At 6501 MCQ
At 6501 MCQ
Practice
Questions/Answer
for
ONLINE/OMR
AITT-2020
nd
2 Year
Mech. Motor Vehicle
Trade Theory
HEAVY VEHICLES
1. Generally heavy vehicles are considered as above gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) capacity of
(A)1500 Kg, (B) 3000 Kg, (C)- 4500 Kg, (D)-6000 Kg
2. Which of these falls under Heavy passenger vehicles category based on its capacity?
(A) Trucks, (B) Buses, (C) Cars, (D) Motorcycles.
3. Which of these falls under Heavy commercial vehicles category based on its capacity?
(A) Trucks, (B) Buses, (C) Cars, (D) Motorcycles.
6. A compartment from which the driver of a heavy earthmoving machinery operates is called
A) Cage B) Cab C) Cart D) Core
12. Which of the following Diesel engines are used in heavy motor vehicle?
A) TC Engines B) TCAC Engines C) CRDI Engines D) All of these
16. Which of the following is not a major heavy vehicle manufacturer in India?
A) TATA Motors B) Ashok Leyland C) Volvo D) All of these
21. Which of the following system is used for transmit power from engine to wheels?
A) Suspension system B) Steering system C) power trains systems D) fuel System
22. Which of the following system is used for control the vehicle?
A) Brake and Steering system B) Suspension system C) fuel System D) Cooling System
23. Which of the following system is used for absorb the shocks while vehicle moving on the road?
A) Steering system B) Suspension System C) Brake System D) None of these
24. The part of the vehicle holds the passenger and the cargo to be transported known as
A) Chassis B) Hull C) cabin D) None of these
25. In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly to
A) better utilizes the space B) have better weight distribution C) Both of these D) None of these
CLUTCH
1. The following provides a smooth means of disengagement and engagement between the engine and
the remainder of transmission system.
A. Clutch, B. Gearbox, C .Propeller shaft, D. Differential
A .Cone clutch, B. single plate clutch with coil spring, C. Diaphragm clutch, D. Multi plate dry weight clutch
A .Cone clutch, B. single plate clutch with coil spring, C. Diaphragm clutch, D. Multi plate dry weight clutch
24. The maximum value of axial force at the clutch which a driver can apply while driving,
without getting fatigued is approximately
(A) 10 N (B) 100 N (C) 500 N (D) 5000 N
25. The maximum intensity of pressure which the clutch facing can withstand without being
damaged is about
(A) 10 Pa (B) 10 KPa (C) 100 KPa (D) 1000 KPa
27. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the clutch plate are the
(A) Release levers (B) thrust bearings (C) struts (D) springs
29.The thrust bearing should come into contact with the release levers when the
(A) vehicle is stationary (B) vehicle is running very fast (C) vehicle is driven very slow (D) clutch pedal
is pressed
30.In a clutch will coil springs, the wear of the clutch facing will cause the clamping load to
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) remain constant (D) become infinite
34. Which type of clutch provides more frictional area and simple in construction?
A. Cone clutch, B. single plate clutch with coil spring, C. Diaphragm clutch, D. Multi plate clutch
35. If there are 7 clutch plates in a multi-plate clutch, what is the number of pair of contact surfaces?
A- 5, B- 4, C- 6, D- 8
36. Which of the following contains no linkage between the clutch and the pedal?
A- Clutch – by – wire, B- Wet clutch, C- Hydraulic single plate clutch, D-Hydraulic multi-plate clutch
42. In the coil spring type of clutch when the pressure plate and cover are separated, the spring pressure
must be held by
A-Hand B-. An arbor press C- A lever D- A heavy weight
43. Parts of the clutch that should not be cleaned in solvent include the
A- Friction disc and throw out bearing B-. Friction disc cover C- Throw out bearing and springs D- Release
levers and springs
44. On diaphragm spring clutch, pressing down on the clutch pedal moves throw out bearing in against the
A- Release levers B- Diaphragm C-. Pressure plate D- Friction disc
45. As a general rule in facings on the friction disc are worn down to the rivet heads
A-. Rivets should be replaced, B- The friction disc should be replaced, C-The clutch should be replaced,
D-The linkage should be adjusted
46. The front end of the clutch shaft is supported in a pilot bearing in the
A- Throw out bearing, B-. Friction disc, C- Crankshaft, D- Transmission
47. Clutch noises are usually most noticeable when the engine is
A- Accelerating B-. Decelerating C-. Idling D-. Being started
50. Which factor does not affect the torque transmission by clutch?
A. Size of clutch plate, B-. Co-efficient of friction, C-. Number of clutch plates used, D.- Axial load
on the clutch
ANSWERS- CLUTCH
1-A, 2-B ,3-A ,4-B, 5-C ,6-A , 7- C,8- C, 9-D , 10-B , 11-A , 12-C ,13-C ,14-B ,15-B ,16-A ,17-B ,18-D ,19-B ,20- A, 21-A
,22-B ,23- A,24-B ,25-C ,26-A ,27-D ,28-C ,29-D ,30-B ,31-B,32-D ,33- C ,34-A ,35-C ,36-A ,37-A ,38-A ,39-A ,40-D ,41-
A, 42-B ,43-A ,44-A ,45-B ,46-C ,47-C ,48-A ,49- A, 50-D
GEAR BOX
1. The purpose of transmission is an automobile is
A) To vary the speed of automobile, B) to vary the torque at road wheel of vehicle, C) to vary the power of
automobile, D) none of these
4-The following type of transmission uses chain and sprocket to transmit power
(A) Clutch, gearbox and live axle transmission,(B) Clutch, gearbox and dead axle transmission,(C) Clutch,
gearbox and axle less transmission, (D) All of the above
A) Constant mesh gearbox, B) sliding mesh gearbox, C) synchromesh gearbox , D) automatic gearbox
10:-The percentage ratio between difference of vehicle speed and wheel speed to the vehicle speed is
A:-Velocity ratio B:-Speed ratio C:-Slip ratio D:-Aspect ratio
13. __________ is used to ensure that the main shaft and main speed gear to be Locked to it are rotating
at the same speed.
(A) Transfer Case (B) Transaxle (C) Shift fork (D) Synchronizer
18. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission are
(A) high strength and low cost (B) high strength and less end thrust (C) low noise level and high
strength (D) low noise level and economy
19.By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjacent gears have their speeds
(A) increased (B) reduced, (C) equalized,(D) unequalized
20. In a single planetary gear set, the output member to increase torque is always the
(A) sun gear (B) ring gear, (C)planet carrier, (D) none of the above
21. In a simple epicyclic gear set, the output member to increase torque in reverse is always the
(A) ring gear, (B)planet carrier, (C) sun gear, (D) none of the above
23. Which of the following is the need of the idler gear in gear box?
A) To forward of the vehicle, (B)To reverse of the vehicle, (C)To supply power of the vehicle, (D) To vary
the acceleration of the vehicle
26. In which of the gearbox sun and planet gear set is used?
A) Constant-mesh gearbox, B) Sliding mesh gearbox, C) Synchromesh gearbox, D) Epicyclical gearbox
29. In which of the configuration of epicyclic gearbox output will be forward and fast output speed?
A) Sun gear stationary, ring gear driven, planet carrier driving,
B) Sun gear driving, ring gear driven, planet carrier stationary,
C) Sun gear driven, ring gear stationary, planet carrier driving
D) Sun gear stationary, ring gear stationary, planet carrier driving
31. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?
