DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

Multiple Choice Questions

[405 GE-UL-19]
[Global Strategy Management]

Unit I
Introduction
Q. No Question Answer
1 1.“Emerging market” refers to: B
A. Any developing country
B. A fast-growing developing country
C. Any growing consumer market
D. China and India

2 2. In the following list of ways by which governments exert control over C

businesses, which one is out of place?
A. Full ownership of a company
B. Partial stake in a public company
C. Privatization of a nationalized company
D. Sovereign wealth fund

3 3.A business, whether national or international, contains the following activities A

or functions:
A. Operations, Human Resource Management, Accounting
B. Production, Human Resource Management, Accounting,
Marketing, and Research and Development.
C. Production, Human Resources, Finance, Sales and Marketing,
Research and Development.
D. Operations, Human Resource Management, Accounting, Sales,
Research and Development.

4 4.Over which of the following does the MNE parent company have most control? D
A. An affiliate company
B. A strategic partner
C. A subsidiary in which it owns 60% of the shares
D. A wholly-owned subsidiary

5 5.Which of the following best describes the role of a company’s directors: B

A. They take day-to-day management decisions.
B. They have ultimate responsibility for how the company is run.
C. They aim to maximize the wealth of the investors.
D. They are the company’s main investors.

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6 6.To which body within the company is the CEO answerable? A

A. The board of directors
B. The employees
C. The shareholders’ annual general meeting
D. The company’s trade union representatives

7 7.The PEST analysis is used to represent: A

A. Multiple dimensions of the external environment.
B. The company's place in the marketplace.
C. A country’s political and economic environment.
D. The institutions and processes which determine a country’s level of
development.

8 8.Operations as a function within the company concerns: D

A. Controlling the revenues and outgoings of the business
B. Making tangible products.
C. Delivering products to the customer
D. The whole process of producing and delivering a product, a service,
or the combination of both to a customer.

9 9.In marketing, a distinctive group of consumers is known as: D

A. A selection.
B. A class.
C. A segment.
An emerging market
10 Elements of HRM as a business function include all but which one of the D
following?
A. Motivating the workforce
B. Management of rewards
C. Training and development
D. Overseeing quality management

11 Why is globalization often perceived as a threat in developed countries? B

A. Because countries with authoritarian governments are becoming
more powerful.
B. Because low-skilled jobs in advanced economies are at risk.
C. Because emerging markets are importing fewer goods from the
developed countries.
D. Because MNEs from developed countries are facing stiff
competition in emerging markets.

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12 Which of the following has been the most influenced by globalization? A

A. Production networks
B. Consumer markets
C. Labour markets
D. National cultures

13 Economic activity can be divided into which three broad types? B

A. Retail sector, manufacturing sector, service sector.
B. Primary production, secondary production and services.
C. Agricultural sector, manufacturing sector and retail sector.
D. First sector, second sector, third sector.

14 Which of the following is a push factor which would influence a company to A

internationalize?
A. Difficulty in finding skilled staff in the home country
B. The need to be close to key resources
C. Low-cost labour in other countries
D. Financial incentives from governments in emerging markets

15 All but which one of the following is not an FDI investment? C.

A. Acquisition of an existing company
B. A joint venture with a foreign partner
C. Exporting the company’s products to new markets
D. A greenfield project in another country

16 The joint venture is a favoured entry mode because: B

A. It involves partnership with another firm.
B. The local partner has knowledge of local markets.
C. The foreign partner lacks the management expertise to carry through
the FDI project.
D. There is usually a good relationship between the two partner firms.

17 Which of the following is not linked with outsourced production? D

A. Manufacturing under licence
B. Production in a low-cost country
C. Subcontracted manufacturing for a well-known brand
D. Franchising

18 Vernon's theory of the international product life cycle explains: B

A. The stages of globalization
B. The growth in overseas production
C. The importance of the US in the global economy
D. The need for innovation in consumer products

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19 The OLI paradigm is known as the “eclectic” paradigm because: 10. : D

A. Ownership and internalization advantages were added to the theory later.
B. The three variables are unrelated to each other.
C. Internalization advantages encompassed location factors.
D. The three variables derive from different theories.

20 Why is sustainability becoming important for global corporate strategy? B

A. Because emerging markets are not likely to carry on growing.
B. Because MNEs face possible scarcity of raw materials.
C. Because governments in developing countries are encouraging pollutant
industries.
D. Because consumers in developing countries are concerned about the
environment.

21 Gross national income (GNI) is defined as: C

A. The total income produced by businesses in the in the country, whether
locally owned or owned by foreigners
B. The country’s total industrial output
C. The total income from all the final products and services produced by the
national economy, including income of national residents from their
overseas investments
D. The total income produced by the country’s resident businesses.

22 Purchasing power parity (PPP) is used in conjunction with GNI and GNP as it more A
accurately reflects:
A. The relative living standards in different countries.
B. The earnings of consumers in different countries.
C. The level of development of different countries.
D. The personal wealth of individuals in different countries.

23 Strong economic growth is associated with all but which one of the following: C
A. Rising standards of living
B. Industrialization
C. Sustainable development
D. Strong capital investment

24 The short term fluctuations of the business cycle are divided into four phases that D
are:
A. Expansion, Recession, Depression, Development
B. Maturity, Decline, Depression, Regeneration
C. Prosperity, Decline, Depression, Recovery
D. Prosperity, Recession, Depression, Recovery

25 11. Why is rising inflation a concern for government? A

A. The country’s exports will become less competitive in global markets.
B. Workers will demand higher wages.

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C. Consumers will go deeper into debt.

D. Unemployment will rise.

26 Unemployment is defined as: B

A. The section of the population that are on state benefits.
B. The section of the population willing to work but unable to find
employment.
C. The section of the population that are waiting to be employed.
D. The section of the population that are without the skills needed by
employers.

27 The current account of the balance of payments is made up of C

A. Trade in goods and services by a country’s businesses.
B. Current sales overseas for either products or services.
C. The merchandise trade account and service account plus the profits and
interest earned from overseas assets.
D. Transactions involving the sale and purchase of assets.

