD-6
b) Hsd-4
c) Hsd-9
d) Hsd-10
63. The stock verification of each RCd is to be undertaken by Branch officer Ans (a)
of Mechanical department of division is
a) Once in a year
b) Once in 6 months
c) Once in 3 months
d) Once in a month
64. JS/SS level officers of Mechanical department should check RCD at Ans (b)
an interval of
a) Once in a year
b) Twice in a year
c) Thrice in a year
d) 4 times in a year
65. Stock verifier of the Accounts department should check RCD at an Ans (a)
interval of
a) Yearly once
b) Yearly twice
c) Yearly thrice
d) Yearly four times
66. Write off sanctioning authority for the difference of stock on ground to Ans (c )
book balance up to 0.05 % is
a) ADME
b) Sr.DME
c) DRM/ADRM
d) CLI/RCD
67. Write off sanctioning authority for the difference of stock on ground to Ans (d)
book balance from 0.05 to 0.1 % age
a) ADME
b) Sr.DME
c) DRM/ADRM
d) COM
68. Form No. of oil tank testing at RCD is Ans (d)
a) HSD-4
b) HSD-5
c) HSD-10
d) HSD-11
69. Form No. of oil tank wagons invoiced but not received during the
Month at RCD is Ans (d)
a) F-12
b) F-10
c) F-7
d) F-6
70. If the consumption of HSD oil up to 15 KL per day, the RCD called as Ans (a)
a) Minor installation
b) Medium installation
c) Major installation
d) All of the above
71. Consumption of HSD oil at RCD is 15.1 KLto 30 KL per day is called as Ans (b)
72. Consumption of HSD oil at RCD is 30 KL and above per day is called as Ans (c)
73. Stock verification inspection at RCD by Sr.DME will be done in the month of Ans (b)
a) March
b) April
c) November
d) December
74. Stock verification inspection at RCD by ADME/DME will be done in the Ans ( c )
month of
a) January & December

b) March & August
c) August & December
d) November & December
75. Stock verification and inspection at RCD by CLI/Fuel will be done in the Ans ( b)
month of
a) January, April & August

b) February, June & October
c) March, July & November
d) April, August & December
76. Based on the consumption of HSD oil, RCD/KCG is Ans (a)
a) Major installation
c) Minor installation
d) All the above
*****END*****

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Model Question Bank for the Post Of Chief Loco Inspector/Hyderabad

Division For CLI’s as per the notification issued by

S. No. List of Subjects No. of Questions

CHAPTER – 14, 15 16 & 17

120 During cranking if engine not holding may be due to (D)

1. What is the Horse power of WDP4 D & WDP4 B locomotives

36. Output voltage & current of TCC is.

45. Current rating of TCC1-TCC2 BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco is

A. Driver cabin B. Near Radiator room

86. Air compressor in the HHP locomotive is

109. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working control stand A9 should be kept in

113. Oil visibilty in bye pass sight glass indicates that

138. Model of WDG4. Loco

140. Nos of Axles in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

163. Temperatures of Engine exhaust gas reach up to

166. No. of Radiator fan in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

168. No. of Brake blocks in HHP Locos

177. Each Traction Motor provided with

178. Diameter of new wheels in WDP4 locos is

180. To recover PCS, it is compulsory to keep

181. The companion alternator runs at the same speed as

182. MR Pressure dropping on run due to

183. WDP4/WDG4 Hand break applies on wheels

184. Break cylinder pressure in WDP4/WDG4

185. MR pressure not building up due to

186. What is the effect of auto flasher operation

187. ER/BP not creating

188. Lube oil pumps provided In HHP

189. Radiator fan controlled by

193. In WDP4/WDG4 BA consists of two zones

195. Head light rating in WDP4/WDG4 loco is

198. OSTA in WDP4/WDG4 trip at minimum

1. D 26. C 51. B 76. C

Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER

32 In 1600 HP DEMU motor driven Compress Under Radiator None

Ans:- (c) 30 days in a calendar year; (Para-523 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

2. How many days of HLAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?

Ans:- (c ) 20 days in a year; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol.-I,1995 edition)

3. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for

Ans:- (b) 45 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 72/97 )

Ans:- (c ) 15 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & 154/97)

6. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is

Ans:- (d) 300 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 172/97 )

7. LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of

Ans:- (a) 2 ½ days per month; (Para-524 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

Ans:- (a) 10 days; (Para-525 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

Ans:- (d) Unlimited; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

Ans:- (a) Less than two surviving children; (Para-551(A) R-I)

Ans:- (a) One year; (Para-551, R-I)

Ans:- (d) 12 days; (Para-534, R-I)

Ans:- (a) 16 days; (Para-533, R-I)

Ans:- (b) 240 days; (RBE No. 42/92)

15. Study leave shall count for :-

Ans:- (c ) Earning LAP (R-I, 556)

16. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?

Ans:- (d) Group ‘D’ only. (Para-554 of IREC, Vol.-I)

Ans:- (d ) Extra ordinary leave (Para 530, R-I)

18. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is…….

Ans:- (b) 180 days;

19. Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?

Ans:- (d) ADRM (Rule 552, 553, R-I).

Ans:- (d) Rly. School Teacher (Para 525, R-I).

Ans:- (c) 180 days; (Para 523, R-I)