Ncert Booster Test Series

07/11/2020 CoE-XII
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NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test No. –03
Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : System of particles and Rotational motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of solids
Chemistry: Equilibrium, Redox reactions
Botany : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants
Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination
Choose the correct answer:

1. Three particles of mass 10 g, 15 g and 20 g are
placed at the vertices of equilateral triangle of
side of 0.1 m as shown. Centre of mass will be
located at the point
 5 1   1 15  5 5  5 5 
(1)  , (1)  m, m  (2)  m, m 
m (2)  , m
6 6  2 2 
 18 3 3   3 3 18 
 1 1  1 1  5 5  5 5 
(3)  m, m  (4)  m, m 
(3)  , m (4)  , m  2 6  3 3 
 15 3 18   18 15 3 
4. A projectile, following the usual parabolic
2. Mass is distributed uniformly over a thin
triangular lamina. If co-ordinates of vertices are trajectory, explodes into fragments midway in
(– 6, 2)m, (2,6)m and (4, – 8) m then the Co- air. The centre of mass of fragments will follow
ordinates of centre of mass is
(1) Horizontal rectilinear path
(1) (0,0) (2) (–3,2)m
(2) Vertical rectilinear path
3 5  7 4
(3)  ,  m (4)  – ,  m (3) Any parabolic path
2 3  2 7
3. A uniform L-shaped lamina (a thin flat plate) with (4) Same parabolic path
dimensions as shown. If the mass of the lamina
is 6kg then the centre of mass of lamina is
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
5. The motion of centre of mass, of a system of
particles depends
(1) On the external forces
(2) On the internal forces
(3) On the nature of the system of particles
(4) All of these
6. A boy sits stationary at one end of a long trolley
moving uniformly with a speed 20 km/h on a
smooth horizontal floor. If the boy gets up and
runs with a speed 3km/h on the trolley in the
same direction, the speed of the CM of the
(trolley + boy) system is
(1) 20 km/h (2) 3 km/h
(1) 98 N (2) 200 N
(3) 23 km/h (4) 17 km/h
7. Select incorrect option about the vector product (3) 65.3 N (4) 76 N
(1) The scalar product of two vectors is 11. A rigid rod of negligible mass of length L with a
commutative pair of small masses, rotating about an axis
(2) The scalar product of two vectors is through the centre of mass perpendicular to the
distributive with respect to vector condition. rod as shown in the figure. The moment of
(3) The vector product of two vectors is inertia of the masses is
commutative
(4) The vector product of two vectors is
distributive with respect to vector addition
8. The vector products of two vectors,
 
   
a  3iˆ – 4 ˆj  2kˆ and b  – iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ , is
(1) ˆi – ˆj  2Kˆ (2) 2iˆ  ˆj – 2kˆ
(3) – ˆj  2kˆ (4) ˆj  2kˆ

ML2 ML2
9. The magnitude of the area of the triangle (1) (2)
2 4

contained between the vector a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and
(2) ML2 (4) 2ML2

b  – iˆ  3 ˆj  4kˆ , is 12. The radius of gyration of the circular disc of
131 radius R about its diameter is
(1) 131 unit (2) unit
2
R
(1) R (2)
131 2
(3) Unit (4) 131 unit
2
R R
10. A 5m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a (3) (4)
2 2 2
frictionless wall. Its feet rest on the floor 4 m
from the wall. The reaction force of the wall is
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13. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a torque of 80 Nm. If the efficiency of engine is
hollow cylinder of mass 2 Kg and radius 20 cm. 100%, then the power required by the engine is
If the rope is pulled with a force of 10 N then the (1) 8 kW (2) 18 kW
linear acceleration of the rope is (2) 9 kW (4) 36 kW
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 25 m/s2 19. A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium if
(3) 150 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 (1) It is in translational equilibrium only
14. A hoop of radius 1 m weighs 50 kg. It is rolling (2) It is in rotational equilibrium only
without slipping along a horizontal floor so that (3) It is in translational as well as rotational
its centre of mass has a speed 10 cm/s. The equilibrium
work done to stop it, is
(4) It is neither in translational nor in rotational
(1) 4J (2) 0.5 J equilibrium
(3) 2J (4) 1J 20. The centre of gravity of an extended body is that
15. A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of point where
angle of inclination 37°. At the bottom of the (1) The total mass of the body is assumed to be
inclined plane the centre of mass of the cylinder concentrated
has a speed of 4m/s. The maximum distance
(2) The total torque on the body is zero
covered by the cylinder on the plane is
(3) The total gravitational torque on the body is
(1) 3.8 m (2) 2 m
zero
(3) 4.6 m (4) 3 m
(4) The total force is zero
16. A solid cylinder of mass 10kg rotates about its
21. According to Kepler, the law of area can be
axis with angular speed 50 rad s–1. The radius
understood as a consequence of conservation of
of the cylinder is 0.1 m. The magnitude of
(1) Linear momentum
angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis
(2) Angular momentum
is
(3) Mass
(1) 6.25 Js (2) 2.5 Js
(4) Energy
(3) 10 Js (4) 5 Js
22. The figure shows an elliptical orbit of a planet
17. A child stands at the centre of a turntable with
about the sun S. If t1 is the time for planet to
his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set
traverse BAC and t2 is the time to traverse CPB
rotating with an angular speed of 60 rev/min If
then
he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his
1
moment of inertia to times the initial value
4
then the angular speed of child is
(1) 8 rev/min (2) 240 rev/min
(3) 4 rev/min (4) 100 rev/min
18. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed
(1) t1 = 2t2 (2) t1 < t2
of 100 rads–1, an engine needs to transmit a
(3) t1 > t2 (4) t1 = t2
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23. In considering the motion of an object under the mgR
(1) (2) mgR
gravitational influence of another object a 8
physical quantity which is not conserved, is
mgR mgR
(3) (4)
(1) Angular momentum 4 2
(2) Total mechanical Energy 27. A body weighs 54 N on the surface of the Earth.
The gravitational force on it due to earth at a
(3) Linear momentum
height equal to half of the radius of the earth is
(4) All of these
(1) 63 N (2) 45 N
24. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a
space satellite. It is because (3) 24 N (4) 20 N
(1) Only astronaut is in ‘free fall’ towards the 28. The escape speed of a body from the earth does
earth not depend on
(2) Only satellite is in “free fall” towards the (1) The mass of the body
earth
(2) The location from where it is projected
(3) Astronaut and satellite (both) are in “free
fall” towards the earth (3) The direction of projection
(4) Gravitational force is small at that location in (4) All of these

