NURSING PRACTICE I – COMMUNITY HEALTH

NURSING
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED.

SITUATIONAL

Situational 1 – Boy George is a 15-years-old adolescent who lives with his mother,
father, and several siblings. He is hospitalized in a provincial hospital after a suicide
attempt.

1. When performing a family assessment, select what the nurse must FIRST
determine.
A. How the family expresses and manages emotions
B. The communication patterns between the patients and parents
C. Names and relationship among the family members
D. The meaning that the patient’s suicide attempt has for family members

2. Which of the following is the BEST QUESTION for the nurse to ask to assess a
family’s ability to cope?
A. “Do you think your family copes effectively? “
B. “What do you think of the current family problem?”
C. “What strengths does your family have?”
D. “Can you describe how you successfully handled one family
problem?”

3. The mother of Boy George asks the nurse, “Why do you want to do a family
assessment? My teenager is the patient, not the rest of us.” What is the BEST
response of the nurse?
A. “Family dysfunction might have caused the mental illness.”
B. “Every family member’s perception of events is different and
adds to the total picture.”
C. “Family members provide more accurate information than the patient”
D. “Family assessment is a protocol for care of all patients with mental
illness.”

4. Which information is the nurse MOST likely to find when assessing the family of
a patient with mental illness?
 A. Power in the family is maintained in the parental dyad and rarely
delegated.
B. Several family members have serious problem with their psychological
health.
C. Stress that living with a mentally ill member has challenged the
family’s function.
D. The family exhibit many characteristics of dysfunctional families.

5. Parents of Boy George say, “We have never known anyone who was mentally ill.
We have no one to talk to because none of our friends understand the problems
we are facing.” Which of the following is the nurse’s MOST helpful intervention?
A. Facilities achievement of normal developmental tasks of the family.
B. Build the parent’s self-concept as coping patterns.
C. Teach the parents techniques of therapeutic communication.
D. Refer the parents to a support group.

Situation 2 – Collaboration is being able to work cooperatively and effecier with co-
workers and any other people the nurse may have to interact with. This includes other
health professionals, clients, and their families and communities.

6. Which of the following is NOT recognized as part of the nurse’s role as member
of the health team?
A. Care manager and supervisor
B. Provider of care educator
C. Patient advocate and supporter
D. Performing physician’s functions with supervision

7. The health team has brainstormed for ideas on creating a more collaborative
environment in a health care facility. Which idea or action would be the BEST to
develop further?
A. Develop a plan for the different team members to follow and show
impact of their work.
B. Emphasize that no one profession has all the necessary competence
to provide all care.
C. Hold education sessions regarding collaboration for each unit.
D. Institute collaborative strategies that are traditionally practiced.

8. Which patient scenario describes the BEST example of professional

collaboration?
A. The nurse, physician, and physical therapist have all visited separately
with the patient.
 B. The nurse mentions to the physical therapist that the patient may
benefit from a muscle strengthening evaluation.
C. The nurse and physician discuss the patient’s muscle weakness
and initiate a referral for physical therapy.
D. The nurse, physical therapist, and physician have all developed
separate care plans for the patient.

9. Which activities are appropriate for the nurse collaborate with a patient?
1. Prescribing a new medication
2. Health promotion activities
3. End-of-life comfort decisions
4. Interpreting laboratory results
5. Lifestyles changes to improve health

A. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 4, 5
B. 2, 4, 5 D. 1, 3, 5

10. The Rural Health Nurse and the Rural Health Physician are explaining the home
care that will be needed by a patient with Tuberculosis. The patient’s spouse
states angrily that it will not be possible to provide the care recommended. What
is the BEST response by the burse?
A. “I would like to listen to your concerns about the prescribed
care.”
B. “It is important that you do what the physician has prescribed.”
C. “I can come back after you talk with your spouse about the care.”
D. “Let me review what is needed again, then I’ll talk to you later.”

Situation 3 – Nurse Roger is assigned in a disaster-prone province in the Visayas. He is

aware that with the increase frequency of disaster happening, he has to respond quickly
and efficiently to assist the population affected by calamities.

11. Which of the following BEST defines a disaster?

A. Any event that results in multiple deaths.
B. Devastation that covers a broad geographical area.
C. Devastation that cannot be relieved without assistance.
D. The event results in multiple injuries, deaths and property damage.

12. Nurse Roger is guided by the ICN framework of disaster nursing competencies.
This framework consists of four areas in the continuum of disaster management
that corresponds to the four stages of disaster. What consist of the FIRST stage?
 A. Response C. Prevention
B. Preparedness D. Recovery

13. Nurse Roger has invited several agencies in the community to a meeting to
discuss the disaster plan for the community. Which of the following BEST
describes the purpose of this meeting? To _____________.
A. enhance communication among agencies in the community
B. increase stability in the community
C. manage response to disasters in the community
D. improve overall community functioning

14. Nurse Roger adapts professional nursing skills in recognizing and meeting the
physical and emotional needs resulting from a disaster. For people who are
willing to talk ensuing a disaster, which of the following is the MOST appropriate
approach?
A. “I am with you. It is good you are trying to release your distress
by crying. It will make you feel better.”
B. “What you need to do now is to wait for instructions and services to
provide.”
C. “Don’t feel bad. Others are in the same situation as yours.”
D. “You need to cry. You need to move on and build your life again.”

15. As he passed by a road going to an evacuation center, Nurse Roger encountered

a flash flood. A flash flood _______________.
A. occurs suddenly and for a short duration
B. is caused by the blocking of drains
C. is caused by heavy rains
D. occurs in urban areas

Situation 4 – In public health service, good record system is important in the delivery of
quality care to clients. As a public health nurse, you have the responsibility of assisting
in the preparation, maintenance of good records and reports.

16. You want to distinguish between records and reports. As applied to public health,
the following are the type of RECORDS, EXCEPT ______________.
A. events such as births, illness, deaths
B. analysis of a problem situation
C. clinic consultation
D. written data on home visit
 17. REPORTS are prepared usually for administrative purposes. Which of the
examples below is NOT a report?
A. Summary of services delivered
B. Accomplishments and failures of services
C. Description of a program and planned services
D. Client information and profile

18. There are commonly used records and reports in public health nursing practice.
The individual clinical record contains which of the following information?
1. Socio-demographic characteristics
2. Patient’s chief complaint
3. Physical examination findings
4. Prescription of drugs
5. Frequency of clinic check up
6. Attendance to community settings

A. 1, 3, 5, 6 C. 1, 2, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 3, 4, 5, 6

19. The Family Service and Progress Record (FSPR) serves as tool to operationalize
the concept of the family as the unit of care. The FSPR consists of four parts,
FIRST being ___________.
A. Health and nursing Problems
B. Nursing Care Plan
C. Assessment of the Family and the Environment
D. Service and Progress Notes

20. Which of the following relates to the family’s NURSING PROBLEM?

A. Inability to assume health tasks with respect to health problems
B. Crisis situation or developmental deficit
C. Health threats, risks or hazards
D. Strained relationships or disunity

Situation 5 – Ms.Lontok, a Public Health Nurse Supervisor, is preparing a supervisory

plan for midwives under her charge. A supervisory plan is a written document on how to
organize and systematizes supervisory activities.

21. The need for supervision may arise from the following:
1. Lack of staff motivation
2. Conflict between personal and organizational goals
3. Lack of knowledge and skills
 4. Desire for promotion or job permanency
5. Achieve health goals for agency

A. 2, 3, 4 C. 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 3

22. Ms.Lontok would require information regarding the supervisory needs of the
midwives which can be taken from which of the following?
1. Review of records and reports
2. Interview of the midwives
3. Review of literature
4. Observation of the midwives at work
5. Results of survey among the staff

A. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 4, 5

23. Ms.Lontok prioritizes supervisory needs and problems based on the following
criteria, EXCEPT __________________.
A. convenience to both parties to address needs
B. degree of importance of the identified need
C. availability of resources needed
D. activities needed to meet the identified need

24. During the actual supervisory visit, which of the following is NOT expected of
Ms.Lontok? She ____________.
A. discuss the objectives of the visit
B. expresses appreciation and support given for the visit
C. conveys a formal, strict approach to the midwives
D. explains the process and outcomes of the visit

25. After setting the objectives and selecting the activities, Ms.Lontok would need to
identify the indicators for evaluation. Which one is NOT included?
A. Needs met
B. Performance increased
C. Promotion achieved
D. Quality of service improved
Situation 6- As a public health nurses, Ms.Isay intends to focus on a specific population
to advocate, educate, and collaborate with members from a community to improve
heath of the people.

26. Nurse Isay collects data and monitors the heath status of the population. Which
of the following core public health function is being implemented?
A. Assurance
B. Policy Development
C. Assessment
D. Prevention

27. Nurse Isay included in her data collection the number and proportion of person
aged 25 or older with less than a high school. Which of the following BEST
describes this data
A. Health status data

B. Health care resource information

C. Health risk factors
D. Sociodemographic data

28. Working in the community with an aggregate/population, who does Ms.Isay

MOST likely to interact with?
A. Students in a local high school
B. Patients at the local hospital
C. Residents who play basketball
D. Christians in the community

29. Ms.Isay has a clear understanding of population-focused practice. Who of the

following characteristics would she MOST likely display?
A. Improving the effectiveness of care provided
B. Sponsoring a fund-raising project
C. Volunteering for a community action
D. Providing health interventions for individuals

30. Ms.Isay is working to improve population-focused care in the community. Which

of the following BEST describes a key opportunity for nurses like her to
accomplish this goal?
A. Assuming traditional nursing roles
B. Conducting community assessments
C. Specializing in community health practice
 D. Influencing public health policy

Situation 7 – Ethical issues on a day-to-day basis often involve patient

communication and advocacy. It may also include questions about end-of-life
care. Nurses are often the ones working closet with patients and families while
administering care.

31. What is the appropriate approach for the community/public health nurse in
balancing individual privacy and autonomy and the community’s needs for safety
and security?
A. Fulfill agency policies first.
B. Implement professional standards of nursing practice.
C. Remember that group needs outrank individual needs.
D. Seek a balance between individual needs and the community’s
needs.

32. In regard to informed consents, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Client may not be told about costs and alternatives to treatment.
B. Consent must be voluntary.
C. Only parents themselves should gives consent for minor children.
D. Legally incompetent adults can give consent.

33. The client has a ‘living will’ in which he states he does not want to be kept alive
by artificial means even at home. The client’s family wants to disregard the
client’s wishes and have him maintained on artificial life support. The most
appropriate initial course of action for the nurse would be to:
A. Allow the family to ventilate their feelings and concerns, while
maintaining the role of the client advocate.
B. Tell the family that they have no legal rights.
C. Report the situation to the hospital’s Ethics Committee.
D. Advice the family that they have the right to ignore the living will as the
patient cannot speak.

34. During a routine visit, the nurse noted that Perlita, 20-year old wife and mother,
has several bruises at various stages of healing. She tells the nurse that she fell
down. Failure to report your findings is an example of _____________.

A. malpractice
B. reasonable prudence
C. maleficence
D. negligence
 35. Which of the following examples would indicate observance of client
confidentially?
A. Reading a friend’s chart in another health care facility.
B. Describing a difficulty with a client in a health team conference.
C. Using a client’s name in a social conversation.
D. Talking about the client’s symptoms in front of family members.

Situation 8 – Non Communicable Disease (NCDs) remain to be the major health

challenges in the Philippines and globally. The specific population group that are mostly
afflicted by these chronic conditions, such as diabetes and cardiovascular diseases, are
those aged 60 and above.

36. When caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes who has been discharged, which
topic will be MOST important to include in your health teaching?
A. Impact of the patient’s family history on likelihood of developing
diabetes
B. Symptoms indicating that the patient should contact the health
care provider
C. Effect of endogenous insulin on transportation of glucose into cells.
D. Function of the liver in formation of glycogen and gluconeogenesis.

37. To obtain the MOST complete information when doing an assessment for a 75-
years-old patient, you will ____________.
A. ask the patient to write down medical problems and medications.
B. use a geriatric assessment instrument to evaluate the patient
C. interview both the patient and the primary patient caregiver
D. review the patient’s chart for the history of medical problems

38. Which information about 77-years-old patient who is being assessed the public
health nurse is of UTMOST concern? The patient __________________.
A. says, “I don’t go on my daily walks since I had pneumonia two
months ago.”
B. tells the nurse, “I prefer to manage my life without much help from
others.”
C. uses three different medications for chronic heart and joint problems.
D. organizes medications in a marked pillbox “so I don’t forget them.”
 39. When caring for an older adult who lives in a rural area, you will
______________.
A. Ensure transportation to appointment with the health care
provider
B. Assess the patient for chronic diseases that are unique to rural areas
C. Obtain adequate medications for the patient to last for 4 to 6 months
D. Suggest that the patient move to an urban area for better health care

40. Which of these patients assigned to you is MOST LIKELY to need planning for
long term nursing management?
A. 71 years old with appendicitis who has had an emergency
appendectomy
B. 60 years old with bilateral knee osteoarthritis who weighs 350 lbs
(159 kg)
C. 54 –years old cholecystitis who has had a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy
D. 62-year-old with acute sinusitis who will require antibiotic therapy for 5
days

Situation 9 – After passing the Nurse Licensure Examination, Nurse Magbanua takes
her first job in a Rural Health Unit in Municipality Z. she reviews concepts and principles
in Primary Health Care (PHC).

41. The key global agency that initiated the Alma Ata conference on Primary Health
Care is the _____________.
A. World Bank
B. World Health Organization (WHO)
C. CARE International
D. United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)

42. Which Asian country is considered among the FIRST to adopt the principles of
PHC?

A. Malaysia C. Thailand
B. Indonesia D. Philippines

43. Nurse Magbanua is aware that are she has to use “tools and methods that all
suitable and acceptable to the families and communities” that she serves. This
PHC principle is referred to as __________________.
A. cultural application C. essential methodology
 B. appropriate technology D. community participation

44. Nurse Magbanua recognizes that health services offered area to be in

accordance to the prevailing beliefs and practices of the intended clients of care.
This PHC principle is known as ______________.
A. availability C. affordability
B. acceptability D. accessibility

45. Collaboration and cooperation is crucial to the achievement of PHC goals. The
referral system among the RHU, non-government organization, and local social
welfare and development office is classified as what type of relationship?
A. Intra-sectoral collaboration
B. Coalition building
C. Inter-sectoral collaboration
D. Network linkage

Situation 10 – Assessment at the community-level of care is a multidiscipline

undertaking that involves the members of the health team. The public health nurse uses
data that have already been collected and are available and/or gathers primary data for
community diagnosis.

46. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. In the community setting,
which of the following objectives of assessment by the public health nurse is
NOT included?
A. Identify specific risk factors related to health and health problems.
B. Define the nature of the health status and health-related problems.
C. Identify clients who should be given priority for care.
D. Determine who should be referred to different health care facilities.

47. Conducting a community assessment leads to a community diagnosis, its

product consists of a profile of the community’s state of health. As a process, the
public health nurse actively participates in community diagnosis. The MOST
common method of data collection that is accurate and provides the biggest bulk
of community data is the ______________.
A. Observation C. interview
B. community census D. record review

48. The data on health and disease can be gathered from different sources. Which of
the following sources provide a MOST accurate set of data?
A. Population health profile from school and factory clinics.
B. Births and deaths from city/municipality registrar.
 C. Morbidity data from field personnel.
D. Morbidity cases from medical death certificates.

49. Data analysis involves quantification, description and classification of data which
would reveal community health problems. An analysis of the social, economic
environmental and political factors that influence health is categorized as:
A. Health resources problems
B. Health status problems
C. Health-related problems
D. Comprehensive problems

50. With the stated problems, the nurse and the community prioritize these using a
set of criteria. Which of the following criteria refers to the probability of reducing
controlling or eradicating the problem?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Preventive potential
C. Magnitude of the problem
D. Nature of the problem

Situation 11 – Professional and personal developments are required in order to maintain

and enhance professional standards and to provide quality, competent and safe patient
care.

51. Identify the element that is the BEST indicator of increasing accountability in the
profession of Nursing:
A. Increasing salary scale for nurses
B. Improved public image of nurses in social media
C. Increasing number of nurses with doctoral degree
D. Demonstration of competency and high-quality care

52. Which of the following is the MOST important element in nursing’s attempt to
gain full autonomy of practice?
A. Maintaining the education system for nurses as it is now
B. Economic well-being and welfare of nurses
C. Restricting the latitude of decisions made by nurses
D. Gaining and maintaining control of nursing practice by nurses

53. What is the best method for nurses to prepare for future professional practice?
A. Train other health care workers to whom delegation of tasks can be
given
 B. Understand and explore the issues involved in professional
practice
C. Establish a coalition with professional health organization
D. Take additional courses in the use of computers and telemetry

54. What allows a nurse to exert legitimate power over a client when providing
nursing care?
A. The ability to perform procedures to alleviate patient’s discomfort
B. The ability to provide the client and family incentives and for self care
C. The power given to the nurse by reason of licensure examination and
registration
D. The establishment of a professional and personal relationship with the
client

55. A nurse is employed by a health care agency that provides an informal training
session on how to properly use a new vital sign monitor. Which type of education
did the nurse receive?
A. Career counseling C. Pre employment education
B. Continuing education D. In-service education

Situation 12 – The Public Health Foundation, an NGO defines quality improvement in

public health as “the use of a deliberate and defined improvement process, such as the
PDCA which is focused on activities that are responsive to community needs and
improving population health.” Public Health Nurse Casuela learned this management
process during her undergraduate studies in Nursing.

56. The acronym PDCA stands for _______________________.

A. Plan-Do-Check-act
B. Program-Design-Check-Act
C. Plan-Draft-Certify-Act
D. Prepare-Do-Check-Achieve

57. Nurse Casuela will use the PDCA when :

1. Working toward continuous improvement
2. Implementing any change
3. Developing a new design of a process or service
4. Completing a designed project
5. Planning data collection and analysis to prioritize problems
A. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 5
 58. Using PDCA cycle as a model for defining most of the work processes the
following are some areas of its application, EXCEPT _______________.
A. Need analysis
B. Overall strategies planning
C. Staff goals setting and evaluation
D. Delegation of work to lower levels

59. Nurse Casuela knows that the purpose of Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)
is to ______________.
A. provide opportunity for staff members to participate in self-governance
B. restructure health care delivery to improve cost savings
C. deliver appropriate nursing care at tertiary level of service
D. monitor processes involved in the provision of safe, effective
client care

60. Nurse Casuela is implementing quality performance standards in a public health

department. Which of the following BEST describes the importance of this
action? Quality performance standards _______________.
A. Can be used as hiring guidelines for nurses
B. Are used to guide improvement in the public health system
C. Guide administrators to monitor public health at the national level
D. Rigidly control public health

Situation 13 – The World Health Care Organization stated that occupational health
services, provided at the workplace to address the health care needs of working
populations, have been identified as an important component of the public health
strategies.

61. Occupational health services can make a significant contribution to government

iniative. These inclueds the following, in reducing:
1. Health insurance
2. Health inequalities
3. Social exclusion
4. Sickness absence
5. Overall burden of ill health
A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. 2, 4, and 5
B. 1, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

62. The nurse is a key figure involved in delivering quality occupational health
services. She/He works independently or as part of a larger interprofessional
health team. She performs, along with others a job safety analysis. In doing such,
 the following methods may be employed, safety analysis. In doing such, the
following methods may be employed, EXCEPT:
A. Review of records, interviews, surveys
B. Walk-through, process and output reviews
C. Observation, focused group discussion
D. Personal choices or preference of the administration

63. The head of the health team creates a workplace safety report for a new clinic.
He makes a strict recommendation to ensure that sharps are properly disposed
in a puncture-proof container to decrease the risk of needle-prick injuries. This
upholds safety under which of the following categories?
A. Physical C. Biological infections
B. Chemical D. Psychosocial

64. The occupational nurse has advocated the use of ramps and assistive equipment
for physically challenged workers. This is a good example of which of the
following levels of prevention?
A. Health promotion C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. Primary

65. Every employee has a right to privacy and should be protected from
unauthorized and inappropriate disclosure of personal information. Which
situation does NOT provide exception to employee’s right to privacy?
A. Authorization by the employee to release information
B. Life-threating emergencies
C. Compliance with government laws and regulations
D. Request from community leaders

Situation 14 – Public Health Nurse Manaog is a member of the health team there is
tasked by the Rural Health Unit to identify, define and measure major health problems
of interest.

66. Public health surveillance includes the following activities, EXCEPT

_______________.
A. Data analysis C. Disease control
B. Data collection D. Data interpretation

67. Public health surveillance can be BEST described PRIMARY as which of the
following?
A. A system for collecting health-related information
 B. A method to monitor occurrences of public health problem
C. A program to control disease outbreaks
D. A system for monitoring persons who have been exposed to
communicable disease

68. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for prioritizing health problem for
surveillance?
A. Incidence of the problem
B. Number of previous studies of the problem
C. Social and economic impact of the problem
D. Public concern about the problem

69. Current public health surveillance targets the following. Which one is NOT
included?
A. Chronic diseases C. Communicable diseases
B. Population migration D. Occupational hazards

70. Common uses and applications of public health surveillance include which of the
following examples?
1. Detecting individual persons with malaria so that they can receive
prompts and appropriate treatment.
2. Helping public health officials decide how to allocate their disease
control resources.
3. Identifying changes over time in the proportion of children with
elevated blood lead levels in a community.
4. Documenting changes in varicella (chickenpox) incidence, after a law
mandating varicella vaccination in the Expanded Program of
Immunization took effect.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 4

Situation 15 – You are newly-assigned Rural Health Nurse and you have learned that
based on the latest health information health information of the municipality, food- and
water- transmitted parasitic infections are prevalent.

71. The factors that contribute to the occurrence of food-transmitted diseases are the
following, EXCEPT ____________.
A. consumption of improperly cooked food
B. eating habits of the population such as eating raw food
C. lack of fuel for cooking food
D. overconsumption of locally available food
 72. Paragonnimus westermani of the Oriental lung fluke causes infection in the
human population by eating inadequately cooked crabs. Patient with
paragonimiasis are usually diagnosed to have ___________________.
A. malaria C. typhoid fever
B. bacillary dysentery D. pulmonary tuberculosis

73. The eggs of Taenia solium of taenia saginata may be ingested by the pig or
cattle who serve as intermediate hosts. Which of the following measures will
PREVENT access of animal from ingesting Taenia egg?
A. Quarantine or isolate the animal
B. Feeding the pigs and cattle the clean foods
C. Proper disposal of human feces
D. Protect the animals by giving them vitamins

74. Prevention of Infection from entamoeba histolytica is BEST done through which
of the following practices?
A. Eating only organic vegetables
B. Washing food very well
C. Cooking food properly
D. Boiling of water from questionable source

75. Giardiasis is a disease caused by a flagellated protozoan and its prevalence is

associated with which of the following conditions?
1. Poor environmental sanitation
2. Poor hygiene
3. Improper cooking of food
4. Overcrowding
5. Malnutrition
A. 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 5

Situation 16 – Public health nurse Criselda wants to increase her knowledge familiarity
with the element of a research publication.

76. Nurse Criselda is analyzing a research article. What section in the article can she
expect to find the research question and study purpose?
A. Discussion C. Methods
B. Results D. Introduction
 77. Nurse Criselda is looking for a description of the type of measurement used in
the study. She will find this in which section o article?
A. Conclusion C. Result
B. Introduction D. Methods

78. A brief explanation of data collection and analysis procedure is found in which
section of the article?
A. Abstract C. Discussion
B. Conclusion D. Introduction

79. Nurse Criselda wants to go over the list of reference used in the study which can
be found _______________.
A. at the end of the article
B. in the results section
C. as part of the literature review
D. in the introduction

80. Nurse Criselda believes that research is significant to the nursing profession;
hence, the study results should be disseminated. This is because research
allows ______________.
A. a specialized body of knowledge to be generated for use in health
care delivery.
B. the scope of nursing practice to be expanded into areas formerly
reserved for other disciplines
C. nursing responsibility to be more specifically defined
D. liability within the practice of nursing to be decreased

Situation 17 – The Family Nursing Care Plan is designed to provide ways in soling
health-related problems of the family as a whole. The nursing process in used to make
this type of care plan.

81. In conducting a family assessment, which source of data would be MOST

helpful?
A. Input from other members of the health team
B. Information from other cooperating health care agencies
C. Review of family members’ chart and medical record data
D. Observation and interaction with the family members

82. In completing a family assessment, the public health nurse should BEGIN by
_________________.
A. gathering the health data from all family members
 B. testing the family’s ability to cope
C. evaluating communication patterns
D. determining the family’s norms and attitudes

83. Which of the following would be better understood by the nurse after using a
FAMILY MAP?
A. Roles and relationships within the family
B. Recognition of the leader who speaks for the family
C. Description of the social and economic status of the family
D. Identification of the geographic location of resources for the family

84. The nurse discusses with the family some actions that needed to be taken and
refers to the wife in the family as an outstanding organizer. Which of the following
goals is the nurse trying to achieve by making this statement?
A. Making the husband proud that he had married his wife.
B. Reinforcing for the family some of the strengths of one of their
family members.
C. Encouraging the wife to volunteer to follow through on all the needed
actions.
D. Making the wife feel very complimented and proud.

