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Science Golden Sample PPR
Science Golden Sample PPR
CBSE BOARD
SA MPLE PA PER
SCIENCE
2021
t CBSE SAMPLE PAPER AS PER THE LATEST CBSE
CBSE BOARD
SYLLABUS AND MARKING SCHEME
Sample Paper
t BASED ON NCERT COURSE STRUCTURE includes
Marking Scheme
t LAST 3 YEARS CBSE BOARD PAPERS FULLY
Issued by
SOLVED
CBSE
CLASS X
Syllabus*
COURSE STRUCTURE
SCIENCE (CLASS–X)
THEME: MATERIALS
Unit I: Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, implications of a
balanced chemical equation, types of chemical reactions: combination, decomposition,
displacement, double displacement, precipitation, neutralization, oxidation and reduction.
Acids, bases and salts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH– ions,
General properties, examples and uses, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm
not required), importance of pH in everyday life; preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide,
Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing soda and Plaster of Paris.
Metals and nonmetals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series; Formation
and properties of ionic compounds.
Carbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of carbon.
Homologous series.
* Issued by CBSE.
S-3
This may be an assessment for Internal Assessment and credit may be given (Periodic
assessment/Portfolio). This portion of the Unit is not to be assessed in the year-end
examination.
Management of natural resources: Conservation and judicious use of natural resources.
Forest and wild life; Coal and Petroleum conservation. Examples of people’s participation
for conservation of natural resources. Big dams: advantages and limitations; alternatives,
if any.
Water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in the question paper.
All questions are compulsory.
(ii) SectionA - question no. 1 to 20 - all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each. These questions
contain multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer questions and assertion - reason type
questions. Answers to these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) SectionB - question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) SectionC - question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(v) SectionD question no. - 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student
has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION–A
1. List any two observations when Ferrous Sulphate is heated in a dry test tube. (1)
OR
Identify the products formed when 1 mL of dil. Hydrochloric acid is added to 1g of Sodium metal.
Ans.
Initial light green colour changes to reddish brown colour
Colourless gas is evolved
Gas with choking smell is evolved (Any two)
OR
Sodium Chloride and Hydrogen gas
2. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of the salt used to remove permanent hardness
of water. (1)
Ans. Sodium Carbonate decahydrate [Na2CO3.10H2O]
3. Which of the following is not observed in a homologous series? Give reason for your choice. (1)
(a) Change in chemical properties
(b) Difference in -CH2 and 14u molecular mass
(c) Gradation in physical properties
(d) Same functional group
Ans. (a). Change in chemical properties. It does not occur due to the presence of the same functional group.
S-6
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SCIENCEX S-7
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G
What are the two observations that can be noted from the galvanometer reading?
Ans. There are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in opposite directions.
8. Draw the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor. (1)
Ans. The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire
9. Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. If you are not provided with any other
parameters (e.g. numerical values of I and R), what can be said about the voltage drop across the
two resistors? (1)
OR
Some work is done to move a charge Q from infinity to a point A in space. The potential of the
point A is given as V. What is the work done to move this charge from infinity in terms of Q and
V?
Ans. Voltage-drop is same across both.
OR
W = QV
10. Veins are thin walled and have valves. Justify. (1)
Ans. Veins have thin walls because the blood there is no longer under pressure and they have valves to ensure
blood flow in one direction.
11. How is the wall of small intestine adapted for performing the function of absorption of food?
(1)
OR
Out of a goat and a tiger, which one will have a longer small intestine? Justify your answer.
Ans. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi which increase the
surface area for absorption.
OR
Goat because herbivores eating grass need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested.
12. Explain how ozone being a deadly poison can still perform an essential function for our
environment. (1)
OR
Give reason why a food chain cannot have more than four trophic levels.
Ans. Ozone layer protects us from harmful effects of UV radiation.
OR
The loss of energy at each step is so great that very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels.
13. State the role of pancreas in digestion of food.
Ans. The pancreas secretes digestive juice which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase
for breakdown of emulsified fats.
For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the
other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below: (1)
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Assertion: After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two to
three days. (1)
Reason: Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium
Hydrogen Carbonate which gives shiny white finish.
Ans. (c) Assertion is True and Reason is False
15. Assertion: Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason: The length and complexity of food chains vary greatly. (1)
OR
Assertion: Greater number of individuals are present in lower trophic levels.
Reason: The flow of energy is unidirectional.
Ans. (b) Both Assertion and Reasoning are correct. Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
OR
(b)Both Assertion and Reasoning are correct. Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
16. Assertion: A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a pea plant with white
flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason: White colour gene is not passed on to next generation. (1)
Ans. (a) Both Assertion and Reasoning are correct. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Answer Q. No 17 - 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four subparts in
these questions.
