Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I

Test Date: 7/12/2020
Phase-I
A
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 264
for JEE (Advanced)-2021
Test –9 (Paper - 1)_Actual Pattern-2015
Topics covered:
Physics : Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements &
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure, States of Matter
Mathematics : Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial
Theorem
General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and
no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No., Centre
Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to the
invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 3
sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is
no negative mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct. Each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted and –2 marks for wrong
answer.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I
and Column II). Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q),
(R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column
I may match with one or more entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I carries +2 marks for
correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Aakash Educational Services Limited – Registered Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [1]
Test-9_Paper-1_(Code-A) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I
PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
6, 0 and 9 in OMR respectively.
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1. A projectile is projected to hit a target whose co-ordinates are (4, 3), where point of projection is origin
and y-axis is along vertical. If the minimum velocity of projection is 2g  , then the value of  is
2. A block of mass m = 2 kg is attached with a spring in its natural length of spring constant (k = 5 N/m).
Now point A is pulled with uniform acceleration. Find the maximum elongation in the spring (in m).
A
m a = 10 ms–2
1
3. The diagram shows the variation of (where v is velocity of the particle) with respect to time. At time
v
t = 3 s, find magnitude of acceleration (in m/s2).
1
(s/m)
v
1
3
45º
3s t (s)
4. A man is coming down an incline of angle 30°. When he walks with speed 2 3 m/s, he has to keep his
umbrella vertical to protect himself from rain. The actual speed of rain is 5 m/s. If angle with vertical he

should keep his umbrella when he is at rest so that he does not get drenched is °, then value of is
37
5. A block of mass 25 kg rests on a horizontal floor ( = 0.2). It is attached by a 5 m long horizontal rope to a
peg fixed on floor. The block is imparted along the ground with an initial tangential velocity of 10 m/s so that it
moves in a circle around the peg. Find the time (in sec) when tension in the rope becomes zero (g = 10 m/s2)
1
6. A chain of mass/length  and length equal to of circumference of fixed smooth cylinder of radius r, is
4
released from rest in the situation shown. End B of the chain is fastened at the top of cylinder. The chain
eventually comes to rest. One-tenth of loss in energy (in J) of the system is
 4 2
    – 2 units, r  2 m, g  10 m/s 
 
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2021_PHASE-I Test-9_Paper-1_(Code-A)
7. A smooth groove is made in an inclined plane. A particle (which fits in the groove) is released from rest.
The time taken by particle (in sec) to reach the bottom of groove is
8. A ball is moving along the hyperbolic path xy = 9 with constant speed of 8 10 m/s . Velocity of particle
(in m/s) along x-direction when it at x  3, is
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
9. Potential energy U of a particle as a function of r is as shown. If a particle of mass m1 and mechanical

