Parth Momaya

Q 1 A) Choose the correct option.

1) A ……. Is necessary to change the speed as well as the direction of motion of an
object.
a) force b) inertia c) momentum d) motion
2) The orbit of a planet revolving around a star is ……
a) circular b) linear c) towards the focal point d) elliptical
3) The square of its period of revolution around the sun is directly proportional to
the……….. of the mean distance of a planet from the sun.
a) square b) square root c) cube d) cube root
4) The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportional to the product
ofthe masses of those bodies and is ____ of the distance between them.
a) inversely proportional to the square
b) directly proportional to the square
c) inversely proportional to the cube
d) inversely proportional to the square root
5) The value of universal gravitational constant (G) in SI unit is…………
a) 6.673× 10-11 Nm2/ kg2 b) 6.673× 1011 Nm/ kg
c) 9.673 × 10-11 Nm/ kg d) 9.673 × 10-11 Nm2/ kg2
6) The force is much weaker than other forces in nature.
a) gravitational b) electromagnetic c) nuclear force d) inter molecular
7) The value of gravitational acceleration (g) is ………..
a) highest at the poles
b) highest at the equator
c) same everywhere on the surface of the earth
d) lowest at the poles
8) The value of gravitational acceleration(g) is at the equator.
a) 9.78 m/s2 b) 9.832 m/s2 c) 9.8 m/s2 d) 6.67 m/s2
9) The free fall of an object is possible only in…….
a) air b) vacuum c) on the surface of earth d) None of these
10) The weight of any object on the moon is nearly of the weight of the earth.
a) 1/6 b) 1/8 c) ½ d) 2/6
11) A person weighs 60N on earth. His weight on the moon will
be……
a) 360N b) 60N c) 6N d) 10N
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12) Dobereiner laid down the…..rule.

a) periodic b)modern periodic c) triads d)octaves
13) Newlands’ Law of Octaves is applicable upto…..
a) oxygen b) calcium c) cobalt d) potassium
14) X and Y are two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands’s Law of
Octaves. The minimum and maximum number of elements in between X and Y
respectively are……
a) 6 and 8 b) 7 and 15 c) 8 and 14 d) 6 and 13
15)At the time of Mendeleev …..elements were
known.
a) 56 b) 65 c) 63 d) 118
16) In Mendeleev’s periodic table eka- silicon was later named as……..
a) Scandium b) Gallium c) Germanium d) Thorium
17) In Modern Periodic Table the number of columns and periods are respectively
…….and …….
a) 16,7 b) 6,16 c) 18,7 d)18,6
18) Is the outermost shell for elements of period 2.
a) K b) L c) M d) N
19) The groups 1 and 2 constitute the_____block.
a) s b) p c) d d) d
20) Which pair of atomic numbers represents elements in the same group ?
a) 11,19 b) 6,12 c) 4,16 d) 8,17
21) which among the following elements would lose an electron easily ?
a) Mg b) Na c) Al d) Cl
22) Which among the following is the largest element?
a) Na b)Mg c) K d)Ca
23) Arrange the following elements in order of their decreasing metallic character.
Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al
a) Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na b) Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl
c) Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si d) Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg
24) Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the
Modern periodic table
a) Atomic radius b) Metallic character c) Valency d) Number of shells
25) On moving from left to right in a periodic table, the size of the atom…….
a) increases b) decreases c) decreases first and then increases d) does not
change
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26) Which of the following statements about the Modern periodic table is correct ?
a) 18 horizontal rows are known as Periods.
b) 7 vertical columns are known as Periods.
c) 18 vertical columns are known as groups.
d) 7 horizontal rows are known as Periods.
27) The d-block elements are called as………elements
a) Transition b) Metalloid c) Normal d) Iner transition
28)The size of an atom is indicated by its……..
a) atomic number b) Atomic radius c) number of shells d) atomic
mass
29)___is the distance between the nucleus of the atom and its outermost shell.
a) Atomic radius b) Atomic diameter c) atomic mass d) atomic size
30)Atomic radius is expressed in the unit …..
a) nanometer b) picometer c) micrometer d) millimeter
31) The tendency of an element to form cation is the character of that element.
a) non metallic b) basic c) metallic d) acidic
32)………… is in liquid form in the halogen family.
a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Bromine d) Iodine
33) While going from top to bottom in a group the atomic radius………
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) No change occurs
34) The tendency of an element to form anion is the character of that element.
a) non metallic b) basic c) metallic d) acidic
35)The elements from the zero group are called…..
a) alkali metals b) alkaline earth metals c) halogen d) noble gases
36)Writing a chemical reaction in brief by using chemical formulae is called as…….
a) chemical change b) chemical symbol
c) chemical equation d) chemical reaction
37) When the positive charge on an ion increases or the negative charge on them decreases it is
called as…………..
a) reduction b) corrosion c) oxidation d) decomposition
38) The chemical reaction in which two or more products are formed from a singlereactant is
called____reaction.
a) decomposition b) combination
c) displacement d) double displacement
39) In the chemical equation the____are written on the left hand side .
a) products b) reactants c) element d) catalyst
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40) Aqueous solution of ZnSO4 is added into the aqueous solution of BaCl2 , this is theexample of ……reaction.
a) displacement b) double displacement c) redox d) reduction.
41)The unit of electrical power is ….
a) Volt b) Watt c) Joul d) Ampere
42) The ‘live’ and the ‘neutral’ wires have potential difference of ……a) 110 V b)
202V c) 201 V d) 220 V
43) In an electric bulb coil of____metal is used.
a) copper b) Tungsten c) aluminium d) iron
44) The electricity bill specifies the usage in ………..
a) kilowatt b) Joule c) Volt d) Unit
45) The frequency of AC is____Hz
a) 20Hz b) 50Hz c) 25Hz d)75Hz
46) These days when current in the circuit suddenly increases switches are used.
a) MCA b) MCC c) MCD d) MCB
47) A coil of an alloy is used in electric heater cooker as a resistor.
a) Stainless steel b) Nichrome c) Copper d) Bronze
48) The right hand thumb rule is also called ___ rule.
a) Newton’s law of motion b) Newland’s law of Octave
c) Mendeleev’s periodic law d) Maxwell’s cork- screw
49) ____is used for electrical measurements.
a) Thermometer b) Galvanometer c) Voltmeter d) Electric meter 50)Which of
the following scientist invented the rule of electromagnetic induction?
a) Newton b) Kepler c) Mendeleev d) Michael Faraday
51) Which of the following substance contracts on heating?
a)Lukewarm water b) Ice c) Iron d) Mercury
51) If pressure increases the melting point of a substance ………..
a) does not change b) decreases c) increases d) remains constant
52) The vapor content in the air is measured by ……….
a) relative humidity b) dew point c) absolute humidity d) none of these
54)Humid and dry nature of air depends on the………
a) amount of vapor in the air b) amount of vapor to make the air saturated
c) temperature of the air d) volume of the air
55) Vapors in air condenses to form……..
a) fog b) snowfall c) rainfall d) b and c
56) When the temperature of water decreases below 4 0C it’s volume…..
a) decreases b) increases c) remains same d) none of these
57) In a region with a cold climate the aquatic animals can survive at 40C, because……..
a) Ice floating on water is insulator
b) the heat from water cannot transfer to the atmosphere
c) anomalous behavior of water
d) all the above
58) From the options given below the specific heat of ___is maximum.
a) copper b) silver c) iron d) mercury
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59) Ice-ball is prepared from shredded ice again. This is the example of ……
a) melting b) condensation c) regelation d) freezing
60) The SI unit of specific heat is …………….
a) Kcal b) Cal c) Cal/g0c d) J/Kg0c
61) ___apparatus is used to study the anomalous behavior of water.
a) calorimeter b) Joule's apparatus c) Hope’s apparatus d) Thermos
flask
62) …………….heat is necessary to raise 1 Kg of water from 14.50 c to 15.50 C.
a) 4180 joule b)1 KJoul c) calorie d) 4180 calorie

63) Due to _____ pencil looks bent in water in given experiement.

a) refraction of light
b) dispersion of light
c) internal reflection of light
d)reflection of light
64) In the following diagram if ∠ i =40, then ∠ e = ?

a) 50 b) 40 c) 60 d) 90

65) A ray of light strikes the glass slab at an angle 400 with the surface of the slab. Thenthe
angle of incidence will be___ 0

a) 50 b) 40 c) 60 d) 90
66) We see the sun even after it goes below the horizon, because…..
a) refraction of light b) dispersion of light
c) partial reflection of light d)
reflection of light
67)…………this is the unit of refractive index.
a) cm b) m c) degree d) refractive index has no unit
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68) n =____ this law is also called as Snell’s law.