28 Fiscal policy concerns which of the following: B

A. Exchange rates
B. Public spending and taxation policies
C. Interest rates
D. The consumer price index

29 Which of the following is out of place in a planned economy? C

A. State control of prices
B. Authoritarian government
C. Democracy
D. State control of production

30 The liberal market economy emphasizes which of the following? B

A. Strong government
B. Capitalist free markets
C. High taxes
D. Social welfare

31 Which of the following characterizes the social market economy? B

A. Individualism
B. Strong state role in welfare services
C. A national health service
D. High taxes

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32 Where a single firm has control of the market it is called: A

A. A monopoly
B. An oligopoly
C. An oligarchy
D. A monarchy.

33 An oligopoly is defined as: B

A. A cartel
B. A few large producers who dominate a market
C. A group of consumers who can dictate conditions to the producers
D. A sector of the market dominated by game theory

34 The Asian model of capitalism features which of the following? A

A. Strong state intervention and bureaucratic regulation of business
B. Strong corporate governance mechanisms
C. Insider control of companies
D. Links between business and political leaders

35 Why is China classified as a mixed economy? C

A. Because it relies on a five-year plan
B. Because it is decentralized
C. Because it has market elements and state controls
D. Because it is authoritarian

36 The European Union (EU) is committed to which of the following? A

A. A single market
B. Strong national governments in member states
C. Enlargement
D. The social market economic model

37 David Ricardo (1817) developed the theory of: B

A. Competitive advantage
B. Comparative advantage
C. Absolute advantage
D. First-mover advantages

38 Porter’s diamond theory focuses on all but which one of the following? B
A. Factor conditions
B. Location advantages
C. Firm strategy and structure
D. Government policies

39 Those in favour of free trade argue that: A

A. All countries benefit from the lowering of tariff barriers.

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B. Domestic employment is a priority for trade policies.

C. National strategic concerns should dominate trade policies.
D. Consumers prefer locally produced goods.

40 All but which one of the following are tools of government trade policy? C
A. Tariffs
B. Non-tariff barriers
C. Multilateral agreements
D. Import quotas

41 In what ways are government subsidies protectionist? C

A. They keep out imports
B. They help domestic producers
C. They give domestic producers an advantage in global markets
D. They help create employment

42 Which of the following is not among the GATT principles? D

A. Most favoured nation
B. Reciprocity in tariff reduction
C. Principle of national treatment
D. Principle of safeguarding national interests

43 What is the aim of the WTO’s dispute resolution process? C

A. To punish countries which trade unfairly
B. To impose anti-dumping penalties
C. To resolve trade disputes through impartial panels
D. To resolve trade disputes through judicial procedure

44 What is the main reason for the collapse of the Doha round of multilateral B
negotiations?
A. Unwillingness of the US to open markets to products from developing
countries
B. Differing perspectives of developed and developing countries
C. Disagreement over labour and environmental standards
D. The activities of anti-globalization protesters

45 Which of the following is a free trade area? C

A. Mercosur
B. Ecowas
C. Nafta
D. The EU

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Unit II
Market Intelligence and Designing a Global Strategy

1 Which countries are involved in Apec? D

A. Asian countries and Australia
B. Asian, North American and South American countries
C. Asian countries, North American countries and Australia
D. Countries bordering on the Pacific

2 The G8 is made up of: C

A. China, USA, France , UK, Germany, Italy, Russia and Japan.
B. EU, Asean Group, NAFTA, Russia, China, Japan and Canada.
C. UK, USA, Russia, Germany, France, Italy, Canada, Japan.
D. Japan, China, Italy, France, Germany, Russia, USA, and UK.

3 Why have bilateral agreements proliferated in recent years? B

A. Because they benefit countries more that multilateral agreements
B. Because they can be negotiated more quickly than multilateral
agreements
C. Because they are preferred by MNEs
D. Because countries tend to be of equal bargaining power

4 Organisational structures can be divided into the following three broad categories: B
A. Large, medium, small.
B. Structures based on functions, divisions and matrix
C. Strict hierarchy, board control, devolved control
D. Collective control, co-operative arrangements, shareholder control.

5 The SWOT analysis aids the company in assessing: D

A. Internal threats, opportunities, strengths and weaknesses
B. Internal strengths as well as external weaknesses and threats
C. External strengths and weaknesses plus internal opportunities and
threats.
D. Internal strengths and weaknesses as well as external threats and
opportunities.
6 Which of the following are not key players in Porter’s five forces model of B
competitive strategy?
A. Potential entrants
B. Governments
C. Buyers
D. Suppliers
7 Resource-based theories of the firm focus on which firm resources? B
A. Physical resources and intellectual property
B. Physical, human and organizational resources
C. Physical and human resources
D. Human resources and corporate skills

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8 Emergent strategy can be defined as: A

A. A pattern realized which was not expressly intended
B. Deliberate strategy
C. A pattern which reflects strategic planning
D. Adaptation of the strategic plan in response to the changing
environment

9 How does stakeholder management theory contribute to value creation for the firm? B
A. By serving customers better
B. By helping managers to focus on divergent stakeholder groups
C. By interacting more with employees
D. By developing better communications with suppliers

10 Nearshoring can be defined as: B

A. Locating production in a low-cost environment
B. Type of outsourcing which focuses on a location near to major markets
C. Type of offshoring which has tax advantages
D. Type of cost reduction strategy for MNEs

11 Why would an MNE contemplating FDI prefer an acquisition to a greenfield C

investment?
A. The greenfield investment is a higher risk.
B. The acquisition often involves cultural tensions between the acquired
company and new owner.
C. The acquisition is quicker to get up and running.
D. The company has less control over a greenfield investment.

12 Product divisions are preferred in many MNES’ organizational structures because: A

A. They allow the firm to produce and market a line worldwide.
B. They adapt well to different regional needs.
C. They facilitate the building of global markets.
D. Most managers are happier focusing on a single product.

13 Fordism was characterized by all but one of the following features. Which one is C
out of place?
A. Vertically integrated system
B. Bureaucracy
C. Adaptability to consumer needs
D. Poor industrial relations
14 The concept of kaizen is: B
A. Another word for just-in-time (JIT) systems
B. The Japanese philosophy of continuous improvement
C. A system of manufacturing devised in South Korea
D. An inter-firm network

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15 National culture is based on: B

A. The nation-state
B. The sense of belonging of a people
C. The territory of the state
D. Language

16 A low-context culture is: C

A. A culture where much goes unsaid.
B. A culture in which body language and “reading between the lines” are
important
C. A culture in which communication is clear and direct
D. A culture where ambiguity is the norm, and directness is avoided.

