CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Glucose is metabolized at Room Temperature at a Rate of ___ md/dL/hr at 4 oC, the loss is approximately ___
mg/dL/hr.
a. 2,7 c. 8,3
b. 3,8 d. 7,2
2. Gaussian curve represents:
a. mean > mode c. median < mean
b. median = mode d. mean = mode = median
3. Which of the following represents the x-axis?
a. Vertical line, dependent variable c. Horizontal line, dependent variable
b. Vertical line, independent variable d. Horizontal line, independent variable
4. At 4oC, glucose is metabolized at the rate of:
a. 2 mg/dL/hr c. 7 mg/dL/hr
b. 4 mg/dL/hr d. none
5. Alkalemia
a. < 7.35 c. 7.35
b. > 7.45 d. 7.45
6. Whole blood fasting blood glucose level is ___ than plasma
a. 10-15% lower c. 10-15% higher
b. 5-10% lower d. 5-10% higher
7. Screening test for Acromegaly
a. Dexamethasone suppression test c. Glucose suppression test - Confirmatory
b. Somatomedin C d. Overnight suppression test
8. ACP level when there is increased bilirubin and Hgb:
a. Increased c. no effect
b. Decreased d. none
9. In Cushing’s disease:
a. Increase in cortisol, decrease in ACTH c. Increase in cortisol and ACTH
b. Decrease in cortisol, increase in ACTH d. Decrease in cortisoland ACTH
10. Creatinine levels in the blood is affected by:
a. Muscle mass only c. Diet only
b. Diet and muscle mass d. Diet, muscle mass and water intake
11. Blood pressure cuff – 60mmHg
12. Blood gas levels of a patient with Myocardial Infarction:
a. pCO2 decreased, pH normal c. pCO2 decreased, pH decreased
b. pCO2 increased, pH increased d. pCO2 normal, pH increased
13. Causes of hyperglycemia during pregnancy
a. Increases glucose intake c. decreased glucose uptake of cells
b. Hormonal changes d. none
14. What happens when rennin increase?
a. Low sodium, low plasma volume c. hypotension
b. High potassium, low plasma volume d. low aldosterone
15. Fasting period for lipid profile? 12-14 hours
16. At what TAG level will the serum produce turbidity?
a. 600 mg/dL c. 300 mg/dL
b. 200 mg/dL d. none
17. IDDM occurs to which of the following?
a. Elderly c. Immunocompromised individuals
b. Individuals less than 20 years old d. all
18. Screening test for Cushing’s syndrome
a. Low Dose Dexamthasone c. 24 hours urinary cortisol

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 b. CRH Stimulation Test d. all
19. Instrument that uses gratings
a. FEP c. AAS
b. Spectrophotometer d. Fluorometry
20. Which of these results will make a 50 year old adult at risk for artherosclerosis
a. 45 mg/dL HDL and 500 mg/dL TAG c. < 30 mg/dL HDL and 300 mg/dL TAG
b. 40 mg/dL HDL and 450 mg/dL TAG
21. Total Cholesterol – HDL – Triglycerides / 5
a. LDL c. Lpa
b. VLDL
22. Which of the following can be found on the beta-region in SPE
1. LPP (HDL-alpha 1) (LDL, VLDL-beta)
2. Transferrin
3. Component
a. 1,2,3 c. 1,3
b. 1,2 d. 2,3
23. A decrease in the albumin level and an increase in the a2-globulin region in PSE indicates?
a. Nephrotic syndrome c. Multiple Myeloma
b. Pulmonary Emphysema d. Cirrhosis
24. Highest concentration of a drug is indicated by:
a. Trough c. Dose
b. Wave d. Peak
25. At least risk for developing cardiac disease:
a. Ldl c. Hdl
b. Cholesterol d. Tag
26. Appropriate sample for ammonia determination? Heparinized plasma Lactate detm’n – gray top with fluoride
exalate to prevent glycolysis
27. A 5 or more times elevation in AST activity can be seen in what condition?
a. Myocardial infarction (3-5x inc. in LDH) c. Myocardial infarction and acute pancreatitis
b. Myocardial infarction and chronic hepatitis d. Chronic hepatitis
28. What is the effect of 0.27 to 0.40 (% w/v) blood alcohol level to an individual?
a. Impairment of motor skills c. Decreased inhibition
b. Impaired consciousness d. Coma and death
29. What should you do when the patient refuses to have his blood extracted:
a. Tell the nurse in charge c. let the patient make a refusal statement
b. Convince the patient d. return to the lab and ask help from colleague
30. Components of positive displacement pipette:
a. Piston, capillary, piston seal c. Piston seal, piston pump
b. Capillary, piston d. Capillary pump, piston pump
31. What type of fire: paper, cloth and wood? Type A
32. What type of fire: flammable liquids? Type B
33. Post renal azotemia can be seen at what condition?
34. ST and ALT are under what classification of enzymes? Transferases
35. What is anion gap?
a. Difference between unmeasured anions and cations
b. Quality control and the difference between unmeasured anion and cations
c. Quality control
d. Difference between measured cations and anions
36. Advantage of Bromcresol Green to HABA (hydroxybenzenazobenzoic acid):

