______________________ ________________________

Roll No. of Candidate Signature of Candidate

ECAT ENTRANCE TEST - 1
Total MCQs: 100
Max. Marks: 400 Time Allowed: 100 Minutes

PHYSICS FLT-1
1. The dimension of permittivity (εo) of vacuum are
(a) M1L3T4I2 (b) ML3T2I2 (c) M1L3T4I2 (d) ML3T2I2
2. A stretching force of 10N is applied at one end of the spring balance and an equal
stretching force is applied at other end at the same time. What will be the reading of the
balance?
(a) Zero (b) 5N (c) 10N (d) 20N
3. If the earth were to suddenly contract to half its present size, without any change in its
mass, the duration of the new day will be
(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 30 hours
4. A mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the x-axis away from
the origin its angular momentum with respect to the origin
(a) is zero (b) remains constant (c) goes on increasing (d) goes on decreasing
5. A uniform wire of cross-sectional area A and young modulus Y is stretched within the
elastic limit. If ‘S’ is the stress in the wire, the elastic energy density stored in the wire in
term of given parameters is
S 2Y S2 S2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2Y S2 2Y Y
6. A rain drop of radius ‘r’ falls in air with terminal speed Vt. What is the terminal velocity of
a rain drop of radius 2r?
Vt
(a) (b) Vt (c) 2Vt (d) 4Vt
2
7. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-tenth the
velocity of sound. The apparent increase in frequency is
(a) zero (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 0.01%
8. The temperature co-efficient of resistance of the material of wire is 0.00125oC. Its
resistance at 300k is 1 ohm. At what temperature resistance of the wire is 2 ohm?
(a) 1154 (b) 1100k (c) 400k (d) 1127k
9. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus (Z=50) of radius 9.01013cm is
(a) 80V (b) 8106V (c) 9V (d) 9105V
10. Four resistance, each of value are connected as shown, what is the equivalent resistance
between A and B.

(a) 4.5  (b) 18/11  (c) 4  (d) 18 

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11. A charge particle in a region of uniform electric and magnetic fields which are parallel to
each other is projected  to the fields. The particle will move in a
(a) Straight line (b) Circle (c) Helix (d) Cycloid
12. Monochromatic light is refracted from air into glass of refractive index µ. The ratio of the
wave lengths of the incident and refracted waves is
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:µ (c) µ:1 (d) µ2:1
13. Current of 20A is flowing in a long straight wire. The intensity of magnetic field at a
distance 10 cm from the wire will be
(a) 4×10-5 Wb m-2 (b) 8×10-5 Wb m-2
(c) 9×10-5 Wb m-2 (d) 6×10-5 Wb m-2
14. Transverse waves of the same frequency are generated in two steel wires A and B.
Diameter of A is twice that of B and the tension in A is half that in B. The ratio of
velocities of waves in A and B is
(a) 1:2 2 (b) 3:2 2 (c) 1:2 (d) 1: 2
15. The current gain of a transistor of a collector current 100 mA and base current 2 mA will
be
(a) 250 (b) 50 (c) 450 (d) 25
16. Two open end pipes of length 51 cm and 50 cm produce 6 beats per second when they
are sounded together. The speed of sound is
(a) 340 m/s (b) 333 m/s (c) 306 m/s (d) 290 m/s
17. A stone is revolving in a vertical circle of radius ‘r’ the tension will be maximum at the
position of
(a) top of circle (b) bottom of circle
(c) tension is same at every position (d) none
18. The activity from a radioactive source is to fall by 0.875 of its initial activity in 210 sec.
what is the half-life of source?
(a) 30 S (b) 60 s (c) 70 s (d) 105 s
19. During expansion process, the work done is maximum for
(a) adiabatic process (b) Isobaric process (c) isochoric process (d) Isothermal process
20. Two identical springs of constant K are connected in series and parallel as shown in figure. A
mass M is suspended from them. The ratio of their frequencies of vertical oscillations will be
(a) 2: 1 (b) 1: 4
(c) 1: 2 (d) 4:1

21. An engine develops 10 kw of power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg to
a height of 40 m (g = 10 m s2)
(a) 4 sec (b) 5 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 10 sec
22. A simple harmonic motion is given by y   sin  t  cos  t  metre
Which of the following statements are correct?
 