A) Low cost and high strength, B) Low noise level and high strength, C) Low noise level and economy, D)
Low noise level and low cost.
34. By using …………device the two involved adjacent gears have their speed are equalized.
A) Cone B) hub, C) synchronizing unit D) none of these
A) Baulk ring type, B) baulk type, C) multi and double cone type, D) porche type
A) Baulk ring type, B) baulk type, C) multi and double cone type, D) porche type
44. Which type of gear box can be operated even by unskilled driver?
A-compound wheel mesh gear box. B- Constant mesh gear box,
C- Sliding mesh gear box, D-synchromesh gear box
45. Which type of synchromesh gear box will produce torque more than three times of other types?
A- Baulk ring type, B- baulk type, C- multi and double cone type, D-porche type
46. Which type of synchromesh gear box used for heavy commercial vehicles?
A- Baulk ring type, B- baulk type, C- multi and double cone type, D-porche type
1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A, 6-B, 7-D, 8-A, 9-C,10-C, 11-A, 12-A ,13-D,14-C, 15-A,16-C, 17-A,18-C, 19-C, 20-
C, 21-A, 22-B, 23-B ,24-A ,25-A ,26-D ,27-C ,28-D ,29-A ,30-B ,31-B ,33-A,34-C ,35-A,36-D ,37-B ,38-
B,39-A ,40-C ,41- D, 42-C,43-B,44-A, 45-C, 46-B, 47-B ,48-C , 49-C , 50-B
DRIVE SHAFT & DIFFERENTIAL
1-What is the type of drive line?
A-Front wheel drive line B- Four wheel drive line C- Real wheel drive line D- center wheel drive line
A-Ball and trunion type universal joint, B-Cross type universal joint, C- Slip joint, D- Ball joint
A- Torque tube drive, B-Hotchkiss drive, C- four wheel drive, D- front wheel drive
13. The following diverts the power at right angles towards the driving wheels.
(A) Torque tube (B) Transfer case (C) Final drive (D) Differential
14. The distance between adjacent meshing teeth of mating gears is called.
A) Clearance B-Back lash C-Flank D- flute
15. In the over drive, there is an arrangement whereby it is possible to lock stationary the
A) Ring gear, B-Sun gear, C-Planet, D-pinion cage
17. The axle bevel gears in the differential mesh with the.
A-Differential pinion gears B-Ring gear C-Drive pinion D-Main gear
23. To take care of the differential in the driving angle as rear axle moves up and down, the
propeller shaft has one or more
A- Slip joint, B-Elbow joint, C-Release joint, D-Universal joint
24. In the modern differential the type of gearing used for the drive pinion and ring gear is
A- Spur, B—Spiral bevel, C-helical, D-Hypoid
26. In the slip joint, slippage occurs between internally and externally mated
A-Couplings, B-Joints C-Spines, D- none
29. The most popular drive at the drive axle for the passenger car is
A-Straight bevel gear, B--Spiral bevel gear, C-Worm gear drive, D-Hypoid drive
31. To correct heavy heel contact on the ring gear teeth, move the
A-Drive pinion in, B-Ring gear towards pinion, C-Ring gear away from pinion and adjust
backlash, D-none of these
33. In the Hotchkiss drive, the rear end torque is absorbed by the
A-Torque tube B-Rear spring C-Radius rods D- none of these
38. The arrangement in which road springs act as torque and thrust members is known as
A-Hotchkiss drive, B- Torque tube drive, C- road spring drive, D-none of the above
40. The following diverts the power at right angles towards the driving wheels
A-Torque tube, B- Transfer case, C- Final drive, D- Differential
44. Axle which form compact unit with gearbox, clutch and engine are called
A-Tandem axle, (B) power packed axle, (C) compact axle, (D) none of the above
48. The distance between adjacent meshing teeth of mating gear is called
A) Clearance, B) pitch line, C) backlash, D) flank
1-C, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A, 6-C,7-B, 8-A ,9-B, 10-A,11-C, 12-C, 13-C, 14-B, 15-B, 16-A, 17-B, 18-C, 19-
D, 20-B, 21-A, 22-D, 23-D, 24-D, 25-C, 26-C, 27-C, 28-B, 29-D, 30-D, 31-A, 32-C , 33-B, 34-B, 35-B,
36-B, 37-A, 38-A, 39-B, 40-C, 41-D, 42-C, 43-D, 44-B, 45-C, 46-D ,47-C ,48-C ,49-D ,50-A
AUTOMATIC TRANSMISSION
1. Which is a type of automatic transmission.
a) Hydromantic drive b-Torque converter transmission c-Both are correct d-None of the above
(a) Single plate clutch (b) Fluid coupling (c) Dog clutch (d) centrifugal clutch
5. In the fluid coupling, speed reduction means torque reduction. But in the torque converter, speed
reduction means.
a- Torque increase b-Torque loss c-Power increase d- power loss
7. In order for power to flow through the fluid coupling from the engine to car wheels, the driving member
must be turning.
a- Slower than driven member b-At same speed as driven member
c- Faster than driven member. D) None of these
10: In the fluid coupling, speed reduction means torque reduction. But in the torque converter, speed
reduction means.
(a)Torque increase (b)Torque loss (c) Power increase (d) power loss.
11. The component of the torque converter that allows multiplication of torque is the
(a) Turbine (b) impeller(c) pump (d) stator
12. The component of the torque converter that drives the oil is the
(a) Turbine (b) Impeller (c) freewheel(d) stator
13. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is about
(a) 2.5(b) 10(c) 25(d) 100
14. The component of the torque converter that redirects the flow of oil to impeller is
(a) turbine (b) impeller(c) stator(d) freewheel
25. Torque converter eliminates the ………… % of slip between impeller and turbine at the coupling stage.
a) 5, b) 10, c) 15, d) 20.
1-c ,2-b, 3-d ,4-c, 5-a, 6-b,7-c, 8-c, 9-b, 10-a, 11-d, 12-b, 13-a ,14-c, 15-a, 16-d, 17-b, 18-c, 19-b, 20-d, 21-
a ,22-c, 23-c , 24-a , 25-b,
STEERING SYSTEM
1.In a vehicle the problem cause for hard steering could be
A :Low tyre pressure B : Bent wheel spindle C : Tie rod end tight D : Any of the above
15. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the electronic power steering? |
A : Flow control valve B:Rotary valve C: Unloading valve D: Pressure relief valve
17. What is the name of component in the integral power steering system?
18. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the integral power steering in neutral condition?