69) Lights of different colours are used ad signal for safety transport .From these thewavelength of red
light is………nm.
a) 400 b)500 c) 600 d) 700
70) If the refractive index of air with respect to glass is 2/3 .What is the refractive indexof glass with
respect to air ?
a) 2/3 b) 3/2 c) 1/3 d) ½
71) The process of separation of light into its component colors while passing througha medium is
called ……………….
a) reflection of light b) refraction of light
c) dispersion of light d) absorption of light
72) Light changes its direction when going from one transparent medium to another transparent
medium. This is called ………………
a) reflection of light b) refraction of light
c) dispersion of light d) absorption of light
73) A ray of light gets refracted while entering the lens.
a) once b)twice c) thrice d) doesn’t happen
74) The point inside the lens on the principal axis through which light rays pass withoutchanging their
path is called ………………
a) center of curvature b) optical center c) principal focus d) axiom point
75) Virtual image is formed if an object is placed …………..
a) at infinity b) at 2F1 c) at focus F1 d) between F1 and O
76) In the convex lens if an object is placed at 2F1, the image is formed at………
a) F1 b)2F2 c) beyond 2F1 d) On the same side of the lens as the object
77)All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the……
a) optical center b) centre of curvature c) principal focus d) infinity
78)A small hole of changing diameter at the centre if Iris is called ……..
a) optic nerves b) cornea c)optic disc d) pupil
79)For a normal human eye the near point is at………
a) 2.1cm b)2.5cm c)25cm d)5cm
80) The image formed by____lens is always virtual and small.
a) plane convex b) biconvex c) biconcave
d)bifocal
81)In a relaxed state , the focal length of healthy eyes is ……..
a) 2cm b) 2.5cm c) 25cm d) 5cm
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82) For a specific glass lens f=0.5 .This is the only Information given to the student. Which type of
lens is given to him and what is its power?
a) power 2D ; convex lens
b) power 1D ; concave lens
c) power -0.5; concave lens
d) power -0.25 D ; convex lens
83) In Myopia the human eye….
a) cannot see nearby objects distinctly b)cannot see distant objects clearly
c) cannot see nearby as well as distant objects clearly
d) can see nearby as well as distant objects clearly
84) Due to elongation of………….and increase in curvature of the eye lens, a personcannot
see distant objects clearly.
a) eyeball b) pupil c) eyelid d) cornea
85) In hypermetropia human eye ………..
a) can see distant objects clearly b) can see nearby objects distinctly
c) cannot see nearby as well as distant objects clearly
d) cant see nearby as well as distant objects clearly
86) Bifocal lens is required to correct______defect.
a) myopia b) hypermetropia c) presbyopia d) none of these
87) ____times larger images can be obtained by using a simple microscope.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 60
88) is a combination of two convex lenses with small focal length.
a) simple microscope b) compound microscope
c) telescope d) none of these
89) Bronze is an alloy of…….
a) copper and tin b) copper and zinc c) copper and iron d) iron and nickel
90) _____ is an alloy made from iron, nickel and chromium.
a) brass b) bronze c) stainless steel d) amalgam e) None of above
91) ____is basic oxide .
a) CO2 b) K2O c) SO2 d) Al2O3
92) In electrolytic reduction of alumina is used as a cathode.
a) sulphur b) graphite c) platinum d) aluminium
93) Iron is…….
a) more reactive than zinc b) more reactive than aluminium
c) less reactive than copper d) less reactive than aluminium
94) If Cu, Fe, Zn, Al elements are arranged in increasing order of their reactivityThen the
correct order would be which of the following?
a) Cu, Fe, Zn, Al b) Al, Cu, Fe, Zn c) Zn, Al, Cu, Fe d) Fe, Zn, Al, Cu
95) Which of the following method is used to prevent the accumulation of greenishlayer on
brass due to corrosion
a) electroplating b) anodization c) tinning d) alloying
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96) In Wilfley table method to separate particles of gangue method is used.

a) Magnetic b) Froth floatation c) Leaching d) gravitation

97)Aluminium oxide is____oxide .
a) acidic b ) basic c) neutral d) amphoteric
98) Atomic number of aluminium is … and its electronic configuration is……………
a) 13, ( 2, 8, 3) b) 12 ( 2, 8, 2) c) 13, (3, 10) d) 12, (2, 10)
99) The chemical formula of zinc blend is…..
a) ZnSO4 b) ZnS c) ZnCO3 d) ZnO
100) Extraction of moderately reactive elements is done by____ and_____method.
a) roasting and calcination b) roasting and reduction
c) separation and calcination d)none of
these
101)Corrosion of silver causes a black layer
of…………
a)Silver nitrate b) silver oxide c) silver sulphide d) silver carbonate
102)To prevent corrosion of iron and steel method is used .
a) electroplating b) anodization c) tinning d) galvanizing
103) In preparation of Aqua regia hydrochloric acid and acid are mixed.
a) sulphuric acid b) nitric acid c) carbonic acid d) phosphoric acid
104) The sound of one metal colliding with another makes a noise, this property is calledas ……
a) good conductors b) ductility c) sonority d) malleability
105) _____exist in a liquid state at room temperature.
a) Chlorine b) Bromine c) Iodine d) Fluorine
106)Ionic compounds are electrically …………..
a) positively charged b) negatively charged c) neutral d) conductor
107) _____is good conductor of heat but bad conductor of electricity.
a) graphite b) diamond c)coal d) iodine
108) _________is the least reactive metal.
a) silver b) sodium c) zinc d) gold
109) ______forms a green colour in the water.
a) CuSO4 b) FeSO4 c) NaCl d) all the
above
110)Tin is an alloy of ……….
a) copper b) tin c) zinc d) silver e) None
111) When one of the metals in an alloy is mercury the alloy is called………..
a) amalgam b) sodium amalgam c) zinc amalgam d) all the above
112) The minerals from which the metal can be separated economically are called ………
a) minerals b) ores c) gangue d) alloy
113) Generally the melting and boiling point of carbon compounds are found to be lessthan_____0c
a) 300 b) 100 c) 200 d)150
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114) Number of valence electrons in a carbon atom is…….

a) 4 b) 5 c) 1 d) 3
115) The bond between two oxygen atoms is bond .
a) double b) triple c) single d) none of these
116) The molecule mass of a carbon compound is spread over a range of …..
a)1012 b) 1014 c) 1010 d) 1013
117) The unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a carbon- carbon double bond arecalled….
a) Alkenes b) Alkanes c) Alkynes d) Alcohol
118) The unsaturated hydrocarbons whose structures contain a carbon -carbon triplebond are called ……..
a) Alkenes b) Alkanes c) Alkynes d) Alcohol
119) The phenomenon in which compounds having different structural formulae have the same
molecular formula is called …………
a) structural isomerism b) catenation c)homologous d) functional group
120) From the following hydrocarbon____ is the cyclic hydrocarbon.
a) isobutane b) propyne c) benzene d) isobutylene
121) While going in an increasing order of the length there is a rise in the molecularmass of the
members by…….
a) 14 u b) 15u c) 16 u d) 17u
122) The general molecular formula for the homologous series of alkynes is ……….
a) CnH2n b)CnH2n + 2 c) CnH2n - 2 d) CnH2n – 1
123)____ is one of the combustible components of L.P.G.
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane
d)Butane
124)At room temperature ethanol is ……
a)solid b) gas c) plasma d)
liquid
125)Generally ……is called spirit.
a) methanol b) ethanol c) propanol d) butanol
126) Due to_____we can gather information about worldwide events sitting at home.
a) worldwide web b) internet c) artificial satellite d) natural satellite
127) The first person to step on the moon is ……..

a) Neil Armstrong b) Rakesh Sharma c) Kalpana Chawla d) Sunita Williams

128)The first artificial satellite ……was sent to space by Soviet Union in 1957.
a) Apollo b) Chandrayaan c) Sputnik d) Luna 2
129) If a spacecraft is to be sent to travel to outer space.it must have minimum velocityof ………
a) 11.2 km/s b)11.6km/s c)13.2km/s d)1.4m/s
130) A group of students from COEP Pune sent a small satellite …….. through ISRO in2016.
a) Luna 6 b) Apollo 6 c) Swayam d) Param
131) The astronomical object closest to us is the ………
a) Moon b) Mars c) Saturn d) Mercury
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Que. 1 B) I. Find the correlation

1. Eka boron : Scandium :: Eka Aluminum : Gallium

2. Mendeleev's periodic table : atomic mass :: Modern periodic

table :Atomic Number

3. Group 1 and 2 : S block :: group 13 and 18 : P-block

4. Group 13 to18 : P block :: Group 3 to 12 : D block

5. Two elements in the same position : demerit of Newland's

octaves :: place for Isotopes : Mendeleev Periodic Table

6. Beryllium : alkaline earth metal :: sodium: Alkali Metal

7. Cl : halogen group :: Ar : Noble Gas

8. Iodine : solid :: bromine : liquid

9. Electric motor : converts electrical energy into mechanical

energy :: electric generator: Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy
10. Fleming's left hand rule : electric current :: Fleming's right hand
rule : Induced Current

