MANAGING TEAMS :

Work Team
A small number of people with complementary skills who hold themselves mutually
accountable for pursuing a common purpose, achieving performance goals and
improving interdependent work processes.

The Advantages of Teams

Teams can improve customer satisfaction, product and service quality, employee job
satisfaction, and decision making.

The Disadvantages of Teams

Teams can be prone to high turnover, social loafing, groupthink, and minority
domination.

Cross-training
Training team members to do all r most of the jobs performed by the other team
members
.
Social Loafing
Behavior in which team members withhold their efforts and fail to perform their share of
the work.

When to use teams

Teams should be used when there is a clear, engaging reason or purpose; when the job
can't be done unless people work together; when rewards can be provided for teamwork
and team performance; when ample resources are available; and when they will have
clear authority to manage and change how work gets done
.
When to not use teams
Teams should not be used when there isn't a clear, engaging reason or purpose; when
the job can be done by people working independently; when rewards are provided for
individual effort and performance; when the necessary resources are not available; and
when management will continue to monitor or influence how work gets done.

Traditional Work Group

A group composed of two or more people who work together to achieve a shared goal
Employee Involvement Team
A team that provides advice or makes suggestions to management concerning specific
issues.

Semi-Autonomous Work Group

A group that has the authority to make decisions and solve problems related to the
major tasks of producing a product or service.

Self-Managing Team
A team that manages and controls all of the major tasks of producing a product or
service.

Self-Designing Team
A team that has the characteristics of self-managing teams but also controls team
design, work tasks and team membership.
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Cross-Functional Team
A team composed of employees from different functional areas of the organization.

Virtual Team
A team composed of geographically and/or organizationally dispersed co-workers who
use telecommunications and information technologies to accomplish an organizational
task.

Project Team
A team created to complete specific, one-time projects or tasks within a limited time.

Norms
Informally agreed-on standards that regulate team behavior.

Cohesiveness
The extent to which team members are attracted to a team and motivated to remain in
it.
The optimum size for a team
6-9 members.

Forming
The first stage of team development, in which team members meet each other, form
initial impressions, and begin to establish team norms.

Storming
The second stage of development, characterized by conflict and disagreement, in which
team members disagree over what the team should do and how it should do it.

Norming
The third stage of development, in which team members begin to settle into their roles,
group cohesion grows and positive team norms develop.
Performing
The fourth and final stage of development, in which performance improves because the
team has matured into an effective, fully functioning team.

Structural Accommodation
The ability to change organizational structures, policies and practices in order to meet
stretch goals.

Bureaucratic Immunity
The ability to make changes without first getting approval from managers or other parts
of an organization.

Individiualism-Collectivism
The degree to which a person believes that people should be self-sufficient and that
loyalty to one's self is more important than loyalty to team or company.

Team Level
The average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.

Team Diversity
The variances or differences in ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a
team.

Interpersonal Skills
Skills, such as listening, communicating, questioning and providing feedback, that
enable people to have effective working relationships with others.

Skill-based pay
A compensation system that pays employees for learning additional skills or knowledge.

Gainsharing
A compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance
gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.

de norming
team performance begins to decline as the size, scope, goal or members of the team
change

de storming
teams comfort level decreases team cohesion weakens, and angry emotions a conflict
may flare

de forming
members positon themselves to control pieces of the team avoid each other and isolate
themselves from team leaders

leadership

1. ___________ is increasing Leadership rapidly:

A. Strategy
B. Command
C. Control
D. Getting others to follow
2. Regarding leadership, which statement is false?
A. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an
organisation
B. When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and
defined
C. Not every leader is a manager
D. All of the above

3. __________ are the approaches to the study of leadership which emphasise the
personality of the leader:
A. Contingency theories
B. Group theories
C. Trait theories
D. Inspirational theories

4. The effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting _______ areas of need

within the workgroup:
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
D. None of the above

5. Needs, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-

leaders according to Adair’s approach, called as:
A. Work functions
B. Task functions
C. Individual functions
D. Team functions

6. The Ohio State Leadership Studies revealed _____________ and initiating

structure as two major dimensions of leadership behaviour:
A. Control
B. Communication
C. Collaboration
D. Consideration

7. _________ used the terms “employee-centred” and “production-centred” to

describe leader behaviour:
A. Blake and McCanse
B. Fiedler
C. McGregor
D. Likert

8. Identify the four main styles of leadership displayed by the manager which
identified in Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership
behaviour:
A. Tells, help, joins and leads
B. Commands, sells, consults and resists
C. Tells, sells, consults and joins
D. Commands, help, joins and leads

9. Contingency theories of leadership based upon:

A. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
B. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
C. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D. None of the above

10. Leaders with a low LPC score gain satisfaction from _______________
according to Fiedler’s LPC scale:
A. Developing team relationships
B. Achieving objectives
C. Both of these
D. None of the above

11. Model of leadership based on which aspects of a leader’s decision is Vroom

and Yetton’s contingency?
A. Decision acceptance
B. Decision quality
C. Both of these
D. None of the above

12. An individual’s motivation is dependent on:

A. Whether path-goal relationships are clarified
B. Expectations that increased effort to achieve an improved level of performance
will be successful
C. Their effective performance
D. The necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided

A firm that chooses a cost-leadership business strategy focuses on gaining

advantages by reducing its costs to a level equal to all of its competitors.True/
False
A cost-leadership competitive strategy helps reduce the threat of entry by
creating cost-based barriers to entry.
True/False
Cost leadership and product differentiation are so widely recognized that they are
often called generic business strategies.
True/False
Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt what is known
as a functional organizational structure.
True/False
In general, economies of scale and diseconomies of scale are relatively easy-to-
duplicate bases of cost leadership.
True/False
The best example of a firm following a cost-leadership business strategy is
(A) Wal-Mart
(B) Rolls Royce
(C) Mercedes Benz.
(D) .Macy’s
Cost-leadership and product-differentiation strategies are so widely recognized
that they are often called
(A) common business strategies.
(B) generic business strategies.
(C) generic corporate strategies
(D) common corporate strategies.
Compensation at cost-leadership firms is usually tied directly to product
innovation and customer service efforts.
True/ False
Cost leadership as a strategy requires a firm to __.
(A). aim at a cost advantage in a niche market
(B). be unique in its product offering
(C). aggressively search out efficiencies to maintain the lowest cost structure
(D). aim to be similar to its competition in most operations

Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt a

(A) multidivisional structure.
(B) functional organizational structure.
(C) product divisional structure.
(D) matrix structure.
Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will have ________ layers in their
reporting structure.
(A) relatively complex
(B) relatively simple
(C) relatively few
D) many

One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may
lead to lower costs. 
True/False
The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:
(A). production and distribution processes  becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty.