85. In implementing family centered care, the public health nurse _______________.
A. works with the clients to help them accept limitations for their
actions
B. assists family members to assume dependent roles
C. offers information about necessary self-care abilities
D. provide his or her own beliefs on how to solve problems

Situation 18 – The Department of Health has vowed to end Neglected Tropical

Diseases (NTDs) by 2030. In the Philippines, the NTDs that are prevalent include
leprosy and rabies. One of the strategies to address this goal through conduct of
HEALTH EDUCATION program.

86. Public Health Nurse Gabriela is educating a group of residents in Community X

about RABIES. A participant asks, “How can you get the virus?” The Nurse
explains that the virus can be transmitted by which source?
A. Saliva C. Urine
B. Blood D. Stool

87. She emphasized that the bites, which are responsible for nearly 99 percent of
human rabies infections, are those of the infected ________________.
 A. Monkeys C. Bats
B. Dogs D. Cats

88. Nurse Gabriela explains that there are situations which increase the risk of
rabies. These are ______________.
A. Stray dog bites
B. All of these
C. Unprovoked bites
D. Animal display abnormal behavior

89. In another health education session, Nurse Gabriela explains about LEPROSY.
Which of the following should include?
1. Leprosy is curable
2. Not all leprosy patient are infectious
3. Leprosy is hereditary
4. Casual contact with a patient causes leprosy
5. Regular and adequate treatment is essential
A. 1, 3, 5 C.1, 2, 5
B. 2, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 4

90. Nurse Gabriela stated that a definitive diagnosis of leprosy is obtained through
__________________.
A. Blood examination C. Skin smears/biopsies
B. Tuberculin testing D. Nasal smears

Situation 19 – Nurses perform duties that require physical assessment, critical thinking,
and collaborative treatment plans, to name a few. Thus, nurses must understand the
laws that affect their practice, as well as their legal responsibilities in their professional
roles.

91. A nurse must follow laws that protect public health, safety, and welfare. Which
law is the nurse following?
A. Code of Ethics
B. Standards of Practice
C. Continuing Professional Development
D. Nursing Practice Act

92. Which situation supports the charge of malpractice against a professional nurse?
A. A failure on the part of the nurse to establish a therapeutic relationship
with the patient.
 B. A failure on the part of the nurse to ensure the patients only received
care for which they could play.
C. A failure on the part of the nurse to exercise reasonable and
prudent care in treating a patient.
D. A failure on the part of the nurse to allay a patient’s fears about an
upcoming procedure.

93. What does the court consider in determining the nurse’s legal liability for
standards of care?
A. Professional education, experience, and specific conduct
B. Professional experience, but not education or conduct
C. Professional conduct, but no experience or education
D. Professional education, but not experience or conduct

94. The Board of Nursing has brought action against a nurse’s licenses base upon
violation of a regulation. What is TRUE about this scenario?
A. Rules and regulations are internal to the Board, not the nurse.
B. Rules and regulations are only suggested standards of care and do not
have to be followed.
C. These rules and regulations have the force of law.
D. Violation of a rule or regulation is not the same as violation of the
Nursing Practice Act.

95. A patient, injured at work, was seen by the factory occupational nurse. The nurse
treated the wound and instructed the patient to get a tetanus antitoxin injection at
the City Health Center. The patient failed to follow instruction, developed tetanus,
and subsequently filed a suit against the nurse. What is the most likely result of
ensuing trial? The nurse is ________________________.
A. liable, because there was no follow-up to ensure that the patient
received the injection
B. not liable for damages, because the nurse has right to expect that
instructions will be followed
C. liable, because tetanus is a easily treatable after diagnosis
D. not liable, because tetanus is a reportable disease and the health
center is should have insisted the treatment.

Situation 20 – The ability to communicate is a very important skill for every nurse to
have. The nurse must do so in an effective, caring and professional manner, especially
when communicating whit patients and their families.
 96. A nurse wants to present information about influenza immunization to the older
adults in the community. Which type of communication should the nurse use?
A. Public C. Small group
B. Interpersonal D. Intrapersonal

97. A nurse is standing beside the patient’s bed. Nurse: “How are you doing?”
Patient: “I don’t feel good.” Which of the following communication ELEMENTS is
categorized as feedback?
A. “How are you doing?” C. Nurse is standing
B. “I don’t feel good.” D. Patient in bed

98. A smiling patient angrily states, “I will not cough and deep breathe.” How will the
nurse interpret this finding? The patient’s ______________________.
A. signified meaning is wrong
B. affect is inappropriate
C. personal space was violated
D. vocabulary is poor

99. BEFORE meeting the patient, a nurse talks to other caregivers about the patient.
Which phase of helping relationship is the nurse in with this patient?
A. Termination C. Working
B. Preinteraction D. Orientation

100. During the INITIAL home visit, the nurse lets the patient know that visit is
expected to end in about a month. Which phase of the helping relationship is the
nurse in with this patient?
A. Working C. Orientation
B. Preinteraction D. Termination

*** E N D ***

WARNING: Failure to submit your Test Questions (Complete) set will

cause the cancellation of your Test-Results for the subject.

NURSING PRACTICE -1
 1. The 4P’s is more than a welfare program; it addresses structural inequities in
society and promotes human capital development of the poor, thus, breaking the
intergenerational cycle of poverty. What is the meaning of 4 P's?
a. Programa ng mga Pilipino Para Sa Pilipinas
b. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
c. Programang Pangkalusugang Para sa Pamayanan
d. Pangkabuhayan Program Para sa Pilipino

2. The poorest households in the municipalities are selected through a proxy-

means test.. Who conducts the selection process?
a. BHW b. Public health Nurse c. DOH d. DSWD

3. The 4Ps has a purpose as the flagship poverty alleviation program. What is the
purpose of 4 P’s?
1. Social assistance
2. Giving monetary support to extremely poor families
3. Social development
4. Breaking the intergenerational poverty cycle
5. investing in the health and education of poor children
6. Giving free housing to extremely poor families

a. 1-2-3-4-5-6 b. 1-2-3-4 c. 1-3-6 d. 1-2-3-4-5

4. An individual is established as HIV positive after:

a. 1 positive and 2 positive Western blot
b. a positive ELISA and 1 positive Western blot
c. 2 positive ELISA and 1 negative Western blot
d. 2 positive ELISA and 1 positive Western blot

5. A client just got the news that antibodies were detected for HIV in her recent test.
The nurse tells to the patient that these results must be confirmed with?
a. ELISA b. CD4 cell count c. CBC d. Western
blot

 
6. Which statement by the nurse is correct when discussing AIDS prevention and
transmission?
1. Sharing needles
2. dry kissing
3. casual contact
4. breastfeeding
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4
7. What groups had the highest rate of HIV infection , HIV diagnoses, AIDS and
had the highest HIV incidence ?
a. Whites MSM b. Gay Hispanics c. Black MSM d.
Caucasian

8. The result finding of the patient with HIV is abnormal. Pancytopenia occurs when
a person has a decrease in
a. red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets
b. red blood cells and white blood cells
c. white blood cells and platelets
d. white blood cells

9. Mers corona virus is believed to be transmitted by

a. Bat
b. Camels
c. Monkey
d. Deers

10. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV) is a viral

respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus that has not been found in people
before. The first cases were reported on 
a. April 2014 B. April 2012 C. April 2014 D.
September 2012

11. Infection prevention and control measures are critical to prevent the possible
spread of MERS-CoV in health care facilities. A patient suffering from MERS cov
must be placed into a?
A: Respiratory isolation in negative room pressure
B: room of a patient suffering with with same condition
C: Normal isolation room
D: Room That always closed the door

12. Who is high risk to acquire MERS cov infection?

a. PTB patient
b. Patient with Pneumonia
c. Patient with Cancer
d. man working in farm milk and cheese factory

13. John Snow is

A. The father of Epidemiology
B. Established postulates for transmission of infectious disease
C. Argued that the environment was associated with diseases such as malaria
D. Was a London surgeon who identified an environmental cause of cancer
14. He isolated the specific causative agents of tuberculosis infection?
a. John Snow b. Percival Pott c. Robert Koch d. Gerhard Armeur

15. It became a major threat to health during the 1800s causing a severe outbreak
of a certain disease occurred near Broad Street in the Soho district of London,
England.
a. Cholera b. malaria c. Pertussis d. TB

16. Ebola virus was first identified in 1976 and since then all outbreaks occurred in
Africa. Ebola sources can be the following ;select all that applies 
1.chimpanzees 3.fruit bats 5.antelope 
2.gorillas 4.monkeys 6.porcupines

a. 1, 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 4 only
d. 1,2,3,4,5,6

17. The most recent and largest outbreak of EBOLA as yet have been reported is
from
a. Central Africa b. North America  c. West Africa d.
Asia

18. To prevent infection and transmission of Ebola, health workers or those caring for
Ebola patients at home have to
a. Wear protective clothing such as masks, gloves, gowns, and goggles 
b. Use complete equipment sterilization and use disinfectants
c. Isolate  Ebola patients from contact with unprotected persons 
d. All of the above

19. Which animal is considered a natural Ebola virus host?

a. Deer b. monkey c. Fruit bat d. cow

20. Which symptom is common in the later stages of Ebola?

a. Diarrhea b. Muscle aches c. Sore throat d.
Bleeding

21. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases of notifiable

diseases. What law mandates reporting of cases of notifiable diseases?
a. Act 3573 b. R.A. 3753 c. R.A. 1054 d. R.A. 1082

22. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines,
together with some other countries inthe Western Pacific Region, “free” of which
disease?
 A.Pneumonic plague B.Poliomyelitis C.Small pox
D.Anthrax

23. A major symptom of cholera is:

a. difficulty breathing
b. constipation
c. rice water diarrhea
d. skin rashes

24. The Black Death was also known as 

a. Malaria b. Smallpox c. Bubonic Plague d. Influenza
25. Pelvic inflammatory disease can produce acute symptoms and result in infertility,
ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. It includes inflammation of the
fallopian tubes, ovaries and the pelvis which is also secondary brought by
another type of infection like?
A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. HIV D.
Syphilis

26. The most common STD?

a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. HPV d.
Syphilis

27. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for parasitic infestation
use as antihelminthic is:
a. Akapulko b. Sambong c. Calachuchi d. Niyog
niyogan

28. The interval of deworming of antihelminthic drugs for uderfive children is;
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. one year d. none of the
above

29. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology.

Which medicinal herb is given for colds?
A.Sambong B.Tsaang gubat C.Akapulko D.Lagundi

30. What we could counsel our patients about the use of garlic?
a. Take it anytime c. Take it before meals
b. Take it as needed d. Take it after meals

31. Nurse John is aware that the herbal medicine appropriate for urolithiasis is:
a. Akapulko b. Sambong c. yerba buena d. ulasimang bato
32. Sputum Specimens collected under the supervision of a DOTS facility staff if the
nurse is assigned to collect sputum specimen to a client for DSSM she must
instruct the patient to expectorate and collect at least how many ml of sputum
a. 2-3 ml b. 3-5 ml c. 5-7 ml d. 5-10 ml

33. The basis for the improvement in strategies in maternal and neonatal care is on
Millennium Development Goals, which are
a. MDGs 1 & 2 b. MDGs 2 & 4 c. MDGs 3 & 5 d. MDGs 4 & 5

34. How many mothers die each day due to childbirth and delivery?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 13 d. 16

35. In Public health nursing who is the primary client?

a. Family b. community c. individual d. special
populations

36. What SDG focuses access to safe water and sanitation and sound management
of freshwater ecosystems are essential to human health and to environmental
sustainability and economic prosperity.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1

37. What is the color of the bag where the nurse should place radioactive wastes?
a. Yellow b. green c. black d. orange

38. Which of the following represents the three Rs?

a. Reduce - Rearrange - Recycle
b. Reduce - Reuse - Recycle
c. Reduce - Respect – Recycle
d. Reduce - Reconsider - Respect

39. Which of the following items cannot be recycled?

a. Empty vials b. empty IV bottles c. kitchen
meals d. market plastic

40. This Goal focuses to make cities and communities sustainable.

a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1

41. The disease focus of SDG’s

a. Cholera b. Tb c. pertussis d. malaria

42. What SDG number is health centered?

a. 3 b. 6 c. 11 d. 1
43. What year is the target for SDG’s
a. 2020 b. 2025 c. 2030 d. 2040

44. Among which of the following is a Health centered SDG

a. 3 b. 6 c. 1 d. 10

45. Treatment of leptospirosis is symptomatic but this drug is prescribed at 200 mg

orally once a week for prevention. What is the drug of choice?
A. Doxycycline b. Chloramphenicol c. Gentamycin d.
amoxicillin

46. . It is the aroma therapy used for cough and colds

a. lemon grass b. eucalyptus c. lavender d.
ginger

47. What is the tool used for survey?

a. Questionnaires b. checklist observation d. records

48. What is the symbol used to represent the independent variable of research?
a. Y B. N C. X D. Z

49. Which gas is NOT produced by greenhouses?

A.Oxygen  b. Water vapor  c. Methane  d. Carbon dioxide

50. Greenhouse effect refers to

A) ability of atmosphere to retain water vapor
B ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the planet
relatively warm
C) ability of cloud to scatter electromagnetic radiation
D) none of the above

51. PhilHealth and beneficiaries have access to a comprehensive package of

services. How can a Philhealth member avail his philhealth upon discharge.
A. The doctors PF is free.
B. Discount from the total bill plus the doctors Pf. 
C. Discount from the total bill w/o the doctors PF
D. Reimbursement of the paid total bill upon discharge

52. The annual contribution for Philhealth is

a. 600.00 b. 1200.000 c. 2400.00 d. 4000.00
53. Philhealth recently made changes in the implementation of its outpatient benefit
package (OPB).What are the out-patient Philhealth coverage?
A. Vasectomy
B. Appendectomy
C. Cataract surgery
D. TB-DOTS
E. Hysterectomy
a. C and E b. A-C-D c. A and D d. A-B-C

54. What is the first step in home visit?

a. Assess the environment
b. Perform the bag technique
c. Record all data
d. Greet the client and introduce self

55. Who is the unit of care in PHN?

a. Individual b. Family c. Population group d.
Community

56. Which of the following must be remove by the nurse inside the PHN bag
A. Hypodermic needle 0.5”
B. Bandage scissors
C. Cord clamp
D. Paper lining

57. A balut vendor roaming around the barangay entered one of the houses in the
community when he was suddenly attacked and bitten by a stray dog.
He submits self to the nearest clinic for proper wound care and treatment,
punctured wounds was noted in the different parts of his body.What is the most
affected part of the body by the rhabdovirus?
A. Head b. Hands c. Leg d. Foot

58. The Collins family, which includes a mother, Jean;Stepfather, Adam; two teenage
biological daughters of the mother, Lisa and Laura; and a biological daughter of
the father, 25-year-old Stacey is an example of an:
a. Nuclear Family
b. Blended Family
c. Extended Family
d. Alternative Family
 59. A nurse is using a genogram to represent a family. Which of the following
statements is accurate?
a. A genogram can be used to make connections about family health
patterns. 
b. A genogram identifies the genetic disorders of the family. 
c. A genogram includes information about the past two generations. 
d. A genogram begins with a circle in the center of the page.

60. The nurse is assessing a client who is suffering from diarrhea, fever, headache,
abdominal pain, and nausea. The client reports having eaten home-canned
tomatoes. What foodborne illness should the nurse suspect?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Cyclospora cayetanensis
d. Listeria monocytogenes

61. What is the route of transmission of Hepatitis C infection?

a. Foodborne b. vectorborne c. bloodborne d.
waterborne

62. How is a disaster the same as or different from an emergency?

a. A disaster is personal, whereas an emergency is community-wide.
b. An emergency is personal, whereas a disaster is community-wide.
c. Both emergencies and disasters are devastating.
d. Both emergencies and disasters are failures resulting in extensive insurance
claims.

63. Which medication would the nurse give to a patient with HIV/AIDS before meals
that needs appetite stimulation to treat HIV wasting syndrome?
a. Adipex b. Megestrol Acetate c. Dronabinol  d. testosterone
enenthate

64. A child with phenylketonuria must be referred to

a. Geneticist b. nutritionist d. dietician d.cardiologist

65. Among which of the following is the ideal milk formula for phenylketonuria (PKU)
a. Isomil b. lofenalac c. probencee d. neutramigen S

66. Among which of the following foods should be avoided by patient with
phenylketonuria (PKU)
a. fish steak b. vegetable c. milk d. pasta
 67. In the community Diabetes mellitus is one of the leading morbidity. What is the
most common predisposition of Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?
a. obesity b. diet c. heredity d.age

68. It is effective used for mild non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus:

a. Bayabas c. bawang
b. Ampalaya d. ulasimang bato

69. An act defining violence against women and their children

a. Republic Act 7610
b. Republic Act 9262
c. Republic Act 8353
d. Republic Act 8504

70. In a situation in which a patient clearly does not have the capacity to make
informed decisions, clinicians do not continue to seek informed consent from
their patients. In an emergency, when someone is unconscious, the physician
signs the consent in behalf of the patient ability to give consent and administer
emergency treatment.
a. Autonomy b. Utilitarianism c. Paternalism d. Non
maleficence

71. It is the doing a thing not ought to be done and non doing a thing which ought to
be done is a negligent act but when there is an exemption to the general rule it
means 
a. misfeasance  b. Non malfeasance  c. Negligence d.
Epikia

72. The Certificate of Registration of a professional nurse is issued and can be

suspended or revoked by the:
a. Professional regulation commission
b. Philippine regulatory board of nursing
c. Philippine nurses association
d. Commission on higher education

73. A client is in the community was brought to the emergency room by friends who
state that he abuse a known drug cannabis sativa an hour ago. The nurse knows
that the client is under the abuse of
a. Heroin b. Cocaine c. Marijuana d.
Amphetamines

74. The vector of dengue fever can be found in

a. Gabi,banana,abacca leaves
b. Streams
 c. Stagnant water
d. Rivers

75. In doing a tourniquet test, how would petechiae be considered positive?

a. 1- 5 cm petechiae rash
b. 10 inches petechiae rash
c. more than 30 petechiae rash
d. no petechiae rah

76. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and
distribution of diseases, defects, disability or death which occurs in groups or
aggregation of individuals.

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

77. In crude death rate population is taken as on-

a. 1st March b. 1st July. c. 1st April d. 15th August

Situation Miss Kat, Registered NURSE, was invited in a forum. The topic was about
HIV-AIDS and the group was composed of ten pregnant women, and five newly married
women whose husbands are seafarers.

78. Miss Kat’s first topic was on HIV transmission. After explaining the different
transmission modes, she asked the group: “Which among the following is the
MAJOR mode of transmission of disease?”
A. Blood Transfusion C. Needle pricks
B. Sexual intercourse D. Kissing

79. One of the pregnant women asked the BEST way to prevent HIV transmission
from a pregnant HIV (+) mother to child?
A. Deliver the child via normal delivery with cervical support
B. Stop pregnancy by abortion
C. Drink antiviral medicines as prescribed by physician
D. Prenatal check-up more than the standards

80. Miss Kat continued with her health teaching. This time she described four main
routes of HIV transmission. Which is NOT included?
A. Childbirth and breastfeeding
B. Unprotected vaginal and anal or oral sex
C. Breathing the same air as someone living with HIV does
D. Sharing unsterilized injecting drug equipment
 81. Miss Kat gave a few questions to the audience about HIV transmission to find out
if they were able to learn about it."Which of the following is the LEAST among
HIV transmission that can directly enter the body via the blood stream or mucous
membranes?” This can be through the _______________.
A. urethra or inside the foreskin of the penis C. dermis of the skin
B. lining of the vagina, cervix or womb D. lining the anus

SITUATION 13: Field health services and information system provides summary
data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up
to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how this
information became processed and consolidated.

82. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS EXCEPT;

a. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their
natural history
b. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be accessed for more
in depth studies
c. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care
and promotive activities
d. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a
timely and easy to use fashion

83. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service
information system?
a. Family treatment record c. Reporting forms
b. Target Client list d. Output record

84. The primary advantage of having a target client list is, it_______
A. let’s nurses save time and effort in monitoring treatment and services to
beneficiaries
B. facilitates easier reporting for the nurses
C. helps nurses monitor service rendered to clients in general
D. facilitates monitoring and supervision services

85. The nurse uses the FHSIS record system INCORRECTLY when she________.
A. records a child who has frequent diarrhea in TCL, Under-five
B. refers to the other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reports
C. goes to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the tally sheet/report
Summary
D. records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FSHIS/M1

86. In assessing a patient, the _______ is used by the nurse to record his /her
address, full name, age, symptoms, and diagnosis.
a. target client list
b. output record
 c. individual treatment record
d. reporting forms

87. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as
eligible to a certain program of the DOH?
A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

88. The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is the recording and
reporting system in public health care in the Philippines. The Monthly Field
Health Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the components of the
FHSIS?
a. Tally report c. Target/client list
b. Output report d. Individual health record

89. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities
and services?
a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly

90. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the Multi-Drug

Therapy, which component will be most useful?
a. Tally report c. Target/client list
b. Output report d. Individual health record

91. It includes the record of the patient’s signs and symptoms, complaints, and the
corresponding treatment.
a. Individual treatment record c. Family treatment record
b. Target Client list d. Output record

92. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

A. At the end of the day

B. At the end of the week
C. At the end of the month
D. At the end of the year

93. Target client list will be transmitted to the next facility in the form of

A. Family treatment record

B. Target Client list
 C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

94. All but one of the following are eligible target client list

A. Leprosy cases
B. TB cases
C. Prenatal care
D. Diarrhea cases

95. This is the only mechanism through which data are routinely transmitted from
once facility to another

A. Family treatment record

B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

96. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health activities is prepared how
frequently?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. Yearly

97. Nurse is preparing the reporting form for weekly notifiable diseases. He knew
that he will code the report form as

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1

98. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the following correctly codes this
occurrence?

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
 D. FHSIS/M-1 

99. Where should Nurse bring the reporting forms if he is in the BHU Facility?

A. Rural health office

B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

100. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse
Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?

A. Rural health office

B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

101. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of fatigue and frequent
syncope. You assessed Mang Raul and found out that he is severely
malnourished and anemic. What record should you get first to document these
findings?

A. Family treatment record

B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

102. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full name, age, symptoms
and diagnosis is recorded in

A. Family treatment record

B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

103. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because he is in the target
client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Raul’s entry be documented?
 A. TCL Eligible Population
B. TCL Family Planning
C. TCL Nutrition
D. TCL Pre Natal

104. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system INCORRECTLY when she
found out that

A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the Tally/Report

Summary
B. She refer to other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reports
C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FHSIS/M-1
D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL : Under Five

105. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A BHS can be
considered a reporting unit if all of the following are met except

A. It renders service to 3 barangays

B. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the area
C. The BHS Have no mother BHS
D. It should be a satellite BHS

106. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what type of technology?

A. Internet
B. Microcomputer
C. Supercomputer
D. Server Interlink Connections

107. Which of the following is NOT a criterion in priority setting?

a. Social concern
c. Preventive potential
b. Modifiability of the problem
d. Health – related problems

108. What type of disease pattern is the intermittent occurrence of a few

isolated and unrelated cases in a given locality?
 a. Sporadic b. Epidemic c. Endemic d. Pandemic

109. The “Elderly Filipino Week” is observed and celebrated every

a. Last week of September
b. First week of October
c. Last week December
d. First week November

110. The Social Pension Program for Indigent Senior Citizens (SPISC) is the

additional government assistance monthly coming from what agency?
a. Department of Budget and Management (DBM) 
b. Department of Health (DOH)
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD) 
d. National Economic and Development Authority  (NEDA)

SITUATION 15 - A patient, 23 years old, single, primigravida, pregnant at the 3rd

trimester delivered her baby in a maternity clinic.

111. Civil registries are important sources of data. PD 651 law requires registration
of births ________from the occurrence of the birth?
a. 24 hours
b. Within 30 days
c. 72 hours
d. not more than 1 week

112. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate?
a. Public health nurse
b. Rural health midwife
c. Municipal Mayor
d. Any of these health professionals involved

113. When there’s a wrong entry in the birth certificate, what recourse could be
made?
a. Report it to the police
b. Petition to the court
c. Correct it in the NSO
d. Petition to the NBI

114. In the Family code of the Philippines, legitimate affiliation

a. Private Handwritten Instrument in the handwriting and signed by father
concerned.
b. Illegitimate child shall use the surname of his mother
c. Enter the last name of the father if both parents execute the Affidavit of
Acknowledgement at the back of the Certificate of Live Birth.
d. Enter the last name of the acknowledging parent if either the father or the mother
alone acknowledges the child

115. The child can claim his/her legitimacy

a. During his/her lifetime
b. Until 18 years of age
c. Upon reaching the age of majority
d. Until marriage

116. A pictorial tool that can assist the nurse in assessing aspects of family life
related to health care is the: 
a. Genogram 
b. Family values construct 
c. Life cycle model 
d. Human development wheel 

117. Among which of the following BEST describes maturational crisis?

a. Car accident b. mental illness c. marriage d. divorce

118. This is used to study the family history, especially through

studying historical documents to discover the relationships between particular
people and their families.
a. Genogram c. Ecomap
b. Genealogical chart d. Pedigree Chart

119. Which of the following are the four-chronic diseases referred to by WHO?
1. Cardiovascular diseases 4. Arthritis
2. Cancer 5. Diabetes Mellitus
3. Dementia 6. Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 2, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 4, and 6 D. 2, 4, 5, and 6

120. The WHO reveals that the NUMBER ONE case of death from chronic
diseases worldwide, using the 2015 estimate, is __________.
A. Tuberculosis C. Ischemic Heart Disease
B. Diabetes Mellitus D. Pneumonia

121. In the Philippines, which is the TOP killer according to the Department of
Health (2009 data)
A. Asthma C. Tuberculosis
B. Cancer D. Pneumonia

122. When studying chronic diseases, the multifactorial etiology of illness is

considered. What does this imply?
 A. Single organism that causes the disease, such as cholera, must be studied in
more detail.
B. Focus should be on the factors or combinations and levels of factors
contributing to disease.
C. The rise in infectious and communicable disease must be the main focus.
D. Genetics and molecular structure of disease is paramount.