11. Alternating current : oscillatory :: Direct current: Non- oscillatory

12. When ice is converted into water : constant temperature ::

before the water evaporates :Temperature increases upto 100 Deg C

13. Relative humidity greater than 60% : saturated air :: relative

humidity less than 60% :: Dry Air

14. While studying anomalous behavior of water in Hope's

apparatus, the upper temperature of the thermometer : 0°C :: lower
temperature of the thermometer : : 4 Deg Celicus
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15. The density of water is high at 4°C : anomalous behavior of

water :: shredded ice converted into solid ice balls :Regelation

16. Specific latent heat of vaporisation : J/Kg :: specific heat : J/Kg

Deg C

17. 2 n 1 : Refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1

:: 1 n 2: Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2

18. Refractive index of air : 1.0003 :: refractive index of water : 1.33

19. Convex lens : converging :: concave lens : Diverging Lens

20. Nearsightedness: elongated eyeball :: farsightedness: Flattering of

eyeball

21. Object at 2F1 of a convex lens : Image at 2F2 :: Object at F1

:Very Large size at infinity

22. Nearsightedness : concave lense :: farsightedness :Convex Lens

23. Simple microscope : Number of convex lens one :: compound

microscope :Two convex lenses

Dioptre

Convex lens

Object is At Focus
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27. Brass : Aluminium and zinc : : Bronze : Copper and Tin

28. Pressure cooker : Anodizing : : Silver plated spoon :Electroplating

29. In Electrolytic reduction of alumina, Anode : Graphite Rods : :

Cathode : Graphite lining

30. Sulphide ores : Roasting : : Oxide ores :Reduction

31. Bauxite : Aluminium ore : : Cassiterite : Tin ore

32. Metal sheets : Malleable : : Electric wires : Ductility

33. Zinc sulphide : Roasting : : zinc carbonate : Calcination

34. Rusting of iron : Fe2O3 : : corrosion of copper :CuCO3

35. Diamond : electric insulator : :Grpahite : electric conductor.

36. Soft metal : Na : : hard metal :Iron

37. Aluminium: electric conductor: gold : : electric insulator

38. Bronze :Cu+Sn :: Brass : Cu+Zn.

39. Solid : iodine ::Liquid: bromine

40. CH3-CH2-CHO : propane :: CH3- COOH : Ethanoic Acid

41. Ketone : -CO- :: Ester : -COO

42. Cyclohexane : Cyclic hydrocarbon :: Isobutylene : Branched

Hydrocarbon

43. Saturated hydrocarbon : Single bond :: Unsaturated hydrocarbon

: Double or Triple Bond

44. Saturated carbon compounds : blue flame :: Unsaturated carbon

compounds : Yellow Flame
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Que 1 B) II. Find odd one out and give its explanation
1. F , K , Cl , I
2. Lithium, Sodium, Magnesium, Potassium
3. Beryllium, Helium, Neon, Argon
4. Gallium, Scandium, Germanium, Calcium
5. Boron, Arsenic, Germanium, Gallium
6. Dobereiner, Newland, Mendeleev, Moseley
7. Fluorine, Boron, Bromine, Chlorine
8. Carbon, Calcium, Oxygen, Neon
9. Potassium, Magnesium, Calcium, Beryllium
10. Beryllium, Magnesium, Carbon, Oxygen
11. Voltmeter, Ammeter, Galvanometer, Electric motor
12. Loud speaker, Magnet, Microphone, Electric motor
13. Fuse wire, bad conductor, Rubber gloves, Generator
14. Tungsten, Nichrome, Aluminium, Iron
15. Boiler, Electric stove, Electric bulb, Electric bell
16. Temperature, Conduction, Convection, Radiation
17. Cal/g, cal/g°C, Kcal/Kg°C, erg/g°C
18. Joule, erg, Calorie, Newton
19. Rainbow, Earthquake, Sunset, Sunrise
20. Focal length, Radius of curvature, Image distance, Size of Image 21.
Simple Microscope, Compound microscope, Telescope, Prism
22. Eye lens, Retina, Cerebellum, cornea
23. Object distance, Image distance, focal length, principal axis
24. Eye piece, Magnifier, Kaleidoscope, Telescope
25. Sodium, Potassium, Silver, Sulphur
26. Boron, Chlorine, Bromine, Fluorine
27. Copper, Iron, Mercury, Brass
28. Brass, Bronze, Phosphorous, Steel
29. Tinning, Alloying, Anodization, Froth floatation
30. Zinc coating, Tinning, Electroplating, Calcination
31. Na, K, Cu, Li
32. Ethylene, Styrene, Propylene, Teflon
33. Butane, Methane, Benzene, Ozone
34. CH4 , C2H6 , C5H12 , CaCO3
35. C2H2 , C3H8 , C2H6 , CH4
36. C2H4 , C4H10 , C3H8 , CH4
37. Sputnik, Moon, Swayam, Chandrayaan
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Que 1 B ) III. Answer the following questions in one

sentence.

1. Element A and B follows the Newland’s octaves rule. How many

elements are there in between A and B ?
Ans – If elements A and B follows Newland’s law of octaves then
to 13 elements can lie between them.

2. Write the characteristic of Dobereiner triads?

Ans- When elements with similar chemical properties are
arranged in increasing order of their atomic mass in group of
three called as triads, the atomic mass of the middle element is
approximately equal to the mean of the atomic masses of the other
two elements.

3. To which element does Newland’s octave rule apply?

Ans – Newland’s Octave rule was applicable till calcium only

4. Write the molecular formula of the oxide of any one of the elements
in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Ans – Na2O (Sodium oxide )

5. Write the name of noble gas having 2 electrons in its valence shell.
Ans - Helium

6. Write the name of an element having electronic configuration 2,8,2.

Ans – Magnesium

7. Which two elements show an ambiguity regarding their sequence in

Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Ans – Cobalt and Nikel
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8. The elements beryllium, magnesium and calcium are in group 2.

What will be their valency?
Ans - 2

9. The modern periodic table is divided into which blocks?

Ans – S-block, D- block, p-block and f-block

10. What determines the chemical reactivity of elements?

Ans - Ionization

11. Write chemical formula for rust

Ans - Fe2O3.H20

12. Complete the given chemical reaction. CuSO4 (aq)+ Fe(s) →

..... + ......
Ans – FeSO4 + Cu

13. What is the heating effect of electric current?

Ans - When an electric current is passed through a conductor,
it generates heat due to the hindrance caused by the conductor
to the flowing current. The work done in overcoming the
hindrance to the current generates heat in that conductor.

14. Which metal used to make the filament of an electric bulb?

Ans - Tungsten

15. What is a short circuit?

Ans - Short circuiting is when an electric current flows down
the wrong or unintended path with little to
no electrical resistance. It can cause serious damage, fire, and
even small-scale explosions.

16. What is the potential difference

Ans - the difference of electrical potential between two points.

17. How much Volts potential difference between live and neutral
wires?
Ans – 220V
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18. What is used to turn off the sudden increase in current in the
electrical circuit of the house nowadays?
Ans – Fuse or MCB

19. Write two devices based on the heating effect of electric current.
Ans - Electric Iron, Electric Heater

20. Write Fleming’s right hand thumb rule.

Ans - Imagine that you have held the conductor in your right
hand in such a way that your thumb points in the direction of
the current. Then turn your fingers around the conductor, the
direction of the fingers is the direction of the magnetic lines of
force.

21. Write Fleming’s left hand rule.

Ans - According to the rule, the left hand thumb, index finger,
and the middle finger are stretched so as to be perpendicular to
each other. If the index finger is in the direction of the magnetic
field, middle finger points in the direction of the current, then
the direction of the thumb is the direction of the force on the
conductor

22. Write Fleming’s right hand rule.

Ans - Stretch the thumb, the index finger and the middle finger
in such a way that they will be perpendicular to each other. In
this position, the thumb indicates the direction of motion of the
conductor, the index finger shows the direction of the magnetic
field, and the middle finger shows the direction of the induced
current.

23. What is a solenoid?

Ans -When a copper wire with a resistive coating is wound in a
chain of loop (like a spring), it is called solenoid.
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24. Write the two names in the following diagram.

1.Direction Of Current

2.Direction Of Magnetic field

1. Motion of conductor
2.Dierection of Magnetic field

3. Induced current

25. Define boiling point of a liquid.

Ans –The constant temperature at which substance changes
from liquid state to gaseous state is called as boiling point of
the liquid.

26. What is meant by regelation?

Ans - The phenomenon in which the ice converts to liquid due
to applied pressure and then re-converts to ice again once the
pressure is removed is called regelation.

27. How fog is formed?

28. What is a dew point temperature?

Ans - The temperature at which the air becomes saturated
with water vapour is called dew point.
 Parth Momaya

29. What does the existence of drops of water on the leaves of a tree
in the morning indicate?
Ans – Formation of dew i.e. Dew point temperature

30. Which temperature segment is chosen when determining the unit

of heat? Why?
Ans – 14.4 -15.5 Deg Celsius. To get accurate measurement

31. Identify the wrong figure from the following.

Ans – fig. A

32. Write the molecular formula of the given compound.

1. Ethyl ethanoate - CH3−COO−CH2−CH3
2. Sodium ethanoate - CH3-COONa
3. Sodium ethoxide - C2H5ONa
4. Stearic acid - C18H36O2
5. Oleic acid - C18H34O2
6. Palmitic acid - C16H32O2

33. Write the molecular formula of the given compound.

1. Ethylene - C2H4
2. Benzene - C6H6
3. Acetic acid - CH₃COOH
4. Propylene - C3H6
5. Acetylene - C2H2
6. Ethyl alcohol - C2H5OH
7. Acetone - C3H6O
8. Propene - C3H6
9. Ethanol - C2H5OH
10. Ethanoic acid - CH₃COOH
11. Isobutane - C4H10
 Parth Momaya

Que 1 B) IV. Match the columns.