One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead
to lower costs.
True/False

The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:

(A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty.

Under which condition would a cost leadership strategy be especially effective?

Cost leadership strategy is more effective under the following two conditions;
1. When price competition among competitive sellers is too much.
2 When the products of competitive sellers is identical to your product and supplies are
readily available.

One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead
to lower costs. Experience effects are achieved by……?[
repeating a process until a task becomes easier
Firms pursuing a cost-leadership strategy are typically characterized by?
(A) loose cost control systems.
(B) close supervision of labor, raw materials, inventory, and other costs.
(C) Both A and B
(D) a de -emphasis on quantitative cost goals and costs.
(E). None of these
What must a cost-leadership strategy accomplish to be successful?
(A). It must increase the firm’s cost above that of its competitors while offering adequate
value.
(B. It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering superior
value.
(C). Both A and B
(D). It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering
adequate value.
(E). None of these

Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social
contract.
B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members
C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make
up a formal group.
E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of
organizational goals.

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully
functional, it is said to be in the stage of___________>
A. storming
B. norming
C. inertia
D. forming
E. performing
Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated
employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will
required him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but
realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this
situation, Michael is most likely to experience _____________.
A. role conflict
B. social loafing
C. groupthink
D. role fuzziness
E. groupshift

Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

A. It is involuntary in nature
B. Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted
norms of the group.
C. It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it accepted by
some employees.
D. Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees
operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who
functions as part of groups.
E. Leaving work early is an example of property related deviant workplace
behavior.

Properties of Groups

1. Roles
2. Norms
3. Status
4. Size
5. Cohesiveness
6. Diversity

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size

of the group has on the performance of the group?
A. The size of the group does not affect the group's overall behavior
 B. Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing
tasks than smaller ones.
C. As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in
problem solving.
D. If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more
effective than larger groups.
E. Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups
than in smaller ones.

 contributions to the group's outcome are identified (Social loafing a

tendency for individuals to expend less effort when they work
collectivelythan when they work individually; to counteract identify
everyone's specific contribution to the groups outcome)
Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?
A. increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
B. increasing the amount by which the group's progress is monitored
C. ensuring that individual contributions to the group's outcome are
identified
D. increasing the size of the group
E. increasing the group's workload

When_________is of importance in decision making, group decisions are

preferred to individual decisions.
A. acceptance of solution
B. speed
C. efficiency
D. clear responsibility
E. legitimacy

Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize

groupthink?
A. increasing the group size
B. encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
C. preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of
ideas at the beginning
D. asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative
rather than the negatives
E. seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his
opinions

The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering

telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting
to formalize the move, the heads of the different department met with Laura
Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a
short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously
agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up
with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major
concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it
were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of _____________.
A. conformity
B. groupshift
C. role conflict
D. groupthink
E. social loafing

Which of these groups is the higher performing?

A. Brainingstorming
B. Nominal Group

Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and

work teams?
A. Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work
teams are used by lower-level workers
B. Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of external
environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental
problems and issues.
C. Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while
work teams use employees who have random and varied skills.
D. Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater
outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this
function.
E. Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while
work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.
Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed
work teams?
A. Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty
employees.
B. Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well.
C. Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job
satisfaction
D. Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees
from different departments who work independent of each other
E. in the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory
positions take on decreased importance

The other different teams

cross functional jobs from different departments working across multiple
departments
problem solving team, that's the simplest kind of team. put together to
solve a problem. They don't do any of their own management.
Virtual teams PG 312

Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective

teams?
A. Team efficacy
B. Company reputation
C. adequate resources
D. member flexibility
E. leadership and structure

Araceli is a is a team member in a large corporation. She never

speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk
behind each other's backs after the meetings. Members are
constantly monitoring the other members' work and looking for
mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information
provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli's team?
A, adequate resources.
B, climate of trust.
C, team structure.
D, performance evaluations.
E, leadership.

eople scoring high on _________ are valuable in teams because they're

good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their
support is truly needed.
A, conscientiousness,
B, positivity
C, emotional stability,
D, agreeableness,
E, openness to experien

Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams?

A, the most effective teams have 12 to 15 members.
B, when teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines.
C, as team size increases, social loafing decreases.
D, when teams have excess members, mutual accountability
increases.
E, members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for
time.

Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?

A, providing vast engineering goals.
B, helping the team achieve small successes.
C, creating a team such that it has diverse members.
D, insuring the team goals are substantially difficult.
E, reducing the numbers of -- the number of members in a team
drastically.
 With the deadline approaching, all seven members of Sharon's
product development team were working around the clock and still
the work was not completed in time. After the project was completed,
Sharon spoke individually with the members to determine the cause
for this delay. Many members complained, saying the work given to
them was not in accordance with their roles. Some were unclear
about which team member to approach when faced with a problem
and many underestimated the time and effort the project demanded.
This team is characterized by, ___________________.
A, a clear role allocation for all team members.
B, dissimilar mental models.
C, high degree of role clarity.
D, excessively large team size.
E, a strong climate of trust.

 some conflict is okay, but not relationship conflict.)