energy E1, starting from r >> a move towards the origin, then
U(r) m1
E1
b c a
r
O
Umin
(A) There is only one turning point of the particle
(B) Speed of the particle starts to increase at r = a and reaches its maximum at r = c
(C) Speed of the particle at r = a and r = b are equal
(D) The particle gets bounded if it elastically collides with a stationary particle of mass m2 (m2  m1) at
r = c imparting a momentum greater than 2m2E1 to m2
1
10. The (v : velocity) versus displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure. The particle is moving
v
in a straight line along positive x-axis, then
(A) Time taken to go from A to B is 6 s
(B) Time taken to go from A to B is 8 s
1
(C) Acceleration of particle at A is  m/s2 
 8 
1
(D) Acceleration of particle at A is  
m/s2 
 10 
11. A homogeneous bar of mass m and length L is released from rest on a fixed inclined plane of inclination
 as shown in figure. Upper part of the plane (darker region) is having friction with friction coefficient
being  and lower part of the plane is smooth. At t = 0, end A of the rod just starts from the interface and
at any other general time ‘t’ let this end travels a distance ‘x’ along the plane. Then
x
(A) Acceleration of the rod at any general time t as a function of x is a( x )  g  sin    cos   
cos  
 L 
mg
(B) Tension at the interface as a function of x is T ( x )  x  L  x  cos 
2L2
mg
(C) Tension at the interface as a function of x is T ( x )  x  L  x  cos 
L2
(D) Maximum tensile force that will appear in the bar (at any instant and at any point in the bar) in due
mg cos 
course of its motion is T(max) 
4
12. One end of the rope is fixed to a vertical wall and other is pulled by a horizontal force of 20 N. The shape
of the rope is as shown. Evaluate correct statements.
(A) Mass of the string is 3.5 kg
(B) Horizontal component of tension at P is 20 N
(C) Mass of the string is 2.5 kg
(D) Horizontal component of tension at P is 25 N
13. The figure shows system consisting of a block at rest on a smooth horizontal surface with a light relaxed
spring attached to it. Free end of the spring is now pulled by an external agent such that its velocity v
varies with time t as given by v  ct, k , m and c are spring constant, mass of the block and a positive
constant respectively. Choose the correct alternative(s).
2 mc
(A) Maximum extension in the spring equals
k
(B) Maximum acceleration of the block equals c
(C) Velocity of block is zero at the instant of maximum extension in the spring
(D) Velocity of block relative to free end of the spring is zero at the instant of maximum extension in the
spring
14. A smooth wire shaped as a parabola (which can be described by y = x2 when the wire is in x-y plane) is
rotating with angular speed  about y-axis as shown. A bead (of mass m) which can slide along the wire
is observed not to slide at the position (x0, y0) shown
(A)   g
(B)   2g
 
2
(C) Contact force between the bead and the wire is m g 2  2 x0
dv d | v |
(D) If v represents velocity of the bead and t represents time then 
dt dt
 g 
15. The ring shown in figure is given a constant horizontal acceleration  aH   . Maximum deflection of
 3
the string from the vertical is 0, then
(A) 0 = 30°
(B) 0 = 60°
(C) At maximum deflection, tension in string is equal to mg
2 mg
(D) At maximum deflection, tension in string is equal to
3
16. A swimmer crosses a river from point P and swims perpendicularly to the bank and reach point R in
20 minutes. If the swimmer heads at an angle  to line PQ, he reaches opposite end after 25 minutes
(A) Speed of swimmer in still water is 3 kmph (B) Speed of river is 1.8 kmph
(C)  = 37° (D)  = 53°
17. A ring of mass m is connected to a point mass 2m by an ideal string. Ring can slide over smooth
horizontal rod. System is released from the position shown in diagram. If a1 and a2 are the accelerations
along horizontal direction of ring and point mass 2m respectively immediately after they are released,
then
8g 4g
(A) a1  (B) a1 
19 19
4g 2g
(C) a2  (D) a2 
19 19
18. A ball of mass m is suspended from a bar of mass 2m with a light inextensible cord. The bar can slide on
a frictionless slope of inclination . The system is released from rest, then just after the release,
3g sin 
(A) Acceleration of bar with respect to ground is
(2  sin2 )
3g sin 
(B) Acceleration of bar with respect to ground is
(2  cos2 )
3 g sin  cos 
(C) Acceleration of ball with respect to bar is
(2  sin2 )
3 g sin2 
(D) Acceleration of ball with respect to bar is
(2  sin2 )
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
19. A block of mass m is placed over a wedge of mass m which is placed on a horizontal surface. Coefficient
of friction between surfaces is shown in diagram. Value of coefficient of friction between surfaces is given
in Column-I. Corresponding to entries in Column-I match the entries in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1
(A) 1  , 2  0 (P) Centre of mass does not move
3
(B) µ1 = 0, µ2 = 0 (Q) Centre of mass moves towards right
1
(C) 1  1, 2  (R) Centre of mass moves vertically downward
4 3
1
(D) 1  , 2  0 (S) Mechanical energy is conserved
2 3
(T) Mechanical energy is not conserved
20. Two particles A and B located at (4, 3) and (3, – 4) start moving towards origin with speed 4 m/s and
3 m/s respectively. The particles are closest to each other at t = t0. At this instant separation between
particles is I and x co-ordinate of particle A is x and its y co-ordinate is y. If all the quantities are in S.I
unit, then match the entries in Column-I with entries of Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) x (P) 5 2 sin8
(B) y (Q) 2 cos8
16 2
(C) t0 (R) 4 cos8
5
12 2
(D) I (S) 3 cos8
5
(T) Is less than corresponding co-ordinate of
particle B
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
21. How many of the following molecules are polar?
PCl5(g), SF6, BF3, XeF2, XeO3, Benzene, Aniline, ,
22. For an element of modern periodic table sum of group number and atomic number is 48. The total
number of p-electrons is equal to group number for this element. If the atomic number of element is Z,
Z
then the value of is
11
23. Consider the following interaction of atomic orbitals.
Out of the above combination