123. Determinants of health to address the development of cancer in a

community include:
1) Proximity of the community to chemical plants that emit poisonous gases.
2) High percentage of tobacco use among the residents.
3) Prevailing diet high in processed food and fat.
4) Availability of health facilities.
5) Mean age of women population.
A. 3, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 3 D. 2, 4, and 5

SITUATION 18 – As a new public health nurse at the Rural Health Unit, Ms. Rose Ann
reviews basic concepts related to her position and job.

124. Ms. Rose Ann knows that the primary goal of Community Health Nursing
is to ________.
A. Enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities manage
their health needs
B. Contribute to people’s wellbeing through Sustainable Development Goals
Projects
C. Increase the productivity of the people by providing them health services
D. Support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in illness
prevention

125. Community Health Nursing (CHN) is a field of nursing practice. Which best
explains this statement?
A. The scope of practice depends on the health needs and problems
identified.
B. The services are delivered outside of purely curative institutions.
C. The services are provided along with community health volunteers.
D. The practice is conducted in geographical location of people.

126. Ms. Rose Ann is aware that she will dealing with population as a client.
Which of the following provides the best definition of a population?
A. Cluster of individuals who are at risk of certain health conditions.
B. Group of people sharing the same geographical environment.
C. Collection of people who are beneficiaries of health services.
D. Collection of individuals who share common characteristics.
 127. The historical character in nursing whose work in environmental health,
providing care to destitute people, and disease prevention establishing the nurse
as a leader and community-oriented was __________.
A. Lilian Wald C. Margaret Sanger
B. Virginia Henderson D. Florence Nightingale

128. With the stated problems, the nurse and the community prioritize these
using a set of criteria. Which of the following criteria refers to the probability of
reducing controlling or eradicating the problem?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Preventive potential
C. Magnitude of the problem
D. Nature of the problem

129. What is the nurse INDEPENDENT intervention to dengue?

a. Apply hot packs on abdomen c. Give aspirin
b. Place an ice pack in the forehead d. Give Vit.K for bleeding

130. The ACCEPTED treatment for a nose bleed is:

a. Have the victim lean forward, place the head extended, apply gentle pressure on the
nostril, and apply cold towels
b. Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure points to control the bleeding
c. Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils
d. Have the victim lean forward, neck flexed forward, apply gentle pressure on the
nostril, and apply cold towels.

SITUATION 20 - Epidemiology is the study of

the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified
populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems

131. In the definition of epidemiology, “distribution” refers to: EXCEPT

a. Who b. When c. Where d. Why

132. In the definition of epidemiology, “determinants” generally includes:

EXCEPT
a. Agents c. Control measures
b. Causes d. Risk factors

133. Epidemiology, as defined in this lesson, would include which of the

following is NOT activities?
a. Describing the demographic characteristics of persons with acute aflatoxin
poisoning in District A
b. Prescribing an antibiotic to treat a patient with community-acquired
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection
c. Comparing the family history, amount of exercise, and eating habits of
those with and without newly diagnosed diabetes
 d. Recommending that a restaurant be closed after implicating it as the
source of a hepatitis A outbreak

134. The HALLMARK feature of an analytic epidemiologic study is:

A. Use of an appropriate comparison group
B. Laboratory confirmation of the diagnosis
C. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal
D. Statistical analysis using logistic regression

135. In statistics, what is the DEFINITION of percentage? It is _________

a. Whole population
b. A share of profits
c. A value on a scale of 100
d. Part of a whole expressed in hundredths

136. Nurse knows that the type of immunity which is longest acting is
________.
A. Natural Immunity C. Artificial Immunity
B. Passive Immunity D. Active Immunity

137. She learned that the MOST important function of inflammation and
immunity is _________.
A. Preventing any entry
B. Providing protection against invading organisms
C. Regulating the process of self- tolerance
D. Destroying bacteria before damage occur
138. In this situation, Nurse notes that the agent in the epidemiological triad
that brings about measles is ___________________.
A. Genetic susceptibility C. Climate
B. School D. Virus
139. Nurse has to be alert about the time interval between the invasion by an
infectious agent and the appearance of the first sign or symptom of the disease.
This is referred to as ____________.
A. Generation time C. Communicable period
B. Incubation period D. Virulence
140. Which of the following denotes the resistance of the entire community to
an infectious agent as a result of the immunity of a large proportion of individuals
to the agent?
A. Active immunity C. Natural immunity
B. Passive immunity D. Herd immunity
 141. Under this program, Angelina will be hired on a Contract of Services
status. She will receive a monthly salary (PhP) of:
A. 13,000 C. 15,000
B. 18,000 D. 22,000
142. The NDP is a partnership between the DOH and other government
agencies and organizations. Which of the following institutions is NOT included?
A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing
C. Local Government Units
D. Philippine Nurses Association
143. The NDP has been designed by the Department of Health PRIMARILY to
____________.
A. Improve local health systems in support of Universal Health Care
B. Augment staff of rural health units
C. Provide experience to new nurses in terms of work realities
D. Prevent nurses from seeking jobs abroad
144. The NDP is open to all nurses who fulfill the following qualifications,
EXCEPT:
A. Willing to undergo recruitment and selection process.
B. Possesses an official and validated PRC – Professional Identification Card.
C. Must be at least 21 years old at the time of application.
D. Physically and mentally fit as shown in the medical certificate.

145. The ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons

with and without a disease is known as
a. Sensitivity.
b. Validity
c. Reliability.
d. Specificity.
146. Some common example of screening test are the following EXCEPT
a. pap smear, for cervical cancer screening in women
b. cholesterol levels in heart disease screening
c. PSA levels for prostate cancer in men
d. Urinalysis for male and females
127. Which interventions are most commonly used by community/public health nurses
caring for families? (Select all that apply.)
a. Administering screening tools to all family members
b. Applying the nursing process to the care of individuals
c. Collaborating and coordinating referrals as needed
d. Providing health teaching, including anticipatory guidance
e. Participating in collecting data on clients for clinical research f. Resolving conflict
among family members

ANS: C, D The predominant intervention strategies used with families are primary care,
health teaching (including anticipatory guidance), referral, and collaborating and
coordinating care. Screening can be performed by various nurses, as can care of
individuals. Nurses probably cannot resolve conflict, although they may help family
members cope with conflict. Collecting data for research can be done only with a client's
permission.D: Although the nurse should provide care in all the ways described, for
recipients to accept the care, the care must be consistent with their cultural expectations
and norms.

128. When the nurse is caring for a family or a community, it is important that the nurse
provide care that is
a. Similar to that described in the textbook or procedure manual
b. Consistent with agency policies
c. Inexpensive
d. Culturally congruent

129. The temperature in the refrigerator and freezer should be checked:

A. Twice a month b. twice a day c. once a day d. once a week

130. Vaccines should NEVER be stored in which part of the refrigerator?

a. Lower right-hand corner
b. Lower right-hand compartment
c. Floor
d. Door

140. Among which vaccine should be stored in the freezer?

a. DPT b. Hepatitis B c. BCG d. Varicella

BOARD exam Communicable diseases

Situation 1: Information dissemination is an integral element of health promotion, and

disease prevention. The nurse is in the best position to do health education activities.

1. A nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with genital herpes about

measures that need to be implemented to protect the fetus. The nurse tells the nurse
that:
a. Daily administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) is necessary during the entire pregnancy
b. Total abstinence from sexual intercourse is necessary during the entire pregnancy
c. Sitz baths need to be taken every 4 hours while awake if vaginal lesions are present
d. A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of
labor
2. While the nurse is counseling a group of mothers about sexually transmitted
diseases, one mother asks the nurse which sexually transmitted disease is most
detrimental to their baby's safety during pregnancy? The nurse should respond that it
would be:
a. Gonorrhea c. Genital herpes
b. Syphilis d. Trichomonas vaginalis

3. During an infection control seminar, the speaker specified that prevention of the
spread of HIV include the following measures EXCEPT:
a. Patients with AIDS should be isolated
b. Blood and other specimens should be labeled AIDS Precaution
c. Needles should be disposed into a puncture resistant container
d. Blood spills should be cleaned with chlorox

4. A nurse is giving health education to a client diagnosed with HIV. The nurse
determines that the client does not need further teaching if the client states that the
most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is:
a. Premarital serologic screening
b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed people
c. Laboratory screening of pregnant women
d. Sex education about preventive behaviors.

5. The following are preventions of gonorrhea transmission EXCEPT:

a. Sex education
b. Case finding
c. Incidence to be reported to health authorities
d. Administration of ophthalmic prophylaxis, as ordered

Situation 2: The nursing process is applied in any health care setting.

6. A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse assesses the child knowing that
which of the following is not a clinical manifestation associated with this disease?
a. Pastia's sign
b. White strawberry tongue
c. Edematous and beefy, red colored pharynx
d. Koplik spots

7. A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding

respiratory precautions. The mother asks the nurse the length of time required for the
respiratory precautions. The nurse most appropriately responds that:
a. “Respiratory precautions are necessary for the entire time of illness.”
b. “Respiratory precautions are necessary until the swelling is gone.”
c. “Respiratory precautions are indicated during the period of communicability.”
d. “Respiratory precautions are indicated for 18 days after the onset of parotid swelling.”
8. A 6-month-old infant receives DPT immunization at the well-baby clinic. The mother
returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and
redness at the site of injection. The nurse tells the mother to:
a. Apply a warm pack to the injection site
b. Bring the infant back to the clinic
c. Apply an ice pack to the injection site
d. Monitor the infant for fever

9. A nurse is preparing the plan of care for a patient with herpes genitalis. What would
be the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient?
a. Disturbed Sleep pattern
b. Imbalance in Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements
c. Alteration in Comfort: Pain
d. Ineffective Breathing Pattern

10. The nurse on duty, based on her assessment findings suspects the presence of
diphtheria. Which of the following will confirm her suspicion?
a. Pharyngotonsilar congestion
b. Grayish membrane at hard palate
c. Whitish plaque at buccal mucosa
d. Increased lacrimation

Situation 3: There are 170 Bilhariasis endemic municipalities. You are assigned in one
of these municipalities.
11. In order to confirm the diagnosis of Snail fever, you advise patient to have, which of
these examination:
a. X-ray of the abdomen
b. Urinalysis
c. Stool examination
d. CBC

12. You know that the mode of transmission of Katayama fever is:
a. Contact with affected stray animals
b. Contact with water infected with cercaria
c. Infected flies and rodent
d. Use of sanitary toilets

13. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Bilhariasis?
a. Biltricide c. Chloramphenicol
b. Hetrazan d. Tetracycline

14. The following are preventive measures for Schistosomiasis EXCEPT:

a. Use of safe water
b. Avoid bathing and washing in infested waters
c. Use of sanitary toilets
d. Elimination of breeding sites of mosquitoes

15. Which of the following is NOT a complication of Bilhariasis?

a. Liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension
b. Cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension
c. Meningitis and hepatomegally
d. Ascitis and renal failure

Situation 4: Endemic malaria occurs in the topic and subtopic areas where
socioeconomic condition is very poor.
16. During your assessment, which among the following signs and symptoms need
referral to a secondary or tertiary facility?
a. Sweating and headache
b. Icterus and shock
c. Fever and chills
d. Renal or liver failure

17. Laboratory confirmation of malaria is done on a blood film. What do you expect to
see in the film?
a. Antibodies c. Malarial purinates
b. Malarial parasites d. Antigen

18. The mode of transmission of this disease is through the bite of an infected female
mosquito called:
a. Aminophylline c. Anopheles
b. Aedes poecillus d. Aedes egypti

19. Which of the following is NOT an anti-malarial drug?

a. Sulfadoxine c. Tetracycline
b. Amoxicillin d. Quinidine

20. As a preventive measure for malarais, you ecucate people living in malaria endemic
areas to do which of the following?
A. Avoid going out between 12nn to 3am
B. Take chloroquine tablets once a day
C. Apply insect repellant on house walls
D. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night
E. Plant neem tree in their backyards
F. Clear hanging branches nears rivers
a. A, B, C, D, E, F c. B, C, D, E, F
b. C, D, E, F d. B, C, D, E
Situation 5: A nurse is having her duty in a public health clinic. She encounters multiple
cases of sexually transmitted diseases.
21. A nurse is collecting data from a prenatal client. The nurse determines that which of
the following places the client into the high risk category for contracting human
immunodeficiency virus?
a. Living in an area where HIV infections are minimal
b. A history of IV drug use in the past year
c. A history of one sexual partner within the past 10 years
d. A spouse who is heterosexual and had only 1 sexual partner in the past 10 years

22. Which among the following informations is true of HIV?

a. It can be transmitted via body fluids such as blood, semen, urine, and perspiration.
b. Blood, semen, and breast milk have higher concentrations of HIV than urine, saliva,
vomitus and stool
c. A client who by history may be exposed to HIV but test negative for HIV antibodies
can no longer infect others
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the confirmatory test for HIV

23. Hepatitis B infection is established by the presence of hepatitis B antigen-antibody

systems in the blood. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Presence of HBsAG is the serological marker to establish the diagnosis of hepatitis
B.
b. If the serological marker is present in the blood after 3 months, it indicates a carrier
state or chronic hepatitis.
c. The presence of anti-HBS indicates recovery and immunity to hepatitis B.
d. Presence of HbeAG determines the infective state of the client

24. The nurse is talking to a young female client in the health clinic who is concerned
she may have sexually transmitted disease. The nurse commends her for seeking
medical care. The nurse explains that the major reason treatment of majority of STDs is
delayed because:
a. Client is embarrassed
b. Symptoms are though to be caused by something else
c. Symptoms are ignored
d. The client does not manifest signs and symptoms

25. The nurse is very active in contact tracing and epidemiologic treatment of all
gonococcal identified contacts to prevent:
a. Development of resistant strains
b. Asymptomatic infections
c. Non-venereal transmission
d. Reinfection
Situation 6: Avian Influenza is an infectious disease of birds that can cause serious
illness in humans.
26. The importation of chicken from countries with outbreak of avian flu is banned by
which law?
a. RA 280 c. PD 280
b. EO 280 d. AO 280

27. The major causes of death in avian flu are the following except:
a. Severe viral pneumonia
b. Respiratory distress
c. Multiple organ failure
d. Dehydration from severe vomiting and diarrhea

28. A suspected case of avian flu would be identified if a person exhibits which of the
following manifestations?
a. Body weakness, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, cough, and anorexia
b. Fever, body weakness cough, dyspnea, and sore throat
c. Fever, cough, sore throat, diarrhea, bloody stool, and hematemesis
d. Hemoptysis, difficulty breathing, sore eyes, vomiting and diarrhea

29. It is necessary to institute which of the following measures to birds suspected of

being exposed to the virus?
a. Vaccination of poultry
b. Killing of all infected or exposed birds
c. Mixing antiviral to feeds and water supplied to poultry suspected of being exposed to
avian flu
d. All of the above

30. Incubation period for avian influenza is:

a. 10 days c. 21 days
b. 3 days d. 7 days

Situation 7: Ralph, a student nurse began to feel joint pains and eye pains associated
with high fever. He noticed some pinpoint rashes on his legs. He is diagnosed with
Dengue fever.

31. In the prevention of dengue fever, which of the following measures is included?
a. Mass vaccination during rainy season
b. Prophylactic drug treatment with antivirals
c. Removal of small collections of water such as flower vases
d. Fogging or daily spraying of insecticides
32. The most effective control measure for dengue hemorrhagic fever is:
a. Isolation of patient
b. Mosquito control
c. Health education
d. Concurrent disinfection

33. The treatment and control of dengue hemorrhagic fever include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Treat shock with IVF
b. Encourage vaccination
c. Eradication of vector
d. Community participation

34. The best nursing intervention in the management of dengue fever among patients
admitted in the hospital would be:
a. Observation
b. Contact Isolation
c. Administration of antivirals
d. Platelet administration

35. Which is an independent nursing intervention for a patient with Dengue

Hemorrhagic Fever?
a. Give aspirin for fever and muscle pains
b. Put ice bag over forehead if patient has nose bleed
c. Place patient in prone position to relieve abdominal pain
d. Give high fiber diet

Situation 8: The BHW of Barangay Jacinto reported series of adults having cases of
spasmodic coughing and fever for the past two weeks. The CHN in the area alarmed by
the reports decided to investigate the community.

36. Which among the following diagnostic tests does NOT indicate active tuberculosis?
a. Sputum smear positive times three
b. Chest x-ray as diagnosed by the TBDC
c. An induration of 10 post tuberculin test
d. Chest x-ray after having three negative sputum smears

37. Mang Jose, 42 years old, went to the Chest Center to avail of the free Direct
Sputum Smear Microscopy. Which among the following is a contraindication for sputum
collection?
a. Pleural effusion  c. Hemoptysis
b. TB meningitis d. Miliary TB

38. Mang Jose began his treatment regimen for tuberculosis. He complains of frequent
tingling sensation of his feet. Which among the following diets shout be encouraged?
a. Fish c. Milk
b. Kangkong d. Beef
39. As a nurse working in the Barangay Health Center, it is essential to counsel the
client on the side effects of the treatment regimen. Which among the following side
effects should be reported immediately to the physician?
a. Hemoptysis c. Flu-like symptoms
b. Red-colored urine d. Yellowish palms

40. Which among the following is considered as the most important health teaching
given to clients with Tuberculosis?
a. Strict compliance to treatment regimen
b. Frequent handwashing
c. Proper disposal of soiled tissues
d. Covering of mouth while coughing or sneezing

Situation 9: The nurse is aware of the misuse of antibiotics , which resulted to the
emergence of new strains of microorganisms that proves to effect a catastophic effect
on human health.

41. The period between the first exposure and multiplication of the SRAS causative
agent would be:
a. 2-10 days c. 1-20 days
b. 5-11 days d. 1-5 days

42. SARS remains to be an enigma among health practitioners and had proven its
virulence. The nurse knows that the virus could be categorized as:
a. Rhabdovirus c. Coronavirus
b. Togavirus d. Paramyxovirus

43. Which of the following best defines standards precaution?

a. These are guidelines created to prevent transmission of microorganisms in hospitals
b. It is a strategy of assuming that all patients are infectious, and using barrier
protections during nurse-client interactions
c. These are precautions based on contagious or epidemiologically significant
organisms are recognized.
d. It pertains to the use of handwashing.

44. In managing individuals with SARS, the nurse should be aware of the different signs
and symptoms of the disease. Which among the following characterize the prodromal
phase:
a. The patient is usually not infectious at this time.
b. Dry hacking cough is present
c. Fever is present, but does not rise beyond 38oC
d. The patient requires mechanical ventilation at this stage

45. Handwashing deters the spread of microorganisms. A nurse involved in the care of
a patient diagnosed with SARS should:
a. Perform handwashing before client contact
b. Perform handwashing after eating
c. Perform handwashing after food preparation
d. Perform handwashing before using the toilet

Situation 10: Filariasis is endemic in some parts of the Philippines. The disease often
progresses to become chronic, debilitating and often unfamiliar to health workers.

46. Effective methods that the government would likely to pursue to eliminate filariasis in
the country are all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Pursue annual mass drug administration using two drugs in all endemic areas for at
least five consecutive years
b. Vaccination of all susceptible in high risk areas and high risk populations
c. Intensify health information and advocacy campaigns in its prevention, control and
elimination
d. Halt progression of disease through disability prevention

47. The vector for Filariasis is

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Aedes poecillus
c. Anopheles
d. Aedes egypti

48. A long incubation period characterizes Filariasis that typically ranges from:
a. 2-4 weeks c. 2-3 years
b. 4-6 weeks d. 8-16 months

49. A 36-year-old man is brought by his wife to a doctor's clinic to be tested for filariasis.
The most likely diagnostic test that he will undergo is:
a. Immunochromatographic test (ICT)
b. Nocturnal Blood Examination
c. Stool examination
d. Urinalysis

50. A client in the acute stage of the disease will include which of the following clinical
findings?
a. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epidydimitis
b. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis
c. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis
d. Lymphadenitis, lympedema and orchitis

Situation 11: Specific defenses of the body involve the immune system. Nurses should
be knowledgeable on the importance of immunity in the prevention of communicable
diseases.
51. Ayisha is given the hepatitis B immune globulin serum, which will provide her with
passive immunity. One advantage of passive immunity is that it:
a. Has effects that last a long time
b. Is highly effective in the treatment of disease
c. Offers immediate protection
d. Encourages the body to produce antibodies

52. Nurse Keith explains to a mother whose child just received a tetanus toxoid injection
that the toxoid confers which of the following immunity?
a. Lifelong passive immunity
b. Long-lasting active immunity
c. Lifelong active natural immunity
d. Lifelong active artificial immunity

53. Simon, who is suspected of having tetanus, asks Nurse Benny about immunizations
against tetanus. Nurse Benny explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin
is that it:
a. Stimulates plasma cells directly 
b. Provides a high titer of antibodies
c. Provides immediate active immunity
d. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity

54. Justin, who was exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive
immunity, which:
a. Increases production of short-lived antibodies 
b. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
c. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites
d. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large numbers of antibodies

55. A mother asked Nurse Edna on the duration of the effectiveness of a natural
passive immunity. Nurse Edna is correct when she tell the mother that the effect lasts
for:
a. 2 to 3 weeks c. 6 months to 1 year
b. Permanent d. 2 to 5 years

Situation 12. Whenever possible, the nurse implements strategies to prevent infection. If
infection cannot be prevented, the nurse's goal is to prevent the spread of the infection
within and between persons, and to treat the existing infection.

56. Gino is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other
clients or health care providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the
following?
a. Eliminate the reservoir
b. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
c. Block the portal of entry into the host
d. Decrease the susceptibility of the host
57. The most effective nursing action for controlling the spread of infection includes
which of the following?
a. Thorough hand cleansing
b. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
c. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
d. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

58. In caring for Mark who is on contact precautions for a draining infected foot ulcer,
Nurse Bong should perform which of the following?
a. Wear a mask during dressing changes
b. Provide disposable meal trays and silverware
c. Follow standard precautions in all interactions with the client
d. Use surgical aseptic technique for all direct contact with the client

59. When caring for a single client during one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to
reuse which of the following personal protective equipment?
a. Goggles c. Surgical mask
b. Gown d. Clean gloves

60. After teaching a client and family strategies to prevent infection, which statement by
the client would indicate effective learning has occurred?
a. “We will use antimicrobial soap and hot water to wash our hands at least three times
per day.”
b. “We must wash or peel all raw fruits and vegetables before eating.”
c. “A wound or sore is not infected unless we see it draining pus.”
d. “We should not share toothbrushes but it is OK to share towels and washcloths.”

Situation 13. Leprosy is an ancient disease and is a leading cause of permanent

physical disability among the communicable diseases. It is a chronic mildly
communicable disease that mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the eyes and
mucosa of the upper respiratory tract.

61. Assessment is done upon seeing a patient with leprosy. The following are early
signs and symptoms, except:
1. Appearance of a skin patch
2. Loss of sensation on skin lesion
3. Inability to close eyelids
4. Hair growth over the lesion
5. Painful nerves
6. Loss of eyebrow
7. Ulcers that do not heal
8. Sinking of the nose bridge
a. 3, 5 and 7 c. 3, 6 and 8
b. 2, 5 and 8 d. 2, 6 and 7

62. A person can get leprosy through the following except:

1. Inhalation of the infectious organism through a broken skin
2. Repeated skin to skin contact with untreated individual
3. Inhalation of the infectious organism from the nasal discharges of an untreated
individual
4. Contact with articles soiled with discharges from lesions of leprosy patient
a. 1 only c. 4 only
b. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4

63. Philip is a 55 year-old resident who is affected by leprosy and is on schedule for
Multidrug Therapy. Which daily treatment is usually prescribed by a physician for
lepromatous and borderline type in 28 days?
a. Dapsone 10 mg and Rifampicin 600 mg
b. Clofazimine 50 mg and Rifampicin 50 mg
c. Rifampicin 150 mg and Dapsone 50 mg
d. Clofazimine 50 mg and Dapsone 100 mg

64. Only in rare instances is there really a need to use laboratory and other
investigations to confirm a diagnosis. However, when a clinical diagnosis is doubtful.
This optional procedure is done to prevent misclassification and wrong treatment.
a. Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM)
b. Slit Skin Smear (SSS) examination
c. Mass Blood Smear (MBS) collection
d. Purified Purine Derivative (PPD) test

65. Preventive aspect of care is a priority consideration. Which of the following vaccine
is also preventive measure?
a. BCG c. Gammaglobulin
b. DPT d. ATS

Situation 14. Nurse Lorie is taking care of Anne, 15 months old, who is admitted to the
hospital with Rubeola. She has conjunctivitis, coryza, cough, rashes and temperature of
38ºC.

