NURSING PRACTICE I

NURSING PRACTICE I – Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.

2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer s
4. heets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalidate your answer.
5. AVOID ERASURES.
_____________________________________________________________________

1. This is a central role of nurses:

a. Communicator c. Educator
b. Care giver d. Clinician

2. You have observed that your senior nurse consciously plans nursing care of patients
assigned to her. According to the novice to expert theory of Patricia Benner, you classify
your senior nurse under what level?
a. Expert c. Competent
b. Novice d. Advanced beginner

3. As a member of the nursing profession, you are aware that the “Nurses’ Week” as
proclaimed by Pres. Carlos P. Garcia falls under the month of:
a. October c. June
b. February d. August

4. Nursing is an interpersonal process, whereby the professional nurse practitioner assists

the:
i. Individual iii. Community
ii. Family iv. Group

a. i, iv c. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, ii, iii d. i, ii, iv

5. Upon assessment, you learned that all five children of Aling Nene did not receive any
immunization. The family lives in the squatter’s area wherein TB is a common illness. The
nursing diagnosis appropriate for this case is:
a. Actual c. Wellness
b. Risk d. Syndrome

Situation: Nursing Ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation
arises, so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making.

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6. The purpose of having a nurses’ Code of Ethics is:

a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice
b. To help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses
c. To define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses, clients
d. Identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations

7. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life biology and
the health professionals as referred to as:
a. Morality c. Values
b. Religion d. Bioethics

8. According to the Code of Ethics, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the
nurse?
a. Assist towards peaceful death
b. Preservation of health at all cost
c. Health is a fundamental right
d. Promotion of health, prevention of illness and restoration of health

9. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?
a. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited professional organization
was given the privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of
Nursing promulgated.
b. Code for Nurses was first formulated in 1982 in the Proceedings of the Third Annual
Convention of the PNA House of Delegates.
c. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professionals in the
Philippines.
d. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for
violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics.

10. Based on the Coe of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing
responsibility and accountability?
a. Health, being a fundamental right for every individual
b. The privilege of being a registered professional nurse
c. Human rights of clients regardless of creed and gender
d. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes

11. Violation of the Code of Ethics might equate to the revocation of the nursing license. Who
revokes the license?
a. PRC c. DOH
b. BON d. PNA

12. Values are said to be the enduring believe about a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If
values are going to be a part of a research, this is categorized under:
a. Qualitative c. Experimental
b. Quantitative d. Non-experimental

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13. Subjective feeling about what is right or wrong is said to be:

a. Morality c. Values
b. Religion d. Bioethics

14. The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care
is to:
a. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
b. Be accountable for his or her own actions
c. Not take sides, remain neutral and fair
d. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team

15. Why is there an ethical dilemma in Euthanasia?

a. The choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong
b. Decision has to be made based on societal norms
c. A client’s legal right co-exist with the nurse’s professional obligation
d. Decision has to be made quickly, often under stressful conditions

16. According to Lydia Hall, the core of Nursing is:

a. Nursing process c. Bodily care
b. Therapeutic use of self d. The patient

17. Your patient is a case of Type I DM; hence, you teach him self-injection of insulin. What
nursing system is applicable for this patient?
a. Wholly and compensatory c. Supportive-educative
b. Partly compensatory d. Rehabilitative

18. During rehabilitation, you assisted the patient to perform exercises that produce
contractions and active movement. These exercises are termed as:
a. Isotonic c. Isokinetic
b. Isometric d. Static

19. When in shock, the nurse should position the patient in:
a. Lithotomy c. Side-lying
b. High fowlers d. Modified trendelenburg

20. A patient admitted is a case of cyanosis. The nurse knows that this is due to:
a. Inadequate circulating hemoglobin
b. Poor perfusion
c. Accumulation of bilirubin
d. Increased concentration of deoxyhemoglobin

Situation: Health care delivery system affects the health status of every Filipino. As a nurse,
knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life.