(a) the amplitude is 2 metre (b) the amplitude is 2 metre
(c) amplitude is 1meter (d) none of these
energy
23. The physical quantity which has dimensional formula
mass  length
(a) force (b) power (c) pressure (d) acceleration
24. A sodium surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 300nm. The work function of
sodium metal is 2.46 eV. The max K.E of the ejected electron is
(a) 1.68 eV (b) 4.14 eV (c) 5.05 eV (d) 2.46 eV
25. If electron is projected along the axis of current carrying solenoid it will
(a) accelerate (b) declaration
(c) move with same speed (d) none of these

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26. Newton’s rings are produced by
(a) division of wave front method (b) division of amplitude method
(c) addition of amplitude method (d) none of these
27. In a series circuit R= 300ohm, L=0.9 H and C= 2.0 micro farad and  =100 rad/s. The
impedance of the circuit at resonance is
(a) 300 ohm (b) 400 ohm (c) 500 ohm (d) 900 ohm
28. The correct curve between the stopping potential (V) and intensity of incident light (I) is

29. An electron is thrown perpendicularly in the uniform magnetic field, of strength B tesla,
the time required to complete one rotation is
(a) zero (b) 2 R /me (c) 2  R/q B (d) 2me / e B
30. Five resistors of given values are connected together as shown.
The current in the arm BD will be

6V
(a) half the current in the arm ABC (b) twice the current in the arm ABC
(c) zero (d) four times the current in the arm ABC

CHEMISTRY FLT-1

31. 148g of calcium hydroxide react with excess sodium sulfate in aqueous solution to
produce solid sulfate and aqueous sodium hydroxide. How many moles of calcium
atoms are reacting here?
Ca(OH)2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) CaSO4(s) + 2NaOH(aq)
(a) 1 mol (b)2 mol (c)3 mol (d) 4 mol
32. The number of moles of hydrogen atoms in 4g of methane is…….
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
33. At the same temperature and pressure helium is more ideal than hydrogen due to
(a) greater molar mass (b) less molar mass
(c) greater molecular size (d) less molecular size
34. London forces are the only forces which are present in
(a) Molecules of HCl gas
(b) Molecules white phosphorous in solid
(c) Molecules of H2O
(d) Molecules of He gas at high temperature
35. Which of the following elements have highest difference of first and second ionization
energies?
(a) sodium (b) magnesium (c) sulphur (d) argon
36. Which pair of substance, does each have a giant molecular structure.
(a) diamond, lodine (b) diamond, silica (sand)
(c) iodine , sodium chloride (d) methane , silica (sand)
37. What is the approximate value of the O-C-O bond angle in propanoic acid?
(a) 90o (b) 109o (c) 120o (d) 180o
38. Which of the following has highest bond dissociation energy.
(a) N2 (b) N2–1
(c) N2–2 (d) N2+1