17 Which of the following religions is polytheistic? D

A. Christianity
B. Islam
C. Judaism
D. Hinduism

18 Applying Hofstede’s cultural dimensions, which of the following combines high B

power distance and collectivism?
A. American society
B. Asian societies
C. European societies
D. Scandinavian societies

19 The research of Hofstede and Trompenaars suggests that: D

A. All societies are tending to become more individualistic.
B. Norms in one culture can be transferred to another.
C. Globalization is reducing national differences.
D. There is no 'one best way' of managing and organizing people.

20 Characteristics of organizational culture include all but which one of the following? C
A. Common language, terminology and norms of behaviour
B. Preference for formal or informal communication
C. Sustainability policies
D. Rulebook of do’s and don’ts for staff

21 Pull" factors of migration include: B

A. Escape from natural disasters
B. Real or imagined job opportunities
C. Escape from political persecution
D. Escape from religious persecution

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22 Urbanization is generally associated with: D

A. Economic decline
B. Infrastructure improvements
C. Centralization of government
D. Industrialization

23 Where is the fastest population growth taking place? B

A. Developed regions
B. The least-developed countries
C. Developing countries
D. Asia

24 Which of the following is not one of the challenges associated with ageing D
societies?
A. Costs of pensions and healthcare
B. Need for managers to accommodate older workers
C. Need for governments to raise the legal pension age
D. Equal opportunities for all ethnic and religious minorities

25 The sphere in which citizens pursue their own goals in voluntary associations is B
known as:
A. The public sphere
B. Civil society
C. The corporate sphere
D. The political sphere

26 Which of the following best describes the nation-state? B

A. Group of people who consider themselves a nation
B. Territory in which there is a recognized authority for law-making and law
enforcement
C. Territory which is home to a given people
D. Group of people who choose their government

27 The defining feature of sovereignty is: C

A. Legitimate government
B. The existence of a monopoly of coercive power
C. The supreme legal authority in the state
D. The supreme source of power in the state

28 Ideology as a source of legitimacy in the state is based upon: C

A. A system of beliefs that permeate the government.
B. National culture
C. A system of beliefs which permeate the whole of society.
D. Centralized government

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29 The rule of law encompasses all but which one of the following? B
A. Equality of citizens under the law
B. An elected president
C. Constitutionalism
D. Independent judiciary

30 In which of the following environments is political risk likely to be the highest? B

A. Where the government is authoritarian
B. Where there internal or external threats to the government
C. Where there is a large military establishment.
D. Where there are diverse cultural groups

31 Which of the following is least likely to be found in an authoritarian state? A

A. Freedom of the media
B. Elections
C. Presidential government
D. Strong military establishment

32 How are democratic elections best defined? B

A. By elections where there are multiple parties
B. By free and fair elections
C. By universal right to vote
D. By right of citizens to stand for office

33 Federalism is often seen as advantageous when: B

A. The country covers a huge geographical area
B. The country contains strong local identities.
C. There is a big disparity between rich and poor.
D. There are many cultural groups in society.

34 Separation of powers refers to which branches of government? C

A. Legislative, executive and military
B. Executive, judicial and administrative
C. Legislative, executive and judicial
D. Executive, administrative and military

35 Why is proportional representation considered advantageous as an electoral B

system?
A. It always produces a clear result.
B. It gives representation to a wide range of interests and parties.
C. It only works well in a two-party system.
D. It only works well in a multi-party system.

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36 The referendum allows voters to: A

A. Vote on particular issues
B. Vote for candidates of their choice
C. Vote out the government
D. Vote out the judges

37 How does the parliamentary system differ from the presidential one? B
A. The president is always directly elected by the people.
B. The prime minister is usually the head of the party winning the most votes
in parliamentary elections.
C. The president has more power than the prime minister.
D. The prime minister has more power than the president.

38 Why is a coalition government considered to be unstable? C

A. The two parties do not always agree.
B. The prime minister must always come from the biggest party in the
legislature.
C. The parties which make up the coalition do not always agree.
D. The prime minister receives less respect than one who is elected with a big
majority.

39 Which of the following is not likely to be a priority for a leftwing political party? B
A. Social justice
B. Big business
C. Equality of opportunity
D. Protection of the environment

40 Which best describes the United Nations (UN)? C

A. World government
B. International law-making body
C. Group of sovereign states
D. International forum

41 The European Union (EU) has traditionally subscribed to which of the following B
principles?
A. Federalism
B. Pooling of sovereignty
C. Parliamentary sovereignty
D. Executive supremacy

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42 What is “co-decision-making” in the EU? A

A. Decision-making by the Council and European Parliament
B. Decision-making by the Commission and Council
C. Decision-making by the Council and European Court of Justice
D. Decision-making by the Commission and member states

43 Which of the following has the most direct impact on business operations? C
A. International law
B. EU law
C. National legal systems
D. Religious law

44 Public law concerns: B

A. Roman law
B. Relations between the citizen and the state
C. Relations between citizens and organizations
D. Legislation

45 The 'burden of proof' is: A

A. Higher for criminal law than civil actions
B. Required to be the same for both criminal and civil cases.
C. Lower for criminal cases than civil actions.
D. More important in common law systems than in systems based on codified
law

46 Legal risk is: B

A. Greater in developing countries than in developed ones
B. Greater where the rule of law is weak
C. Greater in liberal market economies than in mixed economies
D. Lower in authoritarian states than in democratic ones

47 The common law tradition exists in which of the following? C

A. Germany
B. France
C. India
D. Japan

48 Sharia law prohibits which of the following B.

A. Salaries
B. Unearned profits, such as interest
C. Profits
D. Loans

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Unit-III
Global Strategic Alliances and Resources and Business-Level Strategy

1 The main instruments of EU law are: A

A. Regulations and directives
B. National and regional law
C. Legislation devised by the Commission and Council
D. Legislation passed by the Parliament and judgments of the European Court
of Justice

2 Arm’s-length contracting differs from relational contracting in what way? B

A. The parties in an arm’s-length deal are already known to each other.
B. The parties in an arm’s-length deal come together for the purpose of
making a contract.
C. The arm’s-length contract must be in writing.
D. The arm’s length contract must be between businesses.