space
29. The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s
25. Three masses of 1Kg, 1Kg, and 2Kg are placed surface is 11.2 kms–1. A body is projected with
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC as twice this speed. The speed of the body far
shown. The force acting on a mass 2 kg placed away from the earth is nearly
at the centroid G of the triangle is
(1) 16kms–1 (2) 20kms–1
[Take AG = BG = CG = 1m]
(3) 15kms–1 (4) 19kms–1
30. The most accurate expression for the
gravitational potential energy associated with
two particles of masses m1 and m2, separated
by a distance r, is
Gm1m2
(1) 6.67 × 10–11 N (2) 13.34 × 10–11 N (1) U  –
r
(3) 26.68 × 10–11 N (4) Zero
Gm1m2
(2) U  –
26. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of 2r
radius 2R about the Earth. The energy required Gm1m2
(3) U  –  K (constant)
to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4 R is [R r
is radius of Earth]
Gm1m2
(4) U  –  k (constant)
2r
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31. The most accurate formula for the difference of 34. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform
potential energy between two points r2 and r1 mass density if a body weighed 200 N on the
distance away from the centre of earth is surface of the earth thus the weight of it at half
way down to the centre of earth is
[Symbols have their usual meaning]
 1 1 (1) 50 N (2) 100 N

(1) GMm   
 r2 r1 
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N
(2) mg[r2 – r1]
35. Two spheres, each of mass 10 kg and radius

 1 1
(3) GMm     K (constant) 0.20 m, are placed 2 m apart on a horizontal
 r2 r1 
table. The gravitational potential at mid-point of
(4) mg [r2  r1]  K (constant) the line joining the centres of the spheres, is
32. If potential energy is assumed to be zero at

(1) –2.7 × 10–8 J/kg
infinity then
(1) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is (2) –2.4 × 10–7 J/kg
negative of its potential energy.
(3) –3.2 × 10–9 J/kg
(2) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is
twice of its potential energy
(4) –1.3 × 10–9 J/kg
negative of its kinetic energy 36. Bulk modulus is defined for

(1) Solids only
twice of its kinetic energy
33. The energy required to launch an orbiting (2) Liquids only

satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is
(3) Gases only
(1) More than the energy required to project a
stationary object at the same height (as the
(4) Solids, liquids and gases
satellite) out of earth’s influence
(2) Less than the energy required to project a 37. A structural steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and
stationary object at the same height (as the a length of 2.0 m. If a 10 kN force stretches it
satellite) out of earth’s influence along its length then stress produced in it is
nearly
(3) Twice the energy required to project a
stationary object at the same height (as the
(1) 3 × 108 Nm–2 (2) 3 × 106 Nm–2
satellite) out of earth’s influence
(4) Zero (3) 6 × 108 Nm–2 (4) 8 × 106 Nm–2
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38. A steel wire of length 4 m and cross-section area 42. A steel cable with a radius of 1 cm supports a
2× 10–5 m2 stretches by the same amount as a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress is
copper wire of length 2.5 m and cross-section not to exceed 108 N/m2, the maximum load, the
area of 4 × 10–5 m2 under a given load. The ratio cable can support is
of Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper is
(1) 7 × 10–4 N (2) 6.28 × 104 N
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.8
(3) 3.14 × 104 N (4) 31.4 × 104 N
(3) 2.5 (4) 3.2
43. A glass slab is subjected to a hydraulic pressure
39. The average depth of an ocean is about 2200 m, if of 5 atm, the fractional change in volume of
the bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm–2, then glass slab is
V
the fractional compression of water is [Bulk modulus for glass = 37 GPa]
V
(1) 3.12 × 10–8 (2) 1.35 × 10–5

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.02
(3) 2.21 × 10–6 (4) 5.25 × 10–7

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.01
44. A solid copper cube of an edge 20 cm is subjected

40. Which of the following substances has the
to a hydraulic pressure of 14 × 106 Pa. If Bulk
highest elasticity?
modulus for copper is 140 GPa, then the change
(1) Aluminium (2) Brass in volume of the cube is
(3) Copper (4) Steel (1) 8 × 10–7 m3 (2) 5 × 10–7 m3
41. In case of bending of a beam, depression  (3) 5 × 10–8 m3 (4) 6 × 10–8 m3

depends on length of beam (L) as
45. The change in the pressure on a litre of water to
1 compress it by 0.5% is
(1)   (2)  L2
L
[Bulk modulus of water = 2.2 GPa]
1
(3)   (4)  L3
L3 (1) 11 × 106 Pa (2) 2.2 × 106 Pa
(3) 22 × 106 Pa (4) 20 × 106 Pa
Chemistry
46. Select the incorrect statement (3) All the measurable properties of the system
remain constant at equilibrium
(1) Both the opposing processes stop at
equilibrium (4) There is dynamic but stable condition at
equilibrium
(2) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed
container
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47. For a gaseous equilibrium A(g)  B(g) which 1
(3) (4) K2
of the following graph is correct? K
50. KP is greater than KC for the reaction
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