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21. Which makes nursing dynamic?
a. Every patient is a unique physical, emotional, social and spiritual being.
b. The health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant
and responsive to these changes.
c. Nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern development that takes place.
d. The patient participation in the over all nursing care plans.

22. When should rehabilitation commence?

a. The day before discharge c. When the patient desires
b. 24 hours after discharge d. Upon admission

23. This form of health insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees
for a periodic payment:
a. Health Maintenance Organization c. Philippine Health Insurance Act
b. Hospital Maintenance Organization d. Medicare

24. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital?
a. Program for alcoholic and drug addicts
b. Hospital as a center to prevent and control infection
c. Program for smokers
d. Hospital wellness centers

25. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in:

a. Community c. Workplace
b. Hospital d. All of the above

26. Organogenesis is a crucial period in fetal growth, hence the mother during pregnancy
should take which food:
a. Fish c. Egg
b. Legumes d. Cereals

27. Vitamins A, D, E, K are essential for body functioning. For better transportation and
absorption of the body, one of the following should be taken:
a. Lipids c. Protein
b. Carbohydrates d. Iron

28. A child admitted in the Pediatric ward was a case of Kwashiorkor. The nurse anticipates
giving which food:
a. Meat c. Milk
b. Fish d. Nuts

29. Reproductive failure could be an effect of deficiency or absence of which mineral?

a. Chloride c. Magnesium
b. Iron d. Zinc

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30. The patient during assessment disclosed to you that she never liked citrus fruits and has
never eaten it. The patient is at risk for developing which of the following:
a. Bone loss c. Bleeding gums
b. Muscle cramps d. Stunted growth

31. Most of the earliest hospitals and schools of nursing were established in the year 1907,
EXCEPT:
a. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of Nursing
b. St. Paul’s Hospital School of Nursing
c. Philippine General Hospital School of Nursing
d. St. Luke’s Hospital School of Nursing

32. This is an association of nurses employed in the DOH:

a. Philippine Nurses Association
b. National League of Nurses
c. Nurses Guild of the Philippines
d. Nurses Association of the Philippines

33. All are characteristics of basic human needs, but:

a. Needs are universal
b. Needs may not be met in the same way
c. Needs may not be deferred
d. Needs are interrelated

34. According to Maslow, this is not an indication of a self-actualized person:

a. Has superior perception
b. More decisive
c. High degree of self-conflict
d. Problem centered rather than self-centered

35. Which of the following needs is considered by the nurse when she implements reverse
isolation for the client with leukemia?
a. Physiologic c. Love
b. Safety and security d. Self-esteem

36. Health care facilitators implement strict measures to properly manage institutional wastes
that are infectious such as the following EXCEPT one:
a. Catheters c. Scalpel
b. Blood d. Food

37. Most healthcare agencies use color coding for segregation of institutional wastes. To which
colored trashcan should wet, biodegradable items go?
a. Black c. Green
b. Yellow d. Red

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38. The patient with leukemia has anemia. She is in protective isolation. Which of the following
actions is indicative of incompetence on the part of the nurse?
a. The nurse does not allow a relative with diarrhea to visit the patient
b. The nurse gives the patient cooked foods and canned fruits
c. The nurse tells the family members to strictly observe meticulous hand washing
d. The nurse offers fresh, green vegetable salad to combat anemia

39. When donning gloves, the nurse should put on gloves first on the:
a. Dominant hand c. Left hand
b. Non-dominant hand d. Right hand

40. To keep gloved hands sterile, it should be kept at all times above the:
a. Umbilicus c. Xiphoid
b. Abdomen d. Waist

41. As the circulating nurse, your responsibility is to add sterile supplies to the field. To assure
that the sterile supplies are placed within the sterile field, the supplies should be held
above the field by:
a. 15 inches c. 13 inches
b. 14 inches d. 12 inches

42. When one has increased awareness of the environment, he is experiencing which level of
anxiety?
a. Mild c. Severe
b. Moderate d. Panic