Which of the following must be avoided if one wants to create and maintain
an effective team?
A, task conflict.
B, reflexivity.
C, specific goals.
D, relationship conflicts.
E, congruent mental models

Work should be performed by an individual if ___________________'

A, the work is complex and requires different perspectives,
B, the work creates a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more
than the aggregate of individual goals,
C, the work is simple and does not require diverse input,
D, several tasks are interdependent and to be performed before completing the work,
E, performing the work requires learning a new technology or understanding a new system.

Manuel is a manager for a manufacturing company

in which managers are expected to fully document all decisions and it is important
to provide detail data to support any recommendations.
Also, out of the box thinking is dissuaded.
Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Manuel's job?
A, low team orientation.
B, high aggressiveness.
C, low risk taking.
D, low outcome orientation.
E, high people orientation.

A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in

_________________________________.
A, a highly centralized organization.
B, narrow spans of control.
C, cohesiveness and organizational commitment.
D, a highly formalized organization.
E, an outcome-oriented organization.

Grace works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals often
employees, bosses, and hourly workers are like coming to the store off the clock and spent time
training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals and their jobs. This attitude of her
coworkers inspires Grace to do her best based on this information. We can say that Grace is
experiencing the effects of __________________.
A, decentralization.
B, organizational climate.
C, high departmentalization.
D, low formalization.
E, high work specialization.

 environment is dynamic. (culture is a liability when the shared values are not in
agreement with practices that further the organization's effectiveness. when the
organizations undergoing rapid change, meaning its needs are moving fast changing
and its values are, you know, they're entrenched. And that's what dynamic means. It
means fast moving rapid change.)
pg 517 is a section culture as a liability
culture is most likely to be a liability when ________________.
A, the employees of the organization are highly skilled.
B, the organization's environment is dynamic.
C, the organization's management is highly efficient.
D, the organization is highly centralized.
E, the organization scores low on the degree of formalization.

 down through the organization. (Through words and behavior, top management can
establish norms that filter through the organization, about risk taking, about how much
freedom employee should have,what employee actions work, who gets a raise,
promotion, fired, gets praise)519 is creating and sustaining culture.
How a culture begins is discussed at 519. There are three ways that culture is created.
It's tied up in the founders of the organization. And then, 519, 520 is a discussion of
keeping a culture alive. And the culture is kept alive through selection of employees and
through actions of top management
Top management has a major impact on the organizations' culture by
_________________________.
A, establishing norms that filter down through the organization.
B, ensuring a proper match of person on organizational values.
C, socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase.
D, providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires.
E, properly rewarding employees' initiatives

______________________a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing

organizational culture. So, you get these and you selected these employees and now they have
got to become one of you.
A, satisficing.
B, reciprocal interdependence.
C, socialization.
D, formalization.
E, social loafing.

When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization,
you move in to the ___________ stage of socialization.
A, pre-arrival.
B, post-arrival.
C, acceptance.
D, metamorphosis.
E, post-encounter.

Bruce is new at Wayne Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the
corporation started the business in his garage with only 4,000 dollars and one client. This
information was most likely transmitted to Bruce by way of
A, stories.
B, material symbols.
C, rituals.
D, organizational charts.
E, corporate chant

Larry, has an employee who was amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them, he has
recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which method of creating a
positive organizational culture is Larry utilizing?
A, rewarding more than punishing.
B, building on organization strengths.
C, using standardized practices.
D, building on employee's strengths.
E, transmitting organizational culture through rituals.

Organization for spiritual culture___________.

A, use stories for transmitting the organizational culture to the employees.
B, use wide spans of control.
C, recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work.
D, emphasize community differences in the organization.
E, tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction.

Trait theories of leadership focus on ___________.

A, the special relationship that leaders establish
with a small group of their followers;
B. the personal qualities and characteristics
that differentiate leaders from non-leaders;
C. the way the leader makes decision;
D. the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task;
E. the match between a leader's style and the degree
to which the situation gives the leader control.

Big Five personality traits has been identified as the most important trait in effective leaders?
A. conscientiousness;
B. openness;
C. extroversion;
D. agreeableness;
E. emotional stability.

Adrian Atwood. A senior manager in MNC spends a lot of his time assigning group members to
particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets
high expectations for standards of performance and holds regular meetings to ensure that
productivity and quality are up to the mark.
.
A. low in task orientation;
B. high in consideration;
C. relationship oriented;
D. employee oriented;
E. high in initiating structure.

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?

A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today.
B) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets.
C) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments.
D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the
company.
E) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.

Contingency theories focus on the _________ that impact leadership success.

A. personality variables;
B. leader's abilities to inspire and transform followers;
C. situational variables;
D. values and ethics;
E. features of the followers.
Transformational leaders enhance performance of employees by ________________.
A. restricting creativity among employees;
B. focusing on short-term goals for employees;
C. building consensus among employees;
D. establishing goals, roles, and requirements;
E. abdicating all responsibility to employees.

The primary quality produced by authentic leadership is blank.

A. efficiency;
B. reinforcement;
C. supervision;
D. trust;
E. authority.

E. attribution theory.
attribution- from the word attribute-of a cause and effect understanding of behavior.
Tried to determine if someone's behavior is internally caused or externally caused.
Leadership's an attribution that people make about other individuals. That we attribute
to leader's intelligence, outgoing personalities, strong verbal skills, aggressiveness,
understanding, industriousness.
We see leaders are responsible for performance.
The president of a small Asian country was held as a visionary and a genius when the
nation's economy burgeoned during his first term in office.
However, when the currency in the stock markets crashed during his government's
second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and short sighted. Which of the
following theoretical approaches is reflected here?
A. trait theories;
B. behavioral theories;
C. path goal theory;
D. servant leadership perspective;
E. attribution theory.
E) intragroup conflict within the group
2) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by
________.
A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
B) pride in the accomplishments of the group
C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
D) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
E) intragroup conflict within the group
E. charismatic leadership. ( LMX theory is then discussed at 377, situational leadership
deals with the needs of the followers; path goal leadership is leaders can change their
strips; transactional leadership behavior by setting goals; Charismatic leaders have a
vision. They take personal risks. They're sensitive to follower needs. They exhibit
extraordinary behaviors.; 381, 382, the dark side of charismatic leadership as opposed
Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary
leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?
A. situational leadership;
B. path goal leadership;
C. transactional leadership;
D. behavioral leadership;
E. charismatic leadership.
B) nominal groups

12. A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to

pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________
technique.
A) reference groups
B) nominal groups
C) brainstorming
D) interacting groups
E) in-group
E) harmful and must be avoided

14) According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________.