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37. Serum Calcium is controlled by:
1. PTH
2. Calcitonin
3. Vitamin D
b. 1,2 c. 1 to 3
c. 1 and 3 d. none
38. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present: Control solution
39. Determines bile duct patency
a. ALP c. Bilirubin
b. Total bilirubin and direct ratio d. Albumin
40. Determines ability to synthesize conjugated bilirubin and to transport bile
a. ALP c. Bilirubin
b. Total bilirubin and direct ratio d. Albumin
41. Uses Monochromatic Light
a. Spectrophotometry c. AAS photometry
b. Fluorometry
42. Visible light except
a. Red c. Green
b. Blue d. Ultraviolet
43. Elevation of Bilirubin in New Borns is called:
a. Kernicterus c. both
b. Physiologic Jaundice d. none
44. Creatinine assay that is simple, nonspecific:
a. Colorimetric: Kinetic c. Colorimetric: Endpoint
b. UV: Enzymatic d. none
45. AMS, ALP and Cholinesterase belong to the class of:
a. Lyases c. Transferases
b. Isomerases d. Hydrolases
46. Cause dilation of afferent arteriole and constriction of efferent arteriole
a. Angiotensin I c. Angiotensin II
47. ___ single test for?????
___ Test for tubular integrity
a. Crea, urea c. B2-macroglobulin, urea
b. Crea, b2-macroglobulin d. Urea, creatinine
48. Antitutissive drug
a. Heroine c. Cocaine
b. Codeine
49. Triglyceridel level which cause turbidity in the sample
a. >600 mg/dL c. none
b. >300 mg/dL
(serum is lipemic when TAG levels exceed 400 mg/dL)
CF: 0.113
50. Hypoglycemia would be seen at what glucose level?
a. <30 c. <50
b. <40
51. Provides electroneutrality
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride – major extracellular ion anion; counter ion of sodium
d. Bicarbonate
52. Classification of AMY, ACP, ALK as enzyme:
a. Oxidoreductase c. Lyase
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 b. Hydrolase
53. Importance of SPE: MM
54. Cation involve in nerve impulse
a. Sodium
b. Potassium – major intracellular cation; countercurrent ion of sodium
c. Calcium
d. Chloride
55. Effect of hypothyroidism in Triglycerides level
a. Increase c. no effect
b. Decrease
*** hypothyroidism = slow metabolism = FAT (increase TAG and Chole)
56. Bicarbonate to carbonic acid ratio
a. 20:1 (BUN to CREA Ratio = 10-20:1) c. 1:10
b. 1:20 d. 10:1
57. Which bilirubin fraction increase in Hepatic disease
a. B1 c. DB
b. B2 d. both a and b
58. Conversion factor of Uric Acid
a. 0.055 c. 0.059 (0.0595)
b. 0.0113 d. 0.357
59. Conversion factor of Triglyceride
a. 0.113 c. 0.055
b. 0.357 d. 0.059
60. Pathologic: >5x increase in ALP
a. Cirrhosis c. pregnancy
b. Hepatitis d. bone tumor
61. Involved in the water content of compartment of the body
a. Potassium c. Chloride
b. Magnesium d. Sodium
62. T-test is a tes for:
a. Accuracy c. Reliability
b. Precision d. all
63. In Hypothyroidism:
a. T3 and T4 is decreased, T3 uptake is increased
b. T3 and T4 is increased, T3 uptake is decreased
c. T3 and T4 is decreased, T3 uptake is decreased
d. T3 and T4 is increased, T3 uptake is increased
64. Majority of the contents of HDL is:
a. Cholesterol c. Cholesterol esters
b. Protein d. Triglyceride
65. Uric acid assay affected by turbidity:
a. Colorimetric c. Enzymatic: H2O2
b. UV: Enzymatic d. none
66. Not true about sodium:
a. Involved in neuromuscular transmission c. Water
b. Osmotic regulator outside the cell
67. NCEP Guidelines for chole level, moderate risk >220, high risk >240
a. 2-19 c. 30-39
b. 20-29 d. 40 above
68. Screening of cushing’s syndrome
a. Overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression
b. Midnight salivary Cortisol
c. 24-hour urinary growth free cortisol
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 d. all
69. cushing’s disease
a. hypersecretion of growth hormone c. Hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hypersecretion of ACTH d. no secretion of ACTH
70. Sterility and infertility
a. Hyposecretion of growth hormone c. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
b. Hypersecretion of gonadotropins d. Hyposecretion of gonadotropins
71. Failure to correct the dilution will result to what error?
a. Random c. Proportional
b. Systematic d. Clerical
72. Calculated estimate of FT4
a. FT4 by immunoassay c. FT4 by equilibrium dialysis
b. FTI
73. Neonate bilirubin level of 28 mg/dL. When will you report result?
a. Immediately c. after 6-8 hours
b. After 4-6 hours d. wait for the doctor
74. Standard curve
a. Line is straight
b. Line goes through origin of X and Y
75. Low anion gap:
a. Decreased unmeasured anions, increased unmeasured cations
b. Normal unmeasured anions, decreased unmeasured cations
c. Increased unmeasured anions, decreased unmeasured cations
d. Decreased unmeasured anions, decreased unmeasured cations
76. Phenobatbital
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturate
77. Glucose using copper reduction method is ___ higher than enzymatic methods
a. 10-20 c. 5-15
b. 10-25
78. Measurement of absorbed light isolated, produced by the diffratctiongrating
a. Fluorometry c. AAS
b. Spectrophotometry d. FEP
79. Method for uric acid based on uricase reaction
a. Enzymatic : UV
b. Enzymatic: H2O2
80. Migrates farthest toward the anode
a. Albumin – major component of serum proteins
b. Alpha – 1 microglobulin
81. Broken centrifuge, chemical spills
a. Direct inoculation c. aerosol spray
b. Skin contact d. ingestion
82. Factors that will affect drug metabolism
a. Renal function c. Concurrent
b. Age and Sex d. all
83. Which of the following methods are non enzymatic and obsolete?
a. Nelson-somogyi c. Hezokinase
b. Ortho-toluidine
84. If antecubital veins are unsuitable for venipuncture, what are the alternative sites?
a. Wrist and foot c. wrist and hand
b. Foot and hand
85. Which parameters are important to consider in machines used for routine analysis and therapeutic drug
monitoring?
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 a. Specificity and Sensitivity c. Specificity and Accuracy
b. Accuracy and Precision d. Sensitivity and Precision
86. A MTOD made an error in considering the final dilution before reporting the final result. What type of error is
this?
a. Random error c. Outlier
b. Systematic error d. Dilution error
87. Most preferred sample of POCT
a. Venous blood c. Capillary blood
b. Arterial blood d. Urine
88. Principle of machines used to screen for anti-psychotic drugs
a. Fluorometry c. Spectrophotometry
b. HPLC d. Nephelometry
89. Reaction rate is directly proportional to substance concentration
As enzyme concentration is maintained in excess, substrate concentration is added in the course of reaction
a. Zero order kinetics c. Competitive inhibition
b. First order kinetics d. noncompetitive inhibition
90. To which of the following does this apply? E + S = ES = E + P
a. Michaelis-Menten equation c. Enzyme catalytic reaction
b. Lineweaver-Burke plot d. Zero order reaction
91. The reaction rate is allowed to run and is eventually stooped at a specific time and the analyte of interest
measures.
a. Kinetic c. Fixed time
b. End-point d. Differential
92. How often should POCT instrument be quality controlled?
a. Every week c. Every month
b. On each day of use d. Every preventive maintenance
93. Best way to prevent spread of infectious organisms or simply how should you dry your hands (after
handwashing)?
a. Hand towel c. Sanitizer
b. Air dryer d. Disposal towel

