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Quality Management Exam Review For Radiologic Imaging Sciences
Quality Management Exam Review For Radiologic Imaging Sciences
MANAGEMENT
REVIEW
QUALITY
MANAGEMENT
REVIEW
Steven B. Dowd, Ed.D., RT(R)(QM)(M)(MR)(CT)CPHQ
Associate Professor
Program Director Radiography Program
University of Alabama at Birmingham
Birmingham, Alabama
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Contents
Preface vi
Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry 1
Recommended References / 1
Basic Material You Need to Know 5
v
Preface
vi
Preface vii
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
Steven B. Dowd
Thanks to my wife, Lisa and son, Josh for helping me out through
my various certification endeavors (including obsessing over my
expected score on the QM exam) and the writing of this book.
Also, thanks to Ann Steves and Randal Robertson for their profes-
sional support during the writing of this book and in my teaching.
Elwin R. Tilson
I would like to acknowledge Dr. Sharyn Gibson, Gloria
Strickland, Debbie Lamb, and Sharon Gillard-Smith—my profes-
sional colleagues who have nurtured me, taught me, inspired me,
and worked with me over the years. I also owe a great debt to my
students who have inspired me by always asking “Why?”. Finally,
this book would never been published without the hard work of
Candice Janco and Marie D’Angelico, both of Delmar Thomson
Learning. Thank you all!
Richard B. Carlton
A professional life requires a wide range of support to be suc-
cessful. The extent to which mine has succeeded recently is in
great measure due to a great dean, chair, and our faculty at
Arkansas State. Thanks to Susan Hanrahan, Ray Winters, Lyn
Hubbard, Jeannean Rollins, Tracy White, and Lynn Carlton (who
shares both my professional and personal life).
RECOMMENDED REFERENCES
Diagnostic Imaging
Papp, J. Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences (Mosby-
Yearbook, 1998) is currently the main resource for QM for
radiography.
1
2 Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry
Physics
There are a number of books that provide information on
physics for the radiologic sciences.
Mammography
There is no substitute for actually reading the American Col-
lege of Radiology (ACR) manual. However, Papp provides a
good start for QC in mammography in Quality Management in
the Imaging Sciences.
Be sure to develop some method for distinguishing between
QC in mammography and general radiography because toler-
ances, etc. are not exactly the same.
Film Processing
The best resource for film processing is Haus and Jaskulski’s
The Basics of Film Processing in Medical Imaging (Medical
Physics Publishing, 1997), although McKinney’s Radiographic
Processing and Quality Control (initially Lippincott, repub-
lished in 1997 through another company) runs a close second.
The material in Haus and Jaskulski particularly on hard-to-
find information such as the make-up and operation of densit-
ometers, flooded replenishment, etc. is extremely valuable in
test preparation.
Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry 3
QM/QI
Adams & Aurora’s book contains especially good test items
and diagrams relating to the QM process. Chapter 6 of Steve
Hiss’ book, Introduction to Health Care Delivery and Radi-
ology Administration (WB Saunders, 1997) has a good intro-
duction to QI. Tilson & Dowd’s article, “The benefits of using
CQI/TQM data” in Radiologic Technology, Vol. 67, no. 6, 1996:
4 Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry
Statistics
The statistical concepts on the QM registry are basic, but you
must know them well. Don’t expect simple questions like
“What is the mean?”; you must instead know how to calculate
the mean and what it is used for. Do your best to find a good
statistics book that makes sense to you. Nursing statistics
books tend to give examples that are closest to radiography;
e.g., Burns & Grove, The Practice of Nursing Research:
Conduct, Critique, and Utilization (WB Saunders, 2001).
Drill-and-Review
There are two good drill-and-review programs: one distrib-
uted by Corectec of Athens, Georgia, and one through
Educational Software Concepts Inc. (ESC), by Elwin Tilson
and Steven Dowd. The ESC disk is about $30 and contains
over 600 questions with detailed annotated answers. You can
drill-and-review in specific sections and take multiple mock
registries. The Corectec disk is about $99 and contains one
well-designed mock registry.
Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry 5
Survey Meters
● Geigen-Muller (GM) counter (qualitative measurements
only), portable scintillation counters, and ionization
chambers are most often used.
● Individuals involved in the handling of radioactive
materials shall be competent in the use of survey
meters.
● The response of radiation detection instruments shall be
checked periodically using an appropriate radiation
source.
● The radiation safety officer (RSO) should be consulted
prior to the procurement of survey meters.
● Personnel dosimeters—Types, where worn, minimal
exposures
● The site where the dosimeter is worn should be docu-
mented in the records.
8 Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry
Shoulds
● Use contamination control measures for radioactive
materials.
● Restrict use to authorized locations.
● Do not allow in areas where its presence can be an
unsuspected source of radiation exposure to the patient.
● Use warning signs.
● Display the recognized magenta radiation symbol on a
yellow background.
● Follow explicitly any instructions given on the signs.
Shalls
● Employees shall be given appropriate training and
safety instruction by a qualified individual.
● Follow all such instructions and directions.
Shalls
● Allow only authorized users to order and receive
radionuclides.
● Do not exceed individual authorizations for type and
amount of radionuclides.
● Have materials delivered to a designated receiving area.
● Provide a designated receiving site for night and week-
end deliveries (should be accompanied by guard to this
site; guard should be able to inspect package and call
RSO, if needed).
● No food allowed in refrigerator with radioactive
materials.
● No eating, drinking, or smoking permitted.
Shalls
● Appropriately package and manage waste.
● Plan releases to environment under the supervision of
RSO.
● Perform releases in accordance with federal, state, and
local regulations.
● Record and maintain releases to sewer.
● Sterilize infectious and radioactive waste before
disposal.
Shoulds
● Achieve familiarity with equipment and operating
procedures.
● Periodically consult RSO, physicist, radiologist, or chief
technologist to ensure proper radiation safety practices
are being followed.
● Become familiar with CDRH regulations for equipment
manufacturing.
Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry 11
Shalls
● Have an orientation program on radiation safety for
newly employed technologists and a continuing educa-
tion program to review the rules and regulations.
● Make technologists aware of the approximate amount of
radiation received by their patients during each radio-
graphic procedure used in their facility.
● Never allow beam size to exceed size of image receptor
for radiographic and fluoroscopic procedures.
● Wear a lead apron in fluoroscopy.
Chapter 1 Studying for the QM Registry 13
NCRP #99
Main source for quality assurance programs in
radiology (Sections 1, 6, 7)
Note: These numbers can vary and this does not affect
the validity of the data as long as they are consistent
throughout the results being compared.
● Isolate an emulsion batch of film sufficient to last at least
one month, and you must do a “crossover” (where the
speed point and D.D. of the new emulsion batch is com-
pared to the old emulsion batch and the points “reset” on
the chart.
● Some other basic parameters may include:
1. Assign one individual to the program.
2. Process strips same way each time, and at the same
time each day.
3. Clean and maintain equipment.
● Monthly Tests
■ Phantom images: Must see 4 fibers, 3 specks, and 3
masses. D.D. of 0.40 ± 0.05
■ Visual checklist: Mechanical integrity of locks, SID,
etc.
● Quarterly Tests
■ Repeat analysis: Less than 2% repeat rate ideal but
may not exceed 5%
■ Fixer retention: Should not exceed Stain #2 (Kodak)
which equals 0.05 g/m2
● Semiannual Tests:
■ Darkroom fog: +0.05
■ Screen-film contact: Large areas unacceptable
(greater than 1 cm) and up to 5 small areas (less
than 1 cm) acceptable
■ Compressor: Power drive should be 25–40 pounds
and manual drive between 25 and 40 pounds.