66. Which of the following statements is true of Rubeola?

1. It is caused by a filterable virus
2. The prodrome period lasts for about 2 weeks
3. The rashes doesn't end in a branny desquamation
4. It is an acute highly communicable infection
5. The rash usually begins behind the ears and neck
6. The cause of death is usually from complications
7. Serum antibodies appear on the third day of the incubation period
8. A morbilliform rash appears on the 3rd or 4th day
a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 c. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7
b. 3, 4, 5, 7 and 8 d. 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8

67. Nurse Lorie knows that the incubation period of Rubeola is:
a. 10 days from exposure to appearance of fever and about 14 days until rash appears
b. 2-3 weeks, commonly 13 to 17 days
c. 12 to 26 days, usually 18 days
d. Varies from 3 days to 1 month or more, falling between 7-14days in high proportion of
cases

68. Anne's immunity from her mother lasted only 6 months. She was brought by her
mother because of spots in her buccal mucosa. What do you call these spots?
a. Pseudomembrane c. Koplik spots
b. Rose spots d. Forscheimer's spots

69. The characteristic signs of measles are which of the following group?
a. Skin eruptions which are abundant on covered areas of the body than on the
exposed areas
b. Rashes which spread from the face to the trunk and limbs, conjunctivitis, high fever
and tiny white spots in the mucosa inside the cheek
c. Vomiting, headache, fine petechial and morbilliform rashes and epistaxis
d. Severe backache and rashes which are more abundant on extremities than on the
trunk

70. A nursing intervention that is important in caring for Anne would include the
following, except:
a. Administer as prescribed antipyretics to reduce fever
b. Ensuring that the room is well lighted
c. Wearing face mask when administering nursing care to the child
d. Increase fluid intake of the child by drinking water frequently

Situation 15. Vangie is a 15 year-old child who is spending Christmas Vacation in

Pangasinan. A week before the vacation ends, she developed fever, diarrhea and rose
spots on her abdomen.

71. Based on Vangie's clinical findings, Nurse Ulysses will suspect Vangie to have
contacted which infection?
a. Dysentery c. Cholera
b. Amoebiasis d. Typhoid fever

72. Vangie's condition is caused by a:

a. Virus c. Helminth
b. Bacteria d. Protozoa
73. Nurse Ulysses provided the family with health education to prevent transmission of
infection as the disease can be transmitted to family members through the following,
except:
a. Flies
b. Contaminated food and water
c. Airborne transmission
d. Direct contact

74. The characteristic signs of the said condition in #71 are which of the following?
1. Intermittent fever
2. Continued fever
3. Loss of appetite
4. Slow pulse
5. Rose spots on trunk and abdomen
6. Diarrhea
7. Rice watery stool
8. Bloody stool
a. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7
b. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 d. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 8

75. As a preventive control measure for the said condition in #71, which of the following
must be discussed in the health education program for the pubic?
1. Sanitary disposal of human feces and maintenance of fly proof latrine
2. Proper food handling and preparation
3. Removal of stagnant water in empty water drums and flower pots
4. Use of repellants and insecticides
a. 1 and 4 c. 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

Situation 16. According to a nationwide survey on soil-transmitted helminthiasis (STH)

among children aged 12-71 months old done by the DOH, UP and UNICEF in 2003, it
showed a cumulative prevalence rate of 66 percent. Studies have shown that STH
infected children are prone to acquire other infections. There is a need to sustain mass
deworming for 3 consecutive years to immediately control intestinal parasitism and
other parasites among these infected children at the critical time of their growth and
development.

76. Antihelminthic drugs used include:

a. Albendazole and Mebendazole
b. Metronidazole and Albendazole
c. Cotrimoxazole and Metronidazole
d. All of the above
77. It is a parasitic disease that has similar manifestation with Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
What is it?
a. Trichuriasis c. Ascariasis
b. Filariasis d. Paragonimiasis

78. The treatment of choice for the condition in #77 is:

a. Bithionol c. Praziquantel
b. Ethambutol d. Metronidazole

79. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines are the
following, except:
a. Trichuriasis   c. Ancylostomiasis
b. Taeniasis  d. Ascariasis

80. This parasite enters the intestinal mucosa and could be spread through
autoinfection. This is typically exemplify by:
a. hookworm c. whipworm
b. tapeworm d. pinworm

Situation 17. Lord Voldemort complained of dizziness, vomiting, headache and

numbness of the face especially around the mouth after 45 minutes of eating shellfish.
He was rushed to the hospital and was diagnosed with Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning
(PCP) or Red Tide Poisoning.

81. In addition to the above mentioned signs and symptoms manifested by Lord
Voldemort, he may also manifest the following:
a. Blurred vision and rapid rise in the blood pressure
b. Seizures, bradycardia, hematemesis and chest pain
c. Tachycardia, dysphagia, paresthesia and ataxia
d. Floating sensation, hypertension, bradycardia and abdominal pain

82. Which of the following statement is not true about red tide poisoning?
a. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking
b. Symptoms occur within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous
shellfish
c. It is caused by a plankton
d. Symptoms include tingling sensation and paresthesia

83. Nurse Bellatrix is giving health education to the family of Lord Voldemort regarding
Red Tide Poisoning. Lord Voldemort asked the nurse, “Does cooking the shellfish make
it safe to eat?” Nurse Bellatrix's best response is:
a. “Yes, as long as you cook the shellfish properly at a boiling point.”
b. “No, the poisons are not destroyed by cooking.”
c. “Yes, the toxins are easily destroyed by heat.”
d. “No, the toxins are destroyed by freezing.”
84. The mother of Lord Voldemort asked Nurse Bellatrix, “Which sea foods can transmit
red tide poisoning to human?” The nurse response included the following sea foods,
except:
a. crab meat c. clams and mussels
b. oysters and scallops d. sea cucumber

85. Management of Red Tide Poisoning includes:

a. Do not induce vomiting
b. Giving of medications
c. Give coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate
d. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking

Situation 18. Severus was admitted with manifestation of jaundice accompanied by

pruritus and urticaria. The patient was diagnosed with Hepatitis A.

86. Hepatitis A is also known by the following names, except:

a. Infectious hepatitis c. Epidemic hepatitis
b. Catarrhal jaundice d. Inoculation hepatitis

87. Severus asked the nurse, “Why don't you give me some medication to help me get
rid of this problem?” Nurse Neville's best response would be:
a. “Sedatives can be given to help you relax.”
b. “We can give you immune serum globulin.”
c. “There are no specific drugs used to treat hepatitis.”
d. “Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery.”
88. Nurse Neville has instructed Severus about the type of diet should be eaten. The
lunch selection that would indicate the client's understanding and compliance with the
dietary principles taught is:
a. Turkey salad, French fries and sherbet 
b. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich and gelatin dessert
c. Cheeseburger, taco chips and chocolate pudding
d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich and milk shake

89. The cooked food most likely to remain contaminated by the virus that causes
Hepatitis A is which of the following?
a. Canned tuna c. Fried tuna belly
b. Broiled shrimp d. Steamed lobster

90. Which of the following signs and symptoms occur in a patient with Hepatitis A?
1. Loss of appetite
2. Enlargement of the lymph nodes
3. Tachycardia
4. Jaundice
5. Bradycardia
6. Urticaria
7. Clay-colored stools
a. 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 c. All except 5
b. 2, 3, 4, and 6 d. All of the above

Situation 19. During the rainy season, several areas in Davao City becomes flooded
with water. Leptospirosis is one infection that is common during this time of year.

91. Leptospirosis is also known with the following names, except:

a. Mud fever and Flood fever
b. Weil's disease and Trench fever
c. Catarrhal jaundice and Ragpicker disease
d. Spiroketal jaundice and Japanese Seven Days Fever

92. Dobby, who is suspected of having Leptospirosis, should have his urine be tested
for the presence of the microorganism:
a. During the febrile period
b. During the first week of the illness
c. During the first six months after contracting the infection
d. After the 10th day of illness

93. Leptospirosis can be transmitted through:

a. Open skin contact c. Droplets
b. Airborne d. Sexually transmitted

94. Albus asked if it is possible to be infected while swimming in public pools or rivers.
Nurse Hermione replied that:
a. “This is not possible as long as you have no open wounds while swimming in public
pools.”
b. “Infection with leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water
contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection.”
c. “You can protect yourself by applying 70% alcohol before swimming
d. “There is no danger during day time because leptospires die when exposed to
sunlight.

95. Management and treatment of Leptospirosis is symptomatic but a drug medication

is prescribed at 200 mg orally once a week for prevention. What is the drug of choice?
a. Chloramphenicol c. Zidovudine
b. Doxycycline d. Streptomycin

Situation 20. Rabies remains a public health problem in the Philippines. Approximately
300 to 600 Filipinos die of rabies every year. The Philippines has one of the highest
prevalence rates of rabies in the whole world.
96. Dolores Umbridge, while on her way home from work, was bitten by a stray dog.
Nurse Sirius asked Dolores what she did immediately after the incident. Dolores's
response indicates correct understanding of first aid measure when she says that:
a. I went to the hospital and reported the incident
b. I ran after the dog and had bitten it too
c. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water
d. I went to the drug store and bought 500 mg antibiotics

97. Nurse Sirius interviewed Dolores and her mother at the Emergency Room to take
the history before seeing a doctor. The nurse told Dolores's mother not to kill the dog
because the dog will be:
a. Injected with a vaccine 
b. Confined at a veterinary clinic
c. Observed for 14 days
d. Treated with antibiotics against rabies

98. It is the objective of the Department of Health (DOH) to reduce the incidence of
Human Rabies from 7 per million to 1 per million population by:
a. 201 b. 2015 c. 2020 d. 2025

99. Considering that rabies is one of the most acutely fatal infections which causes the
death of approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos annually, voluntary pre-exposure
prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly recommended. These people
include:
a.  Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, side walk vendors,
veterinarians and animal handlers
b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their neighborhood
c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units and
children below 15 years old
d. Pregnant women, side walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians and infants

100.  What is the most common caused of death in patients with Rabies?
a. Seizures c. Hemorrhage
b. Respiratory Paralysis d. Hydrophobia

ANSWER KEY:

1. D. In mothers with genital herpes, the fetus can be contaminated after membranes
rupture or with vaginal delivery. Therefore, for women with active lesions, either
recurrent or primary at the time of labor, delivery should be by cesarean to prevent the
fetus from coming into contact with the genital herpes.
A. The safety of acyclovir had not been established during pregnancy and should only
be used  when life-threatening infection is present.
C. Abstinence should be advised while the lesions are present, until they become
culture- negative.
D. This promotes healing.
2. A. Syphilis may cross the placenta, causing congenital syphilis. It usually leads to
spontaneous abortion, and it increases the incidence of mental subnormality and
physical deformities in fetus.
B. In gonorrhea, the fetus is contaminated at the time of delivery. It places the neonate
at risk  for ophthalmia neonatorum, pneumonia and sepsis, but these can be avoided
via cesarean  delivery.
C. In genital herpes, fetus is contaminated after membranes rupture or with vaginal
delivery. Mother should deliver via cesarean section.

3. A. Patients with AIDS are immunocompromised. Reverse isolation is required. But

this does no prevent the spread of AIDS.
B, C and D are universal preventive measures for AIDS.

4. D

5. D. This does not prevent transmission of gonorrhea. It prevents the occurrence of

ophthalmia neonatorum.

6. D. Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.

A. Pastia's sign describes a rash that is seen in scarlet fever that will blanch with
pressure except  in areas of deep creases and folds of the joints.
B The tongue is initially coated with a white furry covering with red projecting papillae
(white  strawberry tongue).
C. The pharynx is edematous and beefy red in color.

7. A. Mumps is transmitted via direct contact or droplet spread from an infected person
and possibly by contact with the urine. Respiratory precautions are indicated during the
period of communicability.

8. C. Occasionally, tenderness, redness, or swelling may occur at the site of the

injection. This can be relieved with ice packs for the first 24 hours followed by warm
compresses if the inflammation persists.

9. C. Genital herpes is characterized by painful vesicles affecting the external genitalia,

vagina and cervix.

10. B. The presence of a grayish membrane on the hard palate, or pseudomembrane is

a pathognomonic sign of diphtheria. Whitish plaque at buccal mucosa, or koplik spots,
are seen in a rubeola infection (measles).

11. C. The male and female parasites live in blood vessels of intestines and liver, but
the eggs are laid in the terminal capillary vessels in the submucosa of the intestines,
and through the ulcerations reach the lumen of the intestines and pass out with the
feces.
12. B. Infection occurs when skin comes in contact with contaminated fresh water where
cercariae (free swimming larval forms of schistosomes) are living.

13. A. Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the drug of choice for Schistosomiasis.

B. Hetrazan is the drug of choice for Filiariasis
C. Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice for Typhoid fever
D. Tetracycline is the drug of choice for Cholera

14. D. This is a preventive measure for vector-borne diseases. Schistosomiasis is a

water-borne disease.
A. Drinking water should be free of cercariae.
B. Schistosomiasis can be transmitted through exposure to contaminated water.
C. The use of sanitary toilets prevents viable eggs from reaching bodies of water
containing intermediate snail host.

15. C. Meningitis is not a complication of Bilhariasis.

16. B. Malarial parasites invade and destroy red blood cells.

17. B. As sporozoites from the salivary gland of a female Anopheles mosquito are
injected under the skin, they travel into the bloodstream to the liver and mature within
hepatocytes. Up to 30,000 parasites are then released into the bloodstream as
merozoites and produce a symptomatic infection as they invade and destroy red blood
cells.

18. C.
B. This is the vector for Filariasis.
D. This is the vector for Dengue.

19. B.
A. Sulfadoxine (Sulfalene) 50 mg
C. Tetracycline hydrochloride 250mg/capsule
D. Quinidine sulfate 300 mg table;
Quinidine hydrochloride 300 mg/mL, 2 ML ampule

20. B. A and b are not included. The vector's peak biting hours are 9pm to 3am.
Chloroquine is taken at weekly intervals.
21. B. Women who fall into the high-risk category for HIV infection include those with
persistent and recurrent sexually transmitted diseases or a history of multiple sexual
partners, and those who use or have used IV drugs.
A, C and D do not contribute to the incidence of contracting HIV.

22. B. This is true of HIV.

A. Perspiration does not contain the virus.
C. This is not always true for HIV. Clients may be infected with the virus, but has not
yet  produced antibodies, thereby testing negative, but being capable of infecting others.
It usually  takes 6 to 12 weeks (other books: 1 to 3 months) for a host to manufacture
detectable HIV  antibodies.
D. Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV.

23. B. Presence of hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAG) in the blood after 6 months
indicates a carrier state or chronic hepatitis.
A, C and D are true.Hepatitis B early antigen is detected in the blood about 1 week after
the appearance of HBsAG. Its presence determines the infective state of the clien

24. A

25. B. 80% of gonoccocal infection particularly in females have no symptoms.

26. B

27. D. Avian flu is not associated with vomiting and diarrhea.

28. B
A and D. Vomiting and diarrhea are not associated with bird flu.
C. Diarrhea, bloody stool, and hematemesis not associated with bird flu.

29. B. One control measure for Avian flu is the rapid destruction (culling or stamping
out) of all infected or exposed birds. Other control measures include proper disposal of
carcasses; quarantining; rigorous disinfection of farms; and restriction on the movement
of live poultry.

30. B. The incubation period ranges 2-4 days.

31. C.
A and B. There is no known vaccination and prophylactic antivirals for Dengue fever.
D. Eliminating the breeding sites of mosquitoes is better than killing the mosquitoes.

32. B

33. B. There is no known vaccination for Dengue fever.

34. A. Patient should be observed closely for signs of deterioration (shock) such as
hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, cold clammy perspiration and prostration.
B. This is not necessary.
C. There is no known antivirals for Dengue fever.
D. Platelet administration is done to prevent bleeding, but this is a dependent function.

35. B. This promotes vasoconstriction.

A. Aspirin is contraindicated. It may worsen the bleeding.
C. Patient should be placed in dorsal recumbent to facilitate blood circulation.
D. Diet should be low fiber, low fat, non-irritating, and non-carbonated.
36. C. Tuberculin/Mantoux test only indicate exposure to the mycobacterium, not active
infection.
A and D. After obtaining three sputum negative results, chest x-ray can be done to
assess parenchymal involvement. Diagnosis of TB through x-ray can be made by the
TB
Diagnostic Center (TBDC).
B. Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM) is the primary diagnostic tool for TB.

37. C. Hemoptysis is the only contraindication for sputum collection.

A, B and D are indications for hospitalization of clients with TB.
38. B. The Isoniazid in the treatment regimen causes peripheral neuropathy. Client
should be advised to increase intake of Vitamin B6, which is commonly found in green
leafy vegetables, such as kangkong.

39. D. Yellowish palms may indicate liver problem. Anti-tuberculous drugs, particularly
Pyrazinamide, are hepatotoxic drugs.
A. Hemoptysis is not a side effect, but must be reported immediately to the physician.
Massive hemoptysis requires hospitalization.
B and C are side effects of Isoniazid. Clients should be advised to increase oral fluid
intake. Paracetamol is given to manage the fever.

40. A. Strict compliance to the treatment regimen is a must while undergoing treatment
for TB, to avoid relapses and prevent the development of multi-drug resistant strain of
TB.
B, C and D are part of the health teaching to clients with tuberculosis, but strict
compliance to treatment regimen should be given utmost emphasis.

41. A. The incubation period for SARS is 2-10 days but may be long as 13 days.

42. C.
A. Rhabdovirus causes rabies infection.
B. Togavirus causes German measles.
D. The family of paramyxovirus is responsible for measles and mumps.

43. B.
A. This pertain to isolation precaution.
C. This pertain to transmission-based precaution.
D. Handwashing is a universal precautionary measure.

44. A. During the prodromal phase, infectivity is none to low. Infectivity is highest during
the respiratory phase (within 2-7 days).
B and D are seen during the respiratory stage.
C. Fever during the prodromal phase of SRAS is above 380C.
45. A. Handwashing is performed before and after client contact
B. Handwashing is performed before eating.
C. Handwashing is performed before food preparation.
D. Handwashing is performed after using the toilet.

46. B. There is no known vaccination for Filariasis. Diethycarbamezine Citrate (DEC) is

given to patients with clinical manifestations and/or microfilariae.

47. B. A. This is the causative agent for filariasis. Other causative agents include Brugia
malayi and Brugia timori.
C. This is the vector for Malaria.
D. This is the vector for Dengue.

48. D. Incubation period ranges from 8-16 months.

49. A. The clinic is only open from 8am to 5pm. The ICT is an antigen test that can be
done in daytime. Nocturnal blood smear is also a diagnostic test for Filariasis, but the
patient's blood is taken at the patient's residence or in the hospital after 8pm.

50. A. The clinic is only open from 8am to 5pm. The ICT is an antigen test that can be
done in daytime. Nocturnal blood smear is also a diagnostic test for Filariasis, but the
patient's blood is taken at the patient's residence or in the hospital after 8pm.

51. A. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epidydimitis, funiculitis and orchotis are acute

clinical manifestations of Filariasis. Hydrocele, lymphedema, and elephantiasis are
clinical manifestations of Chronic Filariasis.

52. Answer: C Rationale: Passive immunity provides immediate protection, it is short-

lived, is limited in effectiveness, and does not stimulate the body to produce antibodies.
(NSNA NCLEX-RN Review, 4th Edition)

53. Answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus antitoxin provides antibodies, which confer immediate passive
artificial immunity, the same with antiserums and immune globulins. Option A is
incorrect because antitoxins doesn't stimulate production of antibodies. Option C is
incorrect because it provides passive, not active, immunity. Option D is incorrect
because passive immunity, by definition, is not long-lasting. (Mosby's, 18th Edition)

54. Answer: B
Rationale: Gamma globulin, an immune globulin, contains most of the antibodies
circulating in the blood. When injected into an individual, it prevents a specific antigen
from entering a host cell. Options A and D are incorrect because this does not stimulate
antibody production. Option C is incorrect because this does not affect antigen-antibody
function. (Mosby's, 18th Edition)

55. Answer: C
Rationale: The effectiveness of a natural passive immunity lasts for 6 months to 1 year.
Option B is for natural active immunity. Option A is for artificial passive immunity. Option
C is for artificial active immunity.

56. Answer: B
Rationale: Blocking the movement of the organism from the reservoir will succeed in
preventing the infection of any other persons. In option A, since the carrier person is the
reservoir and the condition is chronic, it is not possible to eliminate the reservoir. Option
C and D are incorrect because blocking the entry into a host or decreasing the
susceptibility of the host will be effective for only that one single individual and, thus, is
not effective as blocking exit from the reservoir.

57. Answer: A Rationale: Since the hands are frequently in contact with clients and
equipment, they are the most obvious source of transmission. Regular and routine hand
cleansing is the most effective way to prevent movement of potentially infective
materials. Option B is incorrect because personal protective equipment (PPE) such as
gloves and masks is indicated for situations requiring Standard Precautions. Option C is
incorrect because Isolation precautions are used for clients with known communicable
diseases. Option D is incorrect because use of antibiotics is not effective and can be
harmful due to the incidence of superinfection and development of resistant organisms.

58. Answer: C Rationale: Standard Precautions include all aspects of contact

precautions with the exception of placing the client in a private room. In option A, a
mask is indicated when working over a sterile wound rather than an infected one.
Option B is incorrect because disposable food trays are not necessary for clients with
infected wounds unlikely to contaminate the client's handstion D is incorrect because
sterile technique (surgical asepsis) is not indicated for all contact with the client. The
nurse would utilize clean technique when dressing the wound to prevent introduction of
additional microbes.

59. Answer: A Rationale: Unless overly contaminated by material that has splashed in
the nurse's face and cannot be effectively rinsed off, goggles may be worn repeatedly.
In option B, since gowns are at high risk for contamination, they should be used only
once and hen discarded or washed. Option C and D are incorrect because surgical
mask and clean gloves are never washed or reused.

60.Answer: B Rationale: Raw foods touched by human hands can carry significant
infectious organisms and must be washed or peeled. Option A is incorrect because
antimicrobial soap is not indicated for regular use and may lead to resistant organisms.
Hand cleansing should occur as needed. Hot water can dry and harm skin, increasing
the risk of infection. In option C, clients should learn all the signs of inflammation and
infection (e.g., redness, swelling, pain and heat) and not rely on the presence of pus to
indicate this. Option D is incorrect because persons should not share washcloths or
towels.
61. Answer: C
Rationale: The following are late signs and symptoms of Leprosy: (3) Inability to close
eyelids (lagophthalmos), clawaing of the fingers and toes, contractures, (6) loss of
eyebrow (madarosis), enlargement of the breast in males (gynecomastia), chronic
ulcers and (8) sinking of the nose bridge.

62. Answer: A Rationale: The mode of transmission of leprosy are the following:
Airborne (inhalation of droplet/spray from coughing and sneezing of untreated leprosy
patient) and Prolonged skin-to-skin contact.

63. Answer: D Rationale: Multidrug Therapy is the method of treatment for leprosy. The
daily treatment prescribed for a Multibacillary (lepromatous and borderline) type in 28
days is Clofazimine 50 mg and Dapsone 100 mg.

64. Answer: B Rationale: Slit Skin Smear (SSS) examination is an optional procedure
done only when a clinical diagnosis is doubtful. This prevent misclassification and wrong
treatment. Options A and D is used for diagnosing Tuberculosis. Option C is used in
Malaria.

65. Answer: A Rationale: Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used as preventive

measure for Tuberculosis. It can also prevent the occurrence of Leprosy since the two
disease both came from the Mycobacterium family.

66. Answer: D Rationale: Rubeola or Measles is caused by a filterable virus (1). It is an

acute highly communicable infection (4) characterized by fever, rashes and symptoms
referable to upper respiratory tract; the eruption is preceded by about 2 days of coryza,
during which stage grayish pecks (Koplik spots) may be found on the inner surface of
the cheeks. A morbilliform rash appears on the 3rd or 4th day (8) affecting the face -
usually beginning behind the ears and neck (5), body and extremities ending in branny
desquamation. Death is due to complication (6) such as secondary pneumonia, usually
in children under 2 years old

67. Answer: A Rationale: The incubation period of Rubeola is 10 days from exposure to
appearance of fever and about 14 days until rash appears. Option B is for Chicken pox.
Option C is for Mumps. Option D is for Tetanus.

68. Answer: C Rationale: Koplik spots are tiny grayish to whitish spots found in the
buccal mucosa of a client with Rubeola. Option A is the pathognomonic sign of
Diphtheria. Option B is found in clients with Typhoid fever. Option D is found in clients
with Rubella

69. Answer: B Rationale: The characteristic signs of measles are which of the following:
Rashes which spread from the face to the trunk and limbs ending in branny
desquamation, conjunctivitis (Stimson's sign), high fever and tiny white spots in the
mucosa inside the cheek
70. Answer: B Rationale: Clients with Rubeola has conjunctivitis (Stimson's sign), as a
result an important nursing intervention is to protect the eyes of the client from glare of
strong light as they are apt to be inflamed. Place the client in a dim-lighted room, not
well lighted.

71. Answer: D Rationale: Typhoid fever is characterized by continued fever, anorexia

(loss of appetite), slow pulse, involvement of lymphoid tissues, especially ulceration of
Peyer's patches, enlargement of spleen, rose spots on trunk and abdomen and
diarrhea.

72. Answer: B Rationale: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhosa or typhoid

bacillus, which is a bacteria.