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. What type of microscope produces images with halos?

a. Polarizing microscope c. Phase-contrast microscope
b. Darkfield microscope d. Fluorescence microscope
2. Cause pos in nitrate dip strip – Gram negative bacilli (3x)
3. Test for mucopolysaccharides
a. Rubner’s c. DNPH
b. Obermayer’s d. CTAB
4. MAO in gastric fluid analysis stands for:
a. Minimal Acid Output c. Major Acid Output
b. Maximum Acid Output d. Minor Acid Output
5. Recommended time to test for completeness of vasectomy?
a. After 2 weeks c. after 3 months
b. After 2 months d. after 6 months
6. Gastric tube with metal tip inserted through the mouth
a. Levine c. Boa
b. Rehfuss d. Speigler’s
7. Which of the following WBCs is/are not detected by the LE parameter of the reagent strip:
1. Neutrophils
2. Monocytes

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 3. Eosinophils
4. Lymphocytes
a. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4
b. 3 only d. 4 only
8. Which of the following is confused with a WBC in urine sediment?
a. Candida spp c. air bubbles
b. Spermatid d. all
9. What do you refer to a patient who submits a urine sample for drug testing?
a. Outpatient c. Volunteer
b. Donor d. Drug user
10. What are the urinalysis findings of a person with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura?
a. Hematuria only
b. Hematuria with RBC casts
c. Hematuria with RBC casts with heavy proteinuria
d. None
11. Which of the following are common contents of renal calculi?
a. Calcium oxalate c. Triple phosphates
b. Uric acid d. Bilirubin
12. An odorless urine is associated with:
a. Acute Renal Failure c. Nephrotic Syndrome
b. Normal kidneys d. none
13. Which of the following tests are used to detect neutral tube defects?
a. Acetylcholinesterase c. OD 450
b. Amniosts d. all
14. Positive color result in Ketone parameter of reagent strip:
a. Tan c. Purple
b. Pink d. Dark blue
15. Sperm motility grading of 4.0:
a. Rapid straight-line motility
b. Slower speed, some lateral movement
c. Slow forward progression, noticeable lateral movement
d. No forward progression
16. Which of the following dipstick parameters is least affected by prolonged storage?
a. Blood c. Protein
b. pH d. Specific Gravity
17. sensitivity rang of dipstick specific gravity parameter:
a. 1.005-1.035 c. 1.010-1.050
b. 1.003-1.040 d. 1.000-1.040
18. The use of powdered gloves during microscopic examination of a synovial fluid is not recommended
bacuase:
a. Powder in the gloves contributes viscosity to the fluid
b. The powder interferes with cell counting
c. Powder interferes during crystal examination
d. all
19. POCT for Cryptococcus neoformans antigen detection test requires what sample:
a. Serum c. Serum and CSF
b. CSF d. all body fluid are acceptable
20. In the calculated GFR, which of the following is not included in the MDRD system?
1. BUN
2. Age
3. Serum albumin
4. Body weigth
a. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4
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 b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 4 only
21. What is the most commonly used method or preserving urine specimens?
a. Addition of preservative such as formalin c. storing at room temperature
b. Storing in the refrigerator d. none
22. In which CSF tube should you check for physical characteristics?
a. Tube 1 c. Tube 3
b. Tube 2 d. Tube 2 and 3
23. Which of the following parameters are detected by CASA?
a. Speed and movement c. Velocity and Trajectory
b. Trajectory and direction d. Liquefaction and volume
24. Which of the following is the MOST important part of the sperm needed for ovum penetration?
a. Acrosome c. Acrosomal cap, midpiece
b. Acrosomal cap, head, midpiece d. Acrosomal cap, tail
25. Abnormal crystals are quantitated by:
a. Identified in LPO, Reported per HPF c. Identified in LPO, Reported per LPF
b. Identified in HPO, Reported per LPF d. Identified in HPO, Reported per HPF
26. Creola bodies are seen in:
a. Bronchitis c. Asthma
b. Bronchopneumonia d. Lung cancer
nd
27. What is the purpose of the 2 collected urine in a prostatitis specimen?
a. For diagnosis of prostatitis
b. For confirmatory after a positive 1st specimen
c. Control for bladder and kidney infection
d. All
28. Which of the following is quantitated and reported per HPF?
a. Abnormal crystals c. Squamous EC
b. Mucus d. RTE cells
29. Branching or horn-like cast: Staghorn appx: Triple Phsophate Crystal/Sulfadaziazine crystal:
30. Albumin excretion rate with microalbuminuria – 20-200 mg/dL
31. Grading of protein level of 200-400 mg/dL: 3+
32. 10 CaOx/hpf: Moderate
33. Steniheimer stain to differentiate WBC form RTE? New methylene blue
34. Normal ph of stool – 7.0 to 8.0
35. Split fat (95% alc + eosin or acetic acid + eosin)
36. Eosinophils and Curshmann spiral may be found: (Bronchial) asthma
37. Reagent strip for blood – peroxidase activity of Hgb
38. False positive and negative on pregnancy test: situational
39. Athlete – showering casts due to strenuous exercise
40. Soluble in ether: chyle, Lymphatic fluid and lipids (CLL)
41. Urine Clarity – News paper print bag Urine Color: white background
42. Adenosine value in patients with M. tuberculosis infection: >40 U/L
43. Normal urine pH, (no mentioned if first morning urine) – 4-8
44. Positive Yellow Foam – Bilirubin, protein, phendiazepine
45. Meaning of A in RACE - alarm
46. Meaning of E in RACE - Extinguish / Evacuate

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

1. Specimens for detection and diagnosis of enteroviral meningitis include:

a. Stool c. throat swab and CSF
b. Stool and throat swab d. stool, throat swab and CSF
2. Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan virus is an RNA virus also known as:

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 a. Echo virus c. Picornavirus
b. Enterovirus d. Adenovirus
3. In the DME of CSF, which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte?
a. Candida c. Geotrichum
b. Cryptococcus d. Blastomyces
4. Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that:
a. Contains egg c. appear in the eye
b. On contact with water, release larva d. none
5. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal culture?
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar c. Staib’s medium
b. Cornmeal agar d. Rice agar
6. At what temperature should clinical specimens suspected to containing viruses kept for transport that
takes days?
a. -70 deg c. 4 deg C
b. 20 deg C d. -20 deg C
7. Todd-Hewitt Broth is recommended for:
a. Determination of Mycobacterial growth rate
b. Primary culture of anaerobes
c. Stool enrichment for Salmonella but not Shigella
d. Culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence
8. It refers to the smallest concentration of antibiotics that can kill 99.9% of bacteria
a. Minimum Lethal Concentration
b. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
c. Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
d. a and c
9. Which of the following tapeworm has scolex, rostellum and hooklets?
a. T. saginata c. E. granulosus
b. T. solium d. H. nana
10. What is the infective stage of Plasmodium to humans?
a. Gametocytes c. Schizonts
b. Cryptozoites d. Sporozoites
11. “Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms at the:
a. Site of larval penetration c. allergic reaction
b. During larval migration d. a and c
12. Kala-azar is also known as:
a. Visceral Leishmaniasis c. Oriental Sore
b. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis d. none
13. Which of the following would have a double-walled, wrinkled cyst form?
a. Naegleria fowleri c. A. castellani
b. E. hartmanni d. D. fragilis
14. Which of the following closely resembles C. diphtheriae in cultures?
a. C. pseudodiphtheriticum c. C. jeikium
b. C. ulcerans d. C. pseudotuberculosis
15. Capnophilic organisms require:
a. 3% CO2 c. 5% O2
b. 5-10% CO2 d. 5-10% O2
16. Photoreactivity can be used to group Mycobacteria to:
a. Photochromogens c. Nonchromogens
b. Scotochromogens d. all
17. Which of the following produce a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar and is associated with gas
gangrene?
a. C. perfringens c. C. tetani
b. C. spheroids d. C. difficile
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18. The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and E. hartmanni is:
a. Presence of peripheral chromatin c. only one possesses a cyst form
b. Presence of chromatoid bodies d. size
19. Haemophilus influenzae requires which of the following growth factors?
a. X factor only c. X and V factors
b. V factor only d. none
20. In the disk diffusion test, the 0.5 McFarland Standard is used to:
a. Measure the thickness of the media in the Petri dish
b. Determine how close the antibiotic discs should be placed
c. Adjust the turbidity of the inoculums
d. All
21. Which of the following would appear colorless in XLD?
i. Shigella
ii. Salmonella
iii. E. coli
iv. K. pneumonia
a. 1 and 2 c. 2 only
b. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3
22. What best differentiate Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Growth in MSA c. catalase test
b. Coagulase test d. none
23. Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of Bacillus anthracis can be found in:
a. Specimen from the patient c. Cultures
b. Guinea pigs d. none
24. Used to decontaminate/sterilize materials – auto clave, filter, UV, oxide
25. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:
a. Growth rate c. Hydrolysis by Tween 80
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction d. Catalase test at 68oC
26. In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution
a. Dilution is increased c. Dilution is increased by 20%
b. Dilution is decreased d. Dilution is not affected
27. Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test for streptococci?
a. Phadebac test c. Lancefield Precipitin test
b. Fluorescent antibody test d. all
28. End color of cholesterol in Abel Kendall (three strep method) - Green
29. Most abundant multicellular animal on Earth
a. Flukes c. Nematodes