43. You have learned at the Pediatric ward in your duty that your patient has an IQ of 60. The
appropriate intervention for this case would be:
a. Enroll for a vocational institution for training
b. Enroll to a learning institution for basic education
c. Place under close supervision and care of a health worker
d. Confine exclusively at home for safety and security

44. Response to illness or stress is highly individualized. In general, Filipinos respond to stress
or illness through fatalistic resignation which is characterized by all of the following but
one:
a. Withdraws from engaging in the crisis or illness
b. Believes that disease is caused by forces beyond his control
c. Accept the complaint as God’s will
d. Fears are greatly allayed by religious ritual

45. When doing invasive nursing procedures, fear and anxiety commonly occurs. Which action
of the nurse does not address the problems effectively?
a. Sympathize with the patient c. Proper orientation of the patient
b. Explain the procedure thoroughly d. Stay with the patient

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46. The holistic needs of the patient must be met including his spiritual needs. The following
are nursing interventions in meeting spiritual needs of the patient, EXCEPT:
a. Have adequate religious and cultural knowledge
b. Use fact when meeting the need
c. Offer to pray with the patient in times of crisis
d. Insist that your patient should be seen by your spiritual adviser

47. Hospitals institute measures to ensure safety of patients. No smoking signs are posted in
conspicuous areas. These signage are said to be:
a. Verbal communication c. Social communication
b. Non-verbal communication d. Therapeutic communication

48. You have just completed recording in the patient’s chart when you realized that you forgot
to chart something. The appropriate action to take is:
a. Squeeze in the information into the space
b. Do the recording all over again
c. Add the information on the first available line and write the time the event occurred
d. Add the information on the first available line and write the time you entered the
information

49. To maintain accuracy of records, the nurse must chart objective facts and not opinions or
interpretations of the nurse. Which of the following charting is incorrect?
a. Ate 50% of the served food c. Depressed
b. Refused medication d. Seen crying

50. One of the characteristics of good recording is brevity. The nurse upholds this by doing all
of the following EXCEPT:
a. Observe conciseness c. Use complete sentences
b. End each entry with a period d. Start each entry with a capital letter

51. One of the following should not be used when charting:

a. Sign pen c. Pencil
b. Ballpen d. Pen with permanent ink

52. One of the following is a correct technique when charting:

a. Do not use the word “patient” or “pt” in the chart
b. Do not draw a horizontal line to fill up a partial line
c. Use print writing for the signature
d. Affix signature at the left hand margin of the nurse’s notes

53. When receiving telephone orders, the nurse should have the order categorized by the
doctor who made the order within the prescribed period that is:
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours

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54. One of the following is a benefit of the nursing process of the nurse:
a. Quality client care c. Continuity of care
b. Job satisfaction d. Participation by the client

55. When the cardiac output decreases, the BP:

a. Increases c. Not affected
b. Remains the same d. Decreases

56. In older people, BP is increased due to which of the following reasons:

a. Increased blood volume c. Increased physical vulnerability
b. Impaired circulation d. Decreased elasticity of blood vessels

57. Several factors affect BP. Of the following, who has the highest BP?
a. A school age boy c. Placido
b. Magdalena d. Your 72 year old lola

58. In which of the following conditions is BP decreased?

a. DM c. Dengue fever
b. Pyelonephritis d. Cushing’s disease

59. When taking BP, the nurse prefers to use the left arm of the patient for which of the
following reasons?
a. It is nearer to the heart c. It is the non-dominant arm
b. It gives a more accurate result d. It is weaker than the other arm

60. Which of the following sequence of examining the abdomen is correct?

a. RUQ, RLF, LLQ, LUQ c. RLQ, RUQ, LUQ, LLQ
b. RUQ, LUQ, LLQ, RLQ d. RLQ, LLQ, LUQ, RUQ

61. When collecting midstream urine for culture and sensitivity, the nurse instructs the client
to collect:
a. 30 to 50 ml c. 5 to 10 ml
b. 15 to 20 ml d. 20 to 30 ml