● Miscellaneous Tests
■ Replace illuminator bulbs every 18–24 months.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The rate of spontaneous nuclear transformation of a
radioactive nuclide describes:
____ a. exposure
____ b. absorbed dose
____ c. becquerel
____ d. activity
2. Sources of background radiation include:
I. airplane flights
II. the earth
III. body tissues
____ a. I and II only
____ b. I and III only
____ c. II and III only
____ d. I, II, and III
3. What is the average bone marrow dose for an upper
GI?
____ a. 1–2 mGy (100–200 mrad)
____ b. 4–5 mGy (400–500 mrad)
____ c. 8–10 mGy (800–1000 mrad)
____ d. 20–30 mGy (2000–3000 mrad)
29
30 Chapter 2 Program Standards/Mammography Criteria
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER 2
PROGRAM STANDARDS/MAMMOGRAPHY
CRITERIA QUESTIONS
1. d Exposure is a measure of ionization caused by the
absorption of x-rays in a specified mass of air at the
point of interest; absorbed dose is the amount of radi-
ation absorbed in matter; becquerel is one of the
units (along with curie) used to specify exposure; and
activity is the rate of spontaneous nuclear transfor-
mation of a radioactive nuclide.
2. d Sources of radiation include the earth and sky, and
increased altitudes increase one’s radiation exposure.
Body tissues themselves contain radioactive atoms,
including potassium-40.
3. b Both an upper GI and a lumbar spine series will pro-
vide about 4–5 mGy of bone marrow exposure.
4. c During each half-life, 50% of the atoms will be trans-
formed; thus 10 half-lives, less than 1/10 of 1% (0.1%)
of the radioactive atoms will remain.
5. a Alpha emitters are rarely used in medicine, and are
easily absorbed in air; beta particles can penetrate a
few mm into living tissue; and gamma and x-rays
have a wide range of penetrating ability, dependent
on energy.
6. c Unless specifically exempted, sealed sources used for
teletherapy and brachytherapy must be leak-tested at
least every six months to ensure detection of inadver-
tent escape of the radioactive material.
7. a When energized, linear accelerators produce high-
energy x-rays. They can also produce high-energy
electron beams useful for shallow depth tumors, such
as those of the skin or head and neck.
8. a The protection factors of time, distance, and shielding
should be understood by all hospital personnel who
might be potentially exposed due to wide uses of radi-
ation throughout the hospital. Note however, that
Chapter 2 Program Standards/Mammography Criteria 45
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is (are) true regarding
Deming’s 14 points?
____ a. It has specific managerial structure.
____ b. Its emphasis is on management by
objectives.
____ c. It has process orientation.
____ d. all of the above
2. Which of the following are philosophical founda-
tions of CQI?
I. Systems View
II. Implementer Involvement
III. Single Causation
____ a. I and II only
____ b. I and III only
____ c. II and III only
____ d. I, II, and III
3. The primary decision-making criteria for CQI is
price.
____ a. true
____ b. false
55
56 Chapter 3 Quality Improvement Concepts
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER 3
QUALITY IMPROVEMENT CONCEPTS
QUESTIONS
1. c Deming’s 14 points discuss processes, rather than
organizational structures, on a continuous process of
improvement, and the use of data. One of the fourteen
points specifically speaks against management by
objectives.
2. a The philosophical foundations, or elements, of CQI
are customer focus, systems view, data-driven analy-
sis, implementer (owner) involvement, multiple cau-
sation, solution identification solution identification,
process optimization, continuing improvement, and
organizational learning.
3. b Shewhart, on of the “founders” of the CQI/TQM
approach, has noted that price without an under-
standing of quality is meaningless, and that a focus
on low price would lead to additional expense in the
long run.
4. a Physicians and employees are the internal customers
of a hospital; patients are typically considered exter-
nal customers. Physicians are considered by most
managers as “internal customers essential to any
quality improvement initiative,” although consider-
ing employee satisfaction from the view of employee
as customer is a relatively new concept.