A) necessary and improves creativity of a group
B) healthy and improves productivity
C) rational and cannot be avoided
D) natural and helps generate discussion
E) harmful and must be avoided
A) kept low

15) For process conflict to be productive, it must be ________.

A) kept low
B) subject to managerial control
C) kept at moderate levels
D) kept high
E) kept at moderate-to-high levels
B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a
given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution

13. Groupshift is seen when ________.

A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the
out-group
B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when
discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups
D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of
someone else's culture over their own
E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the
influence of the norm for consensus.
B) cognition and personalization

16. The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict
issues tend to be defined.
A) potential opposition
B) cognition and personalization
C) intentions
D) behavior
E) reaction and transference
C) bringing in outsiders

19. Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique?

A) expansion of resources
B) compromise
C) bringing in outsiders
D) exercising authoritative command
E) problem solving
A) Collaborating

17. ________ is a conflict-handling technique in which the parties in a conflict each

desire to satisfy fully the concerns of all parties.
A) Collaborating
B) Competing
C) Accommodating
D) Avoiding
E) Compromising
C) increased diversity of views

9) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to

individual decision making?

A) increased pace of decision making

B) increased ambiguous responsibility
C) increased diversity of views
D) increased conformity pressures
E) increased dispersion of accountability
B) problem-solving

3) The supervisors of the production division of one of the branches of Georgia Mills
have been informed of some irregularities noticed in inventory of raw materials by some
trusted subordinates. To get a clearer picture, the supervisors had a quick meeting with
the subordinates who reported the matter over lunch. The subordinates recommended
rotating the schedule of employees who account for the incoming and used up stock so
as to pinpoint the defaulting employee. The supervisors agreed that this was a good
strategy but admitted that the matter must be escalated to the production manager
before such a change can be implemented. They followed up this meeting with
subsequent sessions to evaluate how the change worked. The supervisors and
subordinates form a(n) ________ team in this scenario.

A) cross-functional
B) problem-solving
C) virtual
D) independent
E) self-managed
D) Generally, U.S. managers see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as
highly unethical

20) Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on
organizational culture and ethical behavior within organization?

A) Organizations can safely ignore local culture while establishing its operation in
another country.
B) Most U.S. managers do not view profit maximization as a moral obligation.
C) Organizational cultures rarely reflect national culture.
D) Generally, U.S. managers see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal
contacts as highly unethical.
E) As compared to managers in the United States, managers in developing economies
are less likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in a social environment.
C) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work
that requires joint effort.

1) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual
members.
B) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a
coordinated fashion to the task at hand.
C) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in
work that requires joint effort.
D) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy
through coordinated effort.
E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and
outcomes.
C) sharing relevant information

2) The goal of work groups is ________.

A) enhancing team efficacy
B) improving collective performance
C) sharing relevant information
D) inculcating a climate of trust
E) generating positive synergy
D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs

4) The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________.

A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team
B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results
C) developing the various team member's skills such that they are random and varied
D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs
E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work
E) conscientiousness and openness to experience

9) Which of the following pairs of personality dimensions contribute to high team

effectiveness?
A) type A and type B
B) perfectionism and rule consciousness
C) introversion and reflexivity
D) reflexivity and submissiveness
E) conscientiousness and openness to experience
E) context, composition, and process factors

7) Which of the following represents the three general categories into which the key
components of effective teams are grouped?

A) internal, external, and peripheral factors

B) cardinal, central, and secondary factors
C) standard, segregated, and advanced factors
D) basic, functional, and strategic factors
E) context, composition, and process factors
D) higher employee turnover

11) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have

dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________.
A) increased employee satisfaction
B) decreased level of conflicts
C) higher employee motivation
D) higher employee turnover
E) higher team efficacy
C) cross-functional
6. Which of the following teams is more likely to be made up of employees from about
the same hierarchical level but different work areas?
A) problem-solving
B) self-managed work
C) cross-functional
D) traditional
E) departmental
C) Social loafing

13 ________ illustrates a process loss from using teams.

A) Organizational demography
B) Role conflict
C) Social loafing
D) Multitasking
E) Profit-sharing
D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are
filled.

10) Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition?

A) A team's performance is merely the summation of its individual members' abilities.
B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations.
C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in
groups.
D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various
roles are filled.
E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the
leader.
A) an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed

7) Fiedler's contingency leadership model assumes that ________.

A) an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed
B) an individual is constantly striving to develop a more productive style
C) an individual's leadership is primarily determined by the the features of the followers
D) an individual's leadership style can be altered much like his/her personality traits
E) an individual's leadership style must be task oriented to be effective
E) provide client's software and database training for all the team members

15) Alberto's team is developing a database for the water pollution data of three cities.
Before he begins on this intensive project, he wants to improve the team efficacy of his
team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before
the project starts?
A) plan a team outing for the team members
B) create team goals that are very challenging
C) spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for
each
D) make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people
E) provide client's software and database training for all the team members
E) interdependent

20) The work of your group would be better done in teams if the members of the team
are ________.
A) reflexive
B) independent
C) individualistic
D) autonomous
E) interdependent
E) organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth

1) "Stability" is one of the seven primary characteristics that captures the essence of an
organization's culture. It indicates the degree to which ________.