62. When taking catheterized urine specimen, the drainage rubber port is used to take the
specimen. In introducing the sterile needle, it should be done:
a. Vertically c. Diagonally
b. Horizontally d. Straight through

63. The nurse would instruct the patient not to do fasting for the following tests, EXCEPT:
a. CBC c. Hematocrit
b. Hemoglobin d. FBS

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64. The main respiratory muscle for inspiration:
a. Lungs c. Intercostal muscles
b. Pectoralis muscle d. Diaphragm

65. The characteristic manifestation of airway obstruction is:

a. Bradypnea c. Noisy breathing
b. Retraction d. Indrawing

Situation: Documentation and reporting are just as important as providing patient care. As such,
the nurse must be punctual and accurate to sure quality documentation and reporting.

66. Health care reports have different purposes. The availability of patients record to all health
team members demonstrates which of the following purposes:
a. Legal documentation c. Education
b. Research d. Vehicle for communication

67. When a nurse commits medication error, she should accurately document client’s response
and her corresponding action. This is very important for which of the following purposes:
a. Nursing audit c. Legal documentation
b. Research d. Vehicle for communication

68. POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. One of its unique features is
SOAPIE charting. The P in SOAPIE charting should include:
a. Patient’s perception of one’s illness
b. Plan of care for patient
c. Prescription of the doctor to the patient’s illness
d. Nursing problem and nursing diagnosis

69. The medical records that are organized into separate section from doctors or nurses have
more disadvantages than advantages. This is classified as what type of recording?
a. POMR c. Modified POMR
b. SOAPIE d. SOMR

70. Which of the following is an advantage of SOMR or traditional recording?

a. Increase efficiency in data gathering
b. The care giver can easily locate proper section for making charting entries
c. Reinforces the use of nursing process
d. Enhances effective communication among health care members

Situation: Lady Mary Mae is rushed to the emergency room and you are his attending nurse. You
are performing a vital sign assessment.

71. All of the following are correct methods in assessment of the blood pressure, EXCEPT:
a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison
b. Observe procedures for infection control

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c. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
d. Listen to and identify the phases of korotkoffs sound

72. You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to:
a. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion
b. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
c. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medication
d. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if she needs blood transfusion

73. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Lady Mary Mae is admitted to the ward with an
order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow
and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:
a. Inconsistent
b. Low systolic and high diastolic
c. Higher than what the reading should be
d. Lower than what the reading should be

74. Through Lady’s health history, you gather that Lady smokes and drinks coffee. When taking
the blood pressure of Lady who recently smoked and drank coffee, how long should the
nurse wait before taking Christine’s blood pressure for accurate reading?
a. 15 minutes c. 15 seconds
b. 30 minutes d. 1 to 2 minutes

75. While Lady Mary Mae has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is
shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to:
a. Change the location of the sensor every four hours
b. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter
c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bed sheet
d. Do nothing since there is no identified problem

76. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such
reassessment, the nurse should wait for a period of:
a. 15 seconds c. 30 minutes
b. 1 to 2 minutes d. 15 minutes

77. If the alarm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure reading, it will create:
a. True false reading c. Indeterminate
b. False low reading d. False high reading

78. You are to assess the temperature of Lady Manahan. The next morning, you found out that
she ate ice cream. How many minutes should you wait before assessing Christine’s oral
temperature?
a. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes
b. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

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79. When auscultating Lady’s blood pressure, the nurse hears the following. From 150 mmHg
to 130 mmHg, silence then thumping sounds continuing down to 100 mmHg, muffled
sound, continuing down to 80 mmHg and then silence. What is Christine’s blood pressure?
a. 130/80 c. 100/80
b. 150/100 d. 130/100

80. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to
release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an accurate reading?
a. 30-45 seconds c. 1-1.5 minutes
b. 10-20 seconds d. 3-3.5 minutes

Situation: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort.