Parth Momaya
Parth Momaya

Ans. 1-b , 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

Ans. 1-b , 2-c, 3-a

Ans. 1-d , 2-c

Ans. 1-a , 2- Bronze (Not given in option )

Parth Momaya

Ans. 1-b , 2-a

Ans. 1-b , 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

Ans. 1-c , 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

Ans. 1-b , 2-c, 3-a

Ans. 1-b , 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

 Parth Momaya

Que 1 B) V. Complete the incomplete sentence.

1. According to Newland’s octave rule, chlorine shows similarity

with fluorine. Because, chlorine is eighth element from fluorine
and both have similar properties

2. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law properties of elements

are periodic function of their atomic masses.

3. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

determines the Valency of that element

4. Electro positivity means tendency of an atom to donate

electrons and form positively charged cations.

5. According to Dobereiner triads rule, three elements in an

increasing order of atomic mass shows that the atomic mass of
the middle element was approximately equal to the mean of the
atomic masses of the other two elements.
 Parth Momaya

Que.1B) VI. Write the name:

1. The atom having the biggest atomic size from period 2

2. The atom having the smallest atomic radius from zero group
3. The family of group 1 elements
4. Highest reactive non metal
5. The element having stable electron configuration from the third
period.
6. A halogen from period 4
7. The family of elements having zero valency
8. Two elements having two orbits
9. Highest electronegative element
10. Highest electropositive element
11. The atom having smallest atomic radius from group 1
12. The group of elements having electronic configuration 2, 2
13. Product obtained when sugar is heated.
14. The phase in which solid substances are converted into liquid
15. The amount of heat absorbed at constant temperature by unit
mass of a liquid to convert into gaseous phase
16. Conversion of ice into liquid due to applied pressure and the
reconverts to ice once the pressure is removed
17. The instrument used to study anomalous behavior of water-
18. . The instrument used to measure the specific heat capacity of a
substance using mixture method
19. The distance between focus and optical centre
20. The part of human eye that transmits electrical signals to the
brain
21. The lens used in simple microscope

22. The ability of lens to adjust the focal length as per need is –
23. The defect of eye occurring due to ageing –
24. The fleshy screen behind cornea –
25. The screen with light sensitive cells in human eye –
26. The sensation on the retina persists for a while is –
27. persons which are unable to distinguish between different
colours -
 Parth Momaya

28. The imaginary line passing through two optical centers of lens -
29. The molecular formula of main ore of aluminium –
30. The ore is produced by using –
31. Non metals which are good conductors –
32. The reagent which dissolves noble metals
33. Metals which are amphoteric in nature –
34. An alloy of copper and zinc –
35. Two highly reactive metals –
36. Strongly heating carbonate ores in insufficient air –
37. Extraction of aluminum from alumina
38. Method used to prevent corrosion of copper –

Check answer on next slide

Go on next page
 Parth Momaya

1. Lithium
2. Helium
3. Alkali Metals
4. Fluorine
5. Argon
6. Bromine
7. Noble gases
8. A. Lithium , B. Beryllium
9. Fluorine
10. Caesium
11. Hydrogen
12. Alkaline earth metals
13. Carbon and water
14. Melting Point
15. Specific latent heat of vaporization
16. Regelation
17. Hope’s apparatus
18. Calorimeter
19. Focal length
20. Optic nerve
21. Convex lens
22. Power of accommodation
23. Presbyopia
24. Iris
25. Retina
26. Persistence of vision
27. Colour blind
28. Principal axis
29. Al2 O3 . H2 O
30. Minerals
31. Graphite
32. Aqua regia
33. Aluminium.
34. Brass
35. Sodium, Potassium
36. Calcination
37. Electrolytic reduction of alumina
38. Tinning/ Anodization
 Parth Momaya

Question 1 . B) Right or wrong sentence.

1. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational

force between them becomes less than the previous force.
Ans - Right

2. The CGS unit of G is dyne.cm 2/g 2 .

Ans - Wrong

3. The value of gravitational acceleration with the center of the earth

is zero.
Ans - Right

4. The value of g is highest at the equator.

Ans - Wrong

5. The value of G varies from place to place.

Ans - Wrong

6. As it rises above the earth's surface, its value increases.

7. The speed of release of an object does not depend on the mass of

the object.
Ans - Right

8. Mass is a qualitative measure of the inertia of an object.

Ans - Right

9. The similarity between the properties of the first and eighth

elements is called the octave rule.
Ans - Right

10. In Dobreiner's triangles, three elements appear to be arranged in

ascending order of their atomic mass.
Ans - Right
 Parth Momaya

11. While designing the periodic table, Mendeleev considered the

chemical and physical properties of the elements.
Ans - Right

12. The modern periodic table has 1 to 7 periods.

Ans - Right

13. The modern periodic table shows the molecular values of the
elements in each frame.
Ans - Wrong

14. P-block is composed of groups 1 and 2.

Ans - Wrong

15. To the left of the serpentine line in the periodic table are the metal
elements.
Ans - Right

16. The compound of the elements in group 2 is 1.

Ans - Wrong

17. Nanometers use these units to measure atoms.

Ans - Wrong

18. Moving from left to right, the size of the atom decreases.
Ans - Wrong

19. All the elements in the halogen family are gases.

Ans - Wrong

20. The elements lithium and beryllium are in the same cycle because
their compounds are similar.
Ans - Wrong
 Parth Momaya

21. Beryllium and calcium are alkaline soil metals.

Ans - Right

22. The K and L shells of the elements Na and Mg contain electrons.

Ans - Right

23. The number of shells decreases as the calculation goes down from
top to bottom.
Ans - Wrong

24. The metal properties of the element decrease as the spiral moves
from left to right.
Ans - Right

25. The size of an atom depends on the number of compound

electrons.

26. Silicon is a metallic element.

Ans - Right

27. The properties of the metal increase as it goes down in the

calculation.
Ans - Right

28. Electro negativity is the metallic property of an element.

Ans - Wrong

29. If edible oil is kept well for a long time, it will get sour.
Ans – Right

30. The alternating current is a vibrating current.

Ans - Right

31. Electrical wires and neutral wires have a 220 V potential

difference.
Ans - Right
 Parth Momaya

32. Increasing the current passing through the wire decreases the
magnetic field intensity.
Ans - Wrong

33. Use galvanometers for electrical measurements.

Ans - Right

34. The frequency of the alternating current is 50Hz.

Ans - Right

35. Electrochemical are devices that convert electrical energy into

mechanical energy.
Ans - Right

36. The dew point temperature does not depend on the amount of
vapor in the air.
Ans - Wrong

37. The specific heat capacity of water is 1 cal / g 0C.

Ans - Right

38. The invisible heat of evaporation is called the conversion of gas

into liquid.
Ans - Wrong

39. Use calorimeters to study the inconsistent behavior of water.

Ans - Wrong

40. During reheating, ice is converted to water at a temperature of

0°C.
Ans – Right

41. 1 kg of dry air at a temperature of 40 °C can hold a maximum of

49 g of water vapor.
Ans - Right

42. Calorimeters are used to measure specific Heat value.

Ans - Right
 Parth Momaya

43. All metals have the same specific heat capacity.

Ans - Wrong

44. Humidity relative to dew point temperature is 100%

Ans - Right

45. The unit of absolute humidity is Kg / m 3.

Ans - Right

46. 1 calorie is 4.81 joules

Ans - Right

47. The incident rays and refracting rays are on opposite sides of the
column.
Ans - Right

48. Purple has the lowest refractive index.

49. The speed of light varies in different media.

Ans - Right

50. Convex magnifying glass is called divergent magnifying glass

and concave magnifying glass is called converging magnifying
glass.
Ans - Wrong

51. The image of the object in the human eye is formed on the cross
screen.

52. This defect of vision can be remedied by using endoscopic

magnifying glass with proper focal length.
Ans - Wrong

53. If the incident ray is parallel to the main axis, then the refracted
ray passes through the main navel.

54. The image of an object at an infinite distance is obtained in a real

and smooth form through a convex magnifying glass.
Ans - Wrong
 Parth Momaya

55. The power of the magnifying glass depends on the distance of the
magnifying glass.
Ans - Wrong

56. The lens of the eye is flattened when looking at nearby objects.
Ans - Wrong

57. For a healthy human eye the distant point is infinite distance.
Ans - Right

58. Vision defects increase the distance between the lens of the eye
and the retina of the eye. There are defects in myopia.
Ans - Right

59. The virtual shape of the object seen by the eye depends on the
angle held by the object with the eye.
Ans - Right

60. Electrolysis is used to obtain pure metal from impure metal.

Ans - Right

61. Ionic compounds are soluble in kerosene.

Ans - Wrong

62. Stable ionic compounds conduct electricity.

Ans - Wrong

63. Mercury, silver, gold are highly reactive metals.

Ans - Wrong

64. In the electrolytic method, a layer of highly active metal is applied

to a less active metal.
 Parth Momaya

65. In the electrolytic dissipation method of alumina, the lining of

graphite acts as an anode.
Ans - Wrong

66. The electrolysis of alumina combines fluorspar and cryolite to

increase the solubility in the precipitation method.