73. Answer: C Rationale: Typhoid fever can be transmitted through the following mode
of transmission: direct or indirect contact with patient or carrier; contaminated food and
water with flies as vectors; and improper food handling. It is not transmitted via airborne.

74. Answer: A Rationale: Typhoid fever is characterized by continued fever, anorexia

(loss of appetite), slow pulse, involvement of lymphoid tissues, especially ulceration of
Peyer's patches, enlargement of spleen, rose spots on trunk and abdomen and
diarrhea. (7) Rice watery stools are seen in patients with Cholera.

75. Answer: D
Rationale: Preventive control measures include sanitary disposal of human feces and
maintenance of fly proof latrine and proper food handling and preparation.

76. Answer: A Rationale: Antihelminthic drugs used in treating parasitic infections

include: Albendazole and Mebendazole (Vermox) that inhibits glucose and other
nutrient uptake of helminth; Pyrantel embonate (Antiminth) that paralyzes intestinal tract
of worm; and Thiabendazole (Mintezol) that interferes with parasitic metabolism.
Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an anti-protozoan drug (options B and C). Cotrimoxazole
(Bactrim) is an antibiotics (option C).

77. Answer: D Rationale: Commonly patients with Paragonimiasis are misdiagnosed to

have Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB) and are treated as Tuberculosis patients. In fact, a
study by Belizario et.al revealed that 56% of his subjects were non-responsive to multi-
drug therapy for PTB but were positive for Paragonimiasis.

78. Answer: C Rationale: The treatment of choice for Paragonimiasis is Praziquantel

(Biltrizide) 25 mg/kg body weight three times daily for three days. It is suitable for
treatment of adults and children over four years of age, higher dose is needed for
ectopic paragonimiasis. Bithionol (BITIN) is only an alternative drug for paragonimiasis
(option A). Ethambutol (option B) is one of the multi-drug therapy for PTB.
Metronidazole (option D) is an anti-protozoan drug.
79. Answer: B Rationale: The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the
Philippines are the following: (A) Trichuriasis or Whipworm (Trichuris trichiura); (C)
Ancylostomiasis or Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus); and
(D) Ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides).

80. Answer: D Rationale: Pinworms (enterobiasis), which is caused by the parasite

Enterobius vermicularis, is the most common helminthic infestation among children. It
enters the intestinal mucosa and could be spread through autoinfection (when the child
places fingers, used in scratching the anal part and containing the pinworm eggs, into
the mouth). It is noted that pinworms caused severe itching as they lay their eggs.

81. Answer: Rationale: The signs and symptoms of Red Tide Poisoning includes:
numbness of the face especially around the mouth; vomiting; dizziness; headache;
tingling sensation, paresthesia and eventual paralysis of hands and feet; Floating
sensation and weakness; rapid pulse (tachycardia); difficulty of speech (ataxia);
difficulty of swallowing (dysphagia); and total muscle paralysis with respiratory arrest
and death occur in severe cases.

82. Answer: A Rationale: Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PCP) or Red Tide Poisoning is a
syndrome of characteristic symptoms predominantly neurologic which occur within
minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous shellfish (option B). It is caused by
a single celled organism called dinoflagellates, which is commonly referred to as
plankton (option C). One of its symptoms include tingling sensation or paresthesia
(option D). Toxins in red tide is not totally destroyed upon cooking.

83. Answer: B Rationale: Toxins in red tide is not totally destroyed upon cooking hence
consumers must be educated to avoid bi-valve mollusks like tahong, talaba, halaan,
kabiya, abaniko (sun and moon shell or Asian scallop) when the red tide warning has
been issued by the proper authorities.

84. Answer: D Rationale: Bi-valve mollusks such as oysters, clams, mussels, sun and
moon shell or Asian scallop as well as crabs are avoided when the red tide warning has
been issued by the proper authorities. There's no reported cases of red tide poisoning
when eating sea cucumber.

85. Answer: C Rationale: Management of Red Tide Poisoning includes the following:
induce vomiting; no definite medication indicated; drinking pure coconut milk, which
weakens the toxic effect of red tide, and sodium bicarbonate solution (25 grams in ½
glass of water) may be taken. Drinking coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate solution is
advised during the early stages of poisoning only. If given during the late stag, they may
make the condition of the patient worse; Shellfish affected by red tide must not be
cooked with vinegar as the toxin of Pyromidium increases (15 time greater) when mixed
with acid; and do not eat even cooked shellfish because toxins of red tide are not totally
destroyed upon cooking.

86. Answer: D
 Rationale: The other names of Hepatitis A are the following: Infectious hepatitis;
Catarrhal jaundice; and Epidemic hepatitis. In option D, Inoculation hepatitis is the other
name for Hepatitis B.

87. Answer: C Rationale: There are no specific drugs for the treatment of Hepatitis A.
There is, however, a prophylaxis, which is an IM injection of gamma globulin.

88. Answer: B Rationale: The dietary requirement for a client with Hepatitis A is a low fat
diet but high in sugar. Options A, C and D are incorrect because all or part of its choices
are high in fats. Low fat diet include only lean meats, fish and poultry. The allowed
vegetable oils may be used in preparing meats, fish and poultry; used in salad
dressings; or in baked products.

89. Answer: D Rationale: Hepatitis A virus can be killed by cooking the food to boiling
point, steaming the food will not kill the virus.

90. Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatitis A has the following signs and symptoms: influenza-like such as
headache; malaise and easy fatigability; loss of appetite or anorexia (1); abdominal
discomfort/pain; nausea and vomiting; fever; enlargement of the lymph node or
lymphadenopathy (2); jaundice (4) accompanied by pruritus and urticaria (6); and
bilirubinemia with clay-colored stools (7).

91. Answer: C
Rationale: Leptospirosis is also known with the following names: Mud fever and Flood
fever (option A); Weil's disease and Trench fever (option B); and Spiroketal jaundice
and Japanese Seven Days Fever (option D). In option C, Catarrhal jaundice is the other
name for Hepatitis A while Ragpicker disease is the other name for Anthrax.

92. Answer: D
Rationale: Leptospirosis can be diagnosed by its clinical manifestations, culture of the
organism, examination of blood and CSF during the first week of illness and urine after
the 10th day.

93. Answer: A
Rationale: Leptospirosis can be transmitted through contact of the skin, especially open
wounds with water, moist soil or vegetation contaminated with urine of infected host.

94. Answer: B
Rationale: Infection with leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water
contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection.

95. Answer: B
Rationale: Doxycycline is the drug of choice for Leptospirosis. It is prescribed at 200
mg orally once a week for prevention
96. Answer: C
Rationale: The wound must be immediately and thoroughly washed with soap and
water. Antiseptics such as povidone iodine or alcohol may be applied.

97. Answer: C
Rationale: Patients should consult a veterinarian or trained personnel to observe the
pet for 14 days for signs of rabies.

98. Answer: A
Rationale: The general objective of the Department of Health (DOH) is to reduce the
incidence of Human Rabies from 7 per million to 1 per million population by 2010 and
eliminate human rabies by 2015.

99. Answer: C
Rationale: People who are at high risk of acquiring rabies includes the following: Pet
owners; animal handlers; health personnel working in anti-rabies units; and children
below 15 years old.

100. Answer: B
Rationale: Without medical intervention, the rabies victim would usually last only for 2 to
6 days. Death is often due to respiratory paralysis.

Situation 1: Community Health Nursing is a unique blend of nursing and public health
practice woven into a human service that properly developed and applied has a
tremendous impact on human well being.
1. The context of Community Health Nursing is based on the nurse's evaluation about
the:
a. Existing health problems and needs of the people
b. Current health status of the people
c. Department of Heath (DOH) goals
d. Devolution of health
2. The primary goal of Community Health Nursing is to:
a. Support and supplement the efforts of the medical professions in the promotion of
health and prevention of illness
b. Enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their
heath needs
c. Increase the productivity of the people
d. Raise the level of health of the citizenry
3. Community Health Nursing is a specialized field of nursing that follows the basic
principles in Community Development work. Which of the following statements best
described Community Development as a process of empowering people in the
community?
a. Community development may allow women to discover and strengthen their innate
capabilities to enjoy and utilize equal opportunities in all aspects of development work
b. Sustainability aspects of development strategies can be taken into consideration
c. Community development is solely confined to the meeting of the day to day survival
of the people
d. Community development is a learning process where both women and men
participate to improve their lives
4. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. If people are not attending to the services offered by the health staff, the team must
reassess the needs of the people
b. In participatory approach, the nurse must devotedly adhere to what the people want
c. In a peasant community where people are fighting for land ownership, the nurse must
not participate as this is not a health concern
d. Nurses must not join protest actions as nurses should always be neutral at all times
5. If a particular health service fails, the most basic question is:
a. Is this what the people demanded?
b. What went wrong?
c. Is this what the people need?
d. Who is responsible for the failure?
Situation 2: There are several factors in the ecosystem which affect the optimum level of
functioning (OLOF) of individuals, families and communities. The nurse must be
knowledgeable on this.
6. The modern concept of health refers to:
a. How individuals can be called disease-free
b. How individuals can avail of their immune system
c. How individuals maintain a maximum level of wellness
d. How individuals avoid diseases
7. The factor in the ecosystem affecting the individual's health that is involved in the
menace of pollution, basically man-made, is:
a. Behavioral
b. Socio-economic
c. Environmental influences
d. Health Care Delivery System
8. The factor in the ecosystem affecting the individuals health that is involved in the
provision of essential health services whether community-based, accessible,
sustainable and affordable is the:
a. Socio-economic influences
b. Health Care Delivery System
c. Behavioral
d. Political
9. Which is not an example of behavioral influences in OLOF on health status?
a. Cigarette smoking and alcohol drinking
b. A grandmother with an adult-onset diabetes
c. Sedentary lifestyle of an office worker
d. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace
10. In the Health Care Delivery System, ideally, rehabilitation services begin:
a. Upon admission of the client in the health care system
b. Upon discharge of the client from the health care system
c. After the client's physical condition stabilizes
d. Soon after the client had requested for rehabilitation services

Situation 3: One of the national objectives of the Department of Health (DOH) is to

improve the general health status of the population.
11. Filipino people are characterized by the following descriptions, except:
a. The top leading cause of mortality is due to cardiovascular diseases
b. Life expectancy of females has always been higher than males
c. Productive age group belongs to 15 to 59 years old
d. Accident is the leading cause of death among newborns and children aged below 5
years old; pneumonia among older children aged 5 to 9 years old

12. Which one is correct regarding the health status of the population?
a. The leading cause of disease among younger people is influenza
b. The leading cause of morbidity among the elderly population is infectious in nature
c. Cataract is the leading cause of visual impairment while errors of refraction is the
leading cause of blindness
d. Enuresis is the leading cause of mental illness among adult Filipinos
13. Which among the following is incorrect about the health status of the Filipino
people?
a. Hypertension is the leading cause of maternal death
b. The fertility rate is 3.5 children per woman wherein women aged 15-24 years are the
age group with the lowest unmet need for family planning services
c. There are lesser adult women who die due to accidents and injuries compared to
adult males
d. Among adolescent aged 19, there are about 12% of the young people who are
already sexually active
14. The most widely used summary measure of the burden of diseases which combines
the number of years of healthy life lost to premature death with time spent in less than
full health is known as:
a. Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
b. Swaroop's index
c. Disability Adjusted Life Year (DALY)
d. Human development index
15. The process of aging brings out myriad of health problems that are degenerative.
The life expectancy of Filipinos is set at what age?
a. 66.74 years c. 69.6 years
b. 72.61 years d. 100 years

Situation 4: Clinic Visit is done at the health center or health station so that the
community health nurse can provide the necessary health care services to the people in
the community.
16. Arrange the following standard check-up procedures in proper sequence of doing
the clinic visit:
1. Diagnostics 5. Prescription
2. Registration 6. Triaging
3. Referral  7. Health Education
4. Waiting 8. Clinical Evaluation
a. 4, 2, 6, 1, 8, 5, 7, 3 c. 2, 4, 6, 8, 1, 3, 5, 7
b. 2, 1, 4, 6, 8, 3, 5, 7 d. 6, 1, 4, 2, 8, 5, 7, 3
17. Which among the following activities is done during pre-consultation conference?
a. Pre-clinic lecture
b. First come, first served queuing
c. Record preparation
d. One-on-one counseling
18. Certain DOH programs utilizes an acceptable decision to which the nurse has to
follow. What should the public health nurse do to a program-based case?
a. Manage the case
b. Refer to the physician
c. Provide first aid treatment
d. Refer the case to the next level of care
19. Clinic visit is being executed by a health team. Who acts as a leader in planning the
clinical activities?
a. Barangay Health Worker
b. Public Health Nurse
c. Physician-in-Charge
d. Rural Health Midwife
20. Jessica, a pregnant woman, went to the center during prenatal clinic for treatment of
syphilis. Your midwife, Felly, shared the matter to the other mothers who were there at
that time. As the Public Health Nurse who is higher in rank than the Rural Health
Midwife, what will you do?
a. Confirm the story to the other mothers
b. Confront the midwife immediately to correct her behavior
c. Explain to the other mothers that syphilis can be treated
d. Deny the gossip when the midwife is not around to avoid conflict with her

Situation 5: Home visit is a family-nurse contact which allows the health worker to
assess the home and family situations in order to provide necessary nursing care.
21. The following best describes a home visit, except:
a. A professional contact made by the nurse
b. Extension of the services of the health center
c. May or may not be recorded
d. Should have an objective

22. The following are the steps in a home visit. Arrange them in proper sequence:
1. Determine health needs
2. Explain purpose of visit
3. Place the bag in a convenient place
4. Introduce self
5. Perform nursing care
6. Greet the client
7. Health teaching
8. Make a return appointment
9. Do the recording
10. Observe the client
a. 6, 4, 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 8, 10
b. 6, 4, 2, 10, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 8
c. 6, 4, 2, 3, 10, 5, 1, 7, 9, 8
d. 6, 4, 2, 1, 3, 5, 10, 7, 8, 9

23. When the nurse reviews the records of the family in the clinic, in what phase of the
visit is this?
a. Preparatory phase c. Post visit phase
b. Home visit phase d. Recording phase
24. In performing home visit, it is important that nurse should accomplish which of the
following to meet the needs of clients and achieve the best results of desired outcome?
a. Develop a family nursing care plan
b. Apply the nursing process and prioritize needs of the client
c. Perform bag technique
d. Formulate plan of visit
25. Planning for a home visit is an essential tool in achieving best results in health care.
The following are principles in a home visit, except:
a. Planning should be flexible and practical
b. Home visit should have a purpose
c. Plans are based in available information including those from other agencies that may
have rendered services to the family
d. Planning of continuing care must be developed by the nurse

Situation 6: The following procedures are very important to the public health nurse in
rendering effective nursing care to clients in varied settings.
26. Nurse Jenn should understand which rationale when performing the bag technique?
a. It should save time and effort when performing nursing procedures
b. It should minimize or prevent the spread of infection
c. It should not overshadow the concerns for the client
d. It should render effective nursing care to clients or other family members
27. Nurse Mayk utilizes three different agents when wiping the thermometer after use.
Arrange them according to sequence:
a. 3x soap, 3x water, 3x alcohol
b. 1x soap, 1x water, 1x alcohol
c. 3x soap, 3x water, 1x alcohol
d. 1x soap, 1x water, 3x alcohol
28. A yellow result of a Benedict's test should be interpreted by Nurse Glendon as to
which extent of glucosuria?
a. (-) b. + c. ++ d. +++
29. If the result of a Heat and Acetic acid test is clear, Nurse Geri knows that:
a. There is no albumin in the urine
b. Protein is traced in the urine
c. This is a positive result of protein leak
d. Albuminuria is abnormal
30. Tourniquet test or Rumpel-Lead's test is used as screening for dengue. If Nurse
Darelle counted 10 petechial spots in the imaginary one square inch just below the BP
cuff or in the antecubital fossa, this should be interpreted as:
a. Positive c. Alarming
b. Negative d. Warning

Situation 7: COPAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research) recognizes

people's participation as a tool for community development.

31. The following statements pertain to Community Organizing, except:

a. Its goal is community development
b. A never-ending process once started
c. Can apply for increasing awareness
d. A process for increasing organization and initiating responsible action

32. Arrange the activities of community organizing as a continuous sustained process

for community development.
a. Organization, Education, Mobilization
b. Education, Organization, Mobilization
c. Organization, Mobilization, Education
d. Education, Mobilization, Organization

33. Which among the following does not pertain to participatory action research?
a. Problem identification involves the community or group experiencing the problem
b. Method of data gathering is determined by local culture and innovativeness
c. Use of research results is within the full control of the people
d. It is done by an outsider utilizing technical quantitative techniques for publication use

34. Manageable units of the community to facilitate service delivery and people's
participation is called the:
a. Spot map c. Core group
b. Small group d. Organizing group

35. The basic reasons why community organizers need to phase out from the
community is to enable the:
a. Nurse to open community organization work in other depressed communities
b. People to exercise self-reliance
c. People's organization to expand their coverage
d. People to test their unity and strength

Situation 8: Community Organization is a process wherein people in the community,

health care providers and agencies in the community are brought together.

36. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of community organization?

a. Learn about common problems
b. Plan the kind of action needed to solve problems
c. Never to act on issues presented
d. Identify problems as their own

37. Which of the following is the primary principle involved in community organization
a. Planning group needs
b. Assembly of community leaders
c. Technique in asking questions
d. Defined functions in each group

38. Which basic method can determine the extent to which the basic needs are met for
the health workers to bring about the adjustment between need and resources?
a. Education and Interpretation
b. Determination of needs
c. Program formation
d. Fact finding

39. As a nurse, you have gained entry in the community. Which initial step is done?
a. List names of persons to contact
b. Gather information from persons and records
c. Arrange the first meeting
d. Prepare the agenda

40. Which of the following should Nurse Dexter do if the purpose in community
organizing is to integrate with the people?
a. Be punctual in reporting at the Rural Health Unit (RHU)
b. Live with the people
c. Assign community officers
d. Reside in the home of the Municipal Health Officer

Situation 9: Community Assessment through Epidemiology and Vital Statistics

41. The following are steps in data processing. As a nurse, you should know its proper
sequencing:
1. Data analysis 3. Data presentation
2. Data collection 4. Data collation
a. 2, 4, 1 and 3 c. 2, 4, 3, and 1
b. 2, 3, 4 and 1 d. 2, 3, 1, and 4

42. Major factors affecting population include the following, except:

a. Births c. Migration
b. Mortality d. Morbidity
43. Which of the following patterns is intermittent and confined to a certain geographical
area or locality?
a. Sporadic c. Epidemic
b. Endemic d. Pandemic

44. The town of Templar has a population of 70,000 as of July 1, 2008 (midyear) as per
calendar year 2008 (January to December) 500 died. Which formula below should be
used to compute the crude death rate?
a. 70,000 / 70,000 x 1,000
b. 500 / 70,000 x 100
c. 70,000 / 500 x 1,000
d. 500 / 70,000 x 1,000

45. Incidence rate means new cases as percent of population and prevalence rate
means cases in a given period of time as percent of population. Which formula below is
a prevalence rate?
a. Number of cases of a specific disease / 1,000 estimated population x 100
b. Total number of cases of a disease (old + new) / 1,000 estimated population at the
time x 100
c. Number of cases of a specific disease during a specific time / Estimated population
exposed to that disease during that time x 10
d. Total number of cases of a disease (old + new) at a given time / Estimated
population at the time x 100

Situation 10: The Department of Health (DOH) is the lead administrative agency
governing the health sector in the Philippines.

46. The vision of the Department of Health is:

a. Health for all Filipinos
b. Health in the hands of the people by the year 2020
c. The leader, staunch advocate and model in promoting Health for All in the
Philippines
d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the
poor and shall lead the quest for excellence in health

47. The goal of the DOH is Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA), with the National
Objectives for Health (NOH) serving as the road map for all stakeholders in health. All of
the following are reasons for health sector reform, except:
a. Slowing down in the reduction of both Infant and Maternal Mortality Rates
b. Rising and high burden from chronic, degenerative diseases and infectious diseases,
respectively
c. Unattended emerging health risks from environmental and work related factors
d. Burden of disease is heaviest on the affluent

48. Which among the following is not considered as a specific role of the DOH based on
Executive Order 102?
a. Leader in health
b. Reformist for health development
c. Enabler and capacity builder
d. Administrator of specific services

49. The Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA) utilizes FOURmula ONE for Health as
its framework having four components such as health financing, health regulation,
health service delivery and good governance. Which of the following is not included in
the goals of this framework?
a. Better health outcomes
b. More responsive health systems
c. Streamlining health system bureaucracy
d. Equitable health care financing

50. The following are included in the 8 Millennium Development Goals that are based
on the fundamental values of freedom, equality, solidarity, tolerance, health, respect for
nature, and shared responsibility. Which is not health related?
a. Eradicate extreme poverty
b. Promote gender equality and empower women
c. Improve maternal health
d. Ensure environmental sustainability

Situation 11: For over forty years after post war independence, the Philippine health
care system was administered by a central agency based in Manila. This control agency
provided the singular sources of resources, policy direction, technical and administrative
supervision to all health facilities nationwide. However, a major shift took place in 1991
with the passage of the Local Government Code.

51. The passage of the Local Government Code of 1991 devolved all structures,
personnel, budgetary allocations from national government to local government units.
This devolution law is:
a. R.A. 7160  c. LOI 949
b. R.A. 7610 d. EO 102

52. Devolution made local government executives responsible to operate local health
services. The legitimate body in the LGU which is in-charge for the operations of health
services is known as:
a. Center for Community Health Development
b. The Philippine Department of Health
c. Local Health Board
d. Bantay Kalusugan

53. In the local health system, clustering of municipalities through complementation of

stakeholders is done to reintegrate hospital and public health service for a holistic
delivery of health services resulted in the creation of:
a. Community Health Watch
b. Inter Local Health Zone
c. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation
d. Non-Government Organization

54. The four components of ILHZ include people, boundaries, health facilities, and
health workers. In terms of population, how many people should ideally represent a
health district/
a. less than 5,000 c. 50,000 to 100,000
b. 5,000 to 50,000 d. 100,000 to 500,000

55. Each center controls a portion of health care system as part of its political and
administrative mandate. Which one operates the Rural Health Unit?
a. National Government
b. Provincial Government
c. Municipal government
d. Barangay Government

Situation 12: Environmental health is a branch of public health that deals with the study
of preventing illnesses by managing the environment and changing people's behavior to
reduce exposure to biological and non-biological agents of disease and injury.

56. Which of the following is responsible for the promotion of health environmental
conditions and prevention of environmental related diseases?
a. Environmental and Occupational Health Office (EOHO)
b. Environmental Sanitation Code of the Philippines
c. Center for Health and Development
d. Rural Health and Sanitary Office

57. A protected well or a developed spring with an outlet but without a distribution
system is known as:
a. Point Source
b. Communal Faucet
c. Stand Post
d. Waterworks System
58. Pour flush toilet and aqua privies are classified under which level of approved toilet
facilities?
a. Level I c. Level III
b. Level II d. Level IV

59. The four rights in food safety include the following, except:
a. Right source c. Right preparation
b. Right handling d. Right cooking

60. Which among the following is an important requirement for registration and renewal
of licenses of newly constructed and existing hospitals?
a. Hospital waste management program
b. Municipal refuse disposal system
c. Incineration system of hazardous hospital wastes
d. Disinfection treatment to prevent transmission of diseases

Situation 13: Alternative medicines include the use of herbal medicines, and the practice
of acupressure, acupuncture and aromatherapy.

61. The herbal plant used for the treatment of rheumatism and gout as it lowers uric
acid level is:
a. Ulasimang bato c. Sambong
b. Akapulko d. Yerba Buena

62. Based on the principle that life is the result of Qi or life energy, what is the
alternative medicine practice that maintains health, treats diseases, and alleviates pain
by massaging certain points on the body surface?
a. Tai Chi c. Acupressure
b. Cupping d. Acupuncture

63. Which of the following refers to ear acupuncture?

a. Auriculotherapy c. Moxibustion
b. Homeopathy d. QiGong

64. Yoga, which is good for spiritual cleansing and rebirth, is an alternative health care
that is used for the development of fitness wave. Which among the following is not
included as a result of this physical fitness practice?
a. Strength c. Peace
b. Flexibility d. Endurance
65. Which of the following laws paved way for the creation of the Philippine Institute of
Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
a. R.A. 7610 c. R.A. 7160
b. R.A. 8423 d. PD 965

Situation 14: All birth attendants shall ensure clean and safe deliveries at home or at the
facilities (RHUs/hospitals) and proper nursing care during the post partum periods.

66. Which among the following criteria allows the nurse to perform home deliveries?
a. Mother with a gynecoid pelvis
b. Previous caesarian section
c. Grand multigravida
d. Breech presentation

67. All of the following are considered as pointers for safe home delivery, except:
a. Clean hands c. Clean cord
b. Clean surface d. Clean scissors

68. Nurse Noemi teaches a mother on breastfeeding, but the latter worries about her
small breasts. Which of the following statements of the mother indicates that she needs
no further instructions?
a. “I need to exercise in order to increase the size of my breast.”
b. “I will shift to infant formula.”
c. “The size of my breasts does not affect lactation.”
d. “My breasts will gradually increase as I breastfeed my baby.”