X = Number of non-bonding combinations.
Y = Number of combinations that produce only antibonding molecular orbital.
Z = Number of combinations that produce only bonding molecular orbital.
V = Number of combinations that produce bonding  molecular orbital.
W = Number of combinations that produce antibonding * molecular orbital.
The value of X + Y + Z + V2 + W is
24. Helium gas is present in a 100 L container at 27°C and collision frequency (z11) is x unit. At same
temperature, volume is reduced such that collision frequency becomes 4x unit. If the difference in volume
X
of helium gas in initial state and final state in litre (only magnitude) is X then the value of is
10
25. For a unielectronic species, the radial component of Schrodinger wave equation for ns orbital is given as:
3/2 –
 Z  r 
 ns 
1
 
81 3   a0 
 27 – 18  2 
2
e3  Here  


a0 
Then value of n is
26. A sample of hydrogen atoms has some atoms in the lowest energy level ‘A’ and some atoms in a
particular upper energy level ‘B’ and there are no atoms in any other energy level. Some of the atoms of
the gas makes transition to a higher energy level by absorbing monochromatic radiation of photons
having energy 2.55 eV. Subsequently, the atoms emit radiation of only six different photon energies.
Some of the emitted photons have energy 2.55 eV, some have energy more than 2.55 eV and some
have energy less than 2.55 eV. Then the principal quantum number of initially excited level ‘B’ is
_______.
27. How many of the following elements have first ionisation energy greater than that of sulphur?
Al, Si, N, O, F, P, Cl, Na, Ne
28. If number of bonding electrons in NO, NO +, N2 and CN– are a, b, c and d respectively, the value
a b c  d
of   is
 5 
SECTION - 2

29. 2.48 g of white phosphorus reacts with x g of O2(g) such that no reactant remains in reaction and only
P4O6 and P4O10 are formed. CaO is added to the mixture of P4O6 and P4O10 and only P4O10 reacts with
CaO to form calcium phosphate. 3.36 g of CaO is required to completely react with P 4O10. Select the
correct statement(s).
(A) Equal moles of P4O10 and P4O6 are formed
(B) Value of ‘x’ is 2.56 g
(C) Equal masses of P4O10 and P4O6 are formed
(D) If above mixture of P4O6 and P4O10 is oxidised such that all P4O6 is converted into P4O10 then 6.72 g
of CaO is required to convert all P4O10 into calcium phosphate
30. Consider the given diagram in which excited sample contains H-atoms in excited state while absorbing
sample contains H-atoms in ground state.
Select the correct statement(s).
(A) Experiment-1 is used for emission spectrum while experiment-2 is used for absorption spectrum
(B) In both the experiments, line spectrum is observed
(C) Spectrum of experiment-2 is photographic negative of spectrum of experiment-1
(D) Experiment-1 is used for absorption spectrum while experiments-2 is used for emission spectrum
31. Boyle’s temperature of any gas can be derived in the same way as that of van der Waal’s gas
 dZ 
 by using lim  0
 P0 dP 
A gas follows the equation :
RT a
P  , where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants. The Boyle temperature is determined by (assume P  0)
Vm  b TVm2
(A) a / Rb
(B) a / Rb
(C) a / Rb
(D) a / Rb
32. Consider the insulated container which has removable wall as depicted below
At 300 K, N2 in compartment A and O2 in compartment B is added and it is found that pressure of N 2 is