b. Flatworms d. Earthworms
30. Third species Taenia, which is found in Taiwan, has which of the following intermediate hosts?
a. Birds c. Domesticated pigs
b. Goats, wild boars, monkeys d. Fishes
31. Which of the following describes the capsomeres of viruses?
a. Single-stranded or Double-stranded c. DNA or RNA
b. Helical or Icosahedral d. enveloped or non-eveloped
32. In the Philippines, malaria is screened through:
a. POCT assay c. Thin smear
b. Thick smear and buffy coat smear d. PCR
**** Side notes: in hospitals, blood units are screened first thru POCT kits (p-LDH assays), if positive,
confirm using thick and thin smears
33. A patient is suspected of amoebiasis, which of the following containers is recommended for use?
a. Cardboard box with wax paper c. Plastic box container
b. Banana leaves d. Glass jar with tight lid
34. LOA of Klebsiella pneumoniae
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 a. Ferment lysine only c. Ferment lysine and arginine
b. Ferment lysine and ornithine d. Ferment ornithine and arginine
35. Contain both DNA and RNA?
a. Chlamydia c. Mycoplasma
b. Rickettsia d. all
36. Which of the following is NOT part of the classification of Mycobacteria?
a. Photochromogen c. Scotochromogen
b. Nonphotochromogen d. none
37. Most frequently used concentration test for the recovery of nematode eggs and protozoan cysts
a. Zinc sulfate flotation c. Kato-Katz
b. Formalin ether acetate sedimentation d. Brine flotation
38. OXK and OX19k is seen in which of the following organisms?
a. Proteus mirabilis c. Shigella flexneri
b. Proteus vulgaris d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
39. Anticoagulant for virus and some bacteria
a. Citrate c. 0.25% SPS
b. EDTA d. Heparin
40. Confirmatory test for Leptospirosis
a. IFA c. DFA
b. Culture d. Gram stain
41. Corynebacterium with small, white to pale gray colonies (no medium given)
a. ---- c. C. amycolatum
b. C. minutissimum d. C. diphtheria
42. Milk-borne diaseases in cows
a. Salmonella thypi
b. Mycobacterium bovis
43. Klebsiella pneumoniae decarboxylase result
a. Positive in lysine only c. Positive in lysine and ornithine
b. Positive in ornithine only d. Positive in lysine and arginine
44. Found in sheep and cattle, not endemic in the Philippines
a. Fasciolla hepatica c. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Echinostoma ilocanum d. Fasciolposis buski
45. How often should catalase, oxidase and coagulase reagents be tested?
1. Once each day of use
2. Once each week of use
3. When vials is first opened
a. 1 only c. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
46. The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for flotation method is:
a. 1.01 c. 1.18
b. 1.04 d. 1.48
47. A CSF specimen is obtained from a patient suspected of meningitis. Which of the following culture
media should be used for primary isolation?
a. CAP and BA c. BA and MAC
b. CAP and MAC d. EMB and MAC
48. Capsule
a. Serotyping c. Complement activation
b. Complement fixation d. Agglutination
49. Preservative for Trichrome stain:
a. Formalin c. Schaudinn’s fixative
b. Alcohol d. Saline
50. The causative agent of lockjaw could be described as:
a. Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules
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 b. Gram positive rods with central spores
c. Gram positive rods that resemble Chinese letters
d. Gram positive spore-forming rods that resemble drumsticks or tennis rackets
51. Gram staining results revealed a gram negative kidney bean shaped diplococcic. The isolated
organism is also oxidase positive. The organism is most likely:
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Neisseria spp
b. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
52. Fluorescence staining uses:
a. Brightfield microscope c. Phase-Contrast
b. Darkfield microscope d. Interference-Contrast
53. Cercarial dermatitis, also known as Swimmer’s itch is caused by:
a. Larvae of roundworms c. Schistosomule
b. Eggs of tapeworms d. Cercariae of Schistosomes
54. An organism was cultured from a pus with blue- green color and a fruity odor. The organism is most
likely:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Pseudomonas fluorescens d. Burkholderia cepacia
55. IH of Clonorchis sinensis:
a. 1 c. 3
st nd
b. 2 (1 : snail , 2 : Fish, shrimp) d. 4