(1)
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
(3) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(2) 51. If initially 3M each of CO and H2O are present

and equilibrium constant KC = 4 the equilibrium
concentration of CO2 gas for the reaction
CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2(g) + H2(g) is
(3) (1) 1 M (2) 2 M
(3) 3M (4) 4M
52. Heterogeneous equilibrium among the following

is
(4) (1) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
48. Expression of equilibrium constant for the (3) 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g)
1 3
reaction N2 (g)  H2 (g)  NH3 (g) is (4) CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2(g) + H2(g)
2 2
53. Unit of Kp for the reaction 2A(g) + 2B(g) 
[NH3 ]2 [N2 ][H2 ]3
(1) (2) 3C(g) is
[N2 ][H2 ]3 [NH3 ]2
(1) atm (2) atm–1
1 3
[NH3 ] [N2 ] [H2 ]
2 2
(3) 1 3
(4) (3) atm3 (4) atm–3
[N2 ] [H2 ]
2 2 [NH3 ]
54. If KC > 103 then
49. If equilibrium constant for the reaction
2 A+ 3 B  2 C is K then equilibrium constant
(1) Reactants predominate over products
3 (2) Both reactants and products are present at

for the reaction C  A+ B is
2 equilibrium in appreciable amount
1 1 (3) Reaction hardly proceeds
(1) (2)
K K2
(4) Products predominate over reactants
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55. Select the incorrect statement (3) PO 3–
(4) H2PO –
4 3
(1) If QC < KC, net reaction goes from left to right

61. Which of the following ions is/are possible
(2) If QC > KC, net reaction goes from right to left
(1) H3O2– (2) H5O3–
(3) If QC = KC, individual reactions stop
(3) H3O (4) All of these
(4) If QC = KC, then reaction is at equilibrium
56. Correct relation among the following 62. Which of the following is not an Arrhenius acid
(1) G° = G + RT ln Q (2) G = G° + RT ln (1) H3O+ (2) HCl

Q
(3) BF3 (4) HSO–4
(3) G° = RT ln K (4) G = RT ln k
63. Molarity of pure water in nearly
57. Which of the following condition will shift the
(1) 1 M (2) 18 M
equilibrium
(3) 55.5 M (4) 10–7 M
PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) in forward direction
64. Weakest base among the following is
(1) Adding PCl3 (2) Removing PCl5
(3) Increasing volume (4) Increasing (1) H– (2) NH2–
pressure (3) O2– (4) H2O

58. For the reaction
65. pH of 10–10 M HCl aqueous solution is nearly
2NO2(g)  N2O4(g); H = –57.2 kJ mol–1
(1) 2 (2) 4
The value of KC can be increased by (3) 7 (4) 10
(1) Adding NO2
66. Which of the following fluid has pH < 7
(2) Adding N2O4
(1) Egg white (2) Sea water
(3) Increasing temperature
(3) Human blood (4) Human saliva
(4) Decreasing temperature
67. pH of 10–1 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is
59. Addition of inert gas at constant pressure exert (pKa CH3COOH = 4.7)
no effect on
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.85
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g)
(3) 3.7 (4) 4.7
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
68. If Ka of NH4 is x then Kb of NH3 is
(3) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Kw
(4) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) (1) (2) Kw.x
x
60. Conjugate base of H2PO4– is x

(3) (4) Kw
Kw
2–
(1) H3PO4 (2) HPO 4
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69. For citric acid, which of the following option is are 0.1 M, 0.2 M and 0.1 M respectively. The
correct? value of KC for the reaction is
(1) K a1 < Ka2 < Ka3 (2) K a1  K a2  K a3 (1) 0.1 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 5
(3) K a1  K a2  K a3 (4) K a1  K a2  K a3
77. Which salt undergoes cationic hydrolysis
70. Common ion effect is not observed in
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Br
(1) NaCl + HCl
(3) CH3COONa (4) NaBr
(2) CH3COOH + HCl
78. Which of the following is not an oxidation?
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(1) Addition of electronegative element to a
(4) CH3COOH + CH3COONa substance
71. Which of the following ion shows hydrolysis (2) Removal of electropositive element from a
(1) NO3– (2) Cl– substance
(3) Loss of electron(s) by any species

(3) CH3COO– (4) Br–
(4) Decrease in oxidation number of an element
72. If pKa of weak acid HA is 4 and pKb of weak base
BOH is 5 then pH of aqueous solution of BA is 79. Blue colour starts developing when
(1) 7.5 (2) 6.5 (1) Zn rod is dipped in copper nitrate solution
(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) Cu rod dipped in silver nitrate solution
73. pH of equimolar aqueous solution of (3) Zn rod dipped in silver nitrate solution
CH3COONa and CH3COOH is (pKa of (4) Cu and dipped in zinc nitrate solution
CH3COOH = 4.7)
80. Oxidation number of oxygen in superoxide is
(1) 1 (2) 4.7
(1) 0 (2) –1
(3) 7 (4) 14
1
(3) – (4) –2
74. If solubility of weak salt A2X3 is s molL–1 then its 2
Ksp is
81. Combination reaction among the following is
(1) s2 (2) 4s3
(1) 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
(3) 9s4 (4) 108s5
(2) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
75. Molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 is
(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
(Ksp of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–15 M)
(4) Mg + 2H2O  Mg(OH)2 + H2
(1) 2 × 10–13 M (2) 2 × 10–14 M
82. Oxidation number of middle Br in Br3O8 is
(3) 2 × 10–15 M (4) 2 × 10–16 M
(1) 0 (2) –1
76. For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
equilibrium concentrations of SO2, O2, and SO3 (3) 4 (4) 6
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z (3) +3 (4) +5
83. xCr2 O72– + ySO 32 – + zH+  2 xCr 3+ + ySO 24 – + H2 O
2
87. Which among the following can not show
The value of x and y in above balanced equation disproportionation?
are respectively
(1) PH3 (2) H2O2
(1) 1, 3 (2) 3, 1
(3) S8 (4) HClO2
(3) 2, 3 (4) 3, 2
88. Example of redox reaction is
84. Which of the following is a self indicator?
(1) Na + HCl  NaCl + H2
– 2–
(1) MnO 4 (2) Cr2O 7
(2) Na2O + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O
(3) I– (4) S2O32– (3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
85. Given the standard electrode potentials (4) Na2CO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O + CO2
K+/K = –2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V 89. Fractional oxidation number is observed in
Hg2+/Hg = 0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V (1) Na2S4O6 (2) CH3COOH
The element having strongest reducing power is (3) Fe2O3 (4) O2F2
(1) K (2) Mg 90. Oxidation number of hydrogen in CaH2 is
(3) Ag (4) Hg (1) 0 (2) +1
86. Oxidation number of P in H4P2O7 is (3) –1 (4) –2
(1) 0 (2) –3
Botany
91. All of the following are considered to be the (3) Same as the time taken by a typical human
event concerned with cell cycle, except cell
(1) DNA replication (4) 18 – 20 hours
(2) Glucose synthesis 94. If a human cell takes X unit time to complete its
(3) Cytoplasmic increase cell cycle then, what would be the duration of its
(4) Genome duplication M phase?
92. The approximate time taken to divide once by a (1) More than 95% of X (2) X/2 unit time
typical human cell in culture is (3) 95% of X (4) Less than 5% of X
(1) 24 hours (2) 38 minutes
95. M phase of a cell ends with
(3) 90 minutes (4) 30 hours
(1) Separation of chromosomes
93. The time taken by a yeast cell to complete its
cell cycle is (2) Replication of DNA
(1) Less than the time taken by a human cell (3) Division of cytoplasm
(2) 12 hours
(4) Condensation of chromatin
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96. The interphase of cell cycle includes all of the (4) The daughter cells have just half of the
following phases, except number of chromosomes as that of parent
cell
(1) G2 phase (2) S phase
101. Prophase is marked by the
(3) G1 phase (4) G0 phase
97. Which of the following sequences regarding (1) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal
different phases of a cell is acceptable? material
(2) Duplication of centrosome