67. Cassiterite is a copper metal.

Ans - Wrong

68. Diamond is a hard substance.

Ans - Right

69. Gold and silver are active metals.

Ans - Wrong

70. Halogen reacts with acid.

Ans - Right

71. Bauxuite reacts with sodium hydroxide in the Bayer process.

Ans - Right

72. The number of electrons in the velance shell of a carbon atom is

4.
Ans - Right

73. Your body is made up of carbon.

Ans - Right

74. Carbon compounds contain only free chains of carbon atoms.

Ans – Wrong

75. Two carbon atoms can always form one or two covalent bonds.
Ans - Wrong
 Parth Momaya

76. In general, saturated compounds are more reactive than

unsaturated compounds.
Ans - Wrong

77. Benzene is a unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Ans - Right

78. Cyclohexane is a branched chain type of hydrocarbon.

Ans - Wrong

79. As one ascends in any homogeneous series, physical properties

change in one direction.
Ans - Right

80. There are different common molecules for all members of the
homologous range.

81. LPG Butane is a flammable element in.

Ans – True

82. Substances that can give oxygen to other substances are called
particulate matter.
Ans - Wrong

83. Potassium permanganate is an oxidizing compound in regular

use.
Ans - Right

84. Colorless ethanol is in liquid state at room temperature.

Ans - Right

85. Ethanol is all soluble in water.

Ans - Right

86. Easter is a sweet-smelling dish.

Ans - Right
 Parth Momaya

87. The speed of liberation on the moon is less than the speed of
liberation on earth.
Ans - Right

88. India is the first country to discover the existence of water on the
moon.
Ans - Right

89. The function of a satellite launcher is based on Newton's second

law of motion.
Ans - Wrong
 Parth Momaya

Question 1 (B) VIII. Write an explanation.

1. Group
Ans – Vertical Columns in modern periodic table are called as
group. There are 18 groups in modern periodic table

2. Period
Ans – Horizontal rows in modern periodic table are called as
periods. There are 7 periods in modern periodic table

3. Atomic radius
Ans – Distance from center of an atom ( nucleus ) to outermost
valence shell is called atomic radius.

4. Electro positivity
Ans – Ability of an element to lose electron and form cation.
Mostly metals are electropositive

5. Electronegativity
Ans – Ability of an element to gain electron and form anion.
Mostly non-metals are electronegative.

6. Balanced equations
Ans - The chemical equation in which the number of atoms of
different elements are equal in reactant side (L.H.S.) and product
side (R.H.S.) is called a balanced chemical equation.

7. Endothermic reaction
Ans- A reaction in which heat is either absorbed from the
surrounding or has to be supplied continuously from outside is
called as endothermic reaction.
 Parth Momaya

8. Critical angle
Ans - The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is
90° is called as critical angle.

9. Center of curvature of the lens

Ans - The centres of sphere whose parts form surfaces of the
lenses are called centre of curvature of lenses. Each lens has two
centre of curvature C1 and C2 .

10. The optical center of the lens

Ans - The central point of a lens on the principal axis through
which light rays pass without changing their path is called
optical centre.

11. Principal focus

Ans - The point on the principal axis where all the incident rays
are parallel to the principal axis actually meet or appear to meet
after refraction from spherical lens is called Principal focus of a
spherical lens. Every lens has two principal foci.

12. Focal length

Ans - The distance between the optical centre and the principal
focus is called focal length of that lens

13. Principal axis

Ans - The imaginary straight line passing through the two
centres of curvatures of lens (C) is called principal axis of the
lens.

14. Minimum Distance of distinct vision

Ans - The minimum distance from the normal eye, at which the
objects can be seen clearly and distinctly without any strain to
the eye is known as the distance of distinct vision.

15. Farthest Distance of distinct vision

Ans – The human eye can object kept at indinty clearly with a
healthy eye. So Farthest Distance of distinct vision is infinity of
normal human eye
 Parth Momaya

17. Power of accommodation

Ans - The ability of the lens of adjusting focal length is known as
power of accommodation

18. Persistence of vision

Ans - The impression of the image lasts on the retina for 1/6 th
of a second. The sensation on retina persists for a while. This is
called persistence of vision

19.Aklane
Ans- Alkanes are chemical compounds that consist of carbon
and hydrogen atoms, so they are also called hydrocarbons, the
chemical structure of alkanes only consists of single covalent
bonds. As they contain only single bonds, and because of that
each carbon atom is saturated with hydrogen atoms. Alkanes
are, therefore referred to as saturated hydrocarbons.

20. Alkene
Ans –
1. The hydrocarbons which contain carbon to carbon double
bonds (C = C) are called alkenes.

2. Their general formula is CnH2n

3. e.g. ethene
 Parth Momaya

21. Alkyne
Ans –
1. The hydrocarbons which contain carbon to carbon triple
bonds (C C) are called alkynes.
2. Their general formula is CnH2n-2
3. e.g. ethyne

Q1B IX. Identify who I am!

1. Carbon aberrations

2. Mutual oxide forming metal –

3. Ores of Aluminium - Bauxite

4. Metal in Liquid state – Mercury

 Parth Momaya

Q 1 A) Choose the correct option.

1) Transfer of information from molecules of DNA to mRNA is called process.
A. translocation B. translation C. transcription. D. differentiation
2) Similarities in initial stages indicate the evidence.
A. Connecting links B. Anatomical C. Embryological. D. Paleontological
3) is a vestigial organ in human beings.
A. Wisdom teeth B. Ear muscles C. Body hairs D. All the above
4) Protein located in bones is .
A. myosin B. melanin C. haemoglobin D. ossein
5) Which of the following vitamins is necessary for synthesis of NADH2 ?
A. Vitamin B3 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B2
D. Vitamin K
6) cells divide by mitosis.
A. Somatic. B. Gametes C. Stem. D. Both A and C
7) The first step of karyokinesis is .
A. anaphase B. telophase C. metaphase. D. prophase.
8) is not a part of mitosis.
A. Anaphase B. Diplatin C. Prophase D. Cytokinesis
9) We get energy from lipids.
A. 4 cal / gm. B. 9 cal/ gm C. 9 kcal/ gm. D. 4 kcal/gm.
10) In Humans there are pairs of chromosomes.
A. 22. B. 23 C. 44 D. 46
11) Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction in multicellular
organisms?
A. fragmentation B. regeneration C. Budding D. binary fission
12) Find the odd one out:
A. Stigma B. Anther C. Style D. Ovary
13) At the time of birth , there are oocytes in the ovary of a female foetus.
A. 1 to 2 million B. 2 to 3 million C. 2 to 4 million D. none of these
14) modern remedial technique is used if there is a problem in implantation
of embryo in the uterus.
A. Surrogacy. B. Sperm bank C. In vitro fertilization. D. none of these.
15) Implantation of the embryo occurs in .
A. uterus. B. ovary C. oviduct. D. vagina
 Parth Momaya

16) In humans, perm production occurs in the organ .

A. testes. B. scrotum C. prostate gland. D. ovaries.
17) Pregnant mother supplies nourishment to her foetus through .
A. uterus. B. placenta C. ovary D. oviduct.
18) twins are formed from a single embryo.
A. Dizygotic B. Monozygotic C. Multiple zygote. D. Zygote
19) Pollen grains are formed by division in locules of anthers.
A. meiosis B. mitosis C. amitosis. D binary.
20) Asexual reproduction occurs by cell division.
A. mitotic B. meiotic C. fertilization. D. double fertilization.
21) This method of asexual reproduction is seen in paramecium.
A. transverse binary fission. B. longitudinal binary fission
C. simple binary fission. D. regeneration
22) In meiosis, the number of chromosomes becomes .
A. multiple times. B. triple C. half. D.double
23) Generally, every month, ovum is released in the
abdominal cavityalternately from each ovary.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
24) is present in unisexual flower.
A. Both androecium and gynoecium B. Only androecium
C. Only gynoecium D. Androecium or gynoecium
25) is a chemical factor of abiotic components.
A. Air. B.water. C.Nutrients D.sunlight
26) is an organic compound of abiotic components.
A. Proteins. B. Iron. C. Sodium. D. Oxygen
27) is a rare species.
A. Lesser florican B. Tiger C. Giant squirrel. D. Musk deer
28) is an indeterminate species.
A. Red panda. B. Lion C. Lion tailed monkey D. Giant squirrel
29) Occurrence of diversity among the organisms of the same species is called
diversity.
A. species. B.genetic C.ecosystem. D.animal
30) In modern civilization, has become a primary need.
A. food. B.cloth C.shelter. D.energy
31) Most electric power plants are based on the principle of .
A. electro induction. B. magnetic induction.
C. electro- magnetic induction D. electromagnet.
 Parth Momaya

32) Principle of Electromagnetic induction was invented by the scientist .