A) work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals

B) employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks
C) management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and
processes used to achieve them
D) management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people
within the organization
E) organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to
growth
A) core values
3) The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are
known as ________.
A) core values
B) foundational traits
C) institutional traits
D) shared values
E) unique values
D) reflexivity (cause and effect)

14) While discussing their marketing campaign for a new product, the members of the
cross-functional team responsible for Carver Inc. realized that a couple of changes
relating to their prior plan would be beneficial. The offer of a franchising that had earlier
been brushed off by the company head was discussed thoroughly and it was decided
that it would be implemented on a trial basis initially, and on full scale if found to work
well. From the information provided, it can be concluded that this cross-functional team
has a high degree of ________.

A) conformity
B) demography
C) uncertainty
D) reflexivity
E) diversity

A) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization

7) The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by ________.
A) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization
B) rewarding conformity
C) developing performance evaluation criteria
D) socializing the new employees
E) establishing and enforcing norms
E) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.

2) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between

organizational culture and job satisfaction?

A) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable.

B) Job satisfaction depends upon the level of "power distance" in the country but
organizational culture does not.
C) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic.
D) Job satisfaction depends on the structure of the organization but organizational
culture does not.
E) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.
B) equality

14) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The
space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This
informality conveys to employees that Alcoa values ________.

A) autocracy
B) equality
C) rigidity
D) formalization
E) competitiveness
D) encounter

9) If there is a basic conflict between the individual's expectations and the reality of
working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit
during the ________ stage of socialization.

A) metamorphosis
B) prearrival
C) post-arrival
D) encounter
E) post-encounter
C rituals

13) Company chants are examples of ________.

A) company policies
B) business strategies
C rituals
D) material symbols
E) stories
D) emphasizing individual vitality and growth

17) Liz is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales
representatives is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Liz realizes that the
representative is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly when
describing different dishes. She has begun discussing with the representative the
possibility of collaborating with a writer to include a weekly restaurant review, which
includes the representative on the byline. After the first couple of reviews, the
representative is able to increase ad sizes and sales. He is very happy with his new job
diversification. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Liz utilizing?

A) building on organization strengths

B) using narrow spans of control
C) rewarding more than punishing
D) emphasizing individual vitality and growth
E) creating loose management oversight
C) workplace spirituality

19. Which of the following terms refers to the recognition that people have an inner life
that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of
community?
A) dominant culture
B) fundamental mechanism
C) workplace spirituality
D) outcome orientation
E) subculture
B) formalization

10) A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following?
A) institutionalization
B) formalization
C) socialization
D) centralization
E) social support
B) empathy

2) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core
components is ________ which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to
express.
A) conscientiousness
B) empathy
C) optimism
D) introversion
E) perfectionism
D) high in consideration

4) Nellie Fritz, the head of client support services at Olson Inc., is very popular among
her subordinates. Many believe that Nellie has a knack for getting the work done without
making the employees feel pushed into a corner. She is often seen speaking to her
subordinates and support staff about their families, helping them with any personal
problems they have, and praising employees for their good work. In light of the Ohio
State Studies, this indicates that Nellie, as a leader, is ________.

A) task oriented
B) production oriented
C) low in relationship orientation
D) high in consideration
E) low in trust propensity
C) production-oriented

5) Norman has been working in the sales division for a large manufacturing company for
four months. In this short period of time, Norman has learned that Mr. Hill, his manager,
keeps increasing monthly targets significantly, and though each time the target appears
unrealistic, Norman has been able to achieve them throughout the last four months. Mr.
Lee's approach of leading his employees to work more efficiently by setting
successively higher targets is an example of his ________ leadership.

A) consideration-based
B) support-oriented
C) production-oriented
D) person-oriented
E) employee-oriented
C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective leadership.

9) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the path-goal theory of
leadership?
A) The theory considers leadership to be a set of attributes ascribed to leaders by
followers.
B) The theory proposes only a passive and supportive role for leaders.
C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective
leadership.
D) The theory proposes that leaders must work closely with followers throughout.
E) The path-goal theory represents a laissez-faire approach to leadership.
E) balances the rights of multiple stakeholders

15) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its
members is one that ________.
A) is low in risk tolerance
B) is high in aggressiveness
C) focuses only on outcomes
D) takes a short-term perspective
E) balances the rights of multiple stakeholders
B) a leader is task or relationship-oriented

6) The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to measure whether

________.
A) the followers are able and willing
B) a leader is task or relationship-oriented
C) the members are in the in-group or out-group
D) employees prefer servant leadership over situational leadership
E) the leader is high on the dimension of conscientiousness
B) individualized consideration

10) Which of the following leadership behaviors is likely to differentiate between

transactional and transformational leaders?

A) laissez-faire
B) individualized consideration
C) contingent reward
D) micromanagement
E) management by exception (active and passive)
E) situational leadership theory

8) Which of the following theoretical approaches in the study of leadership focuses on

followers' readiness as a determinant of effective leadership?
A) Big Five personality model
B) behavioral theories
C) Fiedler contingency model
D) laissez-faire leadership
E) situational leadership theory
A) Neutralizers

14) ________ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower
outcomes.
A) Neutralizers
B) Hygiene factors
C) Vision and charisma
D) Mentors
E) Catalysts
A) leader

17) Ellen Ortiz works as a sales manager at a telecom firm. The company has recently
launched a new product in the market. Her work in the next few weeks involves sharing
knowledge about the product with her team members. She will also need to inspire
them to reach their sales targets, and clarify any doubts about the new product. Which
of the following roles is Ortiz playing?
A) leader
B) liaison
C) disseminator
D) spokesperson
E) negotiator
Answer_________
B) Trust

16) ________ is defined as a psychological state that exists when you agree to make
yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things
are going to turn out.
A) Consideration
B) Trust
C) Support
D) Empathy
E) Respect
B) It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the
company's output.

19) Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?