69. The law that provides mandate for newborn screening is which of the following?
a. R.A. 9288 c. R.A. 7600
b. R.A. 7846 d. R.A. 8749

70. Presidential Decree 651 refers to the Birth Registration Law. Which record should
be submitted to the local civil registrar's office within 30 days after the mother's
delivery?
a. Municipal Form 102
b. FHSIS/E-3
c. FHSIS/E-2
d. Community tax Certificate

Situation 15: The Department of Health launched in July 1976 the Expanded Program
on Immunization (EPI) in cooperation with the World Health Organization (WHO) and
the UNICEF.

71. Which law does not pertain to the practice of EPI in the Philippines?
a. P.D. 996 c. P.P. 1066
b. P.P. 773 d. R.A. 3573

72. The EPI is one of the programs being delivered by Community Health Nurses.
Which among its principles is pro-people?
a. Case finding and treatment on site
b. A basic health service
c. Based on epidemiological situation
d. Mass approach rather than individuals

73. Among the vaccines, OPV and AMV are the most sensitive to heat. Kept on the
freezer, what should be their storage temperature?
a. 15 to 25 c. -2 to -8
b. 2 to 8 d. -15 to -25

74. A child is said to be “Fully Immunized Child” when a child receives which of the
following vaccines before a child's first birthday?
a. 1 BCG, 3 OPV, 3 DPT, 3 Hepa B, 1 AMV and 2 TT
b. 1 BCG, 3 OPV, 3 DPT and 3 Hepa B
c. 1 BCG, 3 OPV, 3 DPT, 3 Hepa B and 1 Measles Vaccine
d. 1 BCG, 3 OPV, 3 DPT, 3 Hepa B and 2 Tetanus Toxoid

75. Which among the following statements about immunization is not true?
a. A child with diarrhea who is due for OPV should receive an additional extra dose on
the next visit
b. A child should be immunized in the health center before doing any referral
c. DPT2 and DPT3 is contraindicated to a child who has had convulsions or shock
within 3 days the previous dose
d. No extra doses must be given to a child who missed any dose of vaccine

Situation 16: Care of children with pulmonary infections is one of the responsibilities of
the public health nurse in the community, wherein Control of Acute Respiratory
Infections (CARI) Program can be utilized.

76. Which of the following is the principal focus of CARI program of the DOH?
a. Enhance health team capabilities to assess patients
b. Teach mothers and community health workers how to detect and where to refer
c. Mortality reduction through early detection
d. Improve family and community practices and health system

77. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a nurse in the
prevention of unnecessary deaths from pneumonia and other severe diseases?
a. Giving antibiotics as prompt treatment
b. Doing careful focused assessment
c. Taking temperature of the sick child
d. Weighing the sick child

78. Mianne, a public health nurse, was able to identify factors that lead to respiratory
problems in the community where her health facility serve. Her primary role therefore in
order to reduce morbidity due to pneumonia is:
a. Make a home visit to families with sick children
b. Seek assistance and mobilize health workers
c. Refer identified ARI problems to nearest hospital
d. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia

79. In responding to the concerns of children with severe disease, referral to the
hospital is essential especially if the child manifests which of the following?
a. Difficulty to awaken or sleeping abnormality
b. Lower chest indrawing
c. Wheezing with chest indrawing
d. Fast breathing with stridor

80. While on treatment, Jermel, 18 months old weighed 18 kgs and her temperature
registered at 37°C. Her mother says she developed cough 3 days ago. Jermel has no
general danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest indrawing, no stridor. With
Jermel's condition, what should the nurse do?
a. Classify the child's condition as severe pneumonia
b. Classify the child's condition as pneumonia
c. Give amoxicillin BID for 3 days
d. Assess further the condition of the child by giving a trial of rapid-acting inhaled
bronchodilator

Situation 17: Keno Langot, 4 years old, has had diarrhea for 5 days. He weighs 15 kg.
There is no blood in the stool, he is irritable. His eyes are sunken. Nurse Pangitaon
offers fluid to Keno and he drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the abdomen, it
goes back slowly.
81. Nurse Pangitaon should classify the child's condition as:
a. No dehydration
b. Some dehydration
c. Severe dehydration
d. Severe persistent diarrhea

82. In treating the condition of the child, nurse Pangitaon knows that she should utilize
which treatment plan?
a. Plan A c. Plan C
b. Plan B d. Plan D
83. How many milliliter (ml) will be given to Keno in 4 hours?
a. 700-900 ml c. 1000-1200 ml
b. 800-1100 ml d. 900-1400 ml

84. If a child vomits while receiving ORS, what is the most appropriate action?
a. Discontinue taking the ORS
b. Wait for 10 minutes, then continue but more slowly
c. Measure the amount of vomitus
d. Switch the oral rehydration to fruit juices

85. After 4 hours of giving interventions to Keno, the child has one sign each both in the
pink and yellow rows. Nurse Pangitaon should classify this condition as:
a. Severe dehydration c. Mild dehydration
b. Some dehydration d. No dehydration

Situation 18: The following conditions refer to conditions of sick children.

86. Clair who had recently traveled to a malaria-risk area developed fever with stiff
neck. The child can be classifies by the public health nurse as:
a. Very Severe Febrile Disease/Malaria
b. Very Severe Febrile Disease
c. Malaria
d. Fever: Malaria Unlikely

87. If a child with a fever of 38.8°C is blood smear positive with no runny nose, the
nurse should do the following as forms of specific treatment, except:
a. Treat the child with an oral antimalarial drug
b. Give first dose of quinine
c. Give one dose of paracetamol
d. Advise to follow up in 2 days if fever persists

88. Angeli is classified as having Measles with Eye or Mouth Complications should be
given which of the following for pus draining from the eye?
a. Gentian violet
b. Tetracycline eye ointment
c. First dose of antibiotics
d. Vitamin A

89. Jeremy, who lived in a dengue risk area, develops fever and experienced bleeding
episodes from the nose and was tested positive in tourniquet test. The nurse should
classify the child under which card color?
a. Red c. Green
b. Yellow d. Pink
90. Bo Kugon who has visible severe wasting or severe palmar pallor should be
classified as:
a. Severe malnutrition/anemia
b. Moderate malnutrition/anemia
c. Anemia or Very low weight for age
d. Malnutrition with severe anemia

Situation 19: Ear problems are among the common conditions found in children
especially in poor communities.

91. If a child has an ear problem, the nurse should do the following for assessment,
except:
a. Determine presence of ear pain
b. Ask if there is any fever
c. Look for ear discharges
d. Check for swelling behind the ears

92. Nurse Toto found out that the ear discharge has been present for less than 2 weeks.
This can be classified by Nurse Toto as what condition?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Chronic ear infection
c. Acute ear infection
d. No ear infection

93. The ear discharge has been present for more than 14 days. After doing specific
treatment, Nurse Toto counseled the mother to bring back her child to the center after
how many days for follow-up check-up?
a. 2 days c. 5 days
b. 3 days d. 7 days

94. Upon focused ear assessment, Nurse Toto decides that the child has severe
classification because of ear problem. Utilizing the pink card, the best thing that Nurse
Toto should do is:
a. Urgently refer the child to the nearest hospital
b. Give amoxicillin for 3 days
c. Teach the mother how to dry the ear of the child by wicking
d. Instruct the mother to return her child in 5 days

95. If the child does not have ear problem, what should Nurse Toto do following the
protocol of IMCI chart?
a. Check for other problems
b. Check for danger signs
c. Check for immunization status
d. Check for nutritional status

Situation 20: The nurse should know the following IMCI treatment standards using
appropriate medications.
96. When giving an appropriate oral antibiotic for a child with pneumonia, acute ear
infection, very severe disease, and mastoiditis, the nurse knows that the first line drug
is:
a. Amoxicillin c. Nalidixic acid
b. Penicillin d. Cotrimoxazole

97. When treating dysentery, which one is considered as the first line of drug?
a. Nalidixic acid c.Tetracycline
b. Ciprofloxacin d. Cotrimoxazole

98. Which of the following antimalarial drugs is considered as the first line drug?
a. Sulfadoxine and Pyrimethamine
b. Primaquine
c. Chloroquine
d. Artemeter-Lumefantrine

99. Nurse Bella Dona knows that a child should be given albendazole as a single
advised dose in the center, except if:
a. Hookworm/whipworm infection is a problem among children in the area
b. Child is 2 years of age or older
c. Child did not have a dose of the drug in the previous 6 months
d. Child complains of severe abdominal pain

100. To treat oral thrush, the mother should:

a. All mentioned below
b. Wash hands
c. Wash mouth with clean soft cloth wrapped around the finger and wet with salt water
d. Paint the mouth with half-strength gentian violet

1. Answer: A Rationale: The context of Community Health Nursing is based on the

nurse's evaluation about the existing health problems and needs of the people. One of
the principles of CHN states that Community Health Nursing is based on the recognized
needs of individuals, families, communities and groups.

2. Answer: B Rationale: The primary goal of Community Health Nursing is to help

communities and families to cope with the discontinuities of health and threats in such a
way as to maximize their potential for high level wellness, as well as to promote
reciprocally supportive relationship between people and their physical and social
environment.

3. Answer: D Rationale: Community Development is defined as an organized effort of

people to improve the conditions of the community life and the capacity of the people for
participation, self-direction and integrated efforts in community affairs in which
development is accomplished by the people. Everyone has something to contribute to
the life of the community. It is not solely for women (option A) and not a short term
process (option C).

4. Answer: A Rationale: If people are not attending to the services offered by the health
staff, the team must reassess the needs of the people. This is base on the principle that
Community Health Nursing is based on the recognized needs of individuals, families,
communities and groups.

5. Answer: C Rationale: If a particular health service fails, it is important to reassess the

felt needs of the people not their demands (option A).

6. Answer: C Rationale: The modern concept of health refers to the optimum level of
functioning (OLOF) or the maximum level of wellness of individual, families and
communities.

7. Answer: C Rationale: Environmental influences is the factor in the ecosystem that is

involved in the menace of pollution, which has been growing over the years and has
greatly affected the health of the people. The disease today are largely man-made.
Examples of these are communicable diseases due to poor sanitation, poor garbage
collection ,smoking, air pollution and utilization of chemicals such as pesticides

8. Answer: B Rationale: Health Care Delivery System is the factor in the ecosystem
affecting the individuals health that is involved in the provision of essential health
services whether community-based, accessible, sustainable and affordable. Although
promotive and preventive health measures are emphasized in community health, the
availability and accessibility of curative and rehabilitative services also affect people's
health.

9. Answer: D Rationale: Behavioral influences refers to the factor in the ecosystem

affecting the individuals health through certain habits that a person has. These may be
in the form of smoking, intake of alcoholic drinks, substance abuse or lack of exercise.
The people's lifestyle, health care and child rearing practices are shaped, to a large
extent, by their culture and ethnic heritage. Option D is not a behavioral influence, it is
an environmental influence.

10. Answer: A Rationale: In the Health Care Delivery System, ideally, rehabilitation
services begin upon admission of the client in the health care system.
11. Answer: D Rationale: The Filipino people are characterized by the following
descriptions: (option A) The ten leading causes of Mortality are due non-communicable
diseases with diseases of the heart and vascular systems as the two most common
causes of death; (option B) The projected life expectancy at birth year for 2000-2005 is
64.10 years for males and 70.10 years for females; and (option C) The productive age
group belongs to 15 to 59 years old. Option D is incorrect because Pneumonia is the
leading cause of death among newborns and children aged below 5 years old
(37.76/100,000) followed only by accidents at the rate of 17.63/100,000, while Accidents
are identified as the top cause of mortality among older children aged 5 to 9 years old
followed by pneumonia and malignant neoplasm.

12. Answer: B Rationale: The leading cause of morbidity among the elderly population
is infectious in nature, such as influenza (making option A incorrect), pneumonia and
tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect because errors of refraction is the leading cause of
visual impairment and of bilateral or monocular low vision while Cataract is leading
cause of bilateral (62%) and monocular blindness. Option D is incorrect because
Anxiety disorders (10.5%) is the leading cause of mental illness among adult Filipinos.

13. Answer: B Rationale: The 2003 fertility rate in the country remains at 3.5 children
per woman, much higher than the desired fertility rate of 2.5 children per woman.
However, option B is an incorrect statement because Women aged 15-24 years are the
age group with the highest, not lowest, unmet need for family planning services at 26%.
Option A is a correct statement because according the 2000 Philippine health Statistics,
25% of all maternal deaths are due to hypertension, 20.3% to postpartum hemorrhage
and 9% to pregnancy with abortive outcomes. Option C is correct because there are
lesser adult women who die due to accidents and injuries compared to adult males
(86.85%). option D is a correct statement because among adolescent aged 19, there
are about 12% of the young people who are already sexually active and by age 24, 45%
of women are already mothers.

14. Answer: C Rationale: The most widely used summary measure of the burden of
diseases which combines the number of years of healthy life lost to premature death
with time spent in less than full health is known as the Disability Adjusted Life Year or
DALY.

15. Answer: C Rationale: The life expectancy of Filipinos in 2002 has gone up to 69.6
years.

16. Answer: C Rationale: The proper sequence of doing the clinic visit are as follows:
Registration or admission; Waiting time; Triaging; Clinical Evaluation; Laboratory and
other diagnostic examinations; Referral system; Prescription and Dispensing; and
Health Education.

17. Answer: A Rationale: Pre-clinic lecture is usually done during pre-consultation

conference that is conducted prior to the admission of patients, which is one way of
providing health education.
18. Answer: A Rationale: In triaging, a public health nurse manage a program-based
case. Certain programs of the DOH like the IMCI utilize an acceptable decision to which
the nurse has to follow in the management of a simple case. All non-program based
cases are refer to the physician (option B). All emergency cases are provided with first
aid treatment and refer the case to the next level of care (option C and D).

19. Answer: C Rationale: The Physician-in-Charge is the leader in planning the clinical
activities.

20. Answer: C Rationale: Health Education is the appropriate response by the nurse to
the situation. Option A is incorrect because the nurse breach the right of confidentiality.
Option B and D because nurses should never confront a fellow health care team in front
of a patient and should never practice avoidance.

21. Answer: C Rationale: Home visit is a professional contact made by the nurse and an
extension of the services of the health center. When preparing for a home visit, it should
have a purpose or objective. Home visit should always be recorded or documented
(making option C incorrect).

22. Answer: B Rationale: The steps in home visits are as follows: Greet the client or
household member and introduce yourself; Explain the purpose of the home visit;
Inquire about health and welfare of the client and other family members. Ask about any
health and health-related problems; Place bag in a convenient place before doing bag
technique; Wash hands and wear apron and put out needed articles and/or medicines,
dressings from bag; Perform physical assessment and nursing care needed. Give the
necessary heath teaching and advice based on client's need and condition; Wash
hands and close bag; Record findings and nursing care given; make appointment either
for a clinic or home visit. (Public Health Nursing in the Philippines)

23. Answer: A Rationale: In the Preparatory phase, the nurse reviews the records of the
family in the clinic.

24. Answer: D Rationale: In performing home visit, it is necessary to prepare a plan of

visit to meet the needs of the client and achieve the best results of desired outcomes.

25. Answer: D Rationale: The following are principles of home visits: A home visit must
have a purpose or objective (option B); Planning for a home visit should make use of all
available information about the patient and his family through family records and from
other agencies that may have rendered services to the family (option C); In planning for
a visit, the nurse should consider and give priority to the essential needs of the
individual and his family; Planning and delivery of care should involve the individual and
family; and the plan should be flexible and practical (option A).

26. Answer: D Rationale: The rationale when performing the bag technique is that it
should render effective nursing care to clients or other family members.
27. Answer: C Rationale: When wiping the thermometer after use, clean the
thermometer in a downward spiral motion from the stem to the bulb, holding it over the
waste paper bag using the following technique: 1st - 3 cotton balls moistened with soap.
Discard. 2Nd - 3 cotton balls moistened with water. 3Rd - 1 cotton ball moistened with
alcohol, then wrap around the bulb of the thermometer and lay it inside the kidney
basin.

28. Answer: C Rationale: A yellow result of a Benedict's test indicates a ++ result. Blue
indicates (-) (option A). Green indicates + (option B). Blue-green indicates traces of
glucose in the urine. Orange indicates +++ (option D). Brick red indicates ++++.

29. Answer: A Rationale: If the result of a Heat and Acetic acid test is clear, there is no
albumin in the urine. If it is cloudy, the nurse should repeat the procedure. If on the
second test, the result is still cloudy then it is interpreted as positive protein leak or
positive proteinuria.

30. Answer: B Rationale: Tourniquet test or Rumpel-Lead's test is used as screening for
dengue. An imaginary one square inch just below the BP cuff or in the antecubital fossa
is made to check for the presence of petechial rashes. If it manifested 20 or more
petechial rashes, it indicates a positive dengue result. If it is less than 20 it means that
the test is negative.

31. Answer: B Rationale: Community Organizing is a process by which people, health

services and agencies of the community are brought together to learn about the
common problems, identify these problems as their own, plan the kind of action needed
to solve these problems and act on this basis. Its goal is community development
(option A). It can be applied to increase the awareness of the community (option C). It is
also a process for increasing organization and initiating responsible action (option D).
Option B is incorrect because it sets up action pattern to solve problems, not a never-
ending process once started.

32. Answer: B Rationale: Community Organizing as a continuous sustained process for

community development involves the process of Education, Organization and
Mobilization.

33. Answer: D Rationale: Participatory action research pertains to a problem

identification that involves the community or group experiencing the problem (option A).
It is a method of data gathering determined by local culture and innovativeness (option
B). The use of research results is within the full control of the people (option C). It is not
done by an outsider.

34. Answer: C Rationale: Core group is the manageable units of the community to
facilitate service delivery and people's participation.
35. Answer: B Rationale: The reason why community organizers need to phase out
from the community is to enable the people to exercise self-reliance. People are given a
chance to study their problems, offer solutions and give a chance to plan an action.

36. Answer: C Rationale: Community Organizing is a process by which people, health

services and agencies of the community are brought together to learn about the
common problems (option A), identify these problems as their own (option D), plan the
kind of action needed to solve these problems (option B) and act on this basis.

37. Answer: ARationale: The primary principle involved in community organization is

planning group needs to represent all people concerned and the discussion must
include people with technical knowledge of health problems.

38. Answer: D Rationale: Fact finding is the basic method that serves to identify needs,
determine the extent to which the basic needs are met and make known gaps and
overlaps in existing services. This will also help health workers to bring about the
adjustment between need and resources.

39. Answer: B Rationale: The initial step when the nurse gained entry in the community
is gathering initial information about the community from other members of the RHU or
from records and reports.

40. Answer: B Rationale: When integrating with the people, it is crucial for the nurse to
reside in his/her area of assignment. This is the first act of integrating with the people.
Living with them will give the nurse an in depth participation in community health
problems and needs

41. Answer: C Rationale: The proper sequencing of steps in data processing are as
follows: Data collection, data collation, data presentation or tabulation, and data
analysis.

42.Answer: D Rationale: Major factors affecting population include the following:

Mortality or the number of deaths, Birth rates and even Migration or movement of
people from one locality to another. Morbidity doesn't affect population change because
it only determines the number of people acquiring diseases or illnesses.

43. Answer: A Rationale: Sporadic is an epidemiological event that is intermittent in

nature and confined to a certain geographical area or locality.

44. Answer: D Rationale: Crude death rate is a measure of one mortality from all causes
which may result in a decease of population. The formula of CDR is: total number of
deaths registered in a given calendar year (e.g., 500 in 2008) divided by the estimated
population as of the same year (e.g., 70,000 in July 1, midyear) multiplied by 1,000.
45. Answer: D Rationale: Prevalence rate measures the proportion of the population
which exhibits a particular disease at a particular time. This can only be determined
following a survey of the population concerned. It deals with the total (old and new)
number of cases. The formula of PR is: Total number of cases of a disease (old + new)
at a given time divided by the estimated population examined at same given time
multiplied by 100.

46. Answer: C Rationale: The vision of the Department of Health is “The leader, staunch
advocate and model in promoting Health for All in the Philippines”. Option A is the old
vision of the DOH. Option B is the underlying theme of Primary Health Care (PHC).

47. Answer: D Rationale: The goal of the DOH is Health Sector Reform Agenda
(HSRA), with the National Objectives for Health (NOH) serving as the road map for all
stakeholders in health. The following are the rationale or reasons for health sector
reform: Slowing down in the reduction of both Infant (IMR) and Maternal (MMR)
Mortality Rates (option A); Persistence of large variations in health status across
population groups and geographic areas; Rising burden from chronic, degenerative
diseases and high burden from infectious diseases (option B); Unattended emerging
health risks from environmental and work related factors (option C); Burden of disease
is heaviest on the poor, not the affluent (option D).

48. Answer: B Rationale: The specific role of the DOH based on Executive Order 102
are as follows: Leadership in health (option A); Enabler and capacity builder (option C);
and Administrator of specific services (option D).

49. Answer: C Rationale: The Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA) utilizes
FOURmula ONE for Health as its framework having four components such as health
financing, health regulation, health service delivery and good governance. The goals of
FOURmua ONE for Health are as follows: Better health outcomes (option A); More
responsive health systems (option B); and Equitable health care financing (option D).

50. Answer: B Rationale: The 8 Millennium Development Goals are based on the
fundamental values of freedom, equality, solidarity, tolerance, health, respect for nature,
and shared responsibility. All four options are part of the MDGs, however, only option B
(Promote gender equality and empower women) is not health related.

51. Answer: A Rationale: Republic Act 7160 is the Local Government Code of 1991.
Under this law, all structures, personnel, and budgetary allocations from national health
level down to the barangays were devolved to the local government units to facilitate
health service delivery. Option B is the Anti-Child Abuse Law (R.A. 7610). Option C
pertains to the adoption of the Primary Health Care in the Philippines (LOI 949). Options
D contains the roles and functions of the DOH (EO 102).

52. Answer: C
Rationale: Devolution made local government executives responsible to operate local
health services. The legitimate body in the LGU which is in-charge for the operations of
health services is known as the Local Health Board.

53. Answer: B Rationale: In the local health system, clustering of municipalities through
complementation of stakeholders is done to reintegrate hospital and public health
service for a holistic delivery of health services resulted in the creation of Inter Local
Health Zone (ILHZ). Each ILHZ has a defined population within a defined geographical
area and comprises a central referral hospital and a number of primary level facilities
such as RHUs and Barangay Health Station.

54. Answer: D Rationale: The four components of ILHZ include people, boundaries,
health facilities, and health workers. In terms of population, the number of people may
vary from zone to zone. According to the WHO, the ideal health district would have a
population size between 100,000 to 500,000 for optimum efficiency and effectiveness

55. Answer: C Rationale: Each center controls a portion of health care system as part of
its political and administrative mandate. The Rural Health Units (RHUs), Barangay
Health Stations (BHSs) and Health Centers are controlled by the Municipal or City
government.

56. Answer: A Rationale: The Environmental and Occupational Health Office (EOHO) is
responsible for the promotion of health environmental conditions and prevention of
environmental related diseases.

57. Answer: A Rationale: Point Source or Level I water supply facilities are protected
wells or developed springs with an outlet but without a distribution system. Communal
faucet system and Stand Posts (option B and C) are level II water supply facilities
composed of a source, a reservoir, a piped distribution network and communal faucets,
located at not more than 25 meters from the farthest house. Waterworks system (option
D) or Individual House Connections are level III water supply facilities composed of a
system with a source, a reservoir, a piped distribution network and household taps. This
type requires a minimum treatment or disinfection.

58. Answer: A Rationale: Level I toilet facilities include pour flush toilet and aqua privies
(non-water carriage toilet facility). No water is necessary to wash the waste into the
receiving space. Level II toilet facilities (option B) are on site toilet facilities of the water
carriage type with water-sealed and flush type with septic tank/vault disposal facilities.
Level III toilet facilities (option C) are water carriage type or toilet facilities connected to
septic tanks and/or sewerage system to treatment plant. There is no Level IV toilet
facility.
59.Answer: B Rationale: The four rights in food safety include the following: Right
source; Right preparation; Right Cooking; and Right Storage.

60. Answer: A
Rationale: Hospital waste management program is an important requirement for
registration and renewal of licenses of newly constructed and existing hospitals.

60. Answer: A
Rationale: Hospital waste management program is an important requirement for
registration and renewal of licenses of newly constructed and existing hospitals.

61. Answer: A Rationale: Ulasimang bato or Pansit-pansitan (Peperonia pellucida) is the

herbal plant used for the treatment of rheumatism and gout as it lowers uric acid level.

62. Answer: C Rationale: Based on the principle that life is the result of Qi or life energy,
Acupressure is the alternative medicine practice that maintains health, treats diseases,
and alleviates pain by massaging certain points on the body surface. Tai Chi (option A)
is also known as the Chinese shadow boxing. Cupping (option B) uses suctions.
Acupuncture (option D) uses needles.

63. Answer: A Rationale: Auriculotherapy is also known as ear acupuncture.

Homeopathy (option B) uses diluted remedy. Moxibustion (option C) uses heat on
acupuncture site. QiGong (option D) uses gentle movement, deep breathing and
meditation. QiGong is the activation (Gong) of life energy (Qi).

64. Answer: C Rationale: Yoga, which is good for spiritual cleansing and rebirth, is an
alternative health care that is used for the development of fitness wave. It promotes
strength, flexibility and endurance.