(1) M G1 G0 G1 (2) G1 G2 S M
(3) Duplication of cell organelles
(3) M S G1 G0 (4) G0 G1 G2 S
(4) Development of nuclear envelope
98. Doubling of the amount of DNA in a cell occurs
during 102. In prophase, each chromosome has two chromatids.
These chromatids are attached together at the
(1) The phase that occurs just after M phase
(1) Telomere (2) Centriole
(2) Synthesis phase
(3) Kinetochore (4) Centromere
(3) G2 phase
103. Mitotic apparatus is formed of
(4) The phase that occurs just after G2 phase
(1) Two centrosomes with chromatids
99. Select the incorrect statement from the
following. (2) Two asters together with spindle fibres
(1) In human, mitotic cell division is only seen in (3) Two chromatids with acrosome
the diploid somatic cell (4) One primary constriction with two
(2) The cells in quiescent stage remain chromatids
metabolically active 104. The beginning of second phase of mitosis is marked
(3) In male honey bee, haploid cells do not by
divide by mitosis (1) Complete disintegration of the nuclear
(4) Plants can show mitotic division in both envelope
haploid and diploid cells (2) Attachment of spindle fibres with
100. Mitotic division is also called equational division kinetochore
because (3) Formation of nucleolus
(1) Parent cell is divided into two daughter cells (4) Formation of spindle fibres and asters
(2) Number of chromosomes in the parent and 105. In which phase of cell cycle, chromosomes
progeny cells is the same move to spindle equator?
(3) Size of parent cell and daughter cells is the (1) G2 phase (2) Prophase
same
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
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106. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 111. Meiosis involves
anaphase?
(1) Single cycle of nuclear division
(1) Movement of chromosomes away from the
(2) Single cycle of DNA replication
equatorial plate
(3) Single cycle of cytoplasmic division
(2) Condensation of chromosomes
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication
(3) Splitting of centromere
112. Select the incorrect match.
(4) Separation of chromatids of a chromosome
(1) Leptotene – Compaction of chromosome
107. Chromosomes decondense and lose their
(2) Pachytene – Bivalents clearly appears as
individuality during
tetrads
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
(3) Zygotene – Dissolution of synaptonemal
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
complex
108. Cytokinesis is
(4) Diplotene – Appearance of chiasmata
(1) Formation of cytoplasmic organelles
113. In which stage of prophase I, recombinase
(2) Synthesis of cytoplasmic material mediated process is involved?
(3) Division of cell into daughter cells by (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
separation of cytoplasm (3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene
(4) Disappearance of membrane bound 114. The stage of cell division in which terminalisation
organelles in the cytoplasm of chiasmata occurs is
109. During cell division in plants, the formation of (1) The final stage of prophase I
new cell wall begins with the formation of a (2) The first stage of meiosis II
simple precursor called
(3) Metaphase I
(1) Middle lamella (2) Cell plate (4) The stage between pachytene and diplotene
(3) Microtubule (4) Axoneme 115. Metaphase I is different from metaphase II as in

the former
110. Which of the following leads to the formation of
syncytium? (1) Bivalent chromosomes align on the
equatorial plate
(1) Nuclear division without DNA duplication
(2) Homologous chromosomes separate from
(2) Nuclear division without the disintegration of each other
nuclear membrane
(3) Crossing over between non-sister
(3) Cell wall formation before the nuclear chromatids of homologous chromosomes
division occur
(4) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis (4) Metaphasic plate is not formed
[Page 12]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
116. The condition which is called as dyad of cells is (3) Increase in the genetic variability in the
seen during population
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II (4) Continuous growth of plant body
(3) Metaphase II (4) Telophase I 122. Longer distance transport of substance in plants
117. Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle through xylem and phloem is called
get attached to the kinetochores of a (1) Transfusion (2) Diffusion