20. What is the name of angle marked as ‘X’ in the steering system ?
21. What is the recommended valve of combined angle in the steering system?
A : 5 - 8° B: 9 - 10° C: 12 - 15° D : 15 - 180
22. What is the name of angle marked as ‘X’?
23. What is the steering linkage ratio if the pitman arm length twice of steering arm length?
A : 2:1 B:2 : 1 C: 1 : 2 D : 2:3
24. What is the average power steering gear ratio followed in general?
A : 40% less than manual steering B: Equal to manual steering
C : 20% less than manual steering D: 10% more than manual steering
A. Camber angle B. King pin Inclination angle C. Castor angle D. Included angle
28 : Which part of electronic power steering reverts back to manual steering in case of failure in
power steering?
A : Solenoid valve B: Fail safe relay D: Current controller
29. Which device in electronic power steering converts the steering torque input and its direction in to
voltage signals?
A : Rotation sensor B: Torque sensor C : Hall effect sensor D :
Temperature sensor
30. What is the advantage of electronic power steering?
A : Compact in size B : Energy being consumed only while steering |
C : Less occupation of space D : Number of components are less
31. Which steering system will provide assistance even when the engine is not running? |
A: Integral power steering B: Linkage power steering C: Electronic power steering D: Manual
steering
33. What is the role of recirculating balls in the integral power steering?
A : Affect steering stability B : Prevent control in event of hydraulic failure
C : Combine high mechanical efficiency with smooth operation D : Provide hard steering
34. Which is the heart of integral power steering system?
A : Flow control valve B : Rotary control valve C : Pressure relief valve D :
Unloading valves
47 : What is the cause of “ low pressure” in the hydraulic power steering system?
A :Low oil level B: Wrong flow control valve setting C: Air in the system D: Worn-out
sealing ring
A : Torsion bar suspension B : Strut type suspension C : Air type suspension D : Coil
spring suspension
A : Coil spring suspension B : Torsion bar suspension C: Rubber spring suspension | D : Strut
type suspension
15. What is the maximum air pressure supplied by the compressor in the air suspension system?
A : 100 to 115 PSI B : 180 to 210 PSI C : 120 to 125 PSI D : 200 to 215 PSI
16. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the suspension system?
A : Tracking bar
B : Upper control rod
C : Shock absorber
D : Axle mounting bracket
17. What is the type of suspension? :
20. Which type of suspension spring can not transfer wheel guidance forces?
A : Helical springs B : Coil springs C : Leaf springs D : Compression springs
21. What is the advantage of coil spring? |
A : Good load carrying capacity B : High steering and stability C : Low space requirement D : Provide
greater pay load
22. : Which type of suspension spring made of fiber glass, laminated and bonded together by tough
polyester resins?
A : Coil springs B : Multiple leaf springs C : Monoleaf springs D : Fiber composite springs
23. : Which type of spring will have good load carrying capacity and do not have noise in the suspension
system? |
A : Monoleaf springs B : Coil spring C : Multiple - leaf spring D : Fiber composite
springs
24 Which system provided between axles and chassis frame? |
A : Braking system B : Suspension system C : Steering system D : Cooling system
24. Which is not the function of suspension system?
A : It maintains body level B : It gives cushioning effects
C : It transfer braking torque to the chassis D : It increase steering stability
25. Which type of independent suspension system simple in construction and allow more deflection of the
front wheel without effect on the steering?
A : Torsion bar suspension B : Strut type suspension C : Coil spring suspension D :
Conventional suspension
26. Which part of coil spring allows angular movement of linkages?
A : Ball joint B : Stabilizer bar C : Torsion bar D : Lower control arm
27. Which type of spring suspension responds quickly to road shocks?
A : Compression spring B : Coil spring C : Helical spring D : Transverse spring
28. : Which type of shock absorber maintain vehicle ride at a pre - set level according to the load placed over
the rear axle?
A : Gas pressurized shock absorber B : Hydraulic shock absorber
C : Automatic load adjustable shock absorber D : Mechanical shock absorber
29. What is the effect of weak suspension? |
A : Directional instability of vehicle B : Carrying excessive payload of vehicle
C : Unequal weight distribution of weight D : Vibration damping is more effective
30. : Which type of shock absorber is easy for replacement and handling?
A : Vane type B : Piston type C : Mechanical type D : Telescopic type
31. : Which type of shock absorber absorbs shocks with the help of friction disc and spring? |
A : Hydraulic type B : Electrical type C : Mechanical type D : Pneumatic type
32. Which device in the air suspension system observes vibration of low amplitude and high
frequency?
A : Shock absorber B : Suspension spring C : Air bags in the system D : Leaf spring
33. Where the airbags are located in the air suspension system?
A : Between frame and vehicle axle B : Between high control valve and frame
C : Between air pressure regulator and front axle D : Between brake tank and vehicle axle
34. What is the purpose of air suspension?
A : Used for leveling purpose B : Reduce the suspension weight
C : Increase the directional stability D : Reduce the space occupation
35. Why vibration damper are not used inside the helical spring?
A : Possibility of stuck in one position B:Not economical
C : Fitting and removing time consuming D:No effect on load carrying capacity
36. Why rubber buffer is provided in the main spring of suspension system?
A : Transfer pay load smoothly B: Protect chassis frame from heavy jerk
B : Transfer the load equally C: Provide steering control stability
50. The improved standard of ride comfort and noise reduction attained with _______.
A : Air spring B : Coil spring C : Leaf spring D : None of these
6. : What does the no: 14PR denotes in the tyre specification 9” x 14 - 14PR?
A : Shoulder width B: Bead circle dia C:Ply rating D : Tyre thickness
9. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the flat type rim?
10. Which type of wheel consist two separate discs are clamped together?
A : Split wheel B: Wire wheel C : Disc wheel D : Heavy vehicle
23. What causes abnormal tyre wear, tyre slip and poor steering stability?
A : Incorrect toe - in and toe – out B : Malfunctioning of torsion bar
C: Presence of air in the brake fluid D : Front axle bend/twist
24.What is the type of defect?
A : Bold spots wear B : Rapid wear at centre C : Feather edge D : Wear on one side
26. What is the main cause for wear on one side of tyre?
A : Improper camber B : Improper caster C : Over inflation D : Under inflation
27: What is the reason of faster wear out of tyre edges?
A : Under inflated tyre B : Over inflated tyre
C : Un equal load distribution D : Defective suspension system
28.Why the alternator spokes are screwed to slope forward and backward towards the rim in
the wire wheel?