A. Ohm. B. Michael Faraday C. Joule. D. Newton
33) In the power plant based on nuclear energy is used to rotate
the generator.
A. Steam turbine. B.air turbine C.water turbine D.none of these.
34) When a neutron is bombarded on an atom of uranium
neutrons generated in this process.
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
35) Kinetic energy in flowing water drives to generate electricity.
A. watermill. B. windmill C. turbines. D. generator.
36) Wind turbines with capacity are commercially available.
A. 1 kW to 7 MW. B. 1 KW to 7 KWC. 1 KW to 7000 W D. 1 W to 7 MW
37) Solar photovoltaic cells convert the solar radiation energy directly into
energy.
A. electrical B. potential C. kinetic. D. heat.
38) A silicon solar cell of dimension 1 sq.cm. generates current of about .
A. 50 mA B. 30 mA C. 50 A D. 30 A
39) A silicon solar cell of dimension 1 sq.cm. generates potential
difference.
A. 0.1 V. B.0.5 V. C. 0.1 mV. D. 0.5 mV.
40) In nuclear power plants, neutrons are bombarded on atoms of .
A. uranium-235. B. barium C. krypton. D. premium-235.
41) My body is soft and slimy, hence I am referred as .
A. Mollusca B. echinodermata C. annelida D. arthropoda
42) Which of the following is a hermaphrodite animal?
A. doliolum B. scorpion C. centipede D. cockroach
43) Which of the following animals can regenerate it's broken body parts ?
A. Frog B. Starfish C. Sparrow D. Pigeon
44) Which of the following is a warm blooded (homeotherms) animal?
A. Bat B. Tortoise C. Wall lizard D. Crocodile
45) My body is shaped to minimize water resistance.
A. pointed B. spindle C. cartilaginous D. flat
46) animal is called a friend of farmers.
A. Rabbit B. Cat C. Leech D. Earthworm
47) Which of the following animals has a hard calcareous shell?
A. nereis B. shark C. bivalve. D. herdmania
 Parth Momaya

48) _________ acid is used in Production of vitamins .

A. Citric B. Gluconic C. Lactic D. Itaconic
49) Nowadays ,--------- are used for treatment of diarrhoea and treatment of poultry also.
A. yoghurt B. probiotics C.vinegar D. cheese
50) Yoghurt is a milk product produced with the help of ---------.
A. lactobacilli B. azotobacter C. corynebacterium. D. streptococcus.
51) ------ is a powerful antibiotic against treatment of tuberculosis.
A. Penicillin. B. Rifamycin C. Streptomycin. D. Bacitracin.
52) ------– is used in the commercial bakery industry.
A. Compressed yeast. B. Algae C. Bacteria D. Microbes
53) ------- is a substance obtained by microbial processing that roles as artificial
sweetener.
A. Nycin B. Lysine C. Xanthenes D. Xylitol
54) At the earliest stage of development, the organism is in the form of a mass of
a cell, which are almost alike, those cells are called ________.
A. Stem cells B.RBC C. WBC D. None of these
55) Which of the following is an important requirement in organ transplantation?
A. Blood group of recipient B. Diseases of donor C. Age of donor D. all above.
56) Availability of _____ is an important requirement in organ transplantation.
A. doctor B. clinic D. donor D. ambulance.
57) The disease related with the synthesis of insulin is _______.
A. cancer B. arthritis C. heart disease D. diabetes.
58) Transgenic raw potatoes generate the immunity against _______ disease.
A. plague B. cholera C. leprosy D. TB
59) ________ have valuable contributions in the green revolution in the USA.
A. Dr. Norman Borlaug. B. Dr. M.S Swaminathan.
C. Dr. Verghese kurien. D. Dr. Hargovind Khurana.
60) Methods like artificial insemination and embryo transplant are mainly used
for _________.
A. animal husbandry. B. wild life C. pet animals. D. infertile women.
61) _______ is the revolutionary event in biotechnology after cloning.
A. Human genome project B. DNA discovery
C. Stem cell research D. All the above
 Parth Momaya

62) Biotechnology integrated the toxin which is fatal for ______, was produced in
leaves and bolls of cotton.
A. bollworm B. caterpillar C. sparrow D. frog
63) Cell _______ starts from 14th day of conception.
A. growth. B. differentiation C. development D. division
64) The Government of India has encouraged _____ for improving the
productivity by launching the program NKM-16.
A. aquaculture. B. poultry C. piggery D. apiculture
65) _____ are present in the umbilical cord by which the foetus is joined to the
uterus of the mother.
A. stem cells B. muscle cells C. neuron cells D. bone cells
66) For the purpose of preservation stem cell samples are kept in -------.
A. liquid oxygen B. hydrogen C. liquid chlorine D. liquid nitrogen
67) Phenylketonuria arises due to genetic changes in ______ cells.
A. liver B. intestine C. pancreas D. heart
68) ________ organism is used as biofertilizers.
A. Thiobacillus B. Nostoc C. Saccharomyces D. Ischeria
69) Alcohol consumption mainly affects the ______ system.
A. nervous B. excretory C. respiratory D. digestive
70) Laughter club is a remedy to drive away _______.
A. addictions B. stress C. lethargy D. epidemics
71) _______ helps to improve concentration in the studies.
A. hobbies B. sports C. meditation. D. eatables
72) _______influence is stronger in case of adolescents.
A. Teachers. B. Fathers C. Relatives. D. Peer group
73) Our _______ has been changed to some extent in the age of technology.
A. lifestyle B. habit C. circumstance D. passion
74) Hobbies like _______ pet animals help to create a positive mindset.
A. feeding B. transferring C. rearing D. looking
75) Continuous consumption of ______ substances causes carcinogenic especially
on the mouth and lung.
A .hot B. sweet C. spicy D. tobacco like
 Parth Momaya

76) Alcoholic person lacks the _____ thinking.

A. straight B. rational C universal D. spiritual
77) _____ may arise due to excessive use of mobile phones.
A.Headache B. Problem in vision C. Joint pains D. All above
78) Liquor is produced from ______.
A. Alcohol B. glucose C. acid D. salt
79) Salaam Mumbai Foundation runs programs for _______ in a slum area.
A. education B. tobacco C. cyber crimes D. domestic violence

Q1 B) I. Find an odd one out.

1) Transcription, Translation, Translocation, Mutation
2) Leaf venation, Size of seeds, Leaf petiole, Leaf shape
3) Position of eyes, structure of bones of hand, structure of nostrils, structure of
ear pinna
4) Human hand, flipper of whale, cat’s foreleg, wings of birds
5) Carrot, Raddish, Potato, Sweet potato
6) Budding, Regeneration, Binary fission, Fragmentation
7) Vas eferens, Prostate gland, Epididymis, Vas deferens
8) Prostate glands, Bartholin glands, Cowper’s gland, Seminal vesicle
9) Stigma, Style, Pollens, Ovary
10) Hibiscus, Papaya, Sun-flower, Rose, Mango
11) Conservation, Pollution, Prevention, Control
12) Hydroelectric energy, Solar energy, Atomic energy, Wind Energy
13) Silicon, Uranium, Petrol, Coal
14) Solar Photovoltaic cell, Electricity generation using wind energy, Hydroelectric
power plant , Solar thermal power plant
15) Water, Wind, Natural gas, Fossil fuel
16) Edible oil, LPG, CNG, Crude oil
17) Coal, Natural gas, Plutonium, Crude oil
18) Tortoise, Crow, Lizard, Snake
19) Peacock, Parrot, Kangaroo, Duck
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20) Human, Dolphin, Bat, Lizard

21) Cockroach, Butterfly, spider, honey bee
22) Star fish, Sea-urchin, Nereis, Sea-cucumber
23) Tube -feet, Setae, Parapodia, Sucker
24) Penicillin, Neomycin, Isomerase, Rifamycin
25) Hydrolases, Lyases, Pepsin, Ligases
26) Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi, Plants
27) Khoa, Yoghurt, Butter, Cheese
28) Lactobacillus acidophilus , Lactobacillus casei, Clostridium
29) Frog, Earthworm, Pink bollworm, Insectivorous birds
30) DDT, Urea, Malathion, Choloropyriphos
31) Diabetes, Anemia, Leukemia, Thalassemia
32) Drying, Salting, Soaking with sugar, Cooking
33) D.D.T. Malathion, Chloropyriphos, Humus
34) Green revolution, Industrial revolution, Blue revolution, White revolution
35) Sodium, Aluminium, Phosphorus, Potassium
36) Cheese, Curd, Ice-cream, Buttermilk
37) Pteris vitata, Rice, Indian Mustard, Sun-flower
38) Transport facilities, Social security, Counselling, Toilets
39) Tobacco, Laughter club, Alcohol consumption, Drugs

Q.1 B) II. Name the following.

1) I am a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Who am I ?
Ans: Duck billed platypus
2) Who is the pioneer of modern genetics ?
Ans: Gregor Johann Mendel
3) Which process is shown in the following diagram ?

Ans: Transcription
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4) In which book Darwin had published this theory of Natural selection ?

Ans : On the origin of species.
5) Which process is shown in the diagram given below?

Ans : Mutation

6) Name the parts shown in the diagram.

Ans : Wisdom teeth

7) Hormones related to male reproductive system.

