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1. DPM stands for:

a) Damp Proof Material
b) Damp Proof Mix
c) Damp Proof Member
d) Damp Proof Membrane
Answer: d
Explanation: DPM is a membrane material applied to prevent dampness. It can be used for a
DPC (Damp Proof Course). An example is laying a polyethylene sheet under concrete slabs.

2. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor consists of layer of:
a) Metal
b) Coarse sand
c) Fine sand
d) Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: Coarse sand layer of about 75-100mm thickness is provided over the entire area
under the floor. Over this, a layer of plain concrete with a ratio of 1:4:8 of 100mm thickness is
laid.

3. DPC materials can be classified into:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The materials can be classified into 3 categories. They are flexible material, semi
rigid materials and rigid materials.

4. For DPC at plinth level, which grade of concrete is used?

a) M10
b) M20
c) M25
d) M15
Answer: d
Explanation: Cement concrete is used to provide DPC at plinth level. 38-50mm thickness of M15
(1:2:4) cement concrete is provided and it serves the purpose under normal conditions.
1. R.C.C. can be classified into:

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1. R.C.C. can be classified into:

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer:a
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete can be of two types. It can either be pre-cast or be
casted in-situ.

2. __________ is used to construct very thin, hard and strong surface:

a) R.C.C.
b) PSC
c) PCC
d) Ferro-Cement
Answer: d
Explanation: Ferro-Cement is a system that reinforces mortar with metal (steel, iron bars). It is
used for construction of relatively thin structure like hull of boat, shell roofs, etc.

3.The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.

a)Compression
b)Tensioning
c)Shearing
d) Bending
Answer: b
Explanation: Tendons can be single wire, mesh, threaded bars made from high tensile steels.
The pre-stressing is done by tensioning tendons.

4. In a R.C.C structure, the tension zone lies in the:

a) Top
b) Middle
c) Side
d) Bottom
Answer: d
Explanation: In R.C.C. structure, there is a neutral axis in the middle, where no compression and
tension is there. Layers above it are subjected to compression and the ones below it are
subjected to tension.

5. R.C.C. was developed and first used by:

a) Joseph Monier
b) John Smeaton
c) Francois Coignet
d) Joseph Asphadin
Answer: c
Explanation: Joseph Monier founded ferro-cement. John Smeaton is considered the father of

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Civil Engineering. Joseph Asphdin founded Portland cement. Francois Coignet was a French
industrialist and the first to use iron-reinforced concrete.

6. Which of the below structure doesn’t require PSC?

a) Bridge
b) Arch
c) Dam
d) Silos
Answer: b
Explanation: Arches don’t require PSC. They are not under so much compression and loading.
All other structures carry heavy loads and hence will be efficient if PSC is used.

7. How many methods of ferro cementing are there?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The three methods are armature system, closed mould system and integrated mould
system.

8. In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of
steel and concrete?
a) Over-reinforced
b) Under-reinforced
c) Singly reinforced
d) Doubly reinforced
Answer: a
Explanation: Over-reinforced beams have higher tension capacity. So, these beams fail by
crushing of compression zone concrete, without any warning.

1. How many types of cracks can occur in a building?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 types of cracks that can be found in buildings. Non-moving cracks are
result of shrinkage and are usually shallow. Moving cracks are caused due to excessive stress in
concrete and generally are wider than 1mm.

2. Creep in concrete structure increases with:

a) Increase in humidity
b) Increase in water
c) Decrease in temperature
d) Decrease in humidity

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Answer: d
Explanation: Creep is small deformation that is formed due to loading on concrete. It is a slow,
time dependent process. An increase in temperature and decrease in humidity can cause this.

3. To control corrosion, concrete with _________ is used.

a) Low permeability
b) Low thermal coefficient
c) More cement content
d) More coarse aggregates
Answer: a
Explanation: If the concrete is less permeable, then there is less chance of moisture, chemical
absorption which leads to corrosion of steel bars.

4. The main reason for cracks in masonry joints is:

a) Moisture
b) Sulphate
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphate content of bricks to be used in masonry should be checked. These attack
the mortar and weakens it, leading to development of cracks. They appear after 2-3 years of
construction.