17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v).
All living cells require energy for various activities. This energy is available by the breakdown
of simple carbohydrates either using oxygen or without using oxygen.
(i) Energy in the case of higher plants and animals is obtained by (1)
(a) Breathing (b) Tissue respiration
(c) Organ respiration (d) Digestion of food
(ii) The graph below represents the blood lactic acid concentration of an athlete during a race of 400 m and
shows a peak at point D. (1)
Lactic acid production has occurred in the athlete while running in the 400 m race. Which of the following
processes explains this event?
(a)Aerobic respiration (b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Fermentation (d) Breathing
(iii) Study the graph below that represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the time
while an athlete is running at full speed. (1)
Choose the correct combination of plots and justification provided in the following table.
Plot A Plot B Justification
(a) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is low and inconsistent in aerobic and high in anaerobic
(b) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic
(c) Anaerobic Aerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic
(d) Anaerobic Aerobic Amount of energy is high and inconsistent in anaerobic and low in aerobic
18. (i) Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of metallic character of Alkali
metals plotted in the graph? (1)
(a) Cs > Rb > Li > Na > K
(b) K > Rb > Li > Na > Cs
(c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(d) Cs > K > Rb > Na > Li
18. (ii) Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table though it shows non-
metallic character (1)
(a) as Hydrogen has one electron and readily loses electron to form negative ion
(b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion
(c) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form negative ion
(d) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals
18. (iii) Which of the following has highest electronegativity? (1)
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
18. (iv) Identify the reason for the gradual change in electronegativity in halogens down the group. (1)
(a) Electronegativity increases down the group due to decrease in atomic size
(b) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to decrease in tendency to lose electrons
(c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron
decreases
(d)Electronegativity increases down the group due to increase in forces of attractions between nucleus &
valence electrons
18. (v) Which of the following reason correctly justifies that Fluorine (72pm) has smaller atomic radius
than Lithium (152pm)? (1)
(a) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the group
(b) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the period due to increase in number of
shells
(c) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the group
(d)F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to right.
Ans. 18. (i) (c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
18. (ii) (b) As Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion
18. (iii) (a) F
18. (iv) (c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain
electron decreases.
18. (v) (d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to right.
19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v).
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to see those distant
stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are called refracting telescopes and the
ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.
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Telescope Diagram
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So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2. Out of which L1 was bigger
and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light, while the smaller lens magnifies the image.
Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she
realized that a big lens is very heavy.
Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing
through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the
image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.
19. (i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
(a) Concave lenses (b) Convex lenses (c) Bifocal lenses (d) Flat lenses (1)
19. (ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the ratio of the focal
length of L1 and L2? (1)
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
19. (iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens? (1)
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(b) Double the focal length.
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature.
(d) Inverse of the object distance.
19. (iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification
of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens,
at what distance did she put the object? (1)
(a) 72 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 6 cm
19 (v) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What advantages, if any,
would she have with her choice of lenses? (1)
(a)She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b)Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable amount of light
to pass.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Ans. (i) b) Convex
(ii) P=1/f
P1=1/f1 and P2=1/f2
P1/P2=4/1, hence (1/f1)/(1/f2) = 4/1
Hence f1/f2=1/4
(iii) (a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(iv) m=v/u 3=24/u
Hence u = 8cm
(c) 8 cm
(v) (c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and they will also allow considerable
amount of light to pass through them.
20. Read the following and answer any 4 questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v). (1)
A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in order to create a magnetic field. The
magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of the fields due to the current through each coil. It is
nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet having
a north pole at one end and a south pole at the other depending upon the direction of current flow. The
magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the current in the coil, number
of turns per unit length etc.
The following graph is obtained by a researcher while doing an experiment to see the variation of the magnetic
field with respect to the current in the solenoid.
The unit of magnetic field as given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is given in
Ampere.
20. (i) What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid? (1)
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic
(b) Electrical to Magnetic
(c) Electrical to Mechanical
(d) Magnetic to Mechanical
(ii) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid? (1)
(a) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short-circuit.
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(c) The bar will be magnetised permanently.
(d) The bar will not be affected by any means.
(iii) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that of
(1)
(a) a bar magnet
(b) a straight current carrying conductor
(c) a circular current carrying loop
(d) electromagnet of any shape
(iv) After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements. (1)
I.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to the current.
II.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current.
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to square of the current.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the current.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statement(s).
(a). Only IV
(b). I and III and IV
(c) I and II
(d) Only II
(v) From the graph deduce which of the following statements is correct. (1)
(a). For a current of 0.8 A the magnetic field is 13 mT
(b). For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-linearly.