5. d All of these are considered to be customers in a CQI
system, and efforts must be directed to ensure that
customer satisfaction is maintained. Probably the
newest aspect of a CQI approach is viewing payers
(e.g. insurers) as customers that must be satisfied,
typically by providing service at the lowest possible
cost.
6. a A physician, for example, supplies patients (customers)
to the hospital, but is also a consumer of its services
and must be satisfied on both levels for optimum
quality.
78 Chapter 3 Quality Improvement Concepts
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A chief technologist of a 250-bed hospital radiology
department wishes to compare staffing in his hospi-
tal with similar hospitals. He surveys 10 other
hospitals in his region, finding the following:
A B C D E F G H
Number of R/F Rooms 5 4 6 7 5 6 5 5
Number of Technologists 7 8 10 11 8 10 9 9
What is the mean number of technologists
employed?
____ a. 5
____ b. 5.2
____ c. 8
____ d. 9
2. In the following data set:
A B C D E F G H
Number of R/F Rooms 5 4 6 7 5 6 5 5
Number of Technologists 7 8 10 11 8 10 9 9
What is the ratio of technologists to rooms, on
average (mean)?
____ a. 1:1 ____ c. 1.89:1
____ b. 1.67:1 ____ d. 2:1
93
94 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
Patient Radiographs
Comatose Density not correct
Contrast not correct
Unable to communicate
Detail not recorded
No clinical signs manifested
Noise on image
Too young to communicate
Artifact on image
Multiple problems mask diagnosis
Distortion
Missed
Diagnosis
Misinterpret films
False positive
Misinterpret lab tests
False negative
Incomplete medical history
Wrong test
Rule out instead of rule in
Contaminated results
Incorrect hypothesis
Figure 4-1
Reasons B.E.s
are cancelled
Misinterpret films
Heard other patients talk Misinterpret lab tests
Worried about what is wrong Incomplete medical history
Does not know what to expect Necessary exam
Patient is not prepped
Figure 4-2
98 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
% Repeats Room 1
40
30
20
10
0
Too Too Centering Positioning Motion
dark light
Figure 4-3
% Repeats Room 1
40
30
20
10
0
Too Too Positioning Centering Motion
light dark
Figure 4-4
Number of Infections
Following Service
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec
Figure 4-5
100 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
A B C D E
Figure 4-6
102 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
A B C D E
Figure 4-7
Figure 4-8
Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data 103
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER 4
QUALITY IMPROVEMENT DATA QUESTIONS
1. c The mean is obtained by adding up a set of scores and
dividing by the number of scores. Adding up the num-
ber of technologists gives 72, and there are 9 scores;
72 divided by 9 is 8.
2. b The mean number of rooms is 4.78 (43 divided by 9);
the mean number of technologists is 8. To calculate
the ratio of technologists to rooms, divide 8 by 4.78,
which gives 1.67.
3. b The repeat rate is calculated by dividing the number
of necessary repeats by the total number of films, thus:
2 ÷ 25 = 0.08 or 8%, and 3 ÷ 35 = 0.086 or 8.6%. Room
2 has a slightly higher repeat rate.
4. a Each increment of 5 is one standard deviation above
or below the mean; thus a score of 70 is two standard
deviations below the mean; 75 is one standard devia-
tion below the mean; 85 is one standard deviation
above the mean; and 90 is two standard deviations
below the mean.
5. a Even though it may be very cold in Nome, and pleas-
antly warm in Hawaii, the variance (the amount the
temperature varies) could be similar or even identi-
cal for both.
6. c Since the original sample size is not known, it cannot
be determined whether a sufficient sample exists in
either case; however, the second set is more likely to
produce sampling error.
7. a The most reasonable conclusion is that trauma has a
higher repeat rate due to patient mix and complexity.