3 Product liability has grown in importance because: B

A. Companies have become lax in their quality controls.
B. Mass-produced manufactured goods have spread across the globe.
C. People are now more aware of their rights.
D. Lawyers are keen to obtain more damages for clients.

4 Competition law concerns: C.

A. Breaking up monopolies
B. Protecting small businesses
C. Controlling abuse of a dominant market position
D. Punishing price-fixing

5 Arbitration is: C
A. The settling of a contractual dispute
B. An out-of-court settlement
C. The submission of a dispute to a named person or organization
D. Agreed damages

6 The growth in international law stems from all but which one of the following? D
A. Concern over the natural environment
B. Concerns over regional conflicts
C. Concerns over human rights
D. Concerns over national courts having too much power

7 Which of these countries has seen the biggest recent surge in IPOs? C
A. The US
B. India
C. China
D. The UK

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8 Who regulates stock markets? B

A. The IMF
B. National regulators
C. The members themselves
D. Nobody

9 Bonds are used for: A

A. Debt financing by companies and governments
B. Equity investments
C. Investments in Western markets
D. Hedging risk
10 Why are derivatives risky? B
A. They are packaged with high-risk debt.
B. Their values fluctuate in accordance with the asset class that they depend
on.
C. They are handled by hedge funds.
D. They suffer from exchange-rate risk.

11 Which of the following was the least significant factor in causing the financial D
crisis of 2008?
A. Crash of US property market
B. The market in mortgage-backed securities
C. Abundant cheap loans
D. The US trade deficit

12 The Bretton Woods agreement was notable for which of the following? B
A. The creation of the gold standard
B. Exchange rates pegged to the US dollar
C. The creation of the WTO
D. The abandonment of the gold standard

13 The World Bank was created to fund: C

A. Debt repayments of developing countries
B. Infrastructure projects in developing countries
C. Development projects and broad development programmes
D. Loans to developed and developing countries

14 Why has the IMF been criticized for its handling of the Asian financial crisis? D
A. Because it proposed required public spending in affected countries
B. Because it was made up of outsiders
C. Because it proposed austerity programmes for affected governments
D. Because it adopted a one-size-fits-all approach to market-oriented reforms
in affected countries

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15 A hostile takeover occurs when: C

A. The acquirer is a rival company of the one it is seeking to acquire
B. The acquirer makes an offer which is well below market value of the target
company
C. The board of the target company rejects the offer of the acquirer, who then
proposes it to the shareholders
D. The acquirer is a private equity group

16 Innovation involves: A
A. A broad range of improvements across a firm’s operations
B. Scientific and technical research and new product development
C. New ways of marketing the firm’s products
D. Making decisions about new corporate strategy.

17 An invention is: B
A. Anything that is new that changes the way we view the world or live.
B. A product or process that is new and represents a leap forward from
existing knowledge
C. Any change in the way we live, learn or work
D. A type of innovation
18 Schumpeter’s notion of “creative destruction” covers all but which one of the D
following?
A. New products
B. New ways of doing things
C. New organizational forms
D. New cultural values

19 Innovation is key to product life cycle theory because: B

A. Most new products are launched in the US.
B. Demand for new products initially comes from high-income consumers.
C. R&D is expensive, and only rich countries can afford it.
D. Products quickly become obsolete.

20 In which of the following are science and technology graduates the highest C
proportion of graduates?
A. The EU
B. The US
C. China
D. Brazil
21 Which of the following countries spends the most on R&D as a percentage of B
GDP?
A. South Korea
B. Sweden
C. China
D. Russia

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22 Intellectual property is defined as: B

A. Property in technology
B. Rights over products of the human intellect such as patents and copyrights
C. Rights over technology transfer
D. Patent rights

23 How does the patent benefit its owner? A

A. It gives exclusive right for a limited period to exploit the invention or
license others to use it.
B. It gives exclusive right to exploit the invention indefinitely.
C. It gives exclusive right to generate profits (royalties) from the invention.
D. It gives the inventor exclusive rights over his/her invention.

24 Which country makes the most applications under the Patent Co-operation Treaty C
(PCT) process?
A. The US
B. China
C. Japan
D. Germany

25 The post-war period has seen the emergence of 4 main channels of technology D
transfer, which are:
A. Direct sale, renting, leasing or licensing,
B. Forming an alliance, partnership, management contract or investment.
C. Franchising, capital goods trade or contract manufacture.
D. FDI, joint venture and strategic alliances, licensing and trade in capital
goods

26 Technological diffusion involves: B

A. The spread of technology from developed to developing countries
B. The spread of technology, including skills and know-how, from one
country to another
C. Adapting technology to new environments
D. The import of high-technology products from advanced economies

27 Which of the world’s regions had the largest number of internet users in 2009? C
A. Latin America
B. Europe
C. Asia
D. North America
28 12. Environmental issues are the responsibility of: C
A. Individuals, groups of volunteers, businesses
B. Voluntary organizations, local and national governments
C. Governments, businesses and consumers
D. Consumers, businesses, and NGOs.

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29 "Environmental degradation" refers to environmental change caused by: B

A. Businesses and their actions
B. Human activity
C. Actions by government
D. Factory emissions

30 Which of the following is least associated with climate change? C

A. Increasing greenhouse gas emissions
B. Increasing droughts and floods
C. Falling sea levels
D. Severe storms

31 What was the main aim of the Kyoto Protocol? B

A. Bring about reductions in greenhouse gas emissions in the large developing
countries
B. Set targets for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions by developed
countries
C. Impose penalties on countries which exceed emissions targets
D. Encourage emissions trading schemes in different regions of the world

32 "Transboundary pollution" refers to pollution coming B

A. From one city to another
B. From one country to another
C. From one continent to another
D. Across open seas

33 Why are emissions from coal-fired power stations a growing concern? C

A. Because these power stations are generally old and poorly maintained
B. Because these power stations are generally in built-up areas
C. Because China and India are increasing their use of coal, causing rising
levels of emissions
D. Because these power stations are associated with higher risk of accidents
than other types of power generation

34 Why are nuclear power plants controversial? B

A. Because only a few companies have the relevant technology to build
nuclear power stations
B. Because there is risk from the escape of radiation in the case of an accident
C. Because they are very expensive
D. Because they have high levels of greenhouse gas emissions

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35 All but one of the following are principles of the Rio Declaration on Environment A
and Development. Which is the odd one out?
A. Governments should bear the costs of cleaning up all pollution.
B. States should eliminate unsustainable patterns of production.
C. States have a sovereign right to exploit their resources.
D. Peace, development and sustainability are linked.