5. Shear cracks between main wall and cross wall can be corrected using:
a) Grouting
b) Rebuilding
c) Guining
d) Toothing
Answer: d
Explanation: The place where the main and cross wall join, there can be cracks developed. It is
due to poor bonding between walls. Bonding can be increased by toothing, where a projection of
brick is done into the other wall, interlocking it.

1. An offset is a _________ distance of an object measured from survey line.

a) Lateral
b) Horizontal
c) Normal
d) Inclined
Answer: a
Explanation: Offsets are taken perpendicular to the survey lines. They are used to mark objects
and the lateral distance to them, using an offset rod.

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2. Which of the below is not an instrument used to set right angles?

a) Cross staff
b) Site square
c) Optical staff
d) Prism square
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no instrument like optical staff. Optical square is an instrument which
consists of circular box with three slits. Cross staff is a frame of box mounted on a pole. Prism
square is an advanced version of optical square. Site square consists of two telescopes set at 90os.

3. How many types of chains are used in chain surveying?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be 5 types of chains used for chain surveying. They are metric chain,
Gunter’s chain, engineer’s chain, revenue chain and steel band or band chain.

4. Gunter’s chain consists of _________ links.

a) 500
b) 50
c) 1000
d) 100
Answer: d
Explanation: Gunter’s chain is also called surveyor’s chain and is 66ft long. It consists of 100
links, each being 0.6 ft. Eighty Gunter’s chain corresponds to 1 mile.

5. The process of location of intermediate points on a survey line is:

a) Aligning
b) Extending
c) Ranging
d) Offsetting
Answer: c
Explanation: Ranging is used to locate intermediate points. They are marked using ranging rods.
It is done when survey line is very long and marks are required to distinguish the line.

6. The biggest of the survey line is called:

a) First line
b) Base line
c) Tie line
d) Main survey line
Answer: b
Explanation: The line joining main survey station is called the main survey line. The biggest of
the main survey line is the base line, and other features are plotted with respect to this line.

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7. Chain surveying uses the principle of:

a) Traversing
b) Chaining
c) Ranging
d) Triangulation
Answer: d
Explanation: Chain surveying is suitable for survey of small areas. The area is divided into well-
conditioned triangles and triangulation is the principle used.

8. In how many ways can ranging be carried out?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Ranging is of 2 types – direct and indirect. Direct ranging is done using a line
ranger or naked eye. Indirect ranging is done when starting and ending points are not visible.

9. The book in which chain measurements are entered is called:

a) Field book
b) Record book
c) Study book
d) Chain book
Answer: a
Explanation: Field book is used to enter all the measurements done while surveying. It is an
oblong book of size 20x12cm and opens length wise.

10. How many types of cross staff are available?

a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are open cross staff, French cross staff and adjustable cross staff.
Open cross staff has two vertical, opposite slits. French cross staff consists of a hollow octagonal
box. Adjustable cross staff consists of two cylinders of equal diameter, one placed on top of the
other.

11. Survey stations may be marked on the ground using a:

a) Pole
b) Rod
c) Pointer
d) Peg
Answer: d
Explanation: Peg is a wooden block with a pointed edge to drive it into the ground. They are
generally 2.5-3 cm2 and 15cm long, with tapered end.

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1. The direction of a line relative to a given meridian is called:

a) Bearing
b) Declination
c) Angle
d) Dip
Answer: a
Explanation: Bearing of line gives its direction relative to a given meridian. It can be measured
as an angle using any angular measuring instruments.

2. How many types of compass are used in surveying?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: The two compass types used in surveying are Prismatic Compass and Surveyor’s
Compass. Prismatic Compass is most commonly used one for surveying.

3. ___________ bearing is measured in the direction of survey.

a) Primary
b) First
c) Fore
d) Front
Answer: c
Explanation: Fore bearing is used to indicate the angle measured in the direction of progress of
survey. The angle measured in opposite direction of progress of survey is called back bearing.

4. In reduced bearing system, bearing is measured from:

a) Nearest one (North or South)
b) South
c) West
d) North
Answer: a
Explanation: In reduced bearing system bearing is measured from the nearest one, North or
South is anticlockwise or clockwise direction. It aims at locating nearest bearing.

1. __________ instrument is used to sight to an object.

a) Compass
b) U-frame
c) Plumbing fork
d) Alidade
Answer: d
Explanation: Alidade is straight edge with some form of sighting devise. It can be plain (with
slits) or telescopic. It is kept on a plane table and objects are sighted.