Whether one or either rate is acceptable depends on
a number of factors, and jumping to the conclusion
that it must be one “bad” technologist is counterpro-
ductive, and not consistent with a CQI approach.
8. a The percent of area under the normal curve is ± 1
standard deviation from the mean is 68%, within ± 2
108 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
18. c Patient factors (e.g., motion) are not the most likely
cause of repeats from this Pareto chart. It is unlikely
that a machine fluctuates from light to dark; thus, tech-
nologist factors are the most likely cause of repeats
here.
19. d The inservice was implemented in January and
took some time to take hold; a new employee starting
in August caused the rate to increase slightly; the
zero cases in November represent normal random
fluctuation.
20. c Trend charts are designed to work with subsystems
containing three or four major variables. Major vari-
ables are assignable and cause major movement; minor
variables are unassignable and fluctuate randomly.
21. c The goal of a trend chart is not to show how well you
are doing or to show failure; it is designed to prevent
failure by providing clues. This helps to sustain qual-
ity rather than working to fix a process after failure.
22. b Even a system under the best control will show a ran-
dom distribution of values with numbers that stray to
the high and low ends.
23. c According to McKinney (1997), the following are all
indicators that a system is out of control: any one data
point beyond a limit; any pattern over time; sawtooth
patterns that move up or down over five days or longer;
five consecutive data points all above or below the
target line; three or more consecutive points at the
limit; three or more points on the target line; three
data points exceeding two standard deviations with
two points on one side; five consecutive points increas-
ing or decreasing (three for MQSA); majority of
points on one side; if five data points exceed one s.d.
with four on one side; a wave pattern; or no change
after a change in a major variable.
24. d According to McKinney (1997), the following are all
indicators that a system is out of control: any one data
point beyond a limit; any pattern over time; sawtooth
patterns that move up or down over five days or longer;
five consecutive data points all above or below the
110 Chapter 4 Quality Improvement Data
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following describes waves that are
totally in phase with the resultant composite
waveform?
____ a. decreased amplitude
____ b. increased amplitude
____ c. the amplitude of the highest waveform
____ d. the amplitude of the lowest waveform
2. In a three-phase, sic-pulse generator at 80 kVp, what
is the lowest voltage across the x-ray tube in theory?
____ a. 0 kV
____ b. 40 kV
____ c. 69 kV
____ d. 80 kV
3. The type of generator where the AC voltage wave-
forms are rectified and then fed into a DC frequency
modulator is:
____ a. single-phase
____ b. three-phase, six-pulse
____ c. three-phase, twelve-pulse
____ d. high-frequency
115
116 Chapter 5 Physical Principles
# of # of
photons photons
kV Level kV Level
Graph A Graph B
# of # of
photons photons
kV Level kV Level
Graph C Graph D
# of # of
photons photons
kV Level kV Level
Graph E Graph F
Figure 5-1
44. What term describes the focal spot size as set by the
manufacturer?
____ a. normal
____ b. nominal
____ c. resolution
____ d. small
45. What term describes the byproducts that, when
allowed to accumulate in large amounts, will act as
a barrier to the developer solution?
____ a. pi marks
____ b. reaction particles
____ c. free radicals
____ d. solution inhibitors
46. What determines the size of the effective focal spot?
I. actual focal spot size
II. target angle
III. kVp
____ a. I and II only
____ b. I and III only
____ c. II and III only
____ d. I, II, and III
47. Which of the following affect resolution?
I. screen speed
II. screen-film contact
III. kVp
____ a. I and II only
____ b. I and III only
____ c. II and III only
____ d. I, II, and III
48. Spectral matching is the process of ensuring that the
set kVp matches the expected emission spectrum.
____ a. true
____ b. false
Chapter 5 Physical Principles 125
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER 5
PHYSICAL PRINCIPLES QUESTIONS
1. b When waves are totally in phase, the resultant com-
posite wave will have increased amplitude (additive
of the two); whereas when two waves are totally out
of phase (180º out of phase) a wave of reduced ampli-
tude (highest minus lowest) will be produced. Adding
waves of various phase relationships will produce a
composite wave of greater complexity.