81. An elderly client, 85 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive
dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care?
a. Mineral oil c. Lemon glycerin
b. Hydrogen peroxide d. Normal saline solution

82. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special
consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs?
a. Wash hands and observe appropriate infection control
b. Keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin
c. Put the client on a side lying position with head of bed lowered
d. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression

83. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Improves client’s appearance and self confidence
b. Decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth
c. Reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate buccal mucosa
d. Improves appetite and taste of food

84. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious client is the risk of fluid
aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by:
a. Using fingers wrapped with wet cotton wash cloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips
and gums.
b. Swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton.
c. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouth wash to avoid rinsing
the buccal cavity.
d. Suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity

85. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes
dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended for the client
and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using:
a. Salt solution c. Petroleum jelly
b. Water d. Mentholated ointment

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Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your
responsibility.

86. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by subordinates. The RN
should always be accountable and should not lose the accountability. Which of the
following is a role included in delegation?
a. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the
delegates.
b. After a task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN.
c. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary only if the assistive personnel is not
trustworthy.
d. The RN must supervise all delegated task.

87. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client, another nurse employed by the same
hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communication?
a. Incident report c. Nursing kardex
b. Oral report d. Complain report

88. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed consent can lead to
which of the following charges?
a. Harassment c. Assault and battery
b. Fraud d. Breach of confidentiality

89. Which of the following is the essence of informed consent?

a. It should have coverage from an insurance company.
b. It should respect the client’s freedom from coercion.
c. It should have a durable power of attorney.
d. It should disclose previous diagnosis, prognosis and alternative treatments available for
the client.

Situation: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the
endocrine system is necessary.

90. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:
a. Somatotropin / Growth hormone c. Thyroid stimulating hormone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

91. Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the:

a. Thyroid gland
b. Hypothalamus
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Anterior pituitary gland

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Situation: Carlota has been newly assigned as the Community Health Nurse of Barangay Palayan.
Among her many concerns are the various communicable diseases that could be present in the
area.

92. Which of the following is not a viral infection?

a. Dengue
b. Measles
c. Malaria
d. Parotitis

93. Emeratriz is suspected of having malaria after being bitten by a mosquito during a tour in
Palawan. What diagnostic test could confirm the presence of malaria in Emir?
a. CBC
b. Blood smear
c. Rumple Leads Test
d. Dark Field Illumination Test at exactly 8 PM when fever is at it’s peak

94. Joy was diagnosed of acute Hepatitis A. The diet most likely to be ordered for him:
a. High carbohydrates, low protein, low fats
b. Low carbohydrates, low protein, low fats
c. High carbohydrates, high protein, low fats
d. Low carbohydrates, high protein, high fats

95. Valeria is being treated for relapse of tuberculosis. What are the medications he will be
taking as maintenance for several months?
a. Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, streptomycin
b. Rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol
c. Rifampicin, isoniazid
d. Rifampicin

96. What is the incubation period of SARS?

a. 2 days c. 15 days
b. 2 months to 1 year d. 10 days

97. In the care of patients with leptospirosis, which of the following is important?
a. Immunization of contacts
b. Use of mask and apron
c. Concurrent disinfection of articles soiled with urine
d. Patient should be in a mosquito proof area at night

Situation: Nurse Maxi Carleen is about to accomplish her requirements to become a licensed IV
therapist. Among which is 2 cases for blood transfusion, hence she reviewed some concepts
regarding the procedure.

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98. Shivering is a reaction of the body to:

a. Increase body temperature
b. Decrease body temperature
c. Dilate blood vessels
d. Activate hypothalamus

99. Which is a false statement regarding blood transfusion?

a. Anti-histamine may be given as prophylaxis against allergy
b. Use BT set with a needle of gauge 21
c. Regulate the first flow rate at 10-15 gtts/min
d. A steamer can be used to warm blood if blood warmer is not available.

100. How many hours will the blood transfusion run?

a. 5 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 2 hours

***END***

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