chromosome in
(3) Ascent of sap (4) Translocation
(1) Prophase I of meiosis and prophase of
123. Read the following statements and choose the
mitosis
option which is true for them.
(2) Metaphase I and metaphase II
Statement-A: Diffusion in solids is more likely
(3) Metaphase of mitosis and metaphase II
rather than of solids
(4) Prophase of mitosis and metaphase I
Statement-B: Diffusion rates are affected by
118. The stage of meiotic division called interkinesis the gradient of concentration.
is followed by
(1) Both the statements are true
(1) Anaphase I (2) Telophase I
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Prophase II (4) Meiosis I (3) Only statement A is true
119. Though, the union of gametes results in doubling (4) Only statement B is true
of chromosome number, which process
124. Regarding active transport, which one of the
conserve specific chromosome number in such
following is not correct?
organisms?
(1) Energy is used in this process
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
(2) It occurs against the concentration gradient
(3) Crossing over (4) Recombination
(3) It is carried out by specific membrane-
120. A group of ten diploid male gamete mother cells proteins
are going to form male gametes. How many cells
(4) The pump molecules are not sensitive to
of stage metaphase II will be seen during this
inhibitors
process?
125. In plant cells, water channels are made up of
(1) Ten (2) Twenty _____ of aquaporins.
(3) Forty (4) Eighty Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
121. Which one of the following is the significance of (1) Four same type
meiosis?
(2) Eight different types
(1) Production of identical daughter cells (3) Four different types
(2) Cell repair (4) Eight same type

[Page 13]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
126. In passive symport s (Y) = -4 bar ; p (Y) = 3 bar
(1) Two types of molecules cross the (2) s (X) = -8 bar ; p (X) = 7 bar
membrane in same direction
s (Y) = -3 bar ; p (Y) = 1 bar
(2) Two types of molecules cross the
(3) s (X) = -5 bar ; p (X) = 3 bar
membrane in opposite direction
s (Y) = -5 bar ; p (Y) = 2 bar
(3) Only one molecule can cross the membrane
(4) s (X) = -6 bar ; p (X) = 5 bar
(4) Same type of molecules cross the
membrane simultaneously but in opposite s (Y) = -7 bar ; p (Y) = 2 bar
direction
130. When a cell is placed in hypotonic solution water
127. Which of the following mechanism is/are highly diffuses (i) the cell causing the cytoplasm build up
selective in nature? a pressure against the wall, that is called (ii) .
(a) Facilitated transport Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
(b) Simple diffusion and (ii).
(c) Active transport (1) (i) – Out of ; (ii) – Wall pressure
(1) (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (c) (2) (i) – Out of ; (ii) – Osmotic pressure
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (a) only (3) (i) – Into ; (ii) – Turgor pressure
128. Water potential of a solution increases when (4) (i) – Into ; (ii) – Wall pressure
(1) More solute is dissolved in the solution 131. In imbibition, water movement
(2) Water molecule is removed from the solution (1) Is against the concentration gradient
(3) Pressure greater than the atmospheric (2) Is along the concentration gradient
pressure is applied on the solution
(3) Requires energy of ATP
(4) Temperature of the solution is decreased
(4) Requires special transport proteins
129. Which values for pressure potential and solute
potential at standard temperature will favour the 132. The girdling experiment in plants shows that
movement of water from chamber B to chamber
(1) Xylem is also responsible for the transport
A?
of food
(2) Phloem can transport both carbohydrates

and minerals
(3) The translocation of water in xylem is

unidirectional
(4) Phloem is responsible for translocation of

(1) s (X) = -6 bar ; p (X) = 4 bar
food towards root
[Page 14]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
133. The substances that are transported through (1) In the form of atoms
xylem are
(2) By active absorption
(1) Only inorganic nutrients (3) By osmosis
(2) Only water and minerals
(4) By simple diffusion
(3) Many organic compounds except amino
135. In plants symplastic pathway does not involve
acid
(1) Intercellular space
(4) Both organic and inorganic materials
(2) Cytoplasm
134. Most mineral elements from the soil enter the
(3) Plasma membrane
root epidermal cells
(4) Plasmodesmata
Zoology
139. Simplest neural system composed of network of
136. Functions of different organ systems in our body
neurons is present in
must be coordinated to maintain homeostasis with
the help of (1) Hydra (2) Fasciola
(3) Pheretima (4) Periplaneta
(1) Only sensory system
140. On the basis of the following given flow chart w.r.t.
(2) Only endocrine system human neural system, Identify A, B, C and D.
(3) Respiratory system Choose the option which represents A, B, C, D

correctly
(4) Jointly by neural system and endocrine
system
137. Which of the following functions is not included in

neural system?
(1) Transmission of nerve impulse
(2) Impulse conduction across a synapse
(3) Reflex action
(4) Chemical integration only through hormones
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. functions of

neurons
(1) Generate electrical signals
(2) Receive stimuli
(3) Transmit impulse
(4) Produce different kinds of stimuli
[Page 15]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
141. All of the following are included in visceral nervous 147. Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are
system except maintained by
(1) Nerve plexuses (1) Rapid influx of Na+ down its concentration
(2) Ganglia gradient
(3) Sensory and motor neurons (2) Rapid efflux of K+ down its concentration
(4) Spinal cord gradient
142. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. synaptic (3) Active transport of ions by Na+ – K+ pump
knob?
(4) Leakage of more K+ than Na+ against
(1) Bulb like structure at axon terminal concentration gradient
(2) Contains neurotransmitters
148. In the following diagrammatic representation of an
(3) Possess synaptic vesicles axon, stimulus is applied at point A and action
(4) Contains Nissl’s granules in cytoplasm potential is generated. When impulse reaches at
143. Neuron with one axon and two or more dendrites point B, what will be the direction of current?
is called
(1) Pseudounipolar (2) Bipolar
(3) Multipolar (4) Unipolar
144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. unmyelinated (1) A to B on outer surface of axon
nerve fibres in Peripheral neural system (PNS) (2) B to A on outer surface of axon
(1) Enclosed by Schwann cells around axon. (3) B to A on inner surface of axon
(2) Absence of myelin sheath around axon
(4) A to B on both outer and inner surface of axon
(3) Found in somatic neural system
149. At the site of excitation, resting potential of axonal
(4) Not found in autonomous neural system membrane within a fraction of seconds is restored
145. Neurons are excitable cells because their mainly by
membranes are in
(1) Ca+2 pump
(1) Polarised state
(2) Diffusion of K+ inside axoplasm
(2) Depolarised state
(3) Rapid diffusion of K+ outside the membrane
(3) Repolarised state
(4) Rapid diffusion of Na+ inside axon
(4) Hyperpolarised state
150. Neuronal junctions are called
146. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse in
its resting condition, the axonal membrane is (1) Synapse
comparatively more permeable to (2) Joints
(1) Na+ (2) K+
(3) Desmosomes
– +2
(3) Cl (4) Ca
(4) Tight junction
[Page 16]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
151. Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse (3) Neurotransmitters bind with pre-synaptic
is very similar to impulse conduction along membrane
(1) Neuromuscular junction (4) An action potential is generated in cyton
(2) A chemical synapse in CNS 155. Read the following statements carefully
(3) A chemical synapse in PNS (a) Neurotransmitters bind to their specific
(4) A single axon receptors present on post-synaptic membrane
152. A synapse is formed by (b) Binding of neurotransmitters open ion