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2. How many methods of plane table surveying are there?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
Answer: b
Explanation: There are four ways to perform plane table surveying. They are radiation, inter-
section, traversing and resection. First two are employed for locating details and other two for
locating plane table stations.

3. Plane table (PT) surveying is a __________ method.

a) Graphical
b) Linear
c) Circular
d) Angular
Answer: a
Explanation: In graphical method of surveying, objects are sighted and taken down as drawings
(lines) on a paper. The line gives angle, distance of the object from the station.

4. Which of the below is used for levelling a plane table?

a) Plumb bob
b) Spirit level
c) Compass
d) U-frame
Answer: b
Explanation: A spirit level is a rectangular box, containing a small bubble inside it. It is placed
on table, table is moved and fixed when bubble is centralised.

5. Which of the below is not an advantage of PT survey?

a) Used for accurate works
b) Less costly
c) Field book is not required
d) Rapid method
Answer: a
Explanation: It is used only to locate certain local object. It doesn’t give accurate results and
can’t be used for high precision works.

6. Plan table surveying uses the methodology of:

a) Triangulation
b) Contouring
c) Ranging
d) Traversing
Answer: d
Explanation: Traversing is a methodology where number of connected lines are there whose
length is measured using tape/chain and angle using any angle measuring instrument. PT survey
uses this methodology.

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7. A plumbing fork is used to __________ the plane table.

a) Focus
b) Centre
c) Orient
d) Level
Answer: b
Explanation: Plumbing fork is also called U-fame. It has a U-shaped frame which can be
clamped onto the plane table. The lower end has provision for suspending a plumb bob. It is used
to centre the table w.r.t station.

1. How many chief types of levels are used in levelling?

a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 chief types of levels used. They are Dumpy level, Wye Level,
Reversible level and Tilting level.

2. A levelling staff is used to establish:

a) Horizontal line of sight
b) Vertical line of sight
c) Location of points
d) Distance of points
Answer: a
Explanation: A levelling staff is straight rectangular rod, with graduations, zero starting from
foot of staff. It is placed at the required point and horizontal line of sight from a level is made.

3. Dumpy level was originally designed by:

a) Fennel
b) Heerbrugg
c) Stanley
d) Gravatt
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravatt designed the Dumpy level; which consists of a telescope secured in two
collars fixed by adjusting screws.

4. How many categories of levelling staff are there?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 categories – self reading staff and target staff. Self-reading staff can be

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directly read from the instrument through telescope. Target staff consists of moving target
against which reading is to be taken.

6. A digital level reads a:

a) Target staff
b) Barcoded staff
c) Digital staff
d) Telescopic staff
Answer: b
Explanation: Digital level is an electronic level. It is set up on a tripod and it reads a barcoded
staff. All the details are fed into the memory of level and can be retrieved on a computer.

1. How many methods are used in levelling?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2 methods are height of instrument method and rise and fall method. These are
used to evaluate heights of various points.

2. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:

a) Fly levelling
b) Differential levelling
c) Simple levelling
d) Trigonometric levelling
Answer: d
Explanation: Tacheometer principle is used to determine elevation of points. Line of sight is
inclined and it is more suitable for surveying in hilly terrains.

3. Reciprocal levelling is used when,

a) Flat terrain
b) Obstacles are there
c) BM not visible
d) Highway construction
Answer: b
Explanation: If the points to surveyed lie on opposite banks of a river, reciprocal levelling can be
used. It is done from both sides to eliminate chances of error.

4. Which is the arithmetic check for height of instrument method?

a) ∑FS + ∑BS = First RL + Last RL@
b) ∑BS – ∑FS = Last RL – First RL@
c) ∑FS + ∑BS = Last RL + First RL@
d) ∑BS – ∑FS = First RL – Last RL@

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Answer: b
Explanation: To check if the readings are written properly, an arithmetic check is done. The sum
of back sight (BS) and Fore sight (FS) are subtracted. It should be equal to the difference of the
last and first reduced level (RL).

5. Which instrument is used in trigonometric levelling?

a) Wye level
b) Compass
c) Theodolite
d) Dumpy level
Answer: c
Explanation: Trigonometric levelling involves measurements that are angular and hence requires
an angle measuring instrument, like theodolite.