2. c The ripple (maximum drop in voltage expressed as a
percentage of Vmax) of a three-phase, six-pulse gen-
erator should be 13.5%; thus 80 – (80 x 13.5% = 10.8)
= 69.2 kV.
3. d In a high-frequency unit, the single-phase or three-
phase AC voltage waveforms are rectified, and then
fed into a DC frequency modulator where the fre-
quency is converted from 60 Hz to the kHz range.
4. d Single-phase units provide the most ripple of 100%,
which means that maximum voltage across the tube
ranges from 100% to 0%; three-phase, six-pulse units
provide 13.5% ripple, meaning that maximum volt-
age across the tube ranges from 100% to 86.5%; three-
phase, twelve-pulse units provide 3.5% ripple, mean-
ing that maximum voltage across the tube ranges
from 100% to 96.5%; and high-frequency provide less
than 3.5%. Ideally, 0% ripple would exist, which would
mean that 100% of the maximum voltage was being
delivered across the tube.
5. d Although early anode disks were made entirely of
tungsten, today a compound anode disk is used that is
made of a base material, usually molybdenum, with a
good heat storage density, relatively low density, and a
coating layer of tungsten or tungsten alloy (often 90%
tungsten and 10% rhenium). The addition of rhenium
reduces roughening and cracking of the target surface
that can result from thermal stress.
Chapter 5 Physical Principles 139
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. How many wires per inch should the copper wire
mesh used to test screen-film contact contain?
____ a. 10
____ b. 20
____ c. 40
____ d. 80
2. There is no need to warm up the densitometer prior
to reading QC strips.
____ a. true
____ b. false
3. What are the typical spoke angles used for a star test
pattern?
____ a. 0.5 to 2.0º
____ b. 1.0 to 2.0º
____ c. 2.0 to 4.0º
____ d. 2.0 to 5.0º
4. What term describes the intensity of light falling on
a surface from other sources?
____ a. illuminance
____ b. luminance
____ c. extraneous light
____ d. color
153
154 Chapter 6 Test Instrumentation
ANSWERS TO CHAPTER 6
TEST INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONS
1. c In testing for screen-film contact, a test tool contain-
ing at least 40 wires per inch grid density is placed
directly on the cassette.
2. b The densitometer should be turned on at least 10 to
15 minutes before QC strips are read. Not doing so
may produce values outside control limits. Smaller,
portable densitometers require less warm-up time.
3. a The spoke angles used for the star pattern are typi-
cally form 0.5–2.0º, 0.5º for focal spots less than 0.3
mm, 1º for focal spots of 0.3–0.6 mm, 1.5º for 0.6–1.2
mm, and 2º for focal spots above 1.2 mm.
4. a The intensity of light falling on a surface from other
sources describes illuminance. Luminance is the inten-
sity of light at the surface of the illuminator.
5. a The unit for luminance is candela (cd/m2) or the nit,
which are identical measures. Lumen/m2 or lux are
measurements of illuminance.
6. c The maximum readable density with a brightness of
1500 cd/m2 is OD 2.8; with 3000/m2, it is OD 3.1
7. b 50 lux, which is about equivalent to a moonlit night,
can remove as much as 30% of the contrast from a film.
8. d Proper luminance, eliminating extraneous light, use
of a homogeneous light source (luminance uniform-
ity), and minimizing ambient light (luminance) are
all key elements in providing the best possible light-
ing for reading films.
9. b 3000 cd/m2 (candelas) are equal to 3000 nit. They are
equivalent units.
10. d There is no entity that consists of the combination of
ambient light and extraneous light. Ambient light is
also known as illuminance, and its unit is lumen/m2
or lux. Extraneous light is light coming from the viewer
outside of the area being examined.