P1 while for O2 pressure is P2 and temperature is 300 K. At this temperature wall is removed and both
gases mixes (gases are non-reacting at this temperature). After mixing of gases, pressure of system
becomes (P1 – P2). If all gases are removed and wall is re-inserted and F2 in compartment A and Cl2 in
compartment B is filled at 300 K (Temperature of both compartments are same). Pressure of F2 in
compartment A is P1 while in B pressure is P2. Now wall is removed such that gases mix and form
CIFn(g). All F2 and Cl2 completely react and only ClF n is present in container at 300 K with pressure P3.
On the basis of this information select the correct statement(s). [Assume all gases are ideal]
(A) Value of n is 3
(B) Mole of N2 is 3 times mol of O2
(C) Mol of ClFn formed is 2 times the mole of O2
(D) P3 is equal to P2
33. 1 L container has 1 mol of monoatomic ideal gas at 27°C. The R.M.S speed, most probable speed and
most probable kinetic energy are x m/s, y m/s and z J respectively. If temperature is increased to T 1 K but
pressure is maintained constant then value of R.M.S speed, most probable speed, most probable kinetic
energy become 2x m/s, y m/s and zJ respectively. If volume of container is fixed and n1 moles of gas is
expelled then select the correct statement(s).
(A) Value of n1 and T1 are 3/4 and 1200 respectively
(B) y = 2y
(C) z = 2z
(D) y> x
34. Among the following false statement(s) is/are
(A) First line of Balmer series belongs to visible region for all single electron system
(B) When magnetic field is applied along the x-axis, degeneracy of orbitals is never affected
(C) If hydrogen gas is filled in discharge tube then on the applying high voltage, the discharge tube
consists more than one type of anodic particles
(D) The extra stability of half filled orbitals can be justified by the Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity
35. Zn metal reacted with certain volume of 0.5 M NaOH, H 2 gas produced is made to react with sufficient
amount of N2 to give 33.6 L NH3 gas at 1 atm and 0°C. If yield is 75% for the formation of NH3, select the
correct statement(s).
(A) 12 L of NaOH required for reaction
(B) 3 moles of hydrogen is produced
(C) 36 L of H2 gas is produced at 1 atm & 0°C
(D) Maximum 44.8 L of NH3 would be produced, if yield is 100%
36. Consider the shape of PCl3F2 and identify the correct statement(s).
(A) There is one fluorine atom per face

(B) There are two chlorine atoms per face
(C) Only one face contain 3 Cl atoms
(D) No face contain two atoms of F
37. Consider the % ionic character in HF molecule and % covalent character in HCl molecule and choose
the correct statements. [Electronegativity on Pauling’s scale are F = 4.0, H = 2.1, Cl = 2.5]
(A) HF is 43% ionic in nature (B) HCl is almost 7% ionic in nature
% Ionic character in HF
(C)  0.46 (D) HF is 50% ionic in nature
% Covalent character in HCl
38. A tank filled with CNG has a volume of 1000 L, pressure of 25 atm at temperature 300 K. If this gas is
used to fill smaller cylinders of 20 L at pressure 2 atm at same temperature. How many cylinders
(maximum) can be filled completely?
(A) 575 (B) 626
(C) 845 (D) 725
SECTION - 3
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
39. Match the conditions of matrix from Column-I with Column-II, for ideal gas
Column-I Column-II
1
(A) versus P at constant T and n (P)
V2
1
(B) V versus at constant P and n (Q)
T
(C) PT versus T2 at constant V and n (R)
(D) V versus 1 at constant T and n (S)