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39. In exothermic reactions, the heat contents of the
(a) products is more than that of reactants
(b) reactants is more than that of products
(c) both a and b
(d) reactants and products are equal
40. If the solubility of calcium fluoride in water is S moles per liter, its solubility product is
given by?
(a) 2S (b) 4S3 (c) 2S2 (d) 4S2
41. The conjugate acid of N H 2 is?
(a) NH3 (b) NH2OH (c) N H 4 (d) N2H2
42. Which has the highest freezing point at 1 atm
(a) 0.1m NaCl solution (b) 0.1m sugar solution
(c) 0.1m BaCl2 solution (d) 0.1m FeCl3 solution
43. A + 2B   C
What are the possible units of the rate constants ‘k’ for the given elementary reaction?
(a) mol dm-3 s-1 (b) s-1
(c) mol-1 dm3 s-1 (d) mol-2 dm6 s-1
44. The electrolytic products of which of the following are same as for the electrolysis of
water?
(a) aqKCl (b) aq ZnSO4 (c) aq CuSO4 (d) aq NaCl
45. The half life of following first order reaction A  B + C is 10 min. The conc. of A would be
reduced to 12.5% of original conc. in
(a) 30 min (b) 40min (c) 70 min (d) 90 min
46. The pressure of oxygen inside the bomb calorimeter is
(a) 10 atm (b) 20 atm (c) 30 atm (d) 760 torr
47. Which of the following elements has highest ionization energy?
(a) P (b) S (c)Al (d) Na
48. The hydroxide of which of the following is most soluble in water:
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Ba (d) Be
Co  NO 2  3  NH 3 3 
49. Oxidation state of cobalt in  is:
(a) Zero (b) Three (c) Two (d) Six
50. To prevent the formation of choloramines in the process of water disinfection by
chlorine, pH should be:
(a) Acidic (b) Alkaline (c) Neutral (d) No effect of pH
51. Which of the following processes is carried out at 1 atm pressure?
(a) Contact process (b) Haber process
(c) Hydrogenation of alkenes (d) Discharge tube experiments
52. Among the following anions the order of basicity is a) CH3- b) NH2- c) OH- d) F-
(a) a > b > c > d (b) b >a > c > d (c) c > b > a > d (d) c > a > b > d
53. When ethanol is heated at 140 oC in the presence of H2SO4, the product is….
(a) ethene (b) diethyl ether (c) ethanoic acid (d) acetaldehyde
54. Which of the following will turn blue litmus red?
(i) CH3COOH(aq) (ii) C6H5-OH(aq) (iii) NaOH(aq)
(a) i only (b) i and ii only (c) i and iii only (d) i, ii and iii
55. Which of the following is more acidic?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Chloroacetic acid (c) propanoic acid (d) ethanol
56. Which of the following processes of addition polymerization does not involve the
production of free radicals
(a) initiation (b) propagation
(c) termination (d) all produce a radical
57. Monocarboxylic acids show functional isomerism with
(a) esters (b) alcohols (c) ethers (d) aldehydes
58. A polymer with molecular mass 500 uses 50g of iodine to saturate itself completely.
What is iodine number?
1
(a) (b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 100
10

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59. NOx formula represent which oxides of nitrogen
(a) NO and N2O (b) NO2 and N2O aqw23
(c) N2O, NO and NO2 (d) NO and NO2
60. The nitrogenous base which is not present in RNA is
(a) Cyctocine (b) Guanine
(c) Adenine (d) Thymine

ENGLISH FLT-1
Reading Comprehension

The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.” The
American Heritage Dictionary defines it as “the act of killing a person painlessly for
reasons of mercy.” Such killing can be done through active means, such as
administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical
care or food and water.
5
In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active
euthanasia in the news. They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or
incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear
to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are
10 often dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays them as
compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from unbearable
suffering.

The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a

bigger, more insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in
15 hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers of
documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life-sustaining care, including
food and water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves.

While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many
cases the law has put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care.
20 Further, many states have “living will” laws designed to protect those who withhold
treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which have approved of
patients being denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death.

Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of hospitals and nursing homes,
they can be kept hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so
25 their deaths might be attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really
killed them. Further, it is often relatives of the patient who request that care be
withheld. In one court case, the court held that decisions to withhold life-sustaining
care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of third
parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is
no disagreement between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as
30 to rule that a nursing home may not refuse to participate in the fatal withdrawal of
food and water from an incompetent patient!