A : To take the uneven load B : To provide cushioning effect
C : To observe braking and driving torque D : To distribute the load evenly
1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-B, 5-C, 6-C, 7-A, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A, 11-D, 12-B, 13-B, 14-A, 15-C, 16-B, 17-A, 18-A, 19-C, 20-A, 21-B,
2-22-D, 23-A, 24-D, 25-C, 26-A, 27-A, 28-C, 29-B, 30-D, 31-D, 32-D, 33-D, 34-D, 35-D, 36-B, 37-A, 38-D, 39-C, 40-C,
41-B, 42-B, 43-C, 44-B, 45-A, 46-C, 47-B, 48-C, 49-B, 50-D, 51-D, 52-D, 53-C, 54-A, 55-B, 56-A, 57-B, 58-C, 59-A,
8) The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as ------------------
a) Trapping b) Tapping
c) Bleeding d) None of these
10) Drum Brakes has -----------drum that encloses the brakes assembly of each wheel .
a) Metal Brake b)Rubber Brake
c) None of these d) All of them
12) The top of the shoes are attached with the ----------------
a) Wheel cylinder b) master cylinder
c) None of these d) All of them
13) The disc rotates with the ---------------
a) Wheel hub b) Axle Shaft
c) None of these d) All of them
15) When the brake is applied , the all under pressure from the -------------------
a) Master Cylinder b) Wheel Cylinder
c) None of these d) All of them
17) When the brake pedal pushed air is removed from one side of the vacuum line .
a) Diaphragm b) Master Cylinder
c) Canister d) None of these
18) Hindustan Motors offer the power braking unit ELGI type for their ---------------
a) Nano b) Ambassador
c) Safari d) None of these
19) Any Mechanism which adds to the driver’s efforts in applying the brakes is called ----------------------
a) Steering Mechanism b) Servo mechanism
c) None of these d) All of them
20) Which of the following is not a component of vacuum servo brake -------------------------
a) Vacuum booster b) Master cylinder
c) Wheel cylinder d) All of them
21) In air brake system the vehicle is braked exclusively by an external force generated by
a) Vacuum b) compressive air
c) Driver effort’s d) None of these
24) Which of the following component of ABS is used to adjust the brake pressure .
a) Speed sensors b) pressure control valve
c) Electronics controller d) None of these
25) The condition that caused vapour locking in a braking system is --------------------------------
a) Overheating of the fluid due to frequency brake application
b) Overcooling of the braking during high speed driving
c) Keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
d) An excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
26) Which of the following symptoms is caused as a result of braking disc run out ?
a) Ineffectiveness of the brakes b) judder during braking
c) Localized wearing of the brake pads d) rapid wearing of the brake pads
A : Brake drum
B : Brake shoe retracting spring
C : Pedal return spring
D : Brake pedal
A : Drum brake
B: Vacuum assisted brake
C: Disc brake
D : Hydraulic brake
A: Disc brake
B: Drum brake
C: Air brake
D: Hydraulic brake
35) Which device permits air to the air brake system?
D: speed
=100
Wheel speed
A : Carbon fiber B. Aluminium oxide C. Fine polished steel wool D. Carbon composite
39) What is the name of component used in the air brake system?
A : Brake valve
B : Unloader valve
C : Slack adjuster
D : Pressure release valve
41) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the slack adjuster for ‘s’ cam brake?
A: Brake cam
B: Adjusting nut
C: Brake drum
D: Cam roller
A Slack adjuster for ‘S’ cam brake B Wedge type brake adjuster
43) Which material is used for brake rotors and brake pads for aircraft and racing cars?
A : Sintered alloy
B : Carbon fiber reinforced carbon composite
C : Asbestos
D : Copper, brass, steel
44) What is the permitted brake pedal travel in the hydraulic brake system?
A: 2 to 12 mm
B: 6 to 12 mm
C: 7 to 12 mm
D: 9 to 12 mm
46) what is the name of part marked as ‘X” in the drum brake system?
A : Brake shoe
B : Wheel cylinder र
C :Back plate
D : Shoe hold down pin
A: Integral type
B: Multiplier type
C: Pedal assisted type
D: Air assisted power brakes
49) What is the name of part marked as ‘x’ in the vacuum assisted power brakes?
A : Master cylinder
B : Booster cylinder
C : Vacuum control valve
D : Brake pedal linkage
50) What is the purpose of brake proportioning valves in the braking system?
51) Where the non-return valve is located in the centre feed master cylinder?
A : On the reservoir ज
B : On the cylinder head
C : On the bypass port
D : On the pistons head
52) What is the brake pedal free play range permitted while adjusting?
A : 4 mm to 8 mm
B : 8 mm to 10 mm
C : 6 mm to 12 mm
D :13 mm to 18 mm
53) What is the precautionary measure to be adapted while removing secondary piston to
prevent damage?
55) Which device detects the driven wheel spin through sensor?
A : EBD
B : ECU
C : TCS
D : ELSD
56) How the EBD (Electronic Brake Force Distribution) failure indicated to the driver?
59) .What is the function of EBD (Electronic Brake - Force Distribution) in anti lock brake system?
A: It control the slip of the front wheel
B: It controls the slip of the rear wheel
C: It increase brake pressure to the rear wheel
D: It improve directional stability of vehicle
61) Which one of the following is necessary if a vehicle is to stop in the shortest distance possible ?
62) The most effective braking system for a 4 wheel vehicle will have
A) All wheel braking
B) Front wheel braking
C) Rear wheel braking
D) Front wheel braking if the front axle is the drive axle
63) In the hydraulic braking system the movement of the piston in the master cylinder produces hydraulic
pressure which cause movement of the
A) Brake lining
B) Brake shoe
C) Brake pedal
D) Brake cam
64) What is effect of leading shoe when it is applied to a brake drum , which is rotating in a forward
direction ? The shoe is pushed
A) Away from the drum
B) Towards the hydraulic expander
C) Away from the anchor pin
D) Harder into contact with drum
65) Braking is produced by the frictional effect between the brake drum and
A) Wheel cylinder pistons
B) Brake shoes
C) Wheel studs
D) Wheel rim
66) In a disc brake the disc is attached to the
A) Piston
B) Caliper
C) Wheel hub
D) Steering knuckle
72) As applied the braking system the term self servo means that the
A) Vehicle is fitting with a vacuum device
B) Trailing Shoe is forced towards the drum
C) Pedal force increase as the brake gets hotter
D) Rotational of the drum helps to apply the brake
74) As compared to an internally expanded shoe brake a disc brake has the advantage
A) Greater resistance to fade
B) Fades at a lower temperature
C) Small efforts gives larger braking torque
D) Greater self servo action at high speed
79) If the pedal of hydraulically operated brake is springy it indicates that’s the
A) System contains air
B) Shoe clearance is excessive
C) Brake fluid should be change
D) System is in a good condition
81) The operation of removing trapped air from hydraulic braking system is known as ?
A) Tapping
B) Bleeding
C) Pressurizing
D) Clearing
82) If brake wheels get locked before the vehicle stops the wheels are said to be
A) Slipping
B) Sliding
C) Skidding
D) Rubbing
90) Which of the following material is not used for brake drum ?