2
P
(T)
40. Match Column I with Column II

Column-I Column-II
(A) 1s (P) Gerade
(B) 2px (Q) Ungerade
(C) *2px (R)
+ –
(D) *2pz (S)
– +
(T) –
PART – III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
41. The sum of the values of x satisfying the equation 233x–2 + 211x+2 = 222x+1 + 1 is S then, 11S equals
42. If |z1| = 2, |z2| = 4, |z3| = 7 and |49 z1z2 + 16 z3z1 + 4 z2z3| = 224, then value of |z1 + z2 + z3| will be
43. If  is the number of 7 letter words formed by using all the letters of the word ‘AGAIN’ such that all three
vowels are taken in such a way that no two vowels are together and only consonants can be repeated as

many times as we need, then is
210
44. If |z| = min{|z – 1|, |z + 1|}, then the value of z  z is
4 3 2 ab
45. If the equation x – 4x + ax + bx + 1 = 0 has four positive roots, then the value of   is equal to
 10 
46. Consider all 6-digit numbers of the form abcabc where a, b and c are not necessarily distinct. If the
number of all such 6-digit numbers that are divisible by 7 is n, then the sum of digits of n is
3 2
47. If the equation x + 2x + x + 6 = 0 has only one real root , then |[]| is equal to (where [] represents the
greatest integer function)
48. The largest integral value of a for which all the roots of the equation (a – 1)(x2 + x + 1)2 = (a + 1) (1 + x2 +
x4) are imaginary, is
SECTION - 2
49. Let  and  be the roots of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0; (a, b, c R, a  0), then one of the roots of
equation a3x2 + abcx + c3 = 0 is
(A) 2 +  (B)  2
(C) 2 (D)  + 2
50. The possible value(s) of p for which atleast one root of equation x4 – 8x3 + 22x2 – 24x + p = 0 is of
multiplicity 2, is
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 17 (D) 26
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
100
(A) The coefficient of x2 in the expansion of  100 Cr ( x  3)100r  4r is equal to 5050
r 0
100
(B) The coefficient of x2 in the expansion of  100Cr ( x  3)100r  4r is equal to 4950
r 0
n n 1
Ck
(C) If Ak  n
Ck  Ck 1
n
and 3  Ak  4 , then n is equal to 64
k 0
n n 1
Ck
(D) If Ak  n
Ck  nCk 1
and 3  Ak  4 , then n is equal to 128
k 0
52. If a complex number z satisfies the equations z  3  3i  1, (z2  6z  6)  i (24  8z)  1 and |z| = 5,
where i  –1 , then
(A) z can lie in 2nd quadrant (B) There are at least two distinct values of z
(C) There are exactly two distinct values of z (D) There is exactly one value of z
4 4
53. Imaginary roots of the equation (x + 3) + (x + 5) = 16 are
(A) 3  11 i (B) 4  7 i
(C) 3  11 i (D) 4  7 i
54. If the number of numbers greater than 106 formed with digits 0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 is  then
(A) Number of positive divisors of 10 is 48
(B) Number of positive divisors of 10 is 45
(C) Number of prime divisors of 10 is 3
(D) Sum of digits of  is 10
55. If (1 + x + 2x2)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ... + a40x40 where a0, a1, ..., a40 are real numbers then the value of
(A) a0 + a2 + a4 + ... + a40 = 239 + 219
(B) a1 + a3 + a5 + ... + a39 = 239 + 220
(C) a1 + a3 + a5 + ... + a39 = 239 – 219
(D) a0 + a2 + a4 + ... + a38 = 240 + 219
56. The number of different selections of 5 letters which can be made from 5A’s, 4B’s, 3C’s, 2D’s and 1E is
equal to N then
(A) N + 1 is a multiple of 9
(B) N – 1 is a multiple of 10
(C) Sum of digits of N is 6
(D) N + 10 is a perfect square
57. If  is a cube root of unity and   1, then
 16  
(A) cos   (K  )(K   )   1
2
 K 1 1648 
 10  
(B) sin   (K  )(K   ) 0
2
 K 1 450 
 15 2 
(C) tan   (K  )(K   )    1
 K 1 4
 15 2 
(D) cot   (K  )(K   )   1
 K 1 4
58. If  1 be any nth root of unity, then
n
(A) 1 + 2 + 32 + 43 + ... upto n terms =
1 
2n
(B)  + 32 + 53 + 74 + ... upto n terms =
1 
( 1)n 1
(C) 1 – 2 + 32 – 43 + ... upto n terms =
1 
( 1)n 1n
(D)  – 32 + 53 – 74 + ... upto n terms =
1 
SECTION - 3
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
59. Match the Column