“Extraordinary” or “heroic” treatment need not be used when the chance for
recovery is poor and medical intervention would serve only to prolong the dying
35 process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to deliberately starve or

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 dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill should not be permitted.
Most of the cases coming before the courts do not involve withholding heroic
measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying
basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or
terminally ill, but who are permanently incapacitated. These people could be
40 expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and
water and minimal treatment.

No one has the right to judge that another’s life is not worth living. The basic right to
life should not be abridged because someone decides that someone else’s quality of
life is too low. If we base the right to life on quality of life standards, there is no logical
45 place to draw the line.

To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes towards

people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of
their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and
respect. We must also enact positive legislation that will protect vulnerable people
from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain and who
would cause their deaths by withholding life-sustaining care such as food and water.

61. The tone of the author can best be described as

(a) pleading (b) argumentative
(c) compassionate (d) emphatic

62. In paragraph 3, the author finds starvation and dehydration induced euthanasia is to be
“more insidious" because
(a) euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act
(b) the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming more positive
(c) it often involves those who cannot protest
(d) the patient has asked to die with dignity

63. As used in paragraph 3, what is the best synonym for “insidious”?

(a) mischievous (b) treacherous (c) seductive (d) apparent
64. The author maintains that death by withholding care is
(a) largely confined to hospitals (b) largely confined to the terminally ill
(c) often requested by family members (d) approved by living wills

65. As used in paragraph 7, which is the best definition of “abridged” line 40?
(a) trimmed (b) curtailed (c) lengthened (d) extended
66. Using the passage as a guide, it can be inferred that the author would find euthanasia
less objectionable in cases in which
I. the patient’s death is imminent
II. the patient has left instructions in a living will not to provide care
III. the patient refuses to accept nourishment
(a) II only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III
67. The main idea of paragraph 7 is that
(a) lawyers will be unable to prosecute or defend caregivers
(b) no comprehensive right or wrong definition of euthanasia will exist
(c) using a subjective standard will make the decision to end an individual’s life arbitrary
(d) no boundary will exist between euthanasia and care omission
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68. In the final paragraph the author writes, "Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are
still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect." The main purpose of
this statement is to
(a) prove a previous argument (b) illustrate an example
(c) gainsay a later statement (d) justify an earlier statement
69. Withholding life-sustaining care is
(a) passive form of euthanasia (b) to make patients invulnerable to death
(c) a punishable offence (d) desperate alternative to euthanasia
70. The court found that a euthanasia case cannot be prosecuted (paragraph 5)if
(a) decision-makers and the medical staff are in concurrence
(b) the relatives cannot afford the treatment of the patient
(c) the case lies outside the jurisdiction
(d) life-sustaining care proves insufficient to revive the health of the patient

MATHEMATICS FLT-1

71. In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10 like both cricket and tennis. The number of
persons liking tennis only and not cricket is:
(a) 21 (b) 75 (c) 55 (d) 25
72. The solution of 92 x 1  27 x  0 is
(a) + 2 (b) -2 (c) + 1 (d) -1
73. If 2 log p 8  log p 4  2 , then P=?
(a) + 4 or -4 (b) +2 or -2 (c) +2 (d) +4
74. The values of a and b if f  x   2x  ax  bx  9 has a factor x  3 but leaves a remainder of 8
3 2

when divided by x  1 are

(a)  1, 18 (b)  1, 18 (c)  1, 18 (d)  1, 18
75. The eccentricity of hyperbola is:
(a) e<0 (b) 0<e<1 (c) e=1 (d) e>1
76. The number of permutations of all the letters in the word “History” when the letters O
and R are not together
(a) 2520 (b) 5040 (c) 1440 (d) 3600
77. The solution of 2 cos y  1  sin y is
2