A) Steel
B) Copper
C) Cast iron
D) Aluminum
ANSWER-BRAKING SYSTEM
1(A), 2(B),3(A) ,4(B), 5(B),6(C),7(B), 8(C),9(B),10(A),11(B),12(B),13(A),14(B),15(A),16(B),17(A),18(B)
19(B),20(C),21(B),22(A),23(C),24(B),25(A),26(B),27(C),28(A),29(B),30(A),31(D),32(B),33(C),34(B),35(D),
36(A),37(C),38(A),39(B),40(B),41(D),42(C),43(B),44(C),45(B),46(C),47(C),48(B),49(C),50(C),51(D),52(C),
53(C),54(B),55(B),56(C),57(C),58(A),59(B),60(D),61(A),62(A),63(B),64(D),65(B),66(C),67(C),68(C),69(B),
70(D),71(A),72(D),73(B),74(A),75(B),76(A),77(C),78(A),79(A),80(A),81(B),82(C),83(D),84(D),85(A),86(D)
87(D),88(B),89(C),90B),91(B)
FUEL SUPPLY AND INJECTION SYSTEM
1. which type of draft is most commonly used in automobile carburetor ?
a) Down draft
b) Updraft
c) Horizontal draft
d) Inclined draft
4. The circuit in the carburetor is responsible for maintaining a constant level reservoir of fuel is called
the
a) Fuel circuit
b) Level circuit
c) Float circuit
d) Choke circuit
7. Which one of the following reasons can richen the air/fuel mixture for cold starting ?
a) Fuel particles are smaller
b) Quantity of air is less
c) Cold engine doesn’t vaporized
d) Cold fuel will not flow through the jet
8. Which one of the following methods is used on constant volume carburetor supply a suitable mixture
for cold start
a) The jet is lowered
b) The needle is lowered
c) The strangler is closed
d) The flap on air intake is close
9. A compensation system is incorporated in modern fixed choke carburetor . it prevents
a) Flooding at high speed
b) Richness at high speed
c) Weakness at high speed
d) Starvation at high speed
10. The flow of petrol from a constant volume carburetor is increased when the engine load is increased
by
a) Altering the petrol level
b) Intensifying the choke depression
c) Speeding up the air flow over the jet
d) Causing the piston to raise the tapered needle
11. The outlet of the carburetor is slow running system is suitable on the
a) Engine side of the throttle
b) Choke side of the throttle
c) Waist side of the throttle
d) Intake side of the venture
13. The reason why the petrol flow from the floating chamber to the venture is because
a) Of the difference in the pressure
b) Of the difference in the level
c) The floating level is higher
d) The air sucks out the petrol
14. Which of the following describe the purpose of the carburetor choke tube ?
a) To decrease the air speed , and decrease the air pressure
b) To increase the air speed , and decrease the air pressure
c) To decrease the air speed , and increase the air pressure
d) To increase the air speed , and increase the air pressure
15. Which of the following components regulates the quantity of petrol air mixture that enters the engine ?
a) Throttle
b) Stranger
c) Float
d) Needle valve
16. Which of the following parts of the carburetor shuts off the air supply to aid cold starting?
a) Throttle
b) Stranger
c) Float
d) Needle valve
17. An engine is supplied mixture of 12 parts of air and 1 parts of petrol . its effects are
a) High fuel consumption and dirty exhaust product
b) Slow combustion and high power out put
c) Low fuel consumption and sooty exhaust gas
d) Slow combustion and low fuel consumption
19. In a petrol engine the air fuel mixture is drawn into cylinder due to vacuum created during
a) Power stroke
b) Exhaust stroke
c) Suction stroke
d) Compression stroke
20. The choke in the carburetor is generally used when the engine
a) Idling
b) Running at the high speed
c) To be suddenly accelerate
d) To be cold started
21. Air fuel ratio changes according to certain operating condition like
a) Speed only
b) Load only
c) Speed and load only
d) Speed ,load , temperature
22. Which one of the following operated mechanical fuel feed pump ?
a) Camshaft
b) Crankshaft
c) Flywheel
d) Piston
23. The most widely used fuel supply system for car engine is the
a) Gravity system
b) Pressure system
c) Vacuum system
d) Pump system
30. The cheapest and yet reasonable prices petrol injection system
a) Direct injection
b) Port injection
c) Manifold injection
d) Throttle body injection
31. Which of the following gives the correct flow path of petrol in an engine ?
a) Tank - filter -pump -carburetor - cylinder
b) Tank - pump- filter - -carburetor - cylinder
c) filter -Tank - pump -carburetor - cylinder
d) Pump -filter -tank - carburetor - cylinder
34. What happens in the floating chamber during the idling action of the fuel pump ?
a) It remains empty
b) It remains partially filled
c) It remains filled
d) None
35. When the diaphragm in the fuel pump moves down it creates
a) Pressure In the top chamber
b) Partially vacuum in the top chamber
c) Partially vacuum in the lower chamber
d) Fully vacuum in the lower chamber
37. In four stroke diesel engine the power cycle is complete in four stroke of the engine . in a diesel
engine during suction stroke piston dawns the
a) Gas
b) Fuel
c) Pure air alone
d) Mixture of air fuel
38. In four stroke petrol engine the power cycle is complete in four stroke of the engine . in a petrol engine
during suction stroke piston dawns the
a) Gas
b) Fuel
c) Pure air alone
d) Mixture of air fuel
39. The carburetor is to supply the correct air fuel mixture to engine . if the main jet is small in carburettor
the trouble is
a) Idle speed varies
b) Lean mixture at high speed
c) Improper choking
d) Carburetor flooding
40. Carburetor is to supply correct air fuel mixture to the engine . at high speed of the engine will be
lowered due to the main jet too small . the correct method is to
a) Install correct jet
b) Clean jet
c) Clean air cleaner
d) Adjust float level
42. The air fuel mixture is used for combustion in I.C engine . if the fuel has low octane value , the fault is
a) Pre-ignition
b) Short spark plug life
c) Detonation
d) Back firing
43. The purpose of petrol injection
a) To increase power
b) To decrease power
c) To same power
d) None
45. An ---------------- driven fuel pressure pump is mounted near the fuel tank
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Electronic
d) Hydraulic
46. In ---------------------injector sprays the fuel into each intake part of the manifold side of the inlet valve .
a) Port
b) Throttle body
c) Mechanical
d) Electronic
48. Quantity of fuel should vary to meet changing the speed and ------------------
a) Load
b) Heat
c) Air fuel mixture
d) Road geometry
49. Supply fuel from the fuel tank to the fuel injection pump is through -------------------
a) Fuel lines
b) Fuel pump
c) Fuel filter
d) Carburetor
50. The drive for the pump taken from the engine camshaft by means of an ----------------
a) Speed
b) Accelerator
c) Engine load
d) Braking
57. Most commonly used in ------------------for diesel engine fuel is the wire gauge installed on the suction
the feed pump
a) Secondary filter
b) Sedimentary filter
c) Primary filter
d) None
62. Fuel supply should be in accordance with the various load and ------------------requirement of the
engine
a) Accelerator
b) Speed
c) Fuel
d) Movement
64. A small quantity of fuel is purposely allowed to leak between the nozzle valve and the guide for --------
---------------purpose
a) Cooling
b) Pumping
c) Lubrication
d) Spraying
68. The ---------------- is moved up by a cam and return back to its initial position by tension spring
a) Connecting rod
b) Plunger
c) Piston
d) Crank level
72. The thermo time switch senses -------------------temperature and control the cold start valve according
a) Engine
b) Gear box axle
c) All
73. In electronic fuel injection system ------------------------is used to maintain closed loop control of the air
fuel mixture .