A) It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining.
B) It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the
company's output.
C) It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered
motives.
D) It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior -level
employees.
E) It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.
A) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership.

13) Which of the following is true of substitutes?

A) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership.
B) Organizations cannot provide any substitutes for leadership.
C) Substitutes are clearly distinguishable from neutralizers.
D) Substitutes increase the levels of identification-based trust.
E) Substitutes enhance the need for leader's support or ability to create structure.
E) accommodating

18. A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's
interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this
intention as ________.
A) collaborating
B) avoiding
C) compromising
D) competing
E) accommodating
B) role expectation

4) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain
from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the
law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

A) similarity
B) role expectation
C) diversity
D) dispersion of responsibility
E) uncertainty reduction
pgs 529 and 530 workplace spirituality
Creating an ethical organizational culture is at 525
pg 527 is a discussion about creating a positive organizational culture
The three stages of the socialization process at 521, pre-arrival, encounter, and then at
522, metamorphosis
How a culture begins is discussed at 519
519, 520 is a discussion of keeping a culture alive.
pg 517 is a section culture as a liability
pg 514 the discussion of the difference between a dominant culture at a subculture,
(the task is organized) PG 371
PG 370 Trait theories of leadership.
Leadership's Defined 368.
(page 369 Trait is personal qualities and characteristics;
"Selecting Team Players" at 323 to "Creating Team Players" at 324 to "Rewarding
Team Players" at 324.
Leadership's Defined 368.
LMX theory is then discussed at 377,
381, 382, the dark side of charismatic leadership as opposed
382 into 383 difference between charismatic and transformation leaders
Authentic leadership is discussed at 386.
virtual organization, 391 and 392
discussion of the six properties of groups Chap 9, 278 pg and 279 pg
Group Decision Making page 290
PG 295
(Brainstorming is idea generating, it encourages any alternatives; the nominal group
technique is restricting of discussion during the decision making process;
A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals.

5. Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-
evaluations ?
A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals.
B) They view themselves as powerless over their environment.
C) They tend to question their capabilities and capacities.
D) They lack persistence to achieve goals.
E) They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers.
A) They give high importance to achievement and material success.

6) Which of the following is true of the baby boomer generation?

A) They give high importance to achievement and material success.
B) They rate highest in friendship and pleasure on the RVS.
C) They are more questioning and entrepreneurial than the other generations.
D) They lead lives shaped mainly by globalization.
E) They give the highest importance to flexibility and life options.
C) They have content and intensity attributes

8. Which of the following is true of values ?

A) They are void of a judgmental element.
B) They are invariably fluid and flexible in nature.
C) They have content and intensity attributes.
D) They never change irrespective of external factors.
E) They are always established in a person's later years.
C) personal discipline

9. Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach value

survey?
A) economic success
B) social recognition
C) personal discipline
D) world peace
E) meaning in life
A) An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.

10) Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior?

A) An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.
B) An employee postpones a meeting because he overslept.
C) An employee was fired because he violated a company policy.
D) An employee was promoted when he achieved more than the assigned objectives.
E) An employee closed a sale with an important corporate client because of his
excellent negotiation skills.
C) low on consistency

"11. According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to

attribute it to external causes.
A) low on distinctiveness
B) low on adaptability
C) low on consistency
D) high on stability
E) low on consensus
"
C) self-fulfilling prophec

12) Which of the following terms refers to a situation in which a person inaccurately
perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to
behave in ways consistent with the original perception?

A) confirmation bias
B) attribution theory
C) self-fulfilling prophecy
D) bandwagon effect
E) contrast effect
A) bounded rationality

14) A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the
essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity is known as

A) bounded rationality
B) active selection
C) incremental decision making
D) optimal decision making
E) intuitive decision making
D) confirmation

15) The tendency to seek out information that reaffirms past choices and to discount
information that contradicts past judgments is known as a(n) ________ bias.

A) anchoring
B) distinction
C) impact
D) confirmation
E) omission
B) availability

16) A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee
behaviors than to behaviors of 6 or 9 months earlier. This shows that the manager's
perception is affected by a(n) ________ bias.
A) self-serving bias
B) availability
C) impact
D) distinction
E) hindsight
C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.

17) If Alberta is a categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors

is she most likely to exhibit?

A) She will let her employees choose their own goals.

B) She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters.
C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.
D) She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers.
E) She will empower her subordinates.
C) Sarah

18. You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has a
high need for achievement, Mary has a high need for power, and Tim has a high need
for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for
affiliation. Doug scored low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of
these five employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on
a vacation?

A) Doug B) Joe C) Sarah D) Tim E) Mary

20) According to the two-factor theory, ________.

A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is
satisfied, the next one becomes dominant
B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even
coerced into performing it
C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to
accept, and even seek, responsibility
D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those
that lead to job dissatisfaction
E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain
motivation
D) self-determination theory

21. Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control
over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an
obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation?
A) self-serving theory
B) motivation-hygiene theory
C) two-factor theory
D) self-determination theory
E) goal setting theory
D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward
their goals

22) Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?

A) Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control.
B) Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback.
C) Generalized goals produce a higher level of output as compared to specific goals.
D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing
toward their goals.
E) Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-
distance cultures.
D) enactive mastery

________.
A) arousal
B) vicarious modeling
C) verbal persuasion
D) enactive mastery
E) cognitive learning
B) reinforce

24. A(n) ________ is any consequence, immediately following a response, that

increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated.
A) conclusion
B) reinforcer
C) goal
D) objective
E) referent
C) He will increase his productivity and/or the overall quality of his work.

25. Jim is a salaried employee whose job is to develop content for online web sites. He
discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues, even though their jobs
and levels of performance are very similar. According to the equity theory, what impact
is this discovery most likely to have on his behavior and performance?
A) He will reduce the amount of work that he does on a daily basis.
B) He will compare his earnings to those of another group of employees.
C) He will increase his productivity and/or the overall quality of his work.
D) He will seek a position within the company commensurate with his pay.
E) He will begin to look for a position outside of the company.
D) social arrangement
5) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch
and friendships on and off the job.