Ans : Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), Luteinizing hormone (LH)
and Testosterone. (FSH and LH are produced in males too)
8) Modern technologies in reproduction.
Ans : In- vitro fertilization(IVF), Surrogacy and Sperm bank
9) Hormones secreted by the ovary of the female reproductive system.
Ans : Estrogen and progesterone
10) The Electric Power Stations based on Thermal Energy.
Ans : Vindhyanagar, Mundra, Tamnaar, Chandrapur
11) Nuclear power plants in India.
Ans : Kudankulam, Tarapur, Ravatabhata, Kaiga
12) Major hydroelectric power plants in India
Ans: Tehari, Koyana, Srishailam, Nathpa Zakri
13) Forms of energy.
Ans : Sound, Chemical, Radiant, Electric, Atomic and Mechanical
14) A machine/An engine required to rotate the generator.
Ans: Turbine
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15) Name any two natural gases.

Ans: Methane and ethane
16) Type of power generation station at Chandrapur
Ans : Thermal power station
17) An enzyme obtained from fungi to produce vegetarian cheese.
Ans : Protease
18) Biodegradable plastic used for storing the garbage.
Ans : Polylactic acid
19) A clean (smokeless) fuel.
Ans : Alcohol
20) Vinegar means 4% acetic acid
21) Microbes used along with artificial nitrogenase in organic farming.
Ans : Azotobacter
22) Study of structure, types and organelles of cells.
Ans : Cell biology/ cytology
23) Donation of organs such as eyes, heart after death.
Ans : Posthumous donation of body and organ
24) Use of non genetic biotechnological techniques.
Ans : Tissue culture , production of hybrid seeds
25) Genetically modified crops.
Ans : BT cotton, BT brinjal, Golden rice
26) Bacteria that can be used as manure.
Ans : Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Nostoc, Anabaena
27) The number of different types of cells in the human body that are formed
from embryonic cells. Ans : 220
28) Organs that can be used for organ transplantation.
Ans : Heart, Liver, Kidney, skin, lungs
29) Cells that are present in the initial development stage of zygote, that is
formed by the union of male and female gametes.
Ans : Stem cells
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30) Medicinal plant used in making medicine on cough.

Ans : Tulsi, Ginger, Ashwagandha, Adulsa
31) Diseases endangering social health.
Ans : AIDS, TB, Leprosy
32) Factors disturbing /affecting the social health
Ans : Education, financial status, social safety, water
33) Name the type of disaster.
Disaster Type
Tsunami, volcanic eruption, earthquake Geological (Geophysical)
cyclone, snow storms, droughts, floods Atmospheric (Geophysical)
Forest fire, weed, fungal disease spreading Plant (Biological)
Communicable virus, bacteria, bite of poisonous animal Animal (Biological)
Poisonous gases, atomic test, unplanned action, accident Unknown (manmade)

Question 1 B) III. Relate the following.

1) Appendix : vestigial organ : : Peripatus : connecting link
2) Theory of evolution : Darwin : : Lamarckism : Lamarck
3) Changes in the nucleotide of gene : Mutation : : Changes in the place of
ribosome : Translocation
4) Amoeba : fission :: Hydra : budding
5) Calyx : Sepals :: Corolla : petals
6) Bisexual : Hibiscus :: Unisexual : papaya
7) Follicle stimulating hormone : Development of oocyte :: Luteinizing hormone :
ovulation
8) Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla :: essential whorls: androecium and
gynoecium
9) Earthquake : Natural factor : : Industrialization : man made factor
10) Hydroelectric power station : Water stored in dams :: Atomic power station:
Uranium or Plutonium
11) Stove : Thermal energy :: Sewing machine : mechanical energy
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12) Power available from solar cells : DC :: power require to run domestic
equipment : AC
13) Thermal power generation : Air pollution :: Atomic power generation :
Radiation pollution
14) Tapeworm: Phylum Platyhelminthes :: Intestinal worms : Phylum
Aschelminthes
15) Mammals : Breathing through lungs :: Pisces : Breathing through gills
16) Flat worms : Bisexual :: Round worms : Unisexual
17) Porifera : Asymmetrical :: Cnidaria : Radially symmetrical
18) Arthropoda : Largest phylum :: Mollusca: second largest phylum
19) Lactobacillus :Yoghurt : : Baker’s yeast: bread
20) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol : : Aspergillus oryzae : soya sauce
21) Lactic acid: To impart acidity : : Beta carotene: edible colour
22) Gaseous fuel : Coal gas : : Solid fuel : Coal
23) White revolution :Increase in Milk production : : Blue revolution : Increase in
production of aquatic organisms
24) White revolution : Milk production : : Blue revolution : Aquatic organisms
25) Apiculture : Honey bees : : Cultivation of medicinal plants : Ayurveda
26) Substances leading to addiction : Drugs : : Substances leading to cancer :
tobacco containing substances
27) Control on tobacco consumption : TATA trust : : Empowering children in slum
area : Salaam Mumbai foundation

Q 1 B) IV. Write the function of

1. Generator - Generator converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
2. Turbine - Turbine is used to rotate the magnets in the generator
3. Condenser - Condenser converts steam back into water by taking out
heat from it.
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Q 1 B) V. Write whether true or false.

1. The decaying process of c-14 occurs continuously in dead organisms. – True
2. Prokaryotic cells divide through mitosis or meiosis. - False
3. Pollen tube reaches the embryo sac via style. - True
4. Sometimes twins are genetically different. - True
5. Pollen grains from anther are transferred on the stigma. - True
6. Environment is a broad concept. - True
7. The power produced from solar cells is a DC. - True
8. Electrical energy is generated. - True
9. While producing hydroelectric energy , there is no pollution. - True
10. In a windmill, the rotating blades drive the turbine and the turbine in turn drives
the generator to generate electricity. - True
11. In nuclear power plants, the chain reaction can not be controlled. - False
12. The disposal of nuclear waste safely is a big challenge before scientists. - True
13. Efficiency of power generation plants based on energy of natural gas is higher than
that of the power generation plant based on coal. - True
14. In a hydroelectric power plant, the potential energy in water stored in a dam is
converted into kinetic energy. – True
15. In nuclear power plants turbines working on solar panels are used. - False
16. The potential difference available from a solar cell depends on its area. - False
17. Tentacles are used for capturing the prey. - True
18. Petromyzon is an endoparasite. - False
19. Locomotion of starfish takes place through pseudopodia. - False
20. Classification of animals makes it easy to study the vast variety of animals. -
True
21. Shelf life of yogurt can be increased by pasteurization. - True
22. Vinegar is used to bring sweetness in food products. - False
23. Methane gas is produced by microbial oxidation of industrial waste. - False
24. Spinosad is a biopesticide. - True
25. Sulphuric acid is a source of energy for some species of bacteria like
Acidophilum. - True
26. Microbes have the natural ability of decomposing the man made chemicals. -
True
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27. Antibiotics cannot be obtained from a variety of bacteria and fungi. - False
28. Non-genetic technology involves mutations in cell genes. - False
29. Earlier insulin was being collected from the pancreas of horses. - True
30. Various essential elements like N, P, K are made available to crop by
earthworms and fungi. - True
31. We don't have any tradition of curing disease with the help of natural
resources. - False
32. Malaria is caused due to genetic disorder taking place in liver cells. - False
33. Pseudomonas bacteria can separate the hydrocarbon and oil pollutants from
soil and water. - True
34. A gene isolated from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis and is integrated
with the genome of cotton. - True
35. High class of varieties of crops have been developed through the techniques
of organ transplantation. - False
36. Genetically modified crops have low resistance for disease. - False
37. Vaccines produced with the help of biotechnology do not remain active for a
longer duration. - False
38. Children who watch cartoon films may imitate the characters of those films. -
True
39. Tobacco chewing does not cause a carcinogenic effect on mouth and lungs. -
False
40. Stress increases due to more laughing. - False

Q 1 B) VI. Match the following.

1. column A column B
1) Morphological evidences 1) Tail-bone or wisdom teeth
2) Paleontological evidences 2) Leaf venation
3) Fossils
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2. column A column B
1) Polluting energy a) smoke particles
2) Environment friendly energy b) thermal energy
c) wind energy

3. column ‘A’ column'B’

1) sunlight a) Wind energy
2) Natural gas b) Environment friendly energy
c) Fossil fuel
d)Atomic radiation

4. A B
1. Aspartame a. anaerobic respiration
2. Fermentation b. microbial restrictor
3. Niacin c. Vanillin
4. Essence d. Sweetener

5. A B
Baker’s yeast Probiotics
Sauerkraut Bread
Ligases Antibiotics
Penicillin Microbial enzyme

6. Living organism substance that absorbs

1) Pseudomonas A)Radiations
2) Pteris vitata B) Hydrocarbons
C) Arsenic
D)Uranium

7. Living organism substance that absorbs

1) Indian mustard A)radiations
2) Deinococcus radiodurans B) selenium
C) Arsenic
D) Uranium
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Q.1-B) VII. Define.