a) Cold start system
b) Van type air flow sensor
c) Feedback from the exhaust gas oxygen sensor
d) None
74. ----------------------- provide additional fuel during starting condition according to the engine temperature
a) Cold start system
b) Idle speed control system
c) Variable intake manifold system
d) None
75. In engine management system . the -------------------- control additional function such as idling speed
ignition timing and fuel pump operation .
a) Electronic fuel injection unit
b) Electronic control unit
c) Idle speed control system
d) Cold start system
79. ----------------is used to measure the position and speed of moving metal component
a) Throttle position sensor
b) Input speed sensor
c) Variable reluctance sensor
d) Torque sensor
80. ---------------------is used to measure the absolute pressure in the intake manifold and compare it with a
reference vacuum .
a) Actuator
b) Resistive sensor
c) Manifold air pressure
d) Throttle position sensor
5. The spark must produce spark at the correct movement , i.e ----------------------
a) At the beginning of the compression stroke
b) At the end of the compression stroke
c) At the end of power stroke
d) None
10. A spark plug will fall in its function due to the ----------------------------------
a) Plug fouled by engine oil entering the combustion chamber
b) Plug fouled by too rich mixture
c) Spark plug gap is incorrect
d) All
15. Which one gives perfect sparks timing for all driving conditions ?
a) Centrifugal advance mechanism
b) Vacuum advance mechanism
c) Combination of both Centrifugal & Vacuum advance mechanism
d) None
17. The electronic ignition system has a module kit that improve ----------------------
a) C.B point performance
b) The condenser performance
c) The coil performance
d) None
20. A transistorized ignition system for a gas turbine engine that requires only -------------------
a) Spark gap charge device
b) C.B point charge discharge device
c) Spark gap discharge device
d) All
21. An advantage is to provide a transistorized ignition system for a gas turbine engine that is capable of
operating under ----------------------
a) Open circuit and short circuit condition
b) Close circuit and short circuit condition
c) Open and Close circuit and short circuit condition
d) None
24. The function of the distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C engine
a) To distribute spark
b) To distribute power
c) To distribute current
d) To time the spark
26. if the spark ignition takes place before compression stroke it is called -------------------------
a) Spark retardance
b) Spark advance
c) Spark neutralized
d) None
32. To ensure combustion occurs at the correct time when the engine speed is increased, the spark
should be
a) Advanced
b) Retarded
c) Less intense
d) More intense
34. The component of secondary ignition circuit include the secondary winding of ignition coil , distributor
rotor , distributor cap and
a) Condenser
b) Spark plug
c) Ignition switch
d) Distributor drive gear
35. The ignition condenser
a) Reduce arcing at the contact
b) Reduces secondary spark
c) Protect plugs from load
d) Increases contact arcing
36. The two firing order used in four cylinder inline engine are
a) 1342 and 1423
b) 1423 and 1324
c) 1324 and 1243
d) 1243 and 1342
37. What is happening of a two stroke at instant when the spark occurs ?
a) New gas is being compressed
b) Transfer port just open
c) Inlet port is closed and depression being formed
38. Two factor which would increase the voltage to produce spark at the sparking plugs are
a) Wider electrode gap and higher cylindrical pressure
b) Wider electrode gap and lower cylindrical pressure
c) Narrower electrode gap and higher cylindrical pressure
d) Narrower electrode gap and lower cylindrical pressure
39. contact breaker points are generally made of
a) Plastic
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Tungsten
40. The dwell is
a) The time for which the points remain closed
b) The distance between the cam lobes
c) The angle at which the heel contacts the cam
d) None
41. The part of an ignition system which transforms the voltage from 12V to more than 9000V is the
a) Contact breaker
b) Capacitor
c) Distributor
d) Coil
42. The rotor arm of a coil ignition system fitted to a four cylinder four stroke engine is driven at
a) Twice engine speed
b) Engine speed
c) Half engine speed
d) Quarter engine speed
43. Excessive contact breaker results in
a) Rapid burning of points
b) Advanced timing
c) Increased dwell
d) All
44. The spark occurs when the
a) Point close
b) Point open
c) Ignition switch is on
d) None
45. The contact breaker points are open by the cam and closed by
a) Same cam
b) Centrifugal force
c) Magnetic force
d) Spring tension
46. The function of the capacitor in a coil ignition system is to
a) Transfer the voltage
b) Act as a mechanical switch
c) Prevent arcing at the contact breaker
d) Direct the current to the appropriate plug
47. In the engine having automatic advance devices in coil ignition which mechanism advances the spark
to suit the engine speed ?
a) Vacuum
b) Air bleeding
c) Centrifugal
d) Volume control
48. How is the gap of a spark plug adjust ?
a) By bending of the earth electrode
b) By bending of the centre electrode
c) By filling the earth electrode
d) By filling the centre electrode
49. The dwell on a six cylinder engine compare to four cylinder engine
a) More
b) Less
c) Same
d) May be more or less
50. The secondary winding of a ignition coil has
a) Many turns of heavy wire
b) Many turns of fine wire
c) Few turns of heavy wire
d) Few turns of fine wire
51. The centrifugal advance mechanism provides ignition advance proportional to
a) Engine load
b) Engine speed
c) Both A&B
d) None
61. The number of ignition coil in a distributor less ignition system for a 6 cylinder engine is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 12
63. The distributor is used to distribute the high voltage surges from the ignition coil to the spark plugs .
the distributor cap has segments around its circumference equal to
a) Half the number of engine cylinder
b) The number of engine cylinder
c) Double the number of engine cylinder
d) Four times the number of engine cylinder
64. The distributor is use to distribute the high voltage surges from the ignition coil to the spark plugs. The
distributor cap is made of
a) P.V.C
b) Plastic
c) Fiber
d) Bakelite
65. Which of the following is used to check the gap between the contact breaker points ?
a) Feeler gauge
b) Wire gauge
c) Micrometer gauge
d) Vernier gauge
66. Ignition coil is used to set up low voltage to high voltage to generate sparks. If secondary voltage is
excessive than required .in ignition circuit what will effect ?
a) Pre - ignition
b) Short CB point life
c) Increased engine speed
d) Missing at all speed
67. Which one of the following is called as capacitor ?
a) Alternator
b) Condenser
c) Distributor
d) Contact breaker
68. Ignition timing is set as
a) T.D.C at the start of the compression stroke
b) T.D.C at the end of the compression stroke
c) B.D.C at the start of the power stroke
d) B.D.C at the end of the power stroke
69. In diesel engines , the diesel is ignited by
a) Glow plug
b) Spark plug
c) Injector
d) Temperature of compressed air
70. In ignition system contact breaker connect and disconnects
a) Secondary winding in the ignition coil
b) Primary winding in the ignition coil
c) Primary and secondary winding
d) Low tension and high tension circuit
1 C , 2 A , 3 B , 4 C ,5 B , 6 D , 7 B ,8 B , 9 C , 10 D ,11 A ,12 B , 13 C , 14 B ,
41 D, 42 C , 43 B , 44 B , 45 D , 46 C , 47 B , 48 A , 49 B , 50 B , 51 B ,52 C , 53 B ,
54 D , 55 A , 56 A , 57 C , 58 A , 59 D , 60 A , 61 C , 62 B , 63 B , 64 D , 65 A , 66 A
, 67 B , 68 B , 69 D , 70 B
CHARGING & STARTING SYSTEM
1. What is the name of alternator part?
A Drive end frame
B Spring end frame
C Rotor assembly
D Stator assembly
2. What is the name of alternator part?
A Drive end frame
B Voltage regulator
C Slip ring end frame
D Current regulator
3. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the
alternator charging circuit?