65. Answer: B Rationale: Republic Act 8423 or the Traditional and Alternative Medicine
Act paved way for the creation of the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative
Health Care. Option A is the Anti-child Abuse Law (R.A. 7610). Option C is the
Devolution Law (R.A. 7160). Option D requires that couples intending to get married
must first undergo a family planning an responsible parenthood instruction prior to the
issuance of a marriage license.

66. Answer: A Rationale: The following are qualified for home delivery: full term; less
than 5 pregnancies; cephalic presentation; without existing diseases such as diabetes,
bronchial asthma, heart disease, hypertension, goiter, tuberculosis and sever anemia;
no history of complications like hemorrhage during previous deliveries; no history of
difficulty delivery and prolonged labor; no previous caesarian section; imminent
deliveries; no premature rupture of membranes (bag of water); adequate pelvis
(gynecoid); and abdominal enlargement is appropriate for age of gestation.

67. Answer: D Rationale: The 3 pointers during home deliveries are Clean hands ,
Clean surface and Clean cord.

68. Answer: C Rationale: When breastfeeding it is important to teach mothers that the
size of their breasts doesn't affect lactation. Option A is incorrect because exercise
doesn't increase the size of the breasts. Option B is incorrect because breastfeeding is
encouraged and recommended for the first six months of an infant's life. Option D is
incorrect because will not increase in size when the baby breastfeed on it.

69. Answer: A Rationale: Republic Act 9288 or the Newborn Screening Act is the law
that provides mandate for newborn screening. Option B is the national Hepatitis B
Immunization Act (R.A. 7846). Option C is the Rooming in and Breastfeeding Act (R.A.
7600). Option D is the Clean Air Act (R.A. 8749).

70. Answer: A Rationale: Municipal Form 102 or the Birth Certificate is the record that
should be submitted to the local civil registrar's office within 30 days after the mother's
delivery. This is according to the Birth Registration Law or Presidential Decree 651.
FHSIS/E-3  (option B) refers to the Perinatal death report. FHSIS/E-2 (option C) refers
to the maternal death report. Community tax Certificate (option D) is the cedula.

71. Answer: D Rationale: The Department of Health launched in July 1976 the
Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) in cooperation with the World Health
Organization (WHO) and the UNICEF. There are laws that pertain to the practice of EPI
in the Philippines. Presidential Decree 996 (option A) is Compulsory Immunization Act,
providing for compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below 8 years of
age. Presidential Proclamation 773 is the declaration of April 17 and May 15 and every
third Wednesday of April and May from 1996 to 2000 as “Knock Out Polio Days.”
Presidential Proclamation 1066 is the Tetanus elimination campaign, declaring a
national neonatal tetanus elimination campaign starting 1997. Republic Act 3573 (option
D) is not connected with EPI because it is the Communicable Disease Act.

72. Answer: D Rationale: The EPI is one of the programs being delivered by Community
Health Nurses. One of its principles that is considered as pro-people is the principle that
states “The whole community rather than just the individual is to be protected, thus
mass approach is utilized.”

73. Answer: D Rationale: Among the vaccines, OPV and AMV (vowels) are the most
sensitive to heat. They are to be kept on the freezer with a storage temperature of -15 to
-25°C. Those vaccines least sensitive to heat such as DPT, Hepa B, BCG and TT
(consonants) are stored in the body of the refrigerator with a storage temperature of 2 to
8°C.

74. Answer: C Rationale: A child is said to be “Fully Immunized Child” when a child
receives 1 BCG, 3 OPV, 3 DPT, 3 Hepa B and 1 Measles Vaccine before a child's first
birthday.
75. Answer: A Rationale: In Immunization, no extra doses must be given to a child who
missed any dose of vaccine making option A incorrect. Options B, C and D are correct
statements.

76. Answer: B Rationale: The principal focus of CARI program of the DOH is to teach
mothers and community health workers how to detect and where to refer.

77. Answer: B Rationale: Doing careful focused assessment is the most important
responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of unnecessary deaths from pneumonia and
other severe diseases. This is because a thorough assessment supported with
laboratory results is necessary for the classification, confirmation and the treatment of
the disease.

78. Answer: D Rationale: The principal focus of CARI program of the DOH is to teach
mothers and community health workers how to detect and where to refer.

79. Answer: A Rationale: Difficulty to awaken or sleeping abnormality is one of the

danger signs. It should be classified in the pink row and referral to the nearest hospital
is an essential intervention.

80. Answer: D Rationale: Before classifying the child as Pneumonia, the child is assess
further by giving a trial of rapid-acting inhaled bronchodilator. This is to rule out Asthma,
since children with asthma also exhibits fast breathing. If the symptom still persists then
by now the child can be classified as having pneumonia. The patient in the situation is
manifesting fast breathing because base on her age, which is 18 months, it is
considered fast breathing when her respiratory rate exceeds 40 breaths/minute (1-5
years old).

81. Answer: B Rationale: The child is classified under Some dehydration because he
manifested more than 2 symptoms in the yellow row. They are as follows: irritable,
sunken eyes, drinks eagerly and skin pinch goes back slowly.

82. Answer: B Rationale: Since the child is classified under the yellow row, the
appropriate intervention is following Plan B, which is the administration of ORS (oral
rehydration solution). Plan A (option A) is used for children classified under the green
row that requires only home management. Plan C (option C) is the administration of IVF
that is used for children classified under the pink row. There is no Plan D.

83. Answer: C Rationale: When giving ORS to a child, the nurse first check if the weight
is available before considering the age. By simply multiplying the child's weight with 75
(15 kg x 75 = 1125 ml), you can determine the amount of ORS to be given. Option D is
correct if the weight is not mentioned or unavailable (2-5 years old = 900-1400 ml).
84. Answer: B Rationale: If a child vomits while receiving ORS, the appropriate action of
the nurse is to wait for 10 minutes, then continue giving the ORS but more slowly.
85. Answer: B Rationale: If the child has one sign each both in the pink and yellow rows,
the child is classified under the yellow row (Some dehydration).

86. Answer: A Rationale: A child who has just traveled to a malaria-risk area and
exhibiting fever with stiff neck should be classified under the pink row (Very Severe
Febrile Disease/Malaria).

87. Answer: B Rationale: A child with a positive blood smear with no runny nose is
classified under the yellow row. The following are specific treatments to be given: Treat
the child with an oral antimalarial drug (option A); Give one dose of paracetamol (option
C); and Advise to follow up in 2 days if fever persists (option D).

88. Answer: B Rationale: Tetracycline eye ointment is given to patients with pus
draining from their eyes. Gentian violet (option A) is for mouth ulcers.

89. Answer: D Rationale: A child who lived in a dengue risk area, develops fever and
experienced bleeding episodes from the nose and was tested positive in tourniquet test
should be classified under the pink row.

90. Answer: A Rationale: A child manifesting visible severe wasting or severe palmar
pallor should be classified under the pink row (Severe malnutrition/anemia).
91. Answer: B Rationale: When assessing children for ear infection, the nurse should
determine first presence of ear pain and swelling behind the ears, look for ear
discharges, and ask the duration if it is acute or chronic. Asking for the presence of
fever (option B) is inappropriate.

92. Answer: C Rationale: Ear infection that has been present for less than 14 days are
considered acute while those exceeding 14 days are classified as chronic.

93. Answer: C Rationale: In chronic ear infection, the nurse should counsel the mother
to bring back her child to the center after 5 days.

94. Answer: A Rationale: The appropriate intervention for a child classified under the
pink row is the urgent referral of the child to the nearest hospital.

95. Answer: D Rationale: In performing IMCI, the nurse should follow the correct
sequence of assessment. They are as follows: IMCI ARI, IMCI CDD, IMCI Fever, IMCI
Ear problem, Malnutrition, Immunization and other local bacterial infection.

96. answer: A Rationale: According to the new IMCI chart, Amoxicillin is the appropriate
oral antibiotic for a child with pneumonia, acute ear infection, very severe disease, and
mastoiditis.
97. Answer: B Rationale: According to the new IMCI chart, Ciprofloxacin is the first line
drug for treating dysentery.

98. Answer: D Rationale: According to the new IMCI chart, Artemeter-Lumefantrine is

considered as the first line antimalarial drug.

99. Answer: D Rationale: A child should be given albendazole as a single advised dose
in the center if: Hookworm/whipworm infection is a problem among children in the area;
the child is 2 years of age or older; and the child did not have a dose of the drug in the
previous 6 months.

100. Answer: A Rationale: To treat oral thrush, the mother should do the following
interventions: Wash hands; Wash mouth with clean soft cloth wrapped around the finger
and wet with salt water; and Paint the mouth with half-strength gentian violet.

COMMUNITY HEATH NURSING

Situation: Children need adequate intake of vitamin C and calcium. The nurse must
emphasize this in the health teaching sessions to the mothers.

1. Why should Vitamin C and calcium rich foods occupy a greater part of the child’s
daily menu?
a. Readily available and affordable over the counter
b. Many pharmaceuticals supply samples
c. Because these prevent conditions like carries and bone breakage
d. They act like natural vaccines

2. If a child has dental carries, he will also be prone to have

a. Flu c. Fractures
b. Baldness d. Wounds

3. For vitamin C to be easily absorbed by the child’s gut, what form of presentation is
recommended by the nurse?
a. Tablets c. Chewable
b. Liquids d. Injectable

4. In an array of food spread out in the table, the child by nature will have servings of
a. Only pick-a-pick choices
b. Necessary nutrients
c. Nonsense food groups
d. Sweets and junks food
5. If research is to be made on eating preferences of preschoolers what design of study
will you use?
a. Analytical c. Experimental
b. Descriptive d. Case-control

Situation 2: Environmental Sanitation is one of the main problems in the big cities of our
country. What can a nurse do to make a difference.

6. Which of the following agencies is responsible for the promotion of health

environmental condition and prevention of environmental related diseases?
a. Department of Health Field Units
b. Environmental Health Service
c. Department of Health Sanitation Services
d. Urban Health and National Organization

7. Which of the following agencies has the authority to act on all issues concerning
environmental health?
a. Environmental Health Services
b. Waste management and disposal
c. Environmental Sanitation Office
d. Sanitation Code # 856

8. Which among the following health problems is related to poor environmental

condition as its MAIN cause?
a. Diarrhea  c. Infectious hepatitis
b. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever d. Parasitism

9. As a nurse the main topic for health teaching in the prevention of environmental
related illness would include
a. Linis Bakuran c. Operation Illness
b. Street Cleaning d. Proper Waste Disposal

10. For hospitals waste disposal, the recommendation is using

a. Shredder c. Land Fill
b. Incineration d. Compost pit

Situation 3: Elizabeth a lawyers secretary, had an abrupt onset of fever, chilly sensation,
aches and pain in her back and feeling prostration. This lasted for 5 days.

11. You are a friend of Elizabeth because you are board mates and you are working in
nearby hospital. Which step would you do as your assessment of Elizabeth’s condition?
a. Consult a Doctor  c. Take History
b. Check vital signs d. Advise for laboratory
12. Elizabeth also has respiratory symptoms. Which one is the most common symptoms
of viral influenza?
a. Cough c. Headache
b. Fever d. Pallor

13. As friends, you and Elizabeth sometimes borrow/ use each other’s personal things.
Which item should NOT be used as common belonging?
a. Drinking glass  c. Make up kit
b. Blouse and Skirt d. Bandana and belt

14. At bedtime, you do health teaching to Elizabeth. Which one below is most
important?
a. Keep warm and free from draft
b. Stop office work
c. Eat light food
d. Avoid exposure to pneumonia

15. Mode of transmission of influenza virus which Elizabeth suffers is through

a. Food intake c. Drinking water
b. Droplet d. Soiled linen

Situation 4. Community Health Nursing utilizes the nursing process that leads to desires
outcome of health status.
16. Assessment process involves participation of clients. Which step determines the
health status of families regarding family dynamics and patterns of coping?
a. Analysis of Data   c. Interpretation of Data
b. Collection of data d. Presentation of Data

17. To categorize health problem, this condition leads to disease or injury.

a. Foreseeable crisis c. Health need
b. Health threat d. Health deficit

18. Which of the following is health deficit?

a. History of repeated infection
b. Use of nuclear medicine
c. Death or illness in the family
d. Population is inadequately immunized

19. There are many ways to collect data. This one is face to face interaction of the
researcher and the individual
a. Review of Statistics  c. Survey
b. Laboratory and screening test d. Interview

20. The data collected is systematically recorded to facilitate

a. Confidentiality  c. Research
b. Correct and accurate records d. Retrieval

Situation 5. The Expanded Program of Immunization was launched in July,1976 by the

DOH and in cooperation with the WHO

21. Which of the following is the general objective of EPI?

a. Reduce morbidity and mortality among people of all ages
b. Reduce morbidity and mortality among urban poor children
c. Reduce morbidity and mortality among infants and children caused by communicable
diseases
d. Reduce morbidity and mortality among pregnant women with high risk

22. What is EPI based on?

a. Research studies on communicable diseases
b. Epidemiological situation
c. Surveillance studies and research
d. Scenario of the community affected

23. Which age group is EPI compulsory as per PD#996 of 1976?

a. School entrants  c. Babies and infants
b. Children of all ages d. Below 8 years old

24. As a nurse, what is your role in the implementation of EPI?

a. Target setting
b. Gather children every Wednesday for Patak
c. Surveillance studies and research
d. Management of cold chain

25. Which vaccine is a requirement for school entrants regardless of the presence of
BCG scar?
a. DPT b. Hepa B c. BCG d. Anti tetanus

Situation 6: There are corner stones or pillars in Primary Health Care to achieve its
mission

26. Which of the following is NOT a corner stone of Primary Health Care?
a. Intra and inter linkages
b. Use of technology and support mechanism
c. Activities for self reliance
d. Active community participation

27. To encourage active participation of the community what qualities should a nurse
possess?
a. Intellectual capacities  c. Role modeling
b. Coach behavior d. Leadership
28. Linkages is an important action, wherein the community leaders relate with other
agencies like the following, EXCEPT:
a. Schools c. W.H.O
b. Red Cross d. Rotary club

29. The use of appropriate technology could also mean?

a. Computers c. Herbal plants
b. Medical Equip d. Essential drug

30. The primary role of a nurse in Primary Health Care is as?

a. Organizer c. Facilitator
b. Teacher d. Leader

Situation 7. Evaluation of care is an integral part in the application of nursing process.

31. What are the changes in the clients health status which is the result of the nursing
intervention?
a. Healthy lifestyle
b. Desires Outcome
c. Modified Behavior
d. Compliance with regime

32. Which of the following is the structural element from which nursing care is
delivered?
a. Philosophy of care c. Regimen
b. Health team d. Modification of symptoms

33. Which of the following is the process element as framework of nursing care?
a. Outcome changes
b. Determining nursing goals
c. Organizational structure
d. Nursing objectives

34. Which is the following is the outcome element of nursing care?

a. Success of nursing action
b. Budget and equipment
c. Coordination of services
d. Skill level of the client

35. What is the measure of nursing effectiveness if quality assurance is recommended?

a. Standard of practice
b. Changes in behavior of the client
c. High cost of health care regimen
d. Nurse – patient ratio
Situation 8: Immunization schedules are to be used in order to provide maximal
immunity to the seven EPI diseases before the child reaches the first birthday

36. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth for the protection as part on testing
from other members of the family?
a. OPV b. Measles c. BCG d. DPT

37. How many doses of DPT should be given with an interval of 4 weeks?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5  d. 6

38. At what age is DPT given?

a. 6 weeks b. Birth c. 2 weeks d. 4 week

39. Protection against polio is increased if given earlier. When is the right age?
a. 4 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. Birth

40. Measles is given subcutaneously at a dose of .5ml. At what age is this done?
a. 9 months c. 6 months
b. One and half year  d. one year

Situation 9: Nursing care after delivery is very crucial to both mother and baby.
41. Which of the following is NOT checked on the mother?
a. Vital signs
b. Contracted and hard uterus
c. Going home dress
d. Expelled placenta and laceration

42. Which of the following should be watched on the baby?

a. APGAR score and congenital defects
b. Birthmark and pigmentation
c. Foot and Hand mark
d. Measure of length

43. Registration of baby must be done by a

a. Nurse
b. Community Volunteer Health Worker
c. Midwife
d. Trained Hilot
44. The first postpartum visit in the home is
a. 6 weeks after delivery c. 1 week after delivery
b. 4 weeks after delivery d. Within 24 hours

45. An important function of the nurse is recording . Where are the reports submitted?
a. Mayors Office  c. FHSIS
b. Provincial Office d. Rural Health Unit
Situation 10. Mrs. Herera is the nurse at the mother and child health nursing unit of a
health care facility, which includes home visit in the home of the mother and child?
46. Which of the following is Mrs. Herera’s concern when she visits the mother and
child?
a. Post natal care and lactation of the mother and newborn care
b. Make a schedule of the visit to the doctors office
c. Determine family planning method for the mother
d. Evaluate socio-economic status of the family

47. Which of the following is the primary goal of maternal child health nursing?
a. To promote the well being of potential mothers and learn the right approach to family
life and family planning
b. To consider that every child has love and security and has a better future
c. To insure that every expectant mother maintains good health, learns the art of child
care, has a normal delivery and have healthy children
d. To avoid having children who are misdirected and became street children

48. What is the objective of prenatal care?

a. To avoid complication of babies upon delivery like fetal death in utero
b. To reach all pregnant women to give sufficient care and ensure healthy pregnancies
and full term birth of healthy babies
c. To ensure that all pregnant women are given tetanus toxoid immunization
d. To schedule at least 3 prenatal visits during the time of pregnancy

49. t vitamins should a pregnant woman take to increase hemoglobin?

a. Minerals c. Ferrous sulfate
b. Vitamin A d. vitamin C

50. When should the first prenatal be advised?

a. First month c. First quickening
b. First trimester d. First LMP

ANSWERS
21. C

22. B

23. D

24. A

25. C

26. C

27. D
28. C

29. C

30. D

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. D

35. B

36. C

37. D

38. A

39. C

40. A

41. C

42. A

43. C

44. D

45. C

46. A

47. C

48. B

49. C

50. A
Situation 11: Application of CHN concepts and processes

51. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. As part of participation to policy formulation, the nurse plays an active role in lobbying
for amendments to the nursing law
b. In the community, the nurse raises the level of awareness for the people to identify
existing problems and potentials and address such problem
c. If the people in the community wants free medicines, the nurse complies as the basis
of services should be on what people demands
d. If many of the trained CVHW resigned, the nurse has to start all over again and never
give up.

52. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. If people are not attending to the services of the health staff, the team must reassess
the needs of the people
b. In participatory approach, the nurse devotedly adhere to what the people want
c. In a pleasant community, where people are fighting for land ownership, the nurse
must not participate as this is not a health problem
d. Nurse must not join protest actions as nurses should always be at neutral times.

53. People have the potential for changing behavior this means:
a. One cannot teach old dogs new tricks
b. Apathy and passive cannot be addressed as these are defense mechanism
development by people themselves
c. Education and training are meant to increase awareness toward responsible action
d. Social offenders must always be watched out as they have the tendency to revert to
their former selves

54. If a particular health service fails, the most basic question is?
a. Is this what wrong?
b. What went wrong?
c. Is this what the people need?
d. Who is responsible for the failure?

55. In a meeting with the peoples organization in the community, the nurse was asked
regarding her position on gambling and usury? Most appropriate response is?
a. As long as people do not harm others, its ok.
b. Gambling and usury are part of Filipino culture so let them be
c. Gambling, Yes! Usury, No!
d. Consider other forms of recreation and economic source

Situation 12: Tessie is a new community health nurse assigned in rural community.
56. She notices that Nay Lolita, the local herbolaria is snubbing her. The best thing for
her to do is:
a. Snub her as well and pretend she does not exist
b. Ask the midwife and fetch her and have a meeting with her at the health center to
clarify
c. Make a courtesy call by visiting her where she lives
d. Send an invitation for a training of community health workers

57. She made a home visit to Marlyn and Jose to give prenatal instructions. She noticed
that the two are having quarrel. What will she say?
a. “Why are you quarreling? Tell me so I can judge who is at fault.”
b. “Can you stop quarreling? We will be talking more important thing.”
c. “Stop it Jose. You are doing harm in the baby.
d. “Is it alright, if I will just come back some other time?

58. In a health workers training, you found out that the participants took along their
small children. Anticipating confusion during the training, the best action is:
a. Put all the children in another room and have someone take care of them.
b. Tell the participants to go home and have someone take care of them.
c. Let the children be, anyway, the participants have to take care of their young
d. Postpone the training for a day, when the participants can come of themselves alone

59. It was election time and a candidate comes to you and request you to participate in
a free clinic which is part of the campaign. What will you do?
a. Ask an apology for not participating and tell him that people can come to the health
center anytime they need the service
b. Verify first if the candidate can give you substantial professional fee
c. You liked him and no questions asked and GO!
d. Wait until the rival candidate comes in and join the one which you feel must win

60. A woman went to the center fro treatment of syphilis. Your midwife shared the
matter to mothers who were there during that time. What will you do?
a. Confirm the story to the mother
b. Explain to mothers that syphilis can be treated
c. Ignore the incident
d. Make a denial

Situation 13: As a community health nurse, Agnes is very competent in assessment of

congenital health disease

61. Which of the following is the main cause of congenital disease when a mother takes
substances or drugs during pregnancy?
a. Social c. Genetic
b. Environmental d. Maternal

62. Which of the following is the main cause of congenital heart disease when the
mother has diabetes mellitus during pregnancy?
a. Maternal c. Genetics
b. Environmental d. Social

63. Which of the following is the cause of congenital heart disease when there is
trisomy?
a. Environmental c. Maternal
b. Genetics d. Social

64. Congenital Heart Disease may arise when there is familial clustering like this
situation
a. environmental c. Blood relatives
b. Lifestyle of parents d. Maternal infection

65. Nurse Agnes role in the cases of congenbital heart diseases is health teaching on
a. Sex, love and marriage
b. Rest, diet and physical exertion
c. Travel limitation
d. Fluid and electrolyte balance

Situation 14: Cardiovascular Diseases have become the greatest threat of the well
being of the Filipino today. ( DOH 2000 )

66. Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of cardiovascular diseases?

a. Inherited or acquired
b. Environmental and constitutional
c. Infectious diseases
d. Calm outlook of life

67. Congenital Heart disease can rise due to the following 3 but 1 is NOT
a. Drug intake c. Congenital
b. Accident d. Maternal Diseases

68. Rheumatic Heart Disease can rise due to

a. Frequent sore throat c. Viral infection
b. Genetic causes d. Depression

69. Hypertension is associated with

a. Stressful work world  c. Lovers rejection
b. Family conflict d. High salt diet

70. Coronary Artery Disease is associated with

a. Fitness regimen c. Sedentary lifestyle
b. Night out activities d. Sexual overuse

51. B

52. A

53. C

54. C

55. D

56. C

57. D

58. D

59. A

60. D

61. D

62. B

63. D

64. C

65. D

66. D

67. B

68. A

69. D

70. C
Situation 15: Community Organization is a process wherein people in the community,
health care providers and agencies in the community are brought together.

71. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of community organization?

a. Learn about common problems
b. Plan the kind of action needed to solve problems
c. Never to act on issues presented
d. Identify problems as their own

72. Which of the following is the primary principle involved in the community
organization?
a. Planning group needs
b. Assembly of community leaders
c. Technique in asking questions
d. Defined functions in each group

73. Which basic method can determine the extent to which the basic needs are met for
the health workers to bring about the adjustment between need and resources?
a. Education and Interpretation
b. Determination of needs
c. Program instruction
d. Fact Finding

74. As a nurse you have gained entry in the community. Which initial step is done?
a. List names of persons to contact
b. Gather information from persons and records
c. Arrange the first meeting
d. Prepare the agenda

75. Which of the following should a nurse do if the purpose in community organizing is
to integrate with the people?
a. Be punctual in reporting at the RHU
b. Live with the people
c. Assign community officers
d. Reside in the home of the Municipal Health officer

Situation 16. Nursing process is a hierarchy of steps in managing patient care

76. Assessment is the first step of the nursing process. Which is the following is the
lowest priority in addressing patients needs after a thorough assessment?
a. The client social and belonging needs
b. Needs of family members and friends who are involved in patient care
c. Safety related needs
d. Clients needs for referral to appropriate agency

77. A 70 year old patient is on absolute bed rest. The priority assessment by the nurse
is that this client is at greatest risk for which of the following?
a. Decubitus ulcer affecting the heels
b. Interrupted sleeping pattern
c. Venous thrombosis
d. Decreased appetite

78. A 10 year old child is brought to the ER for burns affecting the chest and the upper
extremities. Which of the following is the first nursing priority in taking care of the
patients?
a. Inserting an IV  c. Inserting a foley catheter
b. Comforting the child d. Maintaining patient airway

79. A 12 year old child was admitted in Baguio General Hospital for suspected
meningococcemia. Which of the following measures should you take in order to assess
for meningeal irritation?
a. Evaluate papillary reaction to light
b. Evaluate for the presence of photophobia
c. Evaluate the strength of clients extremities
d. Evaluate the level of consciousness

80. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention following a lumbar

puncture?
a. Helping the client to maintain a flexed position
b. A pressure dressing at the site
c. Maintaining bed rest
d. Monitoring the client for headache

Situation 17: The Filipino people has varied menus and ingredients. Nurses should
know what to advise nursing mothers on what foods to eat that will benefit their
motherhood status and the baby

81. Which of the following sets of foods should be encouraged to be specifically eaten
by nursing mothers?
a. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, minerals
b. Beans, ham, jollibee chain of foods, pizza and pasta
c. Cereals, cheese, carrots, enriched bread and steak
d. Leafy green and yellow vegetables, milk, fish and fruits

82. What can a working mother who is lactating do to fulfill her duty of working in the
office and at the same time breast milk her baby?
a. Excuse herself from the office on scheduled feeding time
b. Bring the baby in the cradle to the office for feeding time
c. Rent an apartment near office to facilitate going home
d. Squeeze periodically milk from breast and put in the bottle, ref

83. Cuddling and caressing and carrying of the baby during infancy should be
maximized because this contribute greatly to the baby’s
a. Parental bonding c. Intelligent capabilities
b. Emotional quotient d. Social graces

84. What is ensured in the mothers milk anytime she breast feeds her baby?
a. improving suckling reflex of the baby
b. Sufficient amount of milk
c. Rest time of mother from office work
d. Right temperature at all times

85. Breast milk is also good medicine to treat acne vulgaris among young people. What
component of mothers milk resolves acne problem?
a. Moisturizer c. Proteins
b. Astringent d. Fats

Situation 18: Community Diagnosis

86. The most common method for community diagnosis that accounts for the bulk of
data is
a. Census c. Records review
b. Interview d. Sample survey

87. The following are the steps in processing the data.

1. Data analysis 3. Data presentation
2. Data collection 4. Data collation
a. 2,4,1, and 3 c. 2,4,3 and 1
b. 2,3,4 and 1 d. 2,3,1 and 4

88. Major factors affecting population includes the following EXCEPT:

a. Births b. Death c. Migration d. Morbidity

89. A population pyramid with triangular shape and broad base indicates the following
except:
a. High death rates c. Young population
b. Death d. Morbidity

90. The sampling method used for a reliable community diagnosis is:
a. Simple random c. Cluster
b. Multi stage d. Systematic Random

Situation 19. Vital Statistics

91. The crude birth rate of X community is 30.5. This means;
a. 30.5 birth in every 1000 population
b. 31 births in every 1000 population
c. 30 births in every 1000 population
d. 30 births in every 1000 population of women 15 to 44 years

92. Infant mortality rate refers to deaths in every 100 births belong to:
a. 0-28 days c.0-1 week
b. 0-1 month d. 0-12 months

93. There were 20 cases of measles in a community and 5 died. What is the CFR of
measles?
a. .025 b. 2.5 c.25% d. 250

94. The relative importance of a cause of death is computed as

a. CFR  c. PMR
b. Cause of Death Rate d. Incidence Rate

95. In estimating the rank of cause as a common illness, the nurse makes use of:
a. Incidence rate c. Swaroops Index
b. Prevalence Rate d. Attack rate

Situation 20: In the prevention of the disease the use of the epidemiological approach is
an essential skill

96. Epidemiology pertains to the study of the

a. Causes of the health and disease in the family
b. Occurrence and distribution of health and disease in a population
c. Factors that influence the causation of the disease in man
d. Ten leading causes of morbidity and mortality

97. This is the objective in the use of the epidemiological approach in the practice of
nursing:
a. to obtain baseline data for evaluating a preventive program
b. To help in the formulation of nursing diagnosis
c. To identify the agent-host-environment factors of a specific disease
d. To increase skill in the control of a specific disease

98. The natural history of any disease in man centers on the following concept:
a. The disease process is affected by various factors
b. Illness is caused mostly by environmental factors
c. Illness and culture are associated
d. Agent host environment factors interrelated to cause a disease
99. When is an epidemiology investigation indicated?
a. When the secretary of health orders it.
b. When the Municipal Health Officer request
c. When the disease is a reportable case
d. When there is an epidemic

100. Epidemiological reports emphasize

a. Control measures instituted
b. Isolation of cases
c. Education of the public
d. Immunization of all those susceptible
71. C

72. A

73. D

74. B

75. B

76. A

77. C

78. D

79. C

80. D

81. D

82. D

83. D

84. D

85. C

86. A

87. B
88. C

89. A

90. A

91. C

92. D

93. C

94. A

95. A

96. C

97. C

98. D

99. C

100. A

Which of the following best defines a disaster?

a. Any event that results in multiple deaths

b. Devastation that cannot be relieved without assistance
c. Devastation that covers a broad geographical area
d. When the event results in multiple injuries and deaths as well as property damage

Which of the following best describes countries that bear the greatest burden of
disasters?

a. Arid regions that are prone to drought

b. Developing countries with limited resources
c. Industrialized countries with much to lose
d. Water-boundary regions that are prone to floods and hurricanes

What is the purpose of the National Response Framework?

a. Create a new branch of government that deals with bioterrorism
b. Establish a way for the Red Cross to carry out its mission
c. Develop a nationwide all-hazards approach to domestic incident management
d. Extend presidential power to act quickly upon weapons of mass destruction

When does disaster management begin?

a. Before the disaster occurs
b. During the disaster
c. Immediately following the disaster
d. During the recovery period

A nurse is focused on mitigation of disasters at the international level. Which of the

following activities would the nurse most likely complete?
a. Provide community educational programs and training on how to prepare for
disasters.
b. Request donations be sent to the affected area.
c. Develop a notification procedure to be used by the international disaster relief office.
d. Recruit volunteers to be a part of the disaster team that will travel to the afflicted area.

A nurse is employed by the Philippine Red Cross and is frequently assigned to fly to a
disaster zone. Which of the following should the nurse's family members have readily
available?
a. Gloves, mask, and other personal protective equipment
b. A copy of the nurse's professional license
c. A 5-day supply of water
d. A disaster/emergency plan

A nurse is working with a community during the preparedness stage of disaster

management. Which of the following events would the nurse anticipate occurring?

a. Heightened inspection and increased security in the community

b. Incorporation of provision of pets into local disaster plans
c. Purchase of personal protective equipment for all citizens
d. Assembly of disaster kits for the home, workplace, and car

A community health nurse has invited several agencies in the community to a meeting
to discuss the disaster plan for the community. Which of the following best describes the
purpose of this meeting?

a. To increase stability in the community

b. To improve overall community functioning
c. To manage response to disasters in the community
d. To enhance communication among agencies in the community

The local hospital, health department, and university together planned and implemented
a mock casualty drill, with the university's theater and nursing students playing the
injured victims. After the drill, which of the following would the nursing students most
likely complete?

a. Volunteer as leaders in the next casualty drill

b. Evaluate the drill and offer recommendations for more effectiveness in the
future
c. Recognize how to respond to a real disaster in the future
d. Write a report on their actions and how they felt during the drill

Which of the following organizations would direct nurses' response to a county-wide

disaster?
a. Philippine Red Cross
b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
c. Emergency Management Agency
d. The local public health department

A nurse is attempting to minimize damage following a bioterrorism attack in the

community. Which of the following would be the most crucial aspect for the nurse to
consider?
a.Detecting an increase in people with similar signs and symptoms
b. Identifying typical chemical or biological agents
c. Identifying factors that put people at risk
d. Recognizing areas of vulnerability within an area

Which of the following older adults is most in need of psychological support?

a. The older adult who keeps asking if loans will be available for him to rebuild
b. The older adult who keeps asking if he can go back home yet
c. The older adult who keeps lamenting the loss of his family photos
d. The older adult who keeps talking about how expensive his home theater was and
how he will never be able to afford to replace it

A community is experiencing the Honeymoon phase following a disaster. Which of the

following is most likely to occur in the community?
a. First responders work tirelessly to save others
b. Survivors share their stories
c. Medical personnel experience exhaustion
d. Community organizations rebuild the community

A nurse was the first on the scene of a disaster and saw people with injuries ranging
from minor to serious. Some of those with minor injuries were helping others. Which of
the following injured persons would the nurse assist first?
a. Those with life-threatening head and chest injuries
b. Those who have life-threatening abdominal injuries
c. Those who have serious injuries of limbs
d. Those who are hurt but still mobile and functioning
A nurse is assessing persons arriving at a shelter following a disaster. Which of the
following would be the first action the nurse should take?
a. Limit the amount of equipment and medications brought into the shelter.
b. Determine if the person has a psychological condition requiring special attention.
c. Assess if this type of facility is appropriate for the person.
d. Provide medical care for persons as if they were in a hospital.

A nurse learns about a huge disaster a few states away. Which of the following actions
by the nurse would be most helpful in this situation?
a. Contributing funds to any charity that is assisting the victims
b. Driving over to the area and volunteering to assist
c. Sending clothes and food to the area for distribution
d. Training to become a Red Cross disaster volunteer

On the second day after a disaster, a male colleague tells the nurse he has a splitting
headache. The nurse notes the colleague is feeling irritable and having difficulty
focusing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in response to the
complaint of headache?
a. Explain that the headache and problems focusing are probably the result of worry, so
he should concentrate on the work at hand and deal with emotions later.
b. Explain that he is experiencing signs and symptoms of psychological stress
and recommend that he take some time off for a break.
c. Explain to the worker that this is a common problem when multitasking under
pressure and suggest that he focus on one task at a time.
d. Suspect dehydration and encourage the worker to drink more fluids.

A nurse, after working two weeks at the site of the largest natural disaster to hit the
country, returns home. Which of the following behaviors would suggest the nurse needs
professional assistance?
a. The nurse becomes angry when family members quit listening to her ongoing
stories about the disaster and the problems there.
b. The nurse gives a presentation at the local college about the disaster and describes
how health professionals were able to assist the victims who were injured.
c. The nurse is moody and feels family demands are not really as important as the other
members of her family think they are.
d. The nurse is very exhausted and asks to have 3 personal days off from employment
responsibilities.

After a house fire, a 4-year-old child begins sucking his thumb and wetting his bed.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
a.Explain to the child that it is important to be strong and not act like a baby.
b. Explain to the family that this behavior is a normal reaction to disaster.
c. Recommend admission for inpatient psychological counseling.
d. Recommend behavior therapy as a means to overcome regression.

Which of the following levels of prevention is being used by a nurse who is helping to
develop a community-wide disaster management plan?
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. All prevention levels

Which of the following disasters would implementation of disaster medical assistance

teams (DMATs)? (Select all that apply.)

a. Disaster that covers a broad geographical area

b. Disaster that is beyond the coping capabilities of the affected state
c. Disaster that may result in substantial health and medical problems
d. Disaster that may cause a large number of deaths and/or injuries
B, C, D

The public health nurse must participate in the essential services of public health. These
include:
a.Monitoring health status by completing a community assessment
b.Diagnosing and investigating health problems in the world
c.Informing, educating, and empowering people about health issues
d.Working in law enforcement to regulate health and ensure safety

Making sure that essential community-oriented health services are available defines
which of the core public health functions?
a.Policy development
b.Assessment
c.Assurance
d.Scientific knowledge-based care

Which of the following statements about public health is accurate?

a.Prevention of early deaths can be more effectively accomplished by medical treatment
than by public health approaches.
b.Expenditures and resources for public health have increased in recent years.
c.Historically, gains in the health of populations have been related largely to
changes in safety, sanitation, and personal behavior.
d.Reform of the medical insurance system is the single change needed to improve the
health of Americans.
Collecting data and monitoring the health status of the population defines which of the
core public health functions?
a.Assessment
b.Prevention
c.Assurance
d.Policy development

Public health nurses who develop and implement local public health policies through
partnerships with agencies, organizations, and consumers within the community are
using which core public health function?
a.Assessment
b.Prevention
c.Assurance
d.Policy development

Providing for the availability of essential personal health services for people who would
otherwise not receive health care defines which public health core function?
a.Assessment
b.Prevention
c.Assurance
d.Policy development

Which is an example of the primary goal of public health?

a.Ensuring that a newly diagnosed 40-year-old hypertensive man takes his medication
b.Finding home care for a 70-year-old client recuperating from a hip replacement
c.Conducting an infant car seat safety check
d.Contacting a local hospice to admit a terminally ill 60-year-old woman
The public health workforce should demonstrate competency in which of the following
competency categories?
a.Financial planning and management
b.Workforce needs assessment
c.Acute care services
d.Curriculum development

Public health nursing is a specialty because:

a.It has a distinct focus and scope of practice.
b.It must be done by a registered nurse with a master's degree.
c.It is focused on disadvantaged citizens.
d.It performs interventions at the acute care level.

A public health nurse provides a clinic for HIV-positive citizens in the community. This is
an example of:
a.Primary prevention
b.Secondary prevention
c.Tertiary prevention
d.Policy making

Which statement about community health nursing practice is correct?

a.It focuses on the delivery of personal health services to individuals and
families.
b.It provides care to protect the health of the community as a whole.
c.It emphasizes the setting where care is provided for clients and families.
d.It requires a baccalaureate preparation for practice.

The nurse who conducts vision screenings on children in the school setting is practicing
_____ nursing practice.
a.Community-oriented 
b.Public health 
c.Community health 
d.Community-based

A population is best defined as a:

a.High-risk group
b.School or institutional setting
c.Collection of individuals who share at least one common characteristic
d.Geographical location within a community

Population-focused practice focuses on defining the problems or needs of and

implementing solutions for:
a.Individuals
b.Aggregates
c.Communities
d.Geographical regions

Which of the following statements is true with regard to a population focus in public
health nursing?
a.Priority is given to the highest risk population.
b.Direct caregiving is limited to preventive measures, such as administration of
immunizations.
c.Attention is given to the population or community as a whole, regardless of
whether they do or do not access the health care system.
d.Only populations outside institutional settings are considered.

A key opportunity for public health nurses to improve population-focused care is by:
a.Assuming traditional nursing roles
b.Influencing public health policy
c.Conducting community assessments
d.Specializing in community-based nursing practice

Which of the following are considered barriers to public health nursing? Select all that
apply.
a.The mindset that the only role for the nurse is at the bedside.
b.The structures within which nurses work and the process of role socialization within
those structures.
c.Few nurses receive graduate-level preparation in the concepts and strategies of the
disciplines basic to public health.
d.The number of job opportunities in the area has been steadily declining.

ABC

The threat of bioterrorism has the potential to:

a.Dissolve community-based programs.
b.Cause the health care system to collapse.
c.Divert funds from other public safety health care programs.
d.Increase the need for shelters.

Population-based preventive programs launched in the 1970s are responsible for

increased:
a.Use of tobacco
b.Use of automobile safety restraints
c.Incidence of hypertension
d.Incidence of obesity

The number and proportion of persons aged 25 or older with less than a high school
education is an example of:
a.Sociodemographic characteristics
b.Health status
c.Health risk factors
d.Health care resource consumption

The purpose of public health core functions is to:

a. Clarify the role of the government in fulfilling the mission of public health.
b. Ensure the safety of populations in receiving quality health care.
c. Provide community-based individualized care to every person in the United States.
d. Unite public and private providers of care in a comprehensive approach to providing
health care.

The nurse who compares the rate of teenage pregnancy in various areas of the city is
practicing the public health core function of:
a.Assurance
b.Assessment
c.Prevention
d.Policy development
b. Assessment

The nurse manager who makes sure that the staff members who work in a local clinic
are competent is demonstrating the public health core function of:
a.Assurance
b.Assessment
c.Prevention
d.Policy development

The public health nurse analyzes data related to the number and type of United States
Environmental Protection agency air quality standards that a community failed to meet.
This data is an example of using which community health profile indicator?
a.Sociodemographic characteristics
b.Health status
c.Health risk factor
d.Functional status

The necessary basic preparation for public health nursing is a(n) _____ in nursing.
a.Associate's degree
b.Baccalaureate degree
c.Master's degree
d.PhD

An example of a community health nursing practice is:

a.Administrating a flu shot to a client in a physician's office
b.Conducting a flu shot clinic at a community center
c.Performing a client assessment in a hospital
d.Providing supervision of staff in a rehabilitation center
a.Administrating a flu shot to a client in a physician's office

The term community-based nursing care is applied when implementing which nursing
intervention?
a. Assessing the health needs of a defined community
b. Providing care to families in a community
c.Promoting the health of an entire community
d.Investigating environmental health problems in a community

The nurse investigating environmental health problems caused by contaminated ground

water is best described as practicing:
a.Community-oriented nursing
b.Community-based nursing
c.Policy development
d.Tertiary care

A public health staff nurse who has a clear understanding of population-focused

practice:
a.Is frustrated providing care to individuals
b.Would rather perform population-focused interventions
c.Is able to improve the effectiveness of care provided
d.Is considered a public health nurse specialist

.
To better address emerging public health issues, a public health nurse enrolls in a
course addressing which content area?
a.Leadership
b.Ethics
c.Communication
d.Finance

PHNs are looking to improve population-focused care in the community. Which of the
following best describes a key opportunity for the nurses to accomplish this goal?

a. Assuming traditional nursing roles

b. Influencing public health policy
c. Conducting community assessments
d. Specializing in community-based nursing practice
b. Influencing public health policy

A public health department makes sure that the essential community-oriented health

services are available in the community. Which of the following core public health
functions is being implemented?
a. Policy development
b. Assessment
c. Assurance
d. Scientific knowledge-based care

A PHN collects data & monitors the health status of the population. Which of the
following core public health functions is being implemented?

a. Assessment
b. Prevention
c. Assurance
d. Policy development
a. Assessment
A PHN develops & implementslocal public health policies through partnerships with
agencies, organizations, and consumers within the community. Which of the following
core public health functions is being used?

a. Assessment
b. Prevention
c. Assurance
d. Policy development

A nurse provides for the availability of essential personal health services for people who
would otherwise not receive health care. Which of the public health core functions is
being used?

a. Assessment
b. Prevention
c. Assurance
d. Policy development

The nurse manager makes surethat the staff members who work in a local clinic are
competent in their job responsibilities. Which of the public health core functions is being
demonstrated?

a. Assurance
b. Assessment
c. Prevention
d. Policy development

A nurse is implementing quality performance standards in a public health department.

Which of the following best describes the importance of this action?

a. Quality performance standards are used to guide improvement in the public

health system.
b. Quality performance standards rigidly control public health.
c. Quality performance standards guide administrators to monitor public health at the
national level.
d. Quality performance standards can be used as hiring guidelines for nurses.

The public health nurse (PHN) must participate in the essential services of public health.
Which of the following most accurately describes one of the essential services of
public health?
a. Monitoring health status by completing a community assessment
b. Diagnosing and investigating health problems in the world
c. Informing, educating, and empowering people about health issues
d. Working in law enforcement to regulate health and ensure safety

A nurse uses a behavioral health risk survey and identifies the factors leading to obesity
in the family. Which of the following levels of prevention best describes the nurse's
action?

a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Assessment

A nurse is assessing family structure. Which of the following describes what the nurse
should recognize?

a. An individual may experience many different family structures over a lifetime

b. The variations in family structure are becoming less common.
c. The traditional nuclear family is the most common family structure.
d. There is great variation among family structures.

A nurse makes a visit to a home where there are a number of people. The client says
that several people are in her family who are not related. Which of the following
describes what should be done by the nurse?

a. Ask the client why they are living in her home

b. Ask each member to identify his or her health needs
c. Tell the client that these people are not considered family
d. Accept the client's definition of family

A nurse examines family interactions. Which of the following describes the theory that
is being applied?

a. Bioecological systems
b. Family systems
c. Family developmental and life cycle
d. Capacity -building model

A nurse organizes care for a family by focusing on the common tasks of family life and
considering a longitudinal view of the family life cycle. Which of the following theories is
being applied?
a. Family systems
b. Bioecological systems
c. Family developmental and life cycle
d. Capacity building model

A nurse considers how the environment outside of the family influences the
development of a child. Which of the following theories is being used?

a. Bioecological systems
b. Family systems
c. Family developmental and life cycle
d. Capacity -building model

A nurse displays pertinent family information in a multigenerational family tree

format. Which of the following best describes this action?

a. Family intervention
b. Family assessment
c. Genogram
d. Ecomap

A nurse is constructing a genogram for a family. Which of the following describes its
importance?

a. Allows nurses to diagnose disease patterns

b. Brings the family together to do a mutual task
c. Shows family history and patterns of health-related information
d. Provides a visual diagram of the family unit in relation to other subsystems

A nurse asks, "Where is this family on the continuum of the family cycle?" Which of the
following theories is being used?

a. Bioecological systems
b. Family systems
c. Family developmental and life cycle
d. Capacity -building model

A nurse is demonstrating how a family relates to the other units in the community.
Which of the following assessment instruments would be appropriate for the nurse to
use?
a. Family intervention
b. Family assessment
c. Genogram
d. Ecomap

A nurse is using an ecomap. Which of the following best describes the situation that the
nurse is experiencing?

a. Assessing a family's biological risks

b. Considering a family's economic risks
c. Discussing a family's lifestyle risks
d. Examining a family's social risks

Government actions that have a direct or indirect effect on families are called _____
policy.

a. social
b. family
c. public
d. financial

Which statement best describes the effects of life events on family health risk?

a. Normative events require very little change in family structures and roles.
b. Positive events are unlikely to place stress on a family.
c. Normative and nonnormative events pose potential risks to the health of
families.
d. Negative life events require change and place stress on a family.

The process of assessing the presence of specific factors within each category that
have been identified as being associated with an increased likelihood of an illness or an
unhealthy event is called health:

a. risk reduction.
b. risk appraisal.
c. risk factors.
d. life-event risk.

A family has experienced a family crisis. Which of the following best describes this
situation?

a. Husband loses job and family is now homeless

b. Child dies and parents go to grief counseling
c. Mother is hospitalized for 2 weeks and neighbors help care for the children
d. Nurse goes to home to give chemotherapy to child with cancer

A family has experienced a nonnormative life event. Which of the following best

describes this situation?

a. Adoption of a child
b. Loss of a job
c. Marriage of a child
d. Retirement from work

Which is a main disadvantage to home visits?

a. Convenience for the client
b. Time spent with one client
c. Client control of the setting
d. Ability to individualize services

A nurse is completing the post-visit phase of a home visit. Which of the following
activities is the nurse most likely to complete?

a. Document the visit and services provided

b. Conduct a health teaching session
c. Plan the next home visit
d. Seek information about community resources for referrals
A nurse is in the beginning phase of contracting with a family. Which of the following
activities will most likely occur during this phase?

a. Mutual division of responsibilities

b. Mutual development of a plan
c. Mutual setting of time limits
d. Mutual implementation of the plan

A nurse clarifies the purpose of a home visit with a family. Which of the following
phases of the home visit process is occurring?

a. Initiation
b. Pre-visit
c. In-home
d. Post-visit

A nurse plans to review the home visit with the family. Which of the following phases of
the home visit process is most likely occurring?
a. Initiation
b. In-home
c. Termination
d. Post-visit

A nurse is implementing the termination phase of a home visit. Which of the following
nursing activities is most likely being demonstrated?

a. Conducting a physical assessment

b. Identifying household members
c. Summarizing accomplishments of the visit
d. Teaching about health

A nurse centers his practice around the principle of doing the greatest good for the
greatest number. Which of the following ethical principles is being applied?

a. Distributive justice
b. Utilitarianism
c. Social justice
d. Health disparities
b. Utilitarianism

Which of the following is not included as an overarching goal of Healthy People 2020?
a. Eliminating health disparities
b. Creating environments that promote good health
c. Lengthening the average lifespan by a decade
d. Attaining longer lives free of preventable diseases and injury

The purpose of continuous quality improvement (CQI) is to

a. monitor processes involved in the provision of safe, effective care for patients.
b. restructure hospital departments to initiate cost savings
c. provide an opportunity for staff members to participate in self-governance
d. deliver appropriate nursing care to patients

Which of the following is not considered a Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
(QSEN) competency?
a. Patient/family centered care
b. Teamwork and collaboration
c. Safety
d. Root-cause analysis
Nurses, physicians, and social workers finalize the plan of care and coordinate
discharge for a homeless person who will need wound care and follow up over the next
4 weeks. Each member contributes based on his or her area of expertise but also
recognize other members' strengths. Which of the QSEN competencies are being
demonstrated?
a. Quality improvement
b. Evidence-based practice
c. Teamwork and collaboration
d. Need for continuing education

The nurse who assesses and records variations from this standard is fulfilling which role
of nursing?
a. Infection control
b. Quality Management
c. Coordinator
d. Counselor

The principles and values that govern actions directed at influencing and determining
decisions, actions, and other matters are known as
a. policy
b. politics
c political power.
d power

Identify the most important element in nursing's attempt to gain full autonomy of
practice.
A)Economic exploitation of nurses
B)Maintaining the education system for nurses as it is now
C)Gaining and maintaining control of nursing practice by nurses
D)Restricting the latitude of decisions made by nurses

In its attempt to gain freedom and independence, what corresponding factors must the
nursing profession embrace?
A)Health and happiness
B)Chaos and disorder
C)Loss of control and negative feedback
D)Responsibility and accountability

3. Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their
practice.
A)Use strikes and union tactics to increase pay.
B)Join professional organizations in large numbers.
C)Leave nursing as soon as better jobs come along.
D)Confront hospital administrators about poor staffing.
4. What allows a nurse to exert referent power over a client when providing nursing
care?
A)The ability to withhold pain medication if the client does not comply with routines
B)The ability to provide the client with additional food when he or she does comply with
the nurse's requests
C)The power given to the nurse by reason of state licensure
D)The establishment of a professional and personal relationship with the client

Which statement is the best description of a profession from the power approach
method of defining a profession?
A)The members of the profession attain all the traits required for that profession.
B)The members of the profession have high income levels.
C)The profession is near the end of its developmental process.
D)The education for the members of the profession must be attained in graduate
schools.