IMMUNOSERO – BLOOD BANKING

1. Primary purpose of exchange transfusion:

a. Increase immunity c. over 11% monocytes
b. Remove antibodies that attack red cell d. more Lymphos than neutros except in children
2. Bladder cancer tumor markers
1. NMP
2. CA 27.29
3. BTA
a. 1 only c. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2 and 3
3. Cryoprecipitate contains which of the following?
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor XIII and Factor VIII
c. Factor VIII, XIII and fibrinogen
d. Factor VIII, XIII, Fibrinogen and Fibronectin
4. Why is fresh blood preferred for newborns?
1. They’re prone to hypoxia
2. Factor V is still viable
3. To reduce the risk of hyperkalemia as a result of increases K+ concentration in stored blood
a. 1 and 3 c. 3 only
b. 1 only d. 1, 2, and 3
*** (Asked twice: Why is blood needed to be <5 days and blood to be transfused to a NB)
5. Abnormality in platelet function tests after a massive transfusion is due to:
a. Dilution effect
b. Rapid platelet turnover
c. Massive transfusion causes poor platelet response
d. all
6. Microlymphocytotoxicity assay requires which blood sample?
a. EDTA c. Heparin

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 b. Citrate d. Oxalate
7. Cryosupernate has similar components with Cryoprecipitate except for the absence of:
a. vWF c. Fibrinogen
b. Fibronectin d. Factor XIII
8. Which of the following is not seen in cryoprecipitated blood unit?
a. Factor VIII c. Fibrinogen
b. Factor XIII d. Factor V
9. In the Philippines, the minimum required test for screening blood units for syphilis is:
a. RPR c. Immunoassay kit
b. VDRL d. FTA-ABS
10. In antigen is an anthropologic marker for:
a. Malay c. Mongolian
b. Indian d. Africans
11. He discovered the genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities.
a. Emil von Behring c. George Kohler
b. Robert Kaus d. Susumo Tonegawa
12. A donor tested positive for syphilis. He complained and told the staff that is was imposible because he
was already treated 2 years ago and he has not felt any sign and symptoms of the disease anymore. What
does this indicare?
a. There test gave a false positive result c. the donor is in latent stage of syphilis
b. There may have been donor misidentification d. none
13. Marker for Mature B cells
a. mu chains c. IgM and IgD
b. IgM d. IgD
14. A cells -4+ B cells -4+ AB cells -4+ D cells -4+
a. Para Bombay c. Secretor
b. Bombay d. Type II Discrepancy
15. MBL Pathway is activated by:
a. Antigen-antibody reaction c. Cholesterol
b. Mannose d. all
16. Confirmatory test for Lyme Disease:
a. ELISA c. Western Blot
b. FIA d. RIA
17. Which of the following is transmitted via fecal-oral route?
a. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis D
b. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis E
18. 1 90-year-old patient had a forward and reverse typing which do not agree with each other. What could
be the possible reason?
a. Type I discrepancy c. Type III discrepancy
b. Type II discrepancy d. Type IV discrepancy
19. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does SLE belong?
a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. Type IV
20. Autoimmunity against skin antigens, would characteristically show:
a. Wheal and Flare formation c. Skin blisters
b. Itching d. Bruise
21. A 90-year-old was Blood type A before, after a month testes with different blood type result, forward-A
backward AB-, Answer: Decrease antibody ( Reverse Typing, Typing 1 discrepancy)
22. Innate immunity:
a. Specific c. non-productive
b. Generic d. with memory
23. The blood type of the father is A+, and the mother’s blood type is B+. What could be discerned if their
children have the following type:
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 Anthony : A+
Ben : B+
Jane : O-
Diane : AB+
a. Jane is adopted
b. Both parents are heterozygous for ABO and homozygous for Rh
c. Both parents are heterozygous for ABO and Rh
d. Both parents are homozygous for ABO and Rh
*** Parent 1: A+ (AO+-) Parent 2: (BO+-)
24. Widal Agglutination result of 50% agglutination is graded as:
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
25. Which of the following uses a Reverse Passive Agglutination principle?
a. ASO latex c. Widal
b. CRP latex d. all
26. How long should blood be transfused completely? 4 hours
27. How long should blood collection be finished? 15 minutes
28. Eosinophil functions include:
1. Phagocytosis
2. Neutralize basophil and mast cell products
3. Killing of parasites
4. all
a. 4 only c. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2 d. 3 only
29. HIV is indicated when:
a. CD4:CD8 ratio is 2:1 c. both
b. CD4+ T cells <200/µL d. neither
30. Which of the following is due to acquired B phenomenon?