A) reference
B) appearance
C) organizational
D) social arrangement
E) performance
A) reference group

6) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout
school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared
himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington
Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself
playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of
Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

A) reference group
B) organizational group
C) control group
D) nominal group
E) intervention group
D) ability to conform to group norms

7) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not
determine status?
A) contribution to goals
B) talent
C) personality
D) ability to conform to group norms
E) control over the resources needed by the group
B) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees.

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of the

organizational culture and its effects on the organization?

A) Employees organized in teams always show greater allegiance to the values of the
organization as a whole than to their team and its values.
B) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees.
C) In a virtual organization a strong culture can be established quickly and easily.
D) Today's trend toward decentralized organizations makes it is easier to establish a
strong culture.
E) Cultures reduce the stability of the social system in an organization.
C) task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity
1. Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute
performance at work. Which of the following are these three major types of behavior?
A) task performance, productivity, tenure
B) productivity, efficiency, absenteeism
C) task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity
D) citizenship, counterproductivity, personality
E) leadership, knowledge, efficiency
A) traits

2) Which of the following is the least predictive set of criteria used to evaluate
employees?
A) traits
B) task outcomes
C) behaviors
D) personality
E) technical skills
D) Forced comparison

3) ________ involves evaluating one's performance against the performance of one or

more others.
A) BARS
B) The critical incident method
C) An assessment center evaluation
D) Forced comparison
E) Likert analysis
B) 360-degree evaluation

4. The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact
with an employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers)
is termed ________.
A) critical incidents
B) 360-degree evaluation
C) assessment center
D) multiperson comparisons
E) downward evaluation
D) the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors

5. If a manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then

________.
A) the employees generally receive poor ratings
B) the evaluator's writing skills become the determining factor of the evaluation
C) the employees are more likely to become motivated to achieve their goals
D) the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors
E) the cost of the evaluation is likely to be incredibly high for the organization
B) Group order

6) ________ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular

classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth.
A) Individual
B) Group order
C) Paired
D) Fractional
E) Percentile
B) due process

7) The concept of ________ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that
employees are treated fairly.
A) selective evaluation
B) due process
C) multiple raters
D) selective retention
E) counterproductivity
A) lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements

8) Political behaviors usually ________.

A) lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements
B) are counterproductive to individual goals
C) are seen only in large organizations
D) are sanctioned by organizational leaders
E) are expected as part of each job requirement
...

D, investigative. (Holland's six types are realistic, investigative, social, conventional,

enterprising and artistic)

John Holland's Personality Job Fit Theory presents six personality types, which of the
following is one of those types?
A, analytic.
B, imaginative.
C, practical.
D, investigative.
E, intuitive.
A, fundamental attribution error. (attribution theory analyzing that evidence about the
behavior of others to determine if it was internally caused)
Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence
of external factors and over estimate the influence of internal factors when making
judgments about the behavior of others.
A, fundamental attribution error.
B, bandwagon effect.
C, contrast effect.
D, emotional dissonance.
E, a self fulfilling prophecy.
D, selective perception,

You are more likely to notice a car like your own due to_______________.
A, stereotyping,
B, self serving bias,
C, halo effect,
D, selective perception,
E, contrast effect.
3 key elements of motivation,
they are intensity, direction and persistence.
3 key elements of motivation,

The FIRO-B theory deals with ____________ in teams.

(a) membership compatibilities

(b) social loafing
(c) dominating members
(d) conformity
(a) membership compatibilities

It is during the ____________ stage of team development that members begin to

come together as a coordinated unit.
(a) storming
(b) norming
(c) performing
(d) total integration
(b) norming

An effective team is defined as one that achieves high levels of task performance,
member satisfaction, and ____________.
(a) coordination
(b) harmony
(c) creativity
(d) team viability
(d) team viability
Task characteristics, reward systems, and team size are all ____________ that can
make a difference in group effectiveness.

(a) group processes

(b) group dynamics
(c) group inputs
(d) human resource maintenance factors
(c) group inputs

The best size for a problem-solving team is usually ____________ members.

(a) no more than 3 or 4
(b) 5 to 7
(c) 8 to 10
(d) around 12 to 13
(b) 5 to 7

When a new team member is anxious about questions such as "Will I be able to
influence what takes place?" the underlying issue is one of ____________.
(a) relationships
(b) goals
(c) processes
(d) control
(d) control

Self-managing teams ____________.

(a) reduce the number of different job tasks

members need to master
(b) largely eliminate the need for a traditional supervisor
(c) rely heavily on outside training to maintain job skills
(d) add another
management layer to overhead costs
(b) largely eliminate the need for a traditional supervisor

Which statement about self-managing teams is correct?

(a) They can improve performance but not satisfaction.
(b) They should have limited decision-making authority.
(c) They should operate without any team leaders.
(d) They should let members
plan their own work schedules.
(d) They should let members
plan their own work schedules.
When a team of people is able to achieve more than what its members could by
working individually, this is called ____________.

(a) distributed leadership

(b) consensus
(c) team viability
(d) synergy
(d) synergy

Members of a team tend to become more motivated and better able to deal with
conflict during the ____________ stage of team development.

(a) forming
(b) norming
(c) performing
(d) adjourning
(c) performing

The Ringlemann effect describes ____________.

(a) the tendency of groups to make risky decisions

(b) social loafing
(c) social facilitation
(d) the satisfaction of members' social needs
(b) social loafing

Members of a multinational task force in a large international business should

probably be aware that ____________ might initially slow the progress of the team
in meeting its task objectives.

(a) synergy
(b) groupthink
(c) the diversity-consensus
dilemma
(d) intergroup dynamics
(c) the diversity-consensus
dilemma

When a team member engages in social loafing, one of the recommended

strategies for dealing with this situation is to ____________.