channels in post-synaptic membrane
(1) Only pre-synaptic membrane
(c) Entry of ions in post-synaptic neuron always
(2) Only post-synaptic membrane
generates excitatory post-synaptic potential
(3) Membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a
(d) Entry of ions in post-synaptic neuron always
post-synaptic neuron, always separated by a
generates inhibitory post-synaptic potential
synaptic cleft
Choose the option with all correct statements
(4) Membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a
post-synaptic neuron, which may or may not (1) a and b (2) b and c
be separated by a gap (3) c and d (4) a and d
153. All of the following characteristics of electrical and 156. Arrange the cranial meninges in a correct
chemical synapses correctly differentiate these sequence starting from the meninx invested on
synapses except cerebrum
(1) Dura mater  arachnoid  pia mater
(2) Pia mater  arachnoid  dura mater
(3) Arachnoid pia mater dura mater
(4) Pia mater  dura materarachnoid
157. Which of the following structure of brain is not

included in forebrain?
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebral aqueduct
(3) Thalamus (4) Hypothalamus
158. Corpus callosum is a tract of nerve fibres which

154. Synaptic vesicles move towards synaptic cleft connects
where they fuse with plasma membrane, when (1) Right and left cerebral hemispheres
(1) An action potential arrives at the axon terminal
(2) Two cerebellar hemispheres
of pre-synaptic neuron
(3) Forebrain to midbrain
(2) An impulse is generated in post-synaptic
(4) Cerebrum to mid brain
membrane
[Page 17]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
159. All of the following centres are situated in cerebral (3) Motivation
cortex except (4) Gastric secretions
(1) Sensory areas 165. Cardiovascular reflexes are under the control of
(2) Motor areas (1) Medulla oblongata (2) Pons
(3) Association areas (3) Cerebrum (4) Cerebellum
(4) Major coordinating centre for sensory and 166. Which part of our CNS acts as a master clock?
motor signaling
(1) Pituitary gland
160. Which part of hindbrain is not a part of brain stem?
(2) Pineal gland
(1) Cerebrum (2) Pons
(3) Cerebrum
(3) Midbrain (4) Cerebellum
(4) Hypothalamus
161. The area of cerebral cortex which is associated
167. Immediate and involuntary response to a
with complex functions like intersensory
peripheral nervous stimulation with the help of
associations, memory and communication is
CNS without conscious effort is called
(1) Sensory area
(1) Peripheral response
(2) Motor area
(2) Voluntary action
(3) Association Area
(3) Reflex action
(4) Thermoregulatory area
(4) Rhythm of the body
162. Cerebrum wraps around a structure of forebrain
168. Which of the following neuron is not present in
called
reflex arc of knee-jerk reflex?
(1) Corpus callosum
(1) Excitatory neuron (2) Receptor neuron
(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Effector neuron (4) Interneuron
(3) Thalamus
169. Read the following statements A and B and
(4) Pons choose the correct option
163. Group of neurosecretory cells present in (A) Changes in the environment are detected by
hypothalamus are mainly responsible for sensory organs
(1) Control of body temperature (B) Sensory organs send appropriate signals to
(2) Secretion of hormones CNS where all inputs are processed and
(3) Urge of eating and drinking analysed
(4) Swallowing (1) Only Statement A is correct
164. Limbic system does not regulates (2) Only statement B is incorrect
(1) Sexual behaviour (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Expression of emotional reactions (4) Both statements A and B are correct
[Page 18]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
170. Choose the incorrect statement from the given (1) Yellow spot (2) Blind spot
below statements (3) Fovea (4) Macula
(1) Mucus coated olfactory epithelium consists of
175. Read the following statements w.r.t. mechanism
three kinds of cells
of vision and choose the option which correctly
(2) Sensory neurons of the olfactory epithelium
represents true and false statements
terminates into extensions of brain’s limbic
system A. Ultraviolet rays focussed on the retina
(3) The chemical senses of taste and smell are generate impulses in photoreceptor cells
functionally dissimilar and interrelated B. Changes in structure of retinal causes

(4) The tongue detects tastes through taste buds, membrane permeability changes in rods and
containing gustatory receptors. cones
171. Thick anterior part of choroid is called
C. Signal produced in rods and cones generates
(1) Cornea (2) Ciliary body
action potential in ganglionic cells through the
(3) Lens (4) Pupil
bipolar cells.
172. Select the mismatch w.r.t. structure of human eye
D. Image formed on the retina is recognised by
(1) Aqueous chamber – space between
visual cortex based on earlier memory and
cornea and lens
experience
(2) Vitreous chamber – space between lens
and retina A B C D
(3) Cornea – Anterior portion of 1. True False True False

iris
2. False False True True
(4) Choroid – Middle layer of eye,
3. False True False True
bluish in colour
4. True True True False
173. All of the following properties of rods and cones in
the given Column-I and Column-II differentiate 176. The middle ear contains three ossicles in chain
them correctly except like fashion in a order from inside to outside as
(1) Malleus, incus, stapes
(2) Incus, stapes, malleus
(3) Stapes, incus, malleus
(4) Incus, malleus, stapes
177. The eustachian tube helps in equalising the

pressure on either sides of the
(1) Ear drum
(2) Oval window
(3) Round window

174. Greatest power of resolution in human’s eye is
found in the region called (4) Bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinths
[Page 19]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
178. Perilymph is not found in 180. Read following statements carefully and choose
the option with all incorrect statements
(1) Scala vestibuli
(2) Scala tympani (a) The vestibular apparatus is located below the
cochlea
(3) Scala media
(b) The bony canals are suspended in the
(4) In between bony and membranous labyrinths
endolymph of membranous canals
179. All of the following structures have sensory hair
(c) Ear drum vibrates in response to the vibrations
cells except
in perilymph
(1) Macula
(d) The waves in the lymphs induce a ripples in
(2) Crista
the basilar membrane
(3) Organ of corti
(1) a and d (2) a, c and d
(4) Reissner’s membrane
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and c