36 The concept of sustainable development refers to: C

A. Meeting the needs of future generations
B. Avoiding environmental errors by the current generation
C. Meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the
ability of future generations to do the same
D. Relying on renewable fuels

37 Environmental management focuses on which of the following? D

A. Lobbying governments to limit the environmental regulation of business
B. Aiming to reduce emissions from the company’s operations
C. Aiming to bring operations in developing countries up to the standards in
developed ones
D. Assessing environmental impacts of all the company’s operations and
adopting appropriate environmental strategies
38 What is triple-bottom-line reporting? B
A. Reporting on social, environmental and stakeholder performance of the
company
B. Reporting on financial, social and environmental aspects of the company
C. Reporting on financial, stakeholder and environmental performance of the
company
D. Reporting on social, ethical and environmental aspects of the company

39 Sustainable consumption implies: C

A. Buying "green" products and services
B. Saving energy and limiting CO2 emissions
C. Making lifestyle decisions in keeping with environmental protection
D. Promoting "green" lobbies and movements.

40 Ethics focuses on: B

A. Differences between cultures
B. Principles of right and wrong
C. Values and norms of behaviour in different cultures
D. Universal standards of behaviuor

41 Which of the following is least likely to be held by utilitarianism? D

A. Individuals behave in a self-interested way.
B. The rightness of an action depends on its results.
C. Societies should maximize overall prosperity.
D. Governments should actively promote social goals.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

42 Ethical business behaviour includes all by one of the following. Which is the odd B
one out?
A. Be truthful in advertising.
B. Strive above all to maximize profits.
C. Always abide by the law.
D. Observe high standards of health and safety despite the cost considerations.
43 How is the duty to take reasonable care defined? C
A. The firm must make its operations 100% safe.
B. The firm must abide by national regulations.
C. The firm must take precautions which a reasonable person would take in
the circumstances.
D. The firm can take risks if other firms in the industry are doing so.

44 Which of the following is the main focus of a “weak” theory of CSR? B

A. Adopting a stakeholder approach to management
B. Making charitable donations when the firm feels it can afford them
C. Setting up healthcare services in overseas locations where the firm operates
D. Making donations to charities in developing countries

45 What is the main contribution of Carroll’s model of CSR? C

A. It focuses on economic functions of the firm, leaving charity as an added
extra.
B. It stresses a strong ethical dimension.
C. It recognizes the firm’s economic function, but holds that legal, ethical and
charitable aspects also influence corporate strategy.
D. It stresses the conflict between making profits and acting ethically.

46 What is the “business case” for CSR? B

A. Businesses should make all the money they can in the short term, before
environmental regulations are enacted.
B. Businesses will be able to generate profits better in the long term by
adopting sustainable policies.
C. CSR is fine if the firm can afford it.
D. CSR should be implemented if consumers demand it.

47 What is the main weakness of voluntary codes of practice on ethical and D

environmental standards?
A. They are just public relations exercises.
B. They are often linked to NGOs.
C. They are only adopted by a minority of firms.
D. Stakeholders cannot be assured that they are carried through in practice.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

48 All but which one of the following corporate governance practices can be C
criticized on CSR grounds?
A. Excessive executive pay
B. Weak rights of minority shareholders
C. Separating the positions of chairman and CEO
D. Poor oversight of executives by the board

49 A community interest company (CIC) is: C

A. A charity
B. A company with a social purpose
C. A company regulated under UK law, which meets requirements for
adhering to social purposes
D. A social enterprise
50 Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) include all but which one of the A
following?
A. Promote democratic government
B. Combat poverty
C. Improve education
D. Promote environmental sustainability

51 From the viewpoint of the foreign investor, which of the following is a B

disadvantage associated with developing countries?
A. Poorly skilled workers
B. Weak protection of intellectual property
C. Small consumer markets
D. Slow economic growth

52 Which of the following regions has the worst problems of poor urban living D
conditions?
A. Latin America
B. South East Asia
C. South Asia
D. Sub-Saharan Africa

53 All but which one of the following is a cause of instability in China? C

A. Environmental pollution
B. Ethnic divisions
C. Diverse political parties
D. Industrial unrest such as labour disputes

54 In which of the following industries do state-owned companies play a major role? B

A. Clothing and textiles
B. Mining
C. Car manufacturing
D. Retailing

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55 Which of the following risks are particularly associated with financial markets? D
A. Labour unrest
B. Ethnic divisions
C. Climate change
D. Currency fluctuations
56 All but one the following aspects of CSR are particularly relevant for doing C
business in developing countries. Which is the odd one out?
A. Respect for IP rights
B. Health and safety standards in manufacturing
C. Corporate governance
D. Human rights

57 For western MNEs, emerging markets present which of the following challenges? A
A. Stiff competition from local companies
B. Lack of familiarity with western brands
C. Markets a long distance from where goods are manufactured
D. Few consumers living in urbanized areas

58 Which of the following demands on government is more likely to be felt in D

developed countries than in developing ones?
A. Environmental protection
B. Education and training
C. Food security
D. Healthcare and pensions provision

59 All but which one of the following are factors which could have a negative impact C
on China’s continued economic growth?
A. Fall in consumer spending
B. Rising costs of energy and raw materials in global markets
C. Lack of R&D expertise
D. Wage demands by China’s factory workers

60 Why is the US seeking to increase exports to China? A

A. Because it needs to rebalance the huge trade deficit with China
B. Because not many American firms export
C. Because American consumers are not spending much
D. Because American goods are superior to Chinese ones