Column-I Column-II
(A) If 1, 2, 3, 4 5 are the roots of equation (P) 0
z5 = 1 such that 1  2  3  4  5  0 ,
k k k k k
then k may be equal to

(B) Number of complex numbers satisfying (Q) 5
z20 = 1 and z30 = 1 simultaneously is

(C) Number of complex numbers z such that (R) 8

z19 = 1 and is   arg z  
2
(D) If  is the product of real parts of complex (S) 10
numbers satisfying z14 = 1 Re(z) > 0 & Im(z) > 0

1
(then equals)

(T) 16
60. Match the entries in Column I with Column II
Column-I Column-II
n
 1 
(A) In the expansion of  x 3  2  , sum of (P) 7
 x 
the coefficient of x5 and x10 is 0, then n is

(B) The number of distinct terms in the expansion (Q) 15
of (x1 + x2 + x3 + x4)3 is
(C) If Tn is the numerically greatest term in the (R) 20
1
expansion of (3 + 2x)50, where x = , then n is
5
(D) If the last term in the binomial expansion of (S) A multiple of 5

n
 13 1 
log 8
 1 
3
 2   is  53  then n is
 2 3 
(T) A root of the equation x3 – 17x2 + 76x – 60 = 0


Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I

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Final Test Series (Online) JEE (Advanced) - 2021: Phase-I

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Test Date: 7/12/2020

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 264

for JEE (Advanced)-2021

Test –9 (Paper - 1)_Actual Pattern-2015

9. Potential energy U of a particle as a function of r is as shown. If a particle of mass m1 and mechanical

(A) There is only one turning point of the particle

(C) Speed of the particle at r = a and r = b are equal

(A) Time taken to go from A to B is 6 s

(B) Time taken to go from A to B is 8 s

(A) Mass of the string is 3.5 kg

(B) Horizontal component of tension at P is 20 N

(C) Mass of the string is 2.5 kg

(D) Horizontal component of tension at P is 25 N

(B) Maximum acceleration of the block equals c

(C) At maximum deflection, tension in string is equal to mg

(C)  = 37° (D)  = 53°

(A) x (P) 5 2 sin8

(B) y (Q) 2 cos8

21. How many of the following molecules are polar?

PCl5(g), SF6, BF3, XeF2, XeO3, Benzene, Aniline, ,

Out of the above combination

One or More Options Correct Type

(A) Equal moles of P4O10 and P4O6 are formed

(B) Value of ‘x’ is 2.56 g

(C) Equal masses of P4O10 and P4O6 are formed

Select the correct statement(s).

(B) In both the experiments, line spectrum is observed

(C) Spectrum of experiment-2 is photographic negative of spectrum of experiment-1

A gas follows the equation :

At 300 K, N2 in compartment A and O2 in compartment B is added and it is found that pressure of N 2 is

(D) Maximum 44.8 L of NH3 would be produced, if yield is 100%

(A) There is one fluorine atom per face

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(C) PT versus T2 at constant V and n (R)

(D) V versus 1 at constant T and n (S)

40. Match Column I with Column II

(C) *2px (R)

PART – III : MATHEMATICS

44. If |z| = min{|z – 1|, |z + 1|}, then the value of z  z is

(C) Sum of digits of N is 6

(D) N + 10 is a perfect square

57. If  is a cube root of unity and   1, then

58. If  1 be any nth root of unity, then

59. Match the Column

then k may be equal to

z20 = 1 and z30 = 1 simultaneously is

numbers satisfying z14 = 1 Re(z) > 0 & Im(z) > 0

the coefficient of x5 and x10 is 0, then n is

(D) If the last term in the binomial expansion of (S) A multiple of 5

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