6. In levelling, error due to earth’s curvature is to be corrected using:

a) Cc=0.0673D2
b) Cc=0.0112D2
c) Cc=0.0136D2
d) Cc=0.0785D2
Answer: d
Explanation: Correction for earth’s curvature and refraction is to be applied. Cc is given by
0.0785D2. Combined correction Cc – Cr is given by 0.0673D2.

1. Contours can be found in a __________ map.

a) Political
b) Topographical
c) Physical
d) Thematic
Answer: b
Explanation: These are imaginary lines, which passes through points of same or equal elevations.
These are found in topographical maps to represent features like mountains, valleys, etc.

2. Contour Maps are not mandatory in civil engineering projects like road works, dams, canals,
etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: To identify a suitable site for these projects, to study the nature of ground and
slopes and to make an estimate for earth work, a contour map of that region is required.

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3. The contour interval is the same for all purposes.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The interval is kept as 2m for large projects like highways, railways, etc and 0.5m
for earth work, building sites, etc.

4. The curves used for drawing lines between points in a contour line is:
a) Radial curve
b) French curve
c) C-curve
d) Inverted curve
Answer: b
Explanation: The contour points are first located. Corresponding points are joined by a smooth
line and for curves, a French curve is used.

5. Which shaped lines indicate presence of a ridge?

a) V-shaped
b) U-shaped
c) L-shaped
d) S-shaped
Answer: b
Explanation: The contour line with U-shape, which has convexity towards a lower ground shows
the presence of a ridge.

6. The line which separates the catchment basin from the rest of the area is:
a) Ridge line
b) Dam line
c) Catchment line
d) Watershed line
Answer: d
Explanation: The area where rain water drains into the river is the catchment area of the river.
The watershed line is then marked. The area inside this line is measured in order to study flood
levels.

1. The living environment, the biosphere consists of __________ components.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
Answer: d
Explanation: The biosphere consists of 3 components – land (lithosphere), water (hydrosphere)
and air (atmosphere). They are all necessary for life to sustain on earth.

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2. The presence of gas in water is indicated by:

a) Fizzing sound
b) Foam
c) Bubbles
d) Colour change
Answer: b
Explanation: Water may be polluted by the presence of some unpleasant gases from industries.
They are recognized by the foaming of water.

3. To test turbidity of polluted water in field, _________ is used.

a) Baylis Turbidimeter
b) Jackson Turbidimeter
c) Turbidity tube
d) Turbidity rod
Answer: d
Explanation: The first three options are used to test turbidity in the lab. The turbidity rod is a
graduated aluminium rod.

4. What are the main constituents of the environmental cycles?

a) Water cycle and food cycle
b) Water cycle and nutrient cycle
c) Nutrient cycle
d) Water cycle and air cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: The environmental cycles are natural processes in which the different elements of
the environment are cycled in various forms. These include the water cycle and nutrient cycle
(which include Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen and Phosphorus cycles, etc.

1. Water content is given by:

a) Weight of water/mass of soil
b) Mass of water/mass of solid
c) Mass of water/mass of soil
d) Mass of water/weight of solid
Answer: b
Explanation: In Geotechnical Engineering, water content is an important parameter for analysing
soil. It is expressed as mass of water divided by mass of solids. It is denoted by w and expressed
in %.

2. Who is the father of Geotechnical Engineering?

a) Christian Otto Mohr
b) Clausius Cleyperon
c) John Smith
d) Karl Von Terzaghi

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Answer: d
Explanation: He was an Austrian civil engineer and geologist. Most of the findings in
geotechnical engineering and soil properties are done by him.

3. According to Darcy’s Law:

a) q=iA
b) q=kA
c) q∞iA
d) q∞kA
Answer: c
Explanation: Darcy’s Law states that rate of flow per unit time is proportional to hydraulic
gradient. q∞iA is the mathematical representation of the law.

4. Triaxial compression test is used to find __________ of soil.

a) Compressive strength
b) Permeability
c) Specific gravity
d) Shear strength
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 methods available to measure shear strength of soil – direct shear,
triaxial compression, unconfined compression and vane shear test. Triaxial compression test is
the most accurate one.