(a) 30 (b) 30 and 60

(c) 30,150 and 270 (d) 60,210 and 270
78. The corresponding range of y  3cos 4 x  2 for 0  x  180 is
(a)  y : 5  y  1 (b)  y : 1  y  1 (c)  y : 1  y  5 (d)  y : y  5 or y  1
79. A function f is defined by f : x  x  2 for the domain 0  x  3. The value of x for which
2

f  x   f 1  x  is
(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d)  2
9
80. The area enclosed by y  1  between 3  x  5 is
x2
1 4 4 1
(a) (b)  (c) (d) 
2 5 5 2

1
81. The sum of series 5
n 1
n

1 1
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d) 4
4 10

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 2
82. The volume of water in a tank after t seconds is given by V  5  . The rate at which
t 1
volume of water is increasing when t  3 is:
1 9
(a) (b) 3 (c) 5 (d)
8 2
83. The formula of 2  4  6  .....  2n for every positive integer n is
(a) n (b) n n (c) n  n  1 (d) n  n  1

 x  1dx 
2
84. The solution of the definite integral 3
1

12 1 19
(a) 19 (b) (c) (d)
3 4 4
85. The roots of the equation x 2  2 x  2  p will real and distinct if
(a) p  1 (b) p  1 (c) p  1 (d) p  1
86. 2
Slope of tangent to parabola x = 4ay at (2a, a) is:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 1

87. The acute angle x radian is such that tan(x) = k where k is a positive constant. Then the
value of tan(π/2 − x) is:
(a) k (b) − k
2
(c) k / k + 1 (d) 1/k

88. The gradient of the curve y = 12/(x2 − 4x) at x = 3 is:

(a) − 8 (b) − 4
(c) −24 (d) −8/3
89. A curve has equation y = k/x . If the gradient of the curve is −3 when x = 2 then k is:
(a) 3/4 (b) − 6
(c) 12 (d) −12
90. An arithmetic progression has first term of 12 and a fifth term of 18. The sum of first 25
terms is:
(a) 400 (b) 350
(c) 750 (d) 150
91. If 2 sin(x) tan(x) = 3 for 00 ≤ x ≤ 3600 . Then x is:
(a) 450 or 3150 (b) 600 or 3000
0
(c) 30 or 330 0 (d) None of the above
dy
92. A curve is such that dx = 2x2 − 5. If (3 , 8) lies on the curve then the equa on of the
curve is:
(a) (2/3)x3 − 5x + 8 (b) (2/3)x3 − 5x + 11
(c) (2/3)x3 − 5x + 3 (d) (2/3)x3 − 5x + 5
93. The functions f and g are defined by:
f : x → 2x − a x ϵ R , a is constant
2
g : x → x − 6x xϵR
The value of a for which f (x) = g (x) has exactly one real solution is:
(a) 7 (b) 0
(c) 16 (d) 12
1 0 
94. If matrix A =   and A + A 1 = k I , then the value of constants p and k is:
0 p 
(a) + 1 and − 2 (b) + 1 and + 2
(c) − 1 and + 2 (d) 1 and 1/2
1  3  6 
95. The determinant of A = 0 4  3i  , where i = −1 is:
0  3i 4 
(a) 16 − 9i (b) 16 + 9i
(c) − 24 (d) 25

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 (n−1)! (n−2)!
96. The expression (n!)2 Is reduces to :
(a) 1/[n(n−1)] (b) 1/(n3 − n2)
(c) 1/n3 (d) 1/n
97. The function y = 3 + 3x − x3 for x ≥ 0 has a maximum value at :
(a) ( 1 , 5 ) (b) ( 5 , 1 )
(c) ( 3 , 4 ) (d) ( 2 , 2)
  2  5 
98. The determinant of the matrix   is 9 . The values of  are equal to :
 1   1 
(a) − 1 , 4 (b) 0 , 1
(c) 3 , − 3 (d) 1 , − 4
99. The range of values of m for which the roots of the equation mx2 + 1 = x (x + 3) are NOT
REAL is:
(a) m > 13/4 (b) m < 13/4
(c) m! > −13/4 (d) m < −13/4
100. The solution of y + 3 = 3y − 5 is :
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) − 4

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