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

Unit IV
Designing a Global Organization
1 Trade Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) doesn’t apply for B
A. Measures that affect trade in goods.
B. Measures that lead to restrictions on quantities.
C. Discouraging measures that limit a company’s imports.
D. Discouraging measures that limit a company’s exports.
2 General Agreement on Trade in Services will not be applicable to B
A. Services supplied from one country to another – cross border supply
B. Transaction of goods across the border – Export Import
C. Individuals traveling from own country to supply services in another –
presence of natural persons.
D. D.Consumers/firms making use of a service in another country –
consumption abroad.
E. Foreign company setting up subsidiary or branches to provide services in
another country commercial presence.
3 As a part of WTO guidelines, Agreement on Agriculture (AOA) doesn’t consider B
A. Direct payments to farmers are permitted.
B. Indirect assistance and support to farmers including R & D support by
govt. are not permitted.
C. Domestic policies which directly effect on production and trade have to be
cut back.
D. Least developed countries do not need to make any cuts
.
4 Quantitative restrictions refer to limit set by countries to curb C
A. Imports
B. Exports
C. Imports & exports
D. None of the above

5 A Most Favoured nation status doesn’t necessarily refer to D

A. Same and equal economic treatment
B. Non-discriminatory treatment
C. Same tariff rates applicable
D. Uniform civil code
6 The world trade organization was formed in the year _________ with GATT as it C
basis.
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1996
7 Power distance Index (PDI) of 77 compared to a world average of 56.5 for India A
indicates
A. High level of inequality of power and wealth within the society
B. Low level of inequality of power and wealth within the society
C. High level of Political corruption

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

D. Low level of Human development Index

8 Specific cultural dimensions that does not have a significant impact on cross- D
national business interactions is
A. Hofstede’s five cultural dimensions
B. Monochromatic vs polychromatic tune
C. Communication
D. Geography

9 Professional culture refers to B

A. Shared belief of top managers about how they should manage
themselves and their employees
B. Shared code of ethics and other commonalities shared by members of
a given group
C. Both A and C
D. None of the above
10 10. An attribute that doesn’t contribute to Porters Diamond model is B
A. Government
B. Organized Trade union
C. Factor Conditions
D. Demand Conditions
E. Firm strategy, structure and rivalry

11 _______ theory states that, lack of resources often helps countries to become D
competitive
A. Competitive theory
B. Porters Diamond Model
C. Theory of Mercantilism
D. Product life cycle theory

12 12. Theory of Mercantilism propagates B

A. Encourage exports and imports
B. Encourage exports and discourage imports
C. Discourage exports and imports
D. Discourage exports and encourage imports

13 Backward vertical FDI occurs when an MNE enters a host country to produce A
intermediaries that are intended to use as inputs in the host country.
A. False
B. True
14 Identify a factor that doesn’t play an important role in attracting FDI D
A. Laws, rules and regulations
B. Administrative procedures and efficiency
C. Infrastructure related factors
D. Language

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

15. B2B sector specific policy of Indian Government is A

A. FDI up to 100% subject to condition that they invest 26 % in favour of
Indian Public within 5 yrs
B. FDI up to 100%
C. FDI up to 100% subject to condition that they invest 26 % in favor of
Indian Public within 10 yrs
D. d) FDI up to 49%

16. The country that attracts the largest FDI inflow is B

A. India
B. China
C. USA
D. Brazil
17. Firm that operates internationally is able to D
A. Earn a greater return from their skills and core competencies
B. Realize location economies where they can be performed most efficiently
C. Realize greater experience curve economies, which reduces the cost of
production
D. All the above
18 General electric follows ___________ as its international operational strategy B
A. Global
B. International
C. Multi-domestic
D. Transnational
19. Factor of Interdependence in Multi-domestic strategy is A
A. Low
B. Moderate
C. High
D. Very High
20 In 90’s the global management perception was based on C
A. Standardization v/s adaptation
B. Globalization v/s localization
C. Global integration v/s Local Responsiveness
D. Local responsiveness
21 Which of the following is an advantage of turnkey projects? A
A. Can earn a return on knowledge asset
B. Will not create a competitor
C. Tight control of operations
D. All the above
22 The agreement signed by Ranbaxy Laboratory and Bayer AG of Germany in the C
year 1999 is an example of
A. Subsidiary
B. Joint venture
C. Strategic International Alliance
D. License agreement

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

23 CISF pricing includes the following D

A. Commission is paid to the agent involved in the transaction
B. Cost of the goods exported
C. Freight & Insurance charges for the goods exported
D. All of the above

24 When the transaction is of high value, complex In nature and more technical C
__________ method of the export sales contract is used.
A. Performa invoice
B. Purchase order
C. Sales contact
D. None of the above

25. Which one of the following is a method for an exporter to get a contract D
A. Proforma invoice
B. Purchase order
C. Sales contract
D. All the above
26. Credits transferable by original beneficiary in favor of secondary beneficiary are A
known as
A. Deferred credits
B. Transit credits
C. Instalment credits
D. Transferable credits

27. When the exporter, expects the importer, to make the payment immediately upon the A
draft being presented to him is called.
A. Sight Draft.
B. Usance Draft
C. Demand draft
D. Pay Note
28. The basic objective of export Promotion Council is to promote and develop the D
Exports of the
A. Particular products of country
B. Only attractive projects of the country
C. Only services industry products of the country
D. Overall exports of the country.
29. The theory of Comparative cost advantage is given by D
A. Porter
B. Adam Smith
C. Varnoon
D. D.Richardo

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

30 Trade Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) doesn’t apply for A

A. Measures that lead to restrictions in quantities.
B. Discouraging measures that limit a company’s imports
C. Discouraging measures that limit a company’s exports.
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
31 As a part of WTO guidelines, Agreement on Agriculture (AOA) doesn’t consider B
A. Direct payments to farmers are permitted.
B. Indirect assistance and support to farmers including R & D support by
govt. are not permitted
C. Domestic policies which directly effect on production and trade have
to be cut back.
D. Least developed countries do not need to make any cuts.
32 Power distance Index (PDI) of 77 compared to a world average of 56.5 for India A
indicates
A. High level of inequality of power and wealth within the society
B. Normal Power and Wealth
C. High level of political corruption
D. Low level of Human Development Index
33 Identify a factor that doesn’t play an important role in attracting FDI A
A. Language
B. Laws, rules and regulations
C. Cost of resources
D. Infrastructure related factors
34 Factor of Interdependence in Multi-domestic strategy is A
A. LOW
B. MODERATE
C. HIGH
D. VERY HIGH
35 The first phase of globalization started around 1870 and ended with … A
A. The World War I
B. The World War II
C. The Establishment of GATT
D. In 1913 when GDP was high
36 An attribute that doesn’t contribute to Porters Diamond model is B
A. Government
B. Organized Trade union
C. Factor Conditions
D. Demand Conditions
37 Which of these is a characteristic of multinational corporations> C
A. At least one -third directors are foreign nationals
B. The company does 40% of its business in foreign markets
C. The overseas markets are larger than the domestic market
D. The affiliates are responsive tio a number of important
environmental forces