Px Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells

1 4+ 1+ 0 3+
2 4+ 3+ 2+ 0
3 0 4+ 4+ 2+
4 3+ 2+ 0 0+

a. 1 and 2 c. 3 only
b. 2 only d. 1 only
31. The law that regulates the collection, processing and sale of human blood and the establishment and
operation of blood banks and blood processing laboratories.
a. RA 7719 c. RA 5527
b. RA 7170 d. RA 1517
32. Gel technology disadvantage/s:
a. Poor sensitivity c. Need of special incubator and centrifuge
b. Not standardized d. all
33. Microscopic Agglutination Test is used to confirm the diagnosis for:
a. Typhoid Fever c. Syphilis
b. RMSF d. Leptospirosis

HEMATOLOGY

1. Macrocytosis of 25%-50% is graded as:

a. 1+ - 2+ c. 3+ - 4+
b. 2+ - 3+ d. none

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2. Rouleaux formation with 3 to 4 RBC aggregates is graded as:
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
3. Which of the following hemolytic conditions is not acquired?
a. PNH c. Sickling RBC syndrome
b. Malaria d. HDN
4. Which of the following is not an end cell?
a. Erythrocyte c. Lymphocyte
b. Monocyte d. HDN
5. Platelet estimate: Moderate increased
a. 401,000-599,000/µL c. more than 800,000
b. 600,000-800,000/µL d. none
6. FAB classification: M1
a. AML minimally differentiated c. AML without maturation
b. AML with maturation d. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
7. Which of the following anemia will result due to a defect in the production of protoporphyrin?
a. IDA c. Thalassemia
b. Sideroblastic anemia d. all
8. Major group of lymphocytes according to function:
1. B – cells
2. T – cells
3. Natural Killer Cells
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 d. none
9. This cell has coarse, partially clumped chromatin, with a wheel spoke pattern, nucleoli are present but not
always visible.
a. Pronormoblast c. Polychromatic Normoblast
b. Basophilic Normoblast d. Orthochronmic Normoblast
10. Effect of grounded electricity in CBC count: Increased
11. Which of the following are causes of positive errors in a cell counting instrument?
1. Bubbles in the sample
2. Extraneous electrical pulses
3. Aperture plugs
4. Excessive lysing
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. A peripheral blood smear was kept for later use. Which of the following cytochemical stains can stiil be
used?
a. MPO stain c. Phosphatase stains
b. Esterase stains d. Sudan Black
13. All of the following instruments are based on optical methods except:
a. Koagulab c. Fibrometer
b. Coag-X-mate d. Electra 750
14. AML with characteristic Acute Monomyelocytic Leukemia
15. Which of the following instruments are based on electro-mehcanical methods?
a. Koagulab c. Fibrometer
b. Coag-X-mate d. Electra 750
16. Which of the following coagulation factors will affect the intrinsic pathway if deficient?
a. VWF c. Factor IX
b. Factor VII d. Factor III
17. Artifact caused by hypertonic solution – Crenated cell/shrinks
Hypotonic – swell/hemolyse
18. PAS positive – alder Reilly, remember mucopolysaccharide
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19. Chediak higashi – incomplete phagocytosis or recurrent fungal infection
20. Five-part differentia:
a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythrocytes
b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets
c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes
d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
21. If 5 or more RBC chains are found per thin microscopic field, it is graded as:
a. Slight c. Marked
b. Moderate d. none
22. If two cells are suspended in a solution but counted as one: coincidence
23. One of the coagulation factors which is activated in cold tenperatures:
a. II c. V
b. VII d. IX
24. Which of the following is an pre-analytical error?
a. Wrong order of draw c. Wrong analysis performed
b. Wrong tube used d. all
25. Test to differentiate acute myelogenous and monocytic leukemia from acute lymphoblastic leukemia
a. PAS c. Sudan Black B
b. Peroxide d. LAP
26. Blood samples was collected for cytochemical testing. MTOD forgot to retrieve sample stored in the dark
for 7 days. Which of the following tests can still be performed?
a. LAP c. MPO
b. PAS d. SBB
27. A direct linear correlation is equivalent to:
a. 0 c. 1
b. 0.5-1 d. 1-1.2
28. Detergent in automated systems is used for:
a. Clearing agent in cuvettes c. Lysing agent
b. Cleaning agent in probes d. reduce reaction times
29. Monocyte or macrophage positive with PAS
a. Jordan’s anomaly c. Gaucher’s cell
b. Alder-Reilly bodies d. Rieder cells
30. Which of the following is the best way to make a smear?
a. Smooth and slow c. Rapid
b. Slow d. Smooth and Rapid
31. During manual differential counting, RBC clumping was observed in a stained peripheral blood film. What
is the next course of action?
a. Continue with the differential counting c. warm the specimen and make a new film
b. Wash cells with NSS and make new film d. request for a new specimen
32. Patient was under heparin therapy and coagulation tests were performed. The following results were
seen: Low platelet, prolonged PT, low fibrinogen
a. Thrombocytopenia due to heparin therapy c. DIC
b. Thrombocythemia d. vWD
33. These are not true cells which fragments only from the mother cell in the bone marrow
a. Erythrocytes c. Thrombocytes
b. Leukocytes d. all
34. Kaolin and thromboplastin reagent were mixed prior to the test procedure, which of the following may
result to coag times?
a. Falsely prolonged c. No effect
b. Falsely shortened d. Depends on patient
35. Which of the following hemolytic conditions is not acquired?
a. PNH c. Sickling RBC syndrome
b. Malaria d. HDN
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 36. A patient with vitamin K deficiency showed prolonged PT/APTT results, which of the following may have
caused the findings?
a. Genetic coagulopathy c. Thrombocytopenia
b. Thrombocythemia d. acquired coagulopathy
37. What is the effect to one Step factor VII assay if factor VII is deficient?
a. Shortened c. no effect
b. Prolonged d. Normal result
38. Which of the following can NOT be adsorbed by barium sulfate?
a. Prothrombin group c. Contact group
b. Fibrinogen group d. b and c
39. Which of the following are sites for extramedullary hematopoiesis?
a. Spleen c. Lymph nodes
b. Liver d. a and b
40. A 200 cell-count may be performed when the differential shows the following abnormal distribution,
except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils c. over 11% monocytes
b. Below 2% basophils (normal) d. more Lymphos than neutros except in children