(a) forget about it

(b) ask another member to force this person to work harder
(c) give the person
extra rewards and hope he or she will feel guilty
(d) better define member roles to improve individual accountability
(d) better define member roles to improve individual accountability

When a person holds a prestigious position as a vice president in a top management

team, but is considered just another member of an employee involvement team that
a lower-level supervisor heads, the person might experience ____________.

(a) role underload

(b) role overload
(c) status incongruence
(d) the diversity-consensus dilemma
(c) status incongruence

The team effectiveness equation states: team effectiveness ____________ (process

gains process losses).

(a) nature of setting

(b) nature of task
(c) quality of inputs
(d) available rewards.
(c) quality of inputs

One of the essential criteria of a true team is ____________.

(a) large size

(b) homogeneous membership
(c) isolation from outsiders
(d) collective accountability
(d) collective accountability

The team-building process can best be described as participative, data-based, and

____________.

(b) leader-centered
(c) ineffective
(d) short-term
(a) action-oriented
A person facing an ethical dilemma involving differences between personal values
and the expectations of the team is experiencing ____________ conflict
(a) person- role
(b) intrasender role
(c) intersender role
(d) interrole
(a) person- role

The statement "On our team, people always try to do their best" is an example of a(n)
____________ norm.

(a) support and helpfulness

(b) high-achievement
(c) organizational pride
(d) organizational improvement
(b) high-achievement

Highly cohesive teams tend to be ____________.

(a) bad for organizations

(b) good for members
(c) good for social loafing
(d) bad for norm conformity
(c) good for members

To increase team cohesiveness, one would ____________.

(a) make the group bigger

(b) increase membership diversity
(c) isolate the group from others
(d) relax performance pressures
(d) isolate the group from others

A team member who does a good job at summarizing discussion, offering new ideas,
and clarifying points made by others is providing leadership by contributing
____________ activities to the group process.

(a) required
(b) disruptive
(c) task
(d) maintenance
(c) task
When someone is being aggressive, makes inappropriate jokes, or talks about
irrelevant matters in a group meeting, these are all examples of ____________.

(a) dysfunctional behaviors

(b) maintenance activities
(c) task activities
(d) role dynamics
(a) dysfunctional behaviors

If you heard from an employee of a local bank that "it's a tradition here for us to stand
up and defend the bank when someone criticizes it," you could assume that the bank
employees had strong ____________ norms.

(a) support and helpfulness

(b) organizational and personal pride
(c) ethical and social responsibility
(d) improvement and change
(b) organizational and personal pride

What can be predicted when you know that a work team is highly cohesive?

(a) high-performance results

(b) high member satisfaction
(c) positive performance norms
(d) status congruity
(c) high member satisfaction

When two groups are in competition with one another, ____________ may be expected
within each group.

(a) more in-group loyalty

(b) less reliance on the leader
(c) poor task focus
(d) more conflict
(a) more in-group loyalty

A co-acting group is most likely to use a(n) ____________ communication network.

(a) interacting
(b) decentralized
(c) centralized
(d) restricted
(b) centralized
A complex problem is best dealt with by a team using a(n) ____________
communication network.

(a) all-channel
(b) wheel
(c) chain
(d) linear
(a) all-channel

The tendency of teams to lose their critical evaluative capabilities during decision
making is a phenomenon called ____________.

(a) groupthink
(b) the slippage effect
(c) decision congruence
(d) group consensus
(a) groupthink

When a team decision requires a high degree of commitment for its implementation,
a(n) ____________ decision is generally preferred.

(a) authority
(b) majority-vote
(c) consensus
(d) railroading
(c) consensus

When John Kelly was appointed as White House chief of staff in 2017, he set new ________ for
the staff. These were paraphrased as, “Stop Bickering, Get in Early, and Make an Appointment.

Norms

Olivia and her sister Rachel started a small interior design business together. However, just a
few weeks after they launched, their administrative assistant quit and two weeks after that,
Rachel fired their consultant, who had been contracted to find potential clients for the business.
Their business was struggling to exit which stage of team development?

Storming

When John Kelly was appointed as White House chief of staff in 2017, he set new ________ for
the staff. These were paraphrased as, “Stop Bickering, Get in Early, and Make an Appointment.”

Norms

The ________ involves a period of orientation and getting acquainted. Uncertainty is high during
this stage, and people are looking for leadership and authorit
Forming satge

Xinhua, the official news agency of China, commented on the dispute between the US and
North Korea in August 2017, writing, “Venting cannot become a guiding policy for solving the
nuclear issue on the peninsula.” Xinhau is accusing the leaders of North Korea and the US of

Emotional conflict

Conflict can be productive or destructive. Budget cuts and poor management have left you and
your teammates scrambling to meet your respective project deadlines. This situation might be
expected to result in:

Competition over resources

In the Harry Potter movies, the Minister of Magic suppresses disagreement and conflict. People
feel they cannot offer different opinions. Under the Ministry of Magic,

Community exhibits group think

The Reverend Lawrence Biondi was a controversial figure at St. Louis University. Campus
dissension erupted with Biondi’s proposed policies on faculty evaluations, which weakened the
status of tenure. When asked about his approach to leadership for accomplishing his bold
vision, Biondi said he is a "my-way-or-the-highway kind of guy." Biondi’s approach to conflict
resolution was

Dominating

Conflict will arise if neither party is willing to give way or compromise on their position.
Arguments over things such as goals, tasks, and the allocation of resources are considered

Substantive conflict

Rob has made several successful investments. Each will earns $20,000 per year for the next 15
years. To expand the program, he will need an additional headcount. But Pat, another team
member, wants additional headcount for a different investment. Management will only allow one
hire. What does this situation illustrate?

Competition over resources can cause conflict

Frank is angry and arguing with Jeff about procedures. Jeff wants to ignore the written policy
because the accountants are not familiar with the procedure. The company is under
investigation by regulators and the FBI for accounting fraud. External conditions may cause
____
Low team morle and conflict