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

38 According to this theory the holdings of a country’s treasure primarily in the form
of gold constituted its wealth. C
A. Gold Theory
B. Ricardo Theory
C. Mercantilism
D. H .O. THEORY
39. The Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage is given by A
A. Adam smith
B. Richardo
C. Raymond Varnoon
D. Porter
40 The Theory of Relative Factor Endowments is given by A
A. Ohilin-Hecksher
B. FY Taylor
C. Richardo
D. Porter
41 …………… is application of knowledge which redefine the boundaries of global C
business
A. Cultural Values
B. Society
C. Technology
D. Economy
42 Capitalistic, communistic and mixed are the types of A
A. Economic system
B. Political system
C. Social System
D. Cultural Attitudes
43 General Agreement on Trade in Services will not be applicable to B
A. Services supplied from one country to another – cross border supply
B. Transaction of goods across the border – Export Import
C. Individuals traveling from own country to supply services in another –
presence of natural persons.
D. Consumers/firms making use of a service in another country –
consumption abroad
44 Quantitative restrictions refer to limit set by countries to curb C
A. Imports
B. Exports
C. Imports and Exports
D. All of the above
45 India is an A
A. Emerging economy
B. Developed economy
C. Less developed economy
D. None of these

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

Unit V
Globalization, Innovation, and Sustainability

1 The world trade organization was formed in the year _________ with GATT as it basis. C
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1995
D. 1994

2 ____theory states that, lack of resources often helps countries to become competitive D
A. Competitive theory
B. Porters Diamond Model
C. Theory of Mercantilism
D. Product life cycle theory

3 Theory of Mercantilism propagates B

A. Encourage imports and exports
B. Encourage exports and discourage imports
C. Discourage imports
D. None of these

4 The country that attract the largest FDI inflow is C

A. USA
B. INDIA
C. CHINA
D. BRAZIL

5 General electric follows ___________ as its international operational strategy B

A. GLOBAL
B. TRANSNATIONAL
C. INTERNATIONAL
D. MULTI-DOMESTIC

6 51. Typically the last step in the internationalization process is: D

A. Licensing
B. Exporting
C. Wholly owned subsidiaries
D. Foreign Direct Investment

7 52. Which of the following is an advantage of turnkey projects? A

A. Can earn a return on knowledge asset
B. Will not create a competitor
C. Tight control of operations
D. All the above

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

8 Which of these is/are the characteristic of a licensing agreement D

A. The licensor might provide access to some of its patents or trademarks
B. The licensor might provide access to technology
C. It might be used to avoid the risks of foreign involvement
D. All of the above

9 IBRD (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) also known as B

A. EXIM Bank
B. World Bank
C. IMF
D. International Financial Bank

10 Ultimately ……………… was replaced by the …………….on 1st Jan 1995 A

A. GATT/WTO
B. GATS/IMF
C. WTO/WORLD BANK
D. WORLD BANK/WIPO

11 Which is the right sequence of a stages of Internationalization B

A. Domestic, Transnational, Global, International, Multinational
B. Domestic, International, Multinational, Global, Transnational
C. Domestic, Multinational, International, Transnational, Global
D. Domestic, International, Transnational, Multinational, Global

12 Subsidiaries consider regional environment for policy / Strategy formulation is B

known as
A. Polycentric Approach
B. Regiocentric Approach
C. Ethnocentric Approach
D. Geocentric Approach

13 By entering into international business, a firm expects improvement in C

A. Marketing.
B. All spheres of marketing, operation and finance simultaneously.
C. Any or all spheres of marketing, operation and finance.
D. Finance only.

14 By having business in different countries, a firm reduces B

A. Credit risk.
B. Political risk.
C. Financial risk.
D. Business risk.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

15 A
Free international trade maximizes world output through
A. Countries specializing in production of goods they are best suited for.
B. Reduction in taxes.
C. Increased factor income.
D. Encouraging competition.

16 International business does not result in the following D

A. Innovation is encouraged.
B. International cooperation is encouraged.
C. Imports are rendered cheap.
D. Consumption is minimized.

17 Uneven distribution of natural resources C

A. is the only cause for international business.
B. is the major factor for international business.
C. is among the major factors for international business.
D. is not a cause for international business.

18 The following factor does not differentiate international business from domestic B
business
A. different currencies
B. product quality
C. product mobility
D. trade policies

19 Geographical indications specify C

A. Place of origin of goods.
B. Special characteristics of the product associated with the place of origin.
C. Place and special characters of the product.
D. Place or special characters of the product.

20 Business across several countries with some decentralization of management B

decision making to subsidiaries is
A. Global business.
B. Multinational business.
C. Transnational business.
D. Multi-regional business.