Chapter 6 Test Instrumentation 161
19. c Both the ion chamber and photo diode are commonly
used radiation detection components in kVp meters.
Voltage diodes and oscilloscopes are also used for kVp
measurement because they are more accurate than
ion chambers or photo diodes. However, it takes sig-
nificantly longer to use them, so they are not com-
monly used.
20. a The Bureau of Radiologic Health recommends that a
sensitometer be calibrated monthly, but that recom-
mendations was made in the 1970s. Most sensitome-
ters come with a recommendation to be calibrated
yearly.
21. d A sensitometer is used to deliver a graduated light
exposure to film for use in processor quality control.
In order to do that, a light emitting crystal is covered
by an optical step-wedge to give the film exposure
graduation.
22. d When selecting film to be used with a sensitometer,
the type most sensitive to processor changes is the
most appropriate choice. This allows the QM tech-
nologists to detect changes in the processor sooner.
23. b Because of the special nature of mammography film,
only this type of film should be used in a processor
that deals with a mixed set of film types.
24. a Mercury is a heavy metal similar to silver and, if a
mercury thermometer broke inside a processor, the
mercury would interact with and contaminate the
chemicals. Unfortunately, because mercury is liquid
at room temperature, it would tend to get into the
recirculating systems and elsewhere in the processor
and continue to contaminate the chemicals for some
time.
25. c Most processor developer solutions are maintained
around 95º F. Also, as the range of the thermometer
increases, the accuracy decreases. Based on those two
facts, most thermometers have a range of 90–108º F.
This makes this specialty thermometer useless for
measuring temperatures in the fixer or water.
Chapter 6 Test Instrumentation 163
165
166 Suggested Readings
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The production of this type of radiation results in very
specific energies characterized by the differences be-
tween electron binding energies of the target material.
____ a. Bremsstrahlung
____ b. photoelectric
____ c. characteristic
____ d. gamma
2. The atomic number of the target affects both the quan-
tity and quality of the x-rays produced. As the atomic
number of the target ____ , the efficiency of the produc-
tion of Bremsstrahlung radiation ____ .
____ a. increases, increases
____ b. increases, decreases
____ c. decreases, decreases
____ d. decreases, increases
3. Material that emits light in response to outside stimu-
lation is said to:
____ a. luminesce
____ b. fluoresce
____ c. phosphoresce
____ d. lag
4. A collection of negatively charged electrons forming a
small cloud around the filament is termed:
____ a. electron wall
____ b. space effect
____ c. electron emission
____ d. space charge
169
170 Post-test
100%
82% 95%
89%
30
68%
50%
20
26%
10
ANSWERS TO
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. c. characteristic
2. a. increases, increases
3. a. luminesce
4. d. space charge
5. b. off-focus radiation
6. d. protective layer
7. a. screen efficiency
8. d. more than one but not all of the above
9. b. silver halide and gelatin
10. c. silver halide crystals
11. a. cracking artifacts
12. d. glutaraldehyde
13. a. brown films
14. d. specific gravity
15. c. both a and b
16. a. bromide
17. c. effective use of people
18. a. dryer exhaust
19. a. chemical oxidation
20. a. annually
21. b. faulty rectification
22. b. semiannually
23. b. .96 inches
24. c. 4 kVp
25. c. 10%
26. c. 13.44 mR/mAs
27. a. annually
28. b. no
29. c. half-value layer
30. b. acceptance testing, routine performance monitor-
ing, and maintenance
Post-test 195
127. b. 5 mSv
128. c. 5%
129. a. radiation output rate
130. c. monthly
131. c. semiannually
132. b. ± 5˚ F of the developer temperature
133. c. 25
134. a. 5 micrograms per square centimeter
135. a. HBV
136. d. more than one but not all of the above
137. d. all of the above
138. a. written hazard communication program
139. c. both a and b are correct
140. d. a, b, and c are correct