HISTOPATHOLOGY / MTLBE

1. A doctor wants to rule out malignancy in a patient with a cervical mass during surgery. What kind of test
request should he order?
a. Routine surgical biopsy c. FNAB
b. Frozen section d. cytology
2. Methyl green-pyronin is for?
a. Histones c. DNA only
b. DNA and RNA d. RNA only
3. An inventory stock card is best for:
a. Removing unused and expiring stocks c. compare prices of reagents as to
b. Monitoring number of reagents/tests available d. all
4. Last words in Panunumpa ng Propesyonal:
a. Kasiyahan nawa ako ng Maykapal c. Kasiyahan nawa ako ng Diyos
b. Kasiyahan nawa ako ng Bathala d. Kasiyahan nawa ako ni Hesus
5. Which o f the following are NOT allowed to collect cytology specimen?
a. Doctor c. Patient
b. Nurse d. Medtech
6. Cheapest, most accessible, routinely used surgical fixative.
a. 10-20% formalin c. Neutral Buffered Formalin
b. Zenker’s fluid d. 40% formalin
7. A positive occult blood test is due to:
a. Presence of hydrogen peroxide in the blood c. presence of oxidase activity in the blood
b. Presence of peroxidase activity in the blood d. all
8. Which of the following samples cannot be used for gastric fluid analysis in histopathology?
a. Gastric washing c. inducd vomiting
b. Gastric lavage d. FNAB
9. Which of the following is allowed to do an autopsy?
a. Pathologist c. Prosecutor
b. Coroner d. all
10. What is the best general tissue fixative?
a. 10% BNF c. Osmium tetroxide
b. 3% glutaraldehyde d. Acetone
11. Which of the following should be found inside the cryostat?

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 a. Slides c. Freezing Agent
b. Camel brush d. all
12. The head of a laboratory can be any of the following:
a. Chief Medtech c. Licensed Physician approved by DOH
b. Pathologist d. b and C
13. Which of the following steps is not performed by autotechnicon?
a. Fixation c. Impegnation
b. Dehydration d. Tissue orientation
14. Basic Tool used in Microtomy? Microtome
15. Bonds formed by Carmine stain
a. Electrostatic c. Hydrogen bonds
b. Van der Waals d. Covalent bonds
16. Which of the following cells are present in chronic inflammation?
1. Plasma cells
2. Macrophages
3. Lymphocytes
4. Neutrophils
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. Which of the following grades would qualify an examinee to become a medical laboratory technician?
a. After a 3rd take of board exam c. grade between 70% to 74.99%
b. Grade of at least 70% d. all
18. ‘Floaters’ from stains would cause which of the following?
a. Confuse pathologist in reading slides c. make the slides appear dirty
b. Take up stains d. ____
19. Which of the following practices provides the least possible way of spreading infection?
a. Washing hands and using tissue paper to dry hands
b. Wipe contaminated hands in a hand towel with antiseptic
c. Washing hands with an antiseptic soap and then use a hand dryer
d. Use of hand sanitizers and wipe hands with tissue paper
20. Which of the following agencies are responsible for the regulation on the use of radioisotopes?
a. DOH c. PNRI
b. DENR d. OSHA

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