21 Wholly owned subsidiary can be set up A

A. as a Greenfield venture.
B. to acquire an existing firm.
C. to have products marketed overseas.
D. to have management is overseas.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

C
22 The essential feature of FDI is
A. Investment of a very high value.
B. Investment in shares.
C. Investor’s influence on the management of the enterprise.
D. Investment of low value
.
23 No new investment in the host country is created in the case of B
A. Greenfield FDI.
B. Acquisition.
C. Horizontal FDI.
D. Vertical FDI.
C
24 A firm investing in a foreign country to distribute the products there in creation of
A. Asset seeking FDI.
B. Backward vertical FDI.
C. Forward vertical FDI.
D. Distribution FDI.
D
25 The disadvantages of Greenfield FDI as compared to acquisition is
A. Profit will be less.
B. Size of investment will be high.
C. Lesser control in management.
D. Delay in establishment.
D
26 Conglomerate FDI refers to
A. FDI made by a group of firms.
B. FDI made in subsidiaries.
C. FDI made in similar products.
D. FDI made in unrelated products.
A
27 Countries/ regions with huge market size will attract
A. Market seeking FDI.
B. Efficiency seeking FDI.
C. Vertical FDI.
D. Created assets seeking FDI

28 The following statement with respect to culture is false D

A. Culture is enduring.
B. Culture is changing.
C. Culture is evolved among the members of a society.
D. Culture is determined by national boundaries.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

29 The following is not a component of culture D

A. Attitudes.
B. Beliefs.
C. Education.
D. Life expectancy.

30 Non- verbal communication C

A. includes written communication.
B. has no place in international business.
C. includes body language.
D. should be learnt by business managers to communicate with foreigners.

31 Religion of a person affects his/her D

A. attitude towards entrepreneurship.
B. gifting practices.
C. use of products.
D. all of the above.

32 For the society, religion has no influence on B

A. holidays.
B. language.
C. role of women.
D. marketing practices.

33 The role of women is restricted in C

A. Eastern countries.
B. Middle East countries.
C. Traditional Islamic countries.
D. India.

34 The following nationals would be aggressive at the beginning of business B

negotiations, but offer large concessions in the end
A. American.
B. Russian.
C. German.
D. Japanese.

35 Social stratification is done based on B

A. Income level.
B. caste.
C. education.
D. any of the above.

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36 Social mobility is measured by

A. The extent to which an individual can move the strata to which he/she belongs.
B. The promptness with which an individual accepts foreign assignments.
C. The extent to which inter- caste marriage is encouraged by the society.
D. The extent to which the society as a whole shifts its habitat.

37 Lower power distance countries are characterized by A

A. relationships based on equality and informality.
B. authority being accepted without question.
C. managers being paternalistic.
D. tall organizations structure.

B
38 A country with high uncertainty avoidance will witness
A. lower level of stress among people.
B. decision taken as a result of group consensus.
C. less dependence on rules and regulations.
D. people are serene.
C
39 As per cultural dimensions of Hofstede, masculinity refers to
A. Male- female ratio in the country.
B. Society dominated by male members.
C. Society characterized by aggressive and materialistic behaviour.
D. War- ridden societies.
A
40 According to economic growth model of Rostow, passage of a country through the
stages is
A. in the order specified.
B. in any order.
C. in the order specified, but certain stages may be skipped.
D. automatic.
C
41 A country in the stage of traditional society is characterized by
A. existence of traditional rule.
B. non existence of industries.
C. predominance of agriculture.
D. complete absence of literacy.

A
42 The stage indicating highest level of economic growth is
A. age of mass consumption.
B. age of mass production.
C. maturity.
D. drive to maturity.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

43 The income level of residents in a country is indicated by C

A. gross national income.
B. gross domestic product.
C. per capita gross national income.
D. per capita gross domestic product
.
44 For a country with relatively lower level of cost of living PPP per capita GNI will be B
A. lower than per capita GNI.
B. higher than per capita GNI.
C. same as per capita GNI.
D. may be lower or higher than per capita GNI

45 In a business cycle, the phase preceding prosperity is C

A. recession.
B. depression.
C. recovery.
D. recession or depression.
46 Monetary policy relates to controlling C
A. money supply.
B. money supply and interest rate.
C. money supply, interest rate and exchange rate.
D. credit creation by banks.
47 Analysing the business environment best assists in B

A. Identifying key competitive forces; identifying competitive position; identifying key

opportunities, threats, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Auditing macro environmental influences; identifying key competitive forces;
identifying competitive position; identifying key opportunities and threats.
C. Auditing external and organisational factors; identifying key competitive forces;
identifying competitive position; identifying key opportunities and threats.
D. Assessing historical trends; auditing environmental dangers; identifying strategic
capabilities; identifying competitive position.

48 In relation to the PESTEL framework, which of the following statements is correct? C

A. It assists in the assessment of organisational strengths and weaknesses.

B. It allows a detailed analysis of the structure of an industry.
C. It can be used as a checklist to understand the different environmental
influences in the macro environment.
D. Takes an historical perspective on the main political, economic, sociocultural,
technological, environmental and legal factors
.
49 The following factors are key drivers of globalization D

A. Government action, exchange rates, competition and sociodemographic factors.

B. Market convergence, competition, exchange rates and cost advantages.
C. Cost advantages, government action, economic cycles and competition.
D. Market, cost, competition and government policies.

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 DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

50 Scenarios are used to D

A. Develop a long term view of strategy.
B. Build plausible views of different possible futures and develop a long term view of
strategy.
C. Identify key drivers of change.
D. Develop a view of an environment which has a high degree of uncertainty, build
plausible views of different possible futures and take a long term view of strategy.
51 Porter suggests the following reasons for one nation being more competitive than C
another
A. Ability to speak English; developed network of supporting industries; absence of
competition; and low labour cost.
B. Abundant natural resources; skilled labour force; temperate climate; and democracy.
C. Factor conditions; demand conditions; related and supporting industries; and firm
strategy, industry strategy and rivalry.
D. Strong sporting ethos; emphasis on individual achievement; strong national party in
power; large home market.
52 A
The five forces that affect the level of competition in an industry are

A. Threat of entrants; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of substitutes;

competitive rivalry.
B. Threat of buyers; power of entry; power of substitutes; threat of suppliers; threat of
recession.
C. Threat of recession; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of management
failure; competitive rivalry.
D. Threat of entry; power of buyers; power of suppliers; threat of substitutes;
government action.

53 In international business cheaper alternatives to litigation is/ are D

A. Conciliation.
B. Arbitration.
C. Negotiations.
D. Conciliation and arbitration.

54 A contract drafted under civil law differs from that drafted under common law in the B
following respect
A. It will be detailed.
B. It will be shorter and less specific.
C. It will provide less severe damages.
D. It will be in detail
.
55 Ownership of intellectual property is recognized in law by granting D

A. Licenses.
B. Patents.
C. Copyrights.
D. Patent, copyright or trademark as appropriate.

Prof. Hrishikesh Dhumale www.dimr.edu.in