[Page 20]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 03 (Answer Key)
1. (4) 46. (1) 91. (2) 136. (4)
2. (1) 47. (2) 92. (1) 137. (4)
3. (4) 48. (3) 93. (1) 138. (4)
4. (4) 49. (3) 94. (4) 139. (1)
5. (1) 50. (3) 95. (3) 140. (3)
6. (1) 51. (2) 96. (4) 141. (4)
7. (3) 52. (2) 97. (1) 142. (4)
8. (4) 53. (2) 98. (2) 143. (3)
9. (2) 54. (4) 99. (3) 144. (4)
10. (3) 55. (3) 100. (2) 145. (1)
11. (1) 56. (2) 101. (1) 146. (2)
12. (3) 57. (3) 102. (4) 147. (3)
13. (4) 58. (4) 103. (2) 148. (2)
14. (2) 59. (1) 104. (1) 149. (3)
15. (2) 60. (2) 105. (3) 150. (1)
16. (2) 61. (4) 106. (2) 151. (4)
17. (2) 62. (3) 107. (3) 152. (4)
18. (1) 63. (3) 108. (3) 153. (3)
19. (3) 64. (4) 109. (2) 154. (1)
20. (3) 65. (3) 110. (4) 155. (1)
21. (2) 66. (4) 111. (2) 156. (2)
22. (3) 67. (2) 112. (3) 157. (2)
23. (3) 68. (1) 113. (1) 158. (1)
24. (3) 69. (2) 114. (1) 159. (4)
25. (2) 70. (1) 115. (1) 160. (4)
26. (1) 71. (3) 116. (4) 161. (3)
27. (3) 72. (2) 117. (3) 162. (3)
28. (4) 73. (2) 118. (3) 163. (2)
29. (4) 74. (4) 119. (2) 164. (4)
30. (3) 75. (3) 120. (2) 165. (1)
31. (1) 76. (4) 121. (3) 166. (4)
32. (3) 77. (2) 122. (4) 167. (3)
33. (2) 78. (4) 123. (1) 168. (4)
34. (2) 79. (2) 124. (4) 169. (4)
35. (4) 80. (3) 125. (2) 170. (3)
36. (4) 81. (2) 126. (1) 171. (2)
37. (4) 82. (3) 127. (2) 172. (3)
38. (4) 83. (1) 128. (3) 173. (4)
39. (4) 84. (1) 129. (1) 174. (3)
40. (4) 85. (1) 130. (3) 175. (2)
41. (4) 86. (4) 131. (2) 176. (3)
42. (3) 87. (1) 132. (4) 177. (1)
43. (2) 88. (1) 133. (4) 178. (3)
44. (1) 89. (1) 134. (2) 179. (4)
45. (1) 90. (3) 135. (1) 180. (4)
[Page 21]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
NCERT BOOSTER TEST Series

Test-03
Solutions
1. Answer (4) 8. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference-XI (Part-I), System of NCERT Reference:-XI(Part-I), System of
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -146 Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-152
NCERT Reference-XI (Part-I), System of NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), System of
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-148 Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -164
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-178 Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-179
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -151 Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -179
[Page 22]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), System of NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,

Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -179 Page No.-196
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), System of NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,

Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-179 Page No.-201
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), System of
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No. -179
Page No.-201
18. Answer (1)
29. Answer (4)
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-179
Page No.-202
19. Answer (3)
30. Answer (3)
Particles and Rotational Motion, Page No.-176
Page No.-200
20. Answer (3)
31. Answer (1)
Particles and Rotational Motion Page No.-176 NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,
21. Answer (2) Page No.-201
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation, 32. Answer (3)

Page No.-185
33. Answer (2)
Page No.-200
23. Answer (3)
Page No.-201
34. Answer (2)
Page No.-200
24. Answer (3) NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,

Page No.-201
Page No.-200 35. Answer (4)
25. Answer (2) NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation,

NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-I), Gravitation, Page No.-202
Page No.-187
[Page 23]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,

Properties of Solid, Page No.-242 Page No.-196
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,
Properties of Solid, Page No.-236 Page No.-196
48. Answer (3)

38. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical
Page No.-199
Properties of Solid, Page No.-242
49. Answer (3)
39. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical Page No.- 200
Properties of Solid, Page No.-239 50. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4) NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical Page No.- 202
Properties of Solid, Page No.-235 51. Answer (2)

Page No.- 203
52. Answer (2)
42. Answer (3)
Page No.-203
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical 53. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference:-XI (Part-II), Mechanical 54. Answer (4)

Properties of Solid, Page No.-244 NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,
Page No.-205
44. Answer (1)
55. Answer (3)
Page No.-206
45. Answer (1)
56. Answer (2)
Page No.-208
[Page 24]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1, NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,

Page No.-209 Page No.-222

Page No.-211
Page No.-223
59. Answer (1)
70. Answer (1)
Page No.-211 NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,
Page No.-225
60. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1, 71. Answer (3)
Page No.-214 NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1,

NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1, 72. Answer (2)

Page No.-214
62. Answer (3)
Page No.-226
73. Answer (2)
Page No.-214

Page No.-227
Page No.-217 74. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference : Equilibrium, XI part-1, Page No.-229
Page No.-224
75. Answer (3)
65. Answer (3)
Page No.-230
Page No.-218
76. Answer (4)
66. Answer (4)