5. ____________ index is used to find settlement of soil.

a) Compression
b) Expansion
c) Recompression
d) Reloading
Answer: a
Explanation: A plot is made between void ratio (e) and log effective stress (logσ). It shows
different curves corresponding to loading, unloading and reloading of soil. Compression index
Cc= – ∆e⁄∆logσ

6. In Geotechnical Engineering, soil is considered as a _________ phase material.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Soil is a 3 phase material. It consists of solids, water and air voids. It is represented
in a 3 phase diagram with volume on left side and mass on the right side.

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7. Fine particles are those particles with size less than —- mm diameter.
a) 0.023
b) 0.090
c) 0.075
d) 4.75
Answer: c
Explanation: Fine particles should pass through 75μ IS sieve. Fine particles include clay, silt and
organic content in a soil mass.

8. The mass density of water at 4oC is:

a) 1000g/ml
b) 1kg/m3
c) 1000Mg/m3
d) 1000kg/m3
Answer: d
Explanation: Mass density is the ratio of mass of water to volume of water. At 4oC, it is 1g/ml or
1000kg/m3 or 1Mg/m3.

9. Percentage air voids is denoted as:

a) v
b) na
c) s
d) av
Answer: b
Explanation: Percentage air voids is the ratio of volume of air in voids to total volume of soil. It
is denoted by na and expressed as a %.

10. Porosity and void ratio are related by:

a) e = n⁄(1-n)
b) n = e⁄(1-e)
c) 1-e = n
d) (1+n)⁄n = e-1
Answer: a
Explanation: Void ratio is e and porosity is n. Another relationship between the two is
n = e⁄(1+e)

1. Most soils have particle density of about:

a) 2.6 g/cc
b) 2.9 g/cc
c) 2.5 g/cc
d) 2.7 g/cc
Answer: a
Explanation: Particle density is mass per unit volume of soil particles. It is expressed in g/cc and
most soils have 2.6 g/cc as particle density.

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2. How many tests in lab can be performed to get permeability of soil?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: The two tests are constant head permeability test and variable head permeability
test. The constant head permeability test is done for highly permeable soil and the other one for
fine grained soil.

6. _________ apparatus is used to test liquid limit of a soil.

a) Mohr
b) Casagrande
c) Otto
d) Terzaghi
Answer: b
Explanation: The water content at which soil changes from liquid to plastic state is liquid limit.
Casagrande apparatus consists of rubber base and brass cup. Sample is filled in cup, subjected to
blows by rotating handle at 2 revolutions per second. Water content corresponding to 25 blows is
the liquid limit.

8. Soil with higher Ic (consistency index) is a better foundation material.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If two soils are to be compared, based on Ic, then higher value one is better
foundation material. If Ic < 0, natural water content < liquid limit and soil would behave like
liquid. This is not a desired property for foundation material.

9. How many grades of soil are there?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on degree of distinctness of peds (natural aggregates of soil particles), there
are 4 grades of soil. They are structureless, weak, moderate and strong.

1. The administration of highway projects depends on __________ factors.

a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

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Answer: c
Explanation: For each country, the administration of highway projects is different. But there are
three factors common to all countries – social, political and economic.

2. How many types of pavement surfaces are there?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: The 2 types are Portland cement concrete (PCC) and hot-mix asphalt (HMA).
Weathering courses, base course is laid below these.

3. The design consideration of highways doesn’t include:

a) Settlement
b) Cross section
c) Level of service
d) Sight distance
Answer: a
Explanation: To design foundation, settlement is an important parameter. For designing
highways: the number of lanes, cross section, level of service, sight distance, alignment, lane
width and so on are important considerations.

4. A prime coat is low viscosity asphalt emulsion used to create bond between existing
pavement and new asphalt overlay.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A tack coat is used to bond existing pavement surface to the new asphalt overlay. A
prime coat is applied to base course prior to laying HMA course.

1. How many types of impact assessments are there?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: The four key types are global assessments, policy impact assessment, strategic
environmental assessment and environmental impact assessment.

2. In absorption test on brick, how many hours it has to be soaked in cold water?
a) 19 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours

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Answer: d
Explanation: The sample brick is oven dried, cooled and then soaked in water at room
temperature for 24 hours.

3. What is the loading rate used in compressive strength test?

a) 14 N/mm2 per hour
b) 14 N/mm2 per minute
c) 20 N/mm2 per minute
d) 40 N/mm2 per hour
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS codes, the loading on brick specimen in a CTM should be uniform at rate
of 14 N/mm2 per minute.

Civil Engineering MCQs