A Ignition switch
B Ammeter
C Ignition core
D Fuse
A Key switch
B Armature
C Solenoid switch
D Starting motor
6. What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the
starting circuit?
A Solenoid switch
B Solenoid windings
C Starter switch
D Starter Motor
7. What is the type of starting system?
A Bendrix drive
B Axial or sliding armature drive
C Overrunning clutch drive
D Sliding clutch drive
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 B
7 B 8 A 9 D 10 A 11 C 12 D
13 D 14 C 15 B 16 C 17 A 18 C
19 B 20 A 21 A 22 C 23 B 24 A
25 C 26 B 27 A
12 What is the use of single red lamp of 24 watts fitted at the rear?
A Provide enough visibility
B Give indication the traffic behind
C Help driver to see full width of road
D Provide interior illumination
13 What is the use of tail light?
A Indication to vehicle behind
B Indication to slowing down
C Provide interior illumination
D Provide enough visibility
14 Which light give indication to the traffic behind the vehicle for slowing down?
A Stop light
B Fog light
C Dome light
D Head light
15 Which light provide effective illumination during snowfall?
A Head light
B Parking light
C Fog light
D Stop light
16 What is the purpose of dome light circuit?
A Panel board gauges indication
B Interior illumination
C Used for parking vehicle on road
D Provide enough visibility to driver
17 Which circuit provide miniature bulbs to know the working gauges?
A Panel light circuit
B Head light circuit
C Parking light circuit
D Stop light circuit
18 What is the use of two small lamps fitted front and rear of vehicle?
A Used for visibility
B Provide illumination
C Used for parking on the road
D Provide caution to the driver
19 Which lighting circuit provided with dip and dim switch?
A Parking light circuit
B Head light circuit
C Panel light circuit
D Fog light circuit
1 B 2 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 D
B
7 A 8 B 9 B 10 A 11 B 12 C
13 A 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 C
19 B
7 C 8 C 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 D
13 C 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 A
19 A 20 A 21 B 22 A 23 C 24 B
Electrical Component & Trouble Shooting
1 What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the horn
circuit?
A Battery
B Solenoid switch
C Horn relay
D Fuse
2 What is the type of horn?
A Air horn
B Bulb horn
C Electric horn
Wind horn
D
3 What is the name of Horn?
A Air horn
B Bulb horn
C Electric horn
D Horn relay
4 What is the expansion of GPS in vehicle safety system?
A Global Placing Satellites
B Global Positioning Satellites
C General Positioning Satellites
D Global Preventing Systems
5 What is the name of sensor used in the air bag
systems?
A Mass type air bag system sensor
B Accelerometer type air bag system sensor
C Interior temperature sensor
D Infrared sensor
19 Which type of horn consist electrically driven air pump forces air through plastic trumpet?
A Wind horn
B Wind horn
C Air horn
D Electric horn
20 Which type of wipers is used for heavy motor vehicles?
A Hand operated wiper
B Vacuum operated wiper
C Hydraulically operated wiper
D Compressed air operated wiper
21 Which is the most commonly used wiper in all motor vehicles?
A Electrically operated wipers
B Hydraulically operated wipers
C Vacuum operated wipers
D Compressed air operated wipers
22 What is the cause of horn does not produce any sound?
A Relay point stuck up
B Fuse blown off
C Low voltage at horn terminal
D Tone disc damaged
23 What causes horn sounds continuously even switch is in off position?
A Fuse blown off
B Incorrectly adjusted relay
C Relay point stuck up
D Low battery voltage
24 Why horn produces low improper sound?
A Cracked diaphragm
B Fuse blown off
C Relay points stuck up
D Open field coil winding
25 What is the necessity of wiper unit?
A To see road and traffic clearly
B To provide easy steering
C To reduce effort on the steering
D To provide balancing of vehicle
26 Why power windows are provided with lock out switch controlled by a driver?
A Prevent accident
B Provide effective operation
C Improve easy handling
D Prevent damage to windows
27 What is the possible cause for immobilizer antenna error?
A ECM problem
B Unregistered ignition key
C Poor transponder in key
Blown fuse
D
7 B 8 B 9 A 10 D 11 A 12 B
13 A 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 A
19 B 20 D 21 A 22 B 23 C 24 A
25 A 26 A 27 A
Motor Vehicle Act & Trouble Shooting
1 When motor vehicle act came into force?
A 1 July 1989
B 31 Aug 1968
C 1 Aug 1985
D 1 July 1988
2 How to define a vehicle constructed to carry more than 6 passengers but not more than 12
passengers?
A Light motor vehicle
B Maxi cab
C Goods carriage
D Contract carriage
3 What is the age limit prescribed to drive transport
vehicles?
A 16 Years
B 18 Years
C 20 Years
D 22 years
4 What is the validity of learner driving license?
A 6 Months
B 8 Months
C 10 Months
D 1 year
5 What is the validity of learner driving license?
A 6 Months
B 8 Months
C 10 Months
D 1 year
6 What is the validity period of the license to drive non transport vehicle?
A 10 Year
B 15 Years
C 20 Years
D 22 Years
7 What is the validity for international driving license?
A 2 Years
B 3 Years
C 1 Years
D 5 Years
8 What is the name of sign?
A Gap in median
B Narrow bridge
C Narrow road
D Road widens
9 What is the overall length of a transport vehicle with rigid frame with two or more axles permitted
by motor vehicle rules?
A 8 Mtrs
B 12 Mtrs
C 6 Mtrs
D 15 Mtrs
10 What do the traffic sign indicate?
A Two-way operation
B Cross roads
C Traffic diversion
D Slippery road
11 What do the traffic sign indicate?
A School
B Men at work
C Pedestrian crossing
D Cycle crossing
12 Which form is used for declaration of physical fitness in the motor vehicle act?
A Form 1
B Form 1A
C Form 9
D Form 20
13 What is the use of form LLD in motor vehicle act?
A No objection certificate
B Registration of motor vehicle
C Intimation of loss driving license
D Medical certificate
14 What is the permitted overall height of tractor trailer goods vehicle as per motor vehicle act?
A Not to exceed 4.20 Mtrs
B Not to exceed 4.75 Mtrs
C Not to exceed 4.50 Mtrs
D Not to exceed 4.00 Mtrs
15 What is the permitted overall height of tractor trailer goods vehicle as per motor vehicle act?
A Not to exceed 4.20 Mtrs
B Not to exceed 4.75 Mtrs
C Not to exceed 4.50 Mtrs
D Not to exceed 4.00 Mtrs
16 What is the purpose of form 33 used regarding registration certificate?
A Notice of transfer of owner ship or vehicle
B Renewable of certificate of fitness
C Intimation of change of address |
D Registration of motor vehicle act
17 Which form is required to obtain temporary authorization of use of vehicle when the certificate
of fitness expired?