1) Translation - As per the message on mRNA, amino acids are supplied by the
tRNA. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘anticodon’ having complementary sequence to
the codon on mRNA. This is called Translation.
2) Translocation - The ribosome keeps on moving from one end of mRNA to
other end by the distance of one triplet codon. This is called Translocation.
3) Mutation - Any sudden change that occurs in the nucleotide sequence of a
gene, causing a minor or considerable change in the characters of an individual is
called mutation.
4) Fragmentation - Body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments and
each fragment starts to live as an independent new organism.
5) Vegetative propagation - Reproduction in plants with the help of vegetative
parts like root, stem, leaf and bud is called as vegetative propagation.
6) Fertilization - The process of formation of a diploid zygote by the union of
haploid male and female gametes is called as fertilization.
7) Regeneration - Asexual reproduction in which body of parent organism breaks
into many parts and each part starts life independently.
8) Electromagnetic induction - whenever magnetic field around a conductor
changes, a potential difference is generated across the conductor. This principle is
called electromagnetic induction.
9) Nuclear fission - A nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits
spontaneously or on impact with another particle, with the release of energy.
10) Vaccine - Vaccine is the ‘antigen’ containing material given to acquire either
permanent or temporary immunity against a specific pathogen or disease.
11) Biotechnology - Biotechnology is bringing about artificial genetic changes
and hybridization in organisms for human welfare.
12) Stem cell - At the earliest stage of development, organism is in the form of a
mass of cells. All the cells in that mass are almost alike. Those cells are called as
stem cells.
13)Cloning - Production of replica of any cell or organ or entire organism is
called cloning.
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14) DNA fingerprint - DNA sequence of each person is unique as that of the
fingerprints. Due to this, identity of any person can be established with the help
of its available DNA. This is called as DNA fingerprinting.
15) Genetic treatment - Gene therapy is an experimental technique that
uses genes to treat or prevent disease.
16) Diversity - Biodiversity is the richness of living organisms in nature due to
presence of varieties of organisms, ecosystems and genetic variations within a
species
17) Social health - Social health can be defined as the ability of a person to establish
good relations with other person.
18) First aid - First aid is emergency care or treatment given to a sick or injured
person until proper medical treatment is available.

Question 1 B) VIII. Answer in one sentence.

1) What is gamete formation ?
Ans : Formation of sperm and ovum by meiosis is called as gamete formation.
2) Write the types of twins.
Ans : The types of twins are monozygotic, dizygotic and Siamese twins.
3) Write any two- Sexually transmitted diseases.
Ans : Two sexually transmitted disease are AIDS and Syphilis.
4) What determines whether the two organisms of a species will be exactly
similar or not?
Ans : Method of reproduction will determine whether the two organisms of species
will be exactly similar or not.
5) How are the sperms formed ?
Ans : Sperms are produced in testes of men by the process of meiosis from beginning
of maturation (puberty) till death.
6) How is the semen produced ?
Ans : Semen is formed of sperms and secretions of seminal vesicles, prostate gland
and Cowper's gland.
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7) Which are the components of pollination ?

Ans : Pollination occurs with the help of abiotic agents (wind, water) and
biotic agents (insects and other animals).
8) Which parts are converted into Seed and fruit respectively after
fertilization ?
Ans : Ovule develops to form seed while ovary develops into fruit.
9) What does germination mean ?
Ans : Seeds fall upon the ground when fruits break up. Zygote in the
seed develops at the cost of food stored in endosperm of seed and thus a
new plantlet is formed. This is called as seed germination.
10) Write the name of the type of reproduction in the following
figure.
Ans : The figure is of Hydra showing budding which is asexual type of
reproduction.

11) How can plants and animals save themselves from extinction?
Ans : Plants and animals save themselves from extinction by reproducing.
12) Name the three types of asexual reproduction in unicellular
organisms.
Ans : Binary fission, multiple fission and budding are the three types of
asexual reproduction seen in unicellular organisms.
13) Write the functions of-.
i) Ovary – Ovary is responsible for the development and release of
ovum as well as production of estrogen and progesterone hormones.
ii) Sepals – Sepals are green in colour and perform photosynthesis as
well as protect the inner essential whorls.
iii) Penis – Penis is responsible for ejaculation of semen into the vagina.
iv) Seminal vesicle – They release their secretions into the ejaculatory
duct which leads to formation of semen.
14) What does ecosystem mean?

Ans : The Ecosystem is formed by the biotic and abiotic factors and their
interactions with each other.
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15) What is indicated by this symbol ?

Ans : This sign is used for indicating that
‘this object can be reused and recycled’.
16) Write any two man made man made factors affecting the environment.
Ans : Deforestation and fishing.
17) The animal in figure ,belongs to which endangered species?
Ans : Lion tailed monkey.

18) Write the advantages of the Hydroelectric Power project.

Ans : Since no fuel is burnt in hydroelectric power generation, there is no pollution
resulting from combustion of fuels.
19) Write the problems associated with hydroelectric power projects.
Ans : The back-water due to storage of water in dam may submerge villages or towns
in that area. This leads to the problems of rehabilitation of the displaced population.
Moreover, this can also submerge forests as well as fertile land.
20) Write the merits of atomic energy.
Ans : A nuclear power plant does not use fossil fuel like coal. Therefore, problems like
air pollution do not arise. Also, if sufficient nuclear fuel is available, this can be a good
source of electrical energy
21) Write the demerits of an atomic energy plant.
Ans : The products after fission of nuclear fuel are also radioactive and emit harmful
radiations. The products are called as nuclear waste. How to dispose the nuclear waste
safely is a big challenge before the scientists.
22) Draw the flowchart showing generation of electrical energy.
Ans :

23) Which substance is used as fuel in nuclear power plants?

Ans : Uranium or Plutonium is used as fuel in nuclear power plant.
24) Energy from fossil fuels and nuclear plants are not eco friendly sources, why ?
Ans : 1) Burning of fossil fuels like coal, and Natural gas leads to emission of certain
gases and soot Particles. 2) Disposal of nuclear waste And possibility of disaster due to
accident in nuclear power plant are the problems associated with Atomic energy.
Therefore….
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26) In fuels coal and natural gas which one is eco friendly ? why?
Ans : Since the natural gas does not contain sulphur, burning of natural gas results in
less pollution. Thus natural gas is more eco friendly.
27) State the importance of inverters.
Ans : The DC power obtained from solar cells is converted to AC power using an
electronic device called inverter.
28) Why are control rods used in nuclear reactors ?
Ans : Control rods are used to control the rate of nuclear fission reaction.
29) What is green energy ? Which energy source can be called a green energy
source?
Ans : Energy generated without causing environmental problems is called as green
energy. Sources such as water, wind, sunlight and biofuels can be called as green
energy source.
30) Explain: Fossil energy is not an example of green energy.
Ans : Burning of fossil fuels like coal, and natural gas leads to emission of certain
gases and soot particles. This results in air pollution. Therefore…..
31) Which animal has three pairs of legs ?
Ans : Cockroach has three pairs of legs.
32) In how many parts is the body of Hemichordates divided ?
Ans : Body of hemichordates is divided into three parts viz. proboscis, collar and
trunk.
33) Write any one cold blooded animal you know.
Ans : Snake
34) Spongila bears numerous pores on their body .What are those pores called?
Ans : These pores are called as Ostia.
35) What are the animals having vertebral columns in their body called as ?
Ans : Animals having vertebral columns are called as vertebrates.
36) The body of the animal in which phylum is radially symmetrical and
diploblastic?
Ans : The body of animal in phylum cnidaria is radially symmetrical and
diploblastic.
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37) Write the name of the animal having pseudocoelom.

Ans : Ascaris has pseudocoelom.
38) Which animal doesn’t have a neck ?
Ans : Frog doesn’t have a neck.
39) What is the length of a hookworm?
Ans : About 8 to 13 millimetres.
40) How does the animal in the figure protect itself ?
Ans : Sea anemone protects itself using its tentacles.

41) What are the locomotory organs of the animal given in the picture ?
Ans : The locomotory organs of starfish are tube feet.

42) Which fungus is used to make soya sauce by fermentation?

Ans : Aspergillus oryzae
43) Why does the process of dirt removal occur in detergents even at low
temperature ?
Ans : Detergents contain microbial enzymes which are active at low temperatures.
Thus dirt removal can occur at even low temperatures.
44) What is added to impart thickness to instant soup ?
Ans : Xanthan gum
45) Which chemical substances get mixed with the soil by adding chemical
pesticides and insecticides in the agricultural industry?
Ans : Fluoroacetamide
46) Which microbes convert uranium to its insoluble salts ?
Ans : Geobacter
47) Write the names of two chronic diseases.
Ans : AIDS and TB
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48) Complete the following table.

Type of disaster Effects
A. Medical Injuries, emotional and mental stress,
Outbreaks of epidemics, deaths of victims.

B. Environmental Partial or complete collapsing of buildings,

drying out of water sources, contamination of
water, Stinky pollution of environment due to
decomposing corpses of humans and other
animals.
49) Correct the given statement and rewrite it.
An effect of disaster on economic leadership is that if local leadership is not
strong enough, citizens get confused.
Ans : An effect of disaster on Social leadership is that if local leadership is not
strong enough, citizens get confused.