[Page 25]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI

part-2, Page No.-269 part-2, Page No.-270
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI
part-2, Page No.-266 part-2, Page No.-273
90. Answer (3)

80. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI
part-2, Page No.-268
91. Answer (2)
81. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
Page No. 162
92. Answer (1)
82. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI Page No. 163
part-2, Page No.-273 93. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1) NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)

Page No. 163
94. Answer (4)
84. Answer (1)
Page No. 163
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI 95. Answer (3)
part-2, Page No.-277 NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
85. Answer (1) Page No. 163
96. Answer (4)
part-2, Page No.-283 NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
Page No. 163
86. Answer (4)
97. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
part-2, Page No.-280 Page No. 163
NCERT Reference : Redox reaction, XI NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)

part-2, Page No.-272 Page No. 163
[Page 26]
NBTS-03 CoE-XII

Page No. 164
Page No. 167
100. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI) 112. Answer (3)
Page No. 164
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI) Page No. 168
Page No. 164

113. Answer (1)
102. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI) NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
Page No. 164 Page No. 167
103. Answer (2)
114. Answer (1)
Page No. 164 NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI)
104. Answer (1) Page No. 168
115. Answer (1)
Page No. 165
Page No. 165
106. Answer (2) 116. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI) Page

No. 165-166
Page No. 169
107. Answer (3)
Page No. 166
108. Answer (3)
Page No. 169
Page No. 166 118. Answer (3)
109. Answer (2)

Page No. 166
119. Answer (2)
110. Answer (4)
Page No. 170
Page No. 166
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NBTS-03 CoE-XII
120. Answer (2) 130. Answer (3)

121. Answer (3) 131. Answer (2)

122. Answer (4) 132. Answer (4)

123. Answer (1) 133. Answer (4)

124. Answer (4) 134. Answer (2)
125. Answer (2) 135. Answer (1)

Page No. 185
Page No. 177
136. Answer (4)
126. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference:Page No.-315
127. Answer (2) NCERT Reference:Page No.- 315
138. Answer (4)

Page No. 178 NCERT Reference:Page No.- 316
128. Answer (3) 139. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference: (Biology-Class XI) NCERT Reference:Page No.-316

129. Answer (1) NCERT Reference:Page No.-316

Page No. 180
NCERT Reference:Page No.-316
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NCERT Reference:Page No.-317 157. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference:Page No.- 317 160. Answer (4)
[Page 29]
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171. Answer (2) 176. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference:Page No.-323 NCERT Reference:Page No.-325
172. Answer (3) 177. Answer (1)
173. Answer (4) 178. Answer (3)
174. Answer (3) 179. Answer (4)
175. Answer (2) 180. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference:Page No.-324, 325 NCERT Reference:Page No.-327
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07/11/2020 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Topics covered in various subjects:

Botany : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants

Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination

Choose the correct answer:

(1) ˆi – ˆj  2Kˆ (2) 2iˆ  ˆj – 2kˆ

(3) – ˆj  2kˆ (4) ˆj  2kˆ

(4) Gravitational force is small at that location in (4) All of these

 1 1 (1) 50 N (2) 100 N

35. Two spheres, each of mass 10 kg and radius

32. If potential energy is assumed to be zero at

(4) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is

33. The energy required to launch an orbiting (2) Liquids only

(4) Zero (3) 6 × 108 Nm–2 (4) 8 × 106 Nm–2

(1) 3.12 × 10–8 (2) 1.35 × 10–5

(3) 2.21 × 10–6 (4) 5.25 × 10–7

44. A solid copper cube of an edge 20 cm is subjected

(3) Copper (4) Steel (1) 8 × 10–7 m3 (2) 5 × 10–7 m3

41. In case of bending of a beam, depression  (3) 5 × 10–8 m3 (4) 6 × 10–8 m3

(3) 22 × 106 Pa (4) 20 × 106 Pa

50. KP is greater than KC for the reaction

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

(3) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)

(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)

(2) 51. If initially 3M each of CO and H2O are present

CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2(g) + H2(g) is

(3) (1) 1 M (2) 2 M

52. Heterogeneous equilibrium among the following

(4) (1) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

3 (2) Both reactants and products are present at

(1) If QC < KC, net reaction goes from left to right

(1) G° = G + RT ln Q (2) G = G° + RT ln (1) H3O+ (2) HCl

(3) Increasing volume (4) Increasing (1) H– (2) NH2–

pressure (3) O2– (4) H2O

60. Conjugate base of H2PO4– is x

(1) K a1 < Ka2 < Ka3 (2) K a1  K a2  K a3 (1) 0.1 (2) 1

(1) NO3– (2) Cl– substance

(3) Loss of electron(s) by any species

(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) Cu rod dipped in silver nitrate solution

(3) I– (4) S2O32– (3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O

K+/K = –2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V 89. Fractional oxidation number is observed in

Hg2+/Hg = 0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V (1) Na2S4O6 (2) CH3COOH

(1) K (2) Mg 90. Oxidation number of hydrogen in CaH2 is

(3) Ag (4) Hg (1) 0 (2) +1

86. Oxidation number of P in H4P2O7 is (3) –1 (4) –2

different phases of a cell is acceptable? material

(2) Duplication of centrosome

(3) Microtubule (4) Axoneme 115. Metaphase I is different from metaphase II as in

(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II (4) Continuous growth of plant body

get attached to the kinetochores of a (1) Transfusion (2) Diffusion

(2) Cell repair (4) Eight same type

(b) Simple diffusion and (ii).

(c) Active transport (1) (i) – Out of ; (ii) – Wall pressure

(2) Phloem can transport both carbohydrates

(3) The translocation of water in xylem is

(4) Phloem is responsible for translocation of

(3) Respiratory system Choose the option which represents A, B, C, D

137. Which of the following functions is not included in

(1) Transmission of nerve impulse