A Form C.F Sub
B Form C.F.R.A
C Form C.F.A
D Form C.F.A.B
18 Why form-9 is required for driving license in motor vehicle act?
A To intimate loss to driving license
B For renewal of driving license
C To declare physical fitness
D For no objection certificate
A 1,3,4,2
B 1,2,3,4
C 2,3,1,4
D 3,1,4,2
37 What is the temperature limit set to ON/OFF for the radiator control system?
A ON and OFF at below 98°c and 93°c
B ON and OFF at above 98°c and 93°c
C ON and OFF at below 93°c and 84°c
D ON and OFF at above 90°c and 81°c
38 What is the name of device used in the ignition
system?
A Distributor
B Ignition coil
C Condense
D Contact breaker
39 What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the ignition
coil?
A Primary winding
B Secondary winding
C Back light cap
D Secondary cap
40 Which law states that the induction of electromotive force in any closed circuit is equal to the
rate of change of magnetic flux?
A Law of resistance
B Ohms law
C Charles law
D Faradays law
41 What is the name of sensor?
A Crank position senor
B Pressure sensor
C Temperature sensor
D Hall effect sensor
52 How many spark plugs are ignited at the same time in the distributor less ignition system?
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Five
53 What is the function of distributor in the battery ignition system?
A Distribute high tension current from ignition coil to secondary winding
B Distribute high tension current flow ignition coil to spark plugs
C Opens and closes the secondary circuit of coil
D Distribute low tension current to ignition coil
54 What is the purpose of condenser in the ignition system?
A Distribute high tension current to spark plugs
B Insulate spark plug electrodes
C Prevents arcs at the points
D Open and close the primary circuit
55 What achieve through spark plug end gap design?
A Improve combustion swirl
B Increase the fuel pressure
C Improve fuel atomization
D Helps for the complete ignition
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C
7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. C 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B
19. D 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A
25. B 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. C 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A
37. A 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. A 42. B
43. B 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. B 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. B 54. C
55. A 56. D 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. C
61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. C
67. A 68. A 69. B 70. C 71. A
STARTING & STOPING SYSTEM
11. Which one of the following is used for topping of the batter in lead acid cell ?
a) Dilute sulphuric acid
b) Dilute KOH
c) Distilled Water
d) Hard water
14. A car battery has 6 cell in series what should be approximately charging voltage --------------------.
a) 10 volts
b) 2 volts
c) 100 volts
d) 15 volts
15. Which one of the following gives the indication of full charging .
a) Specific gravity
b) Voltage
c) Colour of the plates
d) All
16. During charging process of a lead acid cell which one of the following gas evolve at cathode
a) Co2
b) Methane
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
17. A battery can deliver 5Amps load for 5 hours then the capacity of the battery is -------------
a) 0 AH
b) 10AH
c) 1AH
d) 25AH
19. If the area of the plate increases , then the capacity of a battery ----------------------
a) Decreases
b) Doesn’t change
c) Increases
d) First increase then decrease
20. Dry cells are rarely used as a power source because ----------------
a) Costly
b) Require greater care
c) Not easily available
d) None
30. In simple loop generator the maximum emf will be induced when it is equal to
a) 0
b) Π/2
c) Π/6
d) Π/4
33) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the alternator charging circuit?
a) Ignition switch
b) Ammeter
c) Ignition core
d) Fuse
35) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the starting system?
a) Key switch
b) Armature
c) Solenoid switch
d) Starting motor
36) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the starting circuit?
a) Solenoid switch
b) Solenoid windings
c) Starter switch
d) Stator motor
a) Bendix drive
b) Axial or sliding armature drive
c) Overrunning clutch drive
d) Sliding clutch drive
a) DC Series type
b) Shunt type
c) Compound type
d) Parallel type
40) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the solenoid switch?
a) Hold in winding
b) Starter switch
c) Pull in winding
d) Iron plunger
43) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the solenoid switch?
a) Armature shaft
b) Shift lever
c) Pinion
d) Fly wheel ring gear
a) Armature shaft
b) Fly wheel
c) Pinion gear
d) Over running clutch
45) What is the type of starter motor circuit?
a) Series type
b) Parallel type
c) Shunt type
d) Compound type
46) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the starting circuit?
a) Solenoid switch
b) Plunger
c) Battery
d) Starter switch
a) Pole shoes
b) Brushes
c) Commutator
d) Drive end bracket
48) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the armature winding?
a) Brushes
b) Field coil
c) Commutator
d) Drive end bracket
a) Alternator
b) Distributor
c) Ignition coil
d) Condenser
51) What is the name of part marked as ‘X’ in the rotor assembly?
a) Connection to rectifier
b) Laminated core
c) Slip ring
d) Field coil
53) Which part of bendix drive starting system limit the turning of the sleeve on the armature shaft?
a) Pinion
b) Bendix drive spring
c) Anti drift spring
d) Fly wheel
54) What is the purpose of slot provided in the laminated cylindrical iron core of stator assembly?
a) For lubrication
b) For fitting insulated winding
c) For easy fitting
d) Provide space for cooling
55) What is the function of over running clutch in the starting system?
a) Protect armature from damage
b) Prevent sliding movement of pinion
c) Operate the solenoid
d) Drive the armature shaft
73) What is the possible cause of motor not running and no operating sound of magnetic switch?
a) Burnt commutator
b) Battery discharged
c) Worn brushes
d) Worn pinion tip
74) Why anti drift spring is provided in the bendix drive starting system?
a) Provide grip over armature shaft
b) Avoid the side way movement of armature shaft
c) Prevent pinion striking fly wheel
d) Resist wear on the fly wheel
75) What is the cause of low voltage output from alternator?
a) Faulty regulator
b) Loose mountings
c) Worn out bearing
d) Loose drive pully
76) What causes charges at high rate in the alternator?
a) Open rectifier circuit
b) Open field current
c) Voltage regulator setting too low
d) Voltage regulator setting too high
77) What will be the result of loose drive pulley in the alternator?
a) Charges at high rate
b) Low voltage output from alternator
c) No change when engine running
d) Alternator noisy
78) What causes no charge when engine is running?
a) Drive belt loose
b) Shorted rectifier
c) Sticky regulator
d) Brushes not seating properly
ANSWER KEY
43-B,44-D,45-D,46-B,47-C,48-B,49-C,50-A,51-C,52-B,53-B,54-B,55-A,56-A,
71-B,72-D,73-B,74-C,75-A,76-D,77-D,78-A