(c). For a current of 0.8 A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT.
(d). There is not enough information to find the magnetic field corresponding to 0.8A current.
Ans. (i) (c). Electrical to Mechanical.
(ii) (b). The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(iii) (a). A bar magnet.
(iv) (d). Only II.
(v) (a). For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT
SECTION–B
21. Bile juice does not have any digestive enzyme but still plays a significant role in the process of
digestion. Justify the statement. (2)
OR
In birds and mammals the left and right side of the heart are separated. Give reasons.
Ans. Bile juice makes the acidic food coming from the stomach alkaline for the action of pancreatic enzymes. Bile
salts break the large globules of fat in the intestine to smaller globules increasing the efficiency of enzyme
action. This is similar to the emulsifying action of soaps on dirt.
OR
The separation keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing allowing a highly efficient supply of
oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs (birds and mammals) which
constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature.
22. State the events occurring during the process of photosynthesis. Is it essential that these steps
take place one after the other immediately? (2)
6CO2 + 6H2O Sunlight C6H12O6 + 6O2
Ans. Carbon dioxide Water Carbohydrate Oxygen
Chlorophyl
Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
These steps need not take place one after the other immediately. For example, desert plants take up carbon
dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll
during the day
23. Give a test that can be used to confirm the presence of carbon in a compound. With a valency of
4, how is carbon able to attain noble gas configuration in its compounds? (2)
OR
The number of carbon compounds is more than those formed by all other elements put together.
Justify the statement by giving two reasons.
Ans. - Burn compound in air/ oxygen; Gas evolved turns lime water milky
- By sharing its four valence electrons with other elements.
OR
Due to self linking ability of carbon/catenation
Since carbon has a valency of four it can form bonds with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of some
other mono-valent element.
Due to small size of carbon it forms very strong and (or) stable bonds with other elements (Any two)
24. The following observations were made by a student on treating four metals P, Q, R and S with
the given salt solutions: (2)
12 V R1 = 4 W R2
SECTION–C
27. After self-pollination in pea plants with round, yellow seeds, following types of seeds were
obtained by Mendel: (3)
Seeds Number
Round, yellow 630
Round, green 216
Wrinkled, yellow 202
Wrinkled, green 64
Analyse the result and describe the mechanism of inheritance which explains these results.
OR
In humans, there is a 50% probability of the birth of a boy and 50 % probability that a girl will be
born. Justify the statement on the basis of the mechanism of sex-determination in human beings.
Ans. The ratio obtained is 9:3:3:1 in which parental as well as new combinations are observed. This indicates that
progeny plants have not inherited a single whole gene set from each parent.
Every germ cell takes one chromosome from the pair of maternal and paternal chromosomes. When two
germ cells combine, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of other pair of characters.
OR
In human beings, the genes inherited from our parents decide whether we will be boys or girls. Women have
a perfect pair of sex chromosomes (XX). But, men have a mismatched pair (XY).
All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.
Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits
an X chromosome from her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a
boy.
28. Plastic cups were used to serve tea in trains in early days- these could be returned to the vendors,
cleaned and reused. Later,Kulhads were used instead of plastic cups. Now, paper cups are used
for serving tea. (3)
What are the reasons for the shift from Plastic to Kulhads and then finally to paper cups?
Ans. Use of Plastic cups raised the concern towards hygiene thus they were replaced by disposable plastic cups.
Plastic cups are non-biodegradable and harm the environment friendly.
They were thus replaced by Kulhads.
Making Kulhad made of clay on a large scale resulted in the loss of top fertile soil.
Now, disposable paper cups are used because - the paper can be recycled, it is biodegradable and is eco-
friendly material which does not cause environmental pollution.
29. Explain where and how urine is produced? (3)
Ans. - Blood passes through filtration units in the kidney called nephron
- Passes through glomerulus in the Bowman's capsule - Ultra filtration
- Filtrate initially has glucose, amino acids, water, salts and nitrogenous waste
- Reabsorption Water (as per the need of the body), Glucose and amino acids are all reabsorbed
- Secretion of excess water, salts and urea (nitrogenous waste) which makes up the urine
30. a. Which of the following reactions is/ are an endothermic reaction(s) where decomposition
also happens? (2)
Respiration
Heating of lead nitrate
Decomposition of organic matter
Electrolysis of acidified water
(b). Silver chloride when kept in the open turns grey. Illustrate this with a balanced chemical
equation. (1)
Ans. (a). Heating of lead nitrate; and electrolysis of acidified water
(b).
Sunlight
2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + Cl (g)
2
Group→ Period 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
¬
2 A B C
3 D E
Ca: + xx x +2
xx x
Ca 2 k•Cl x
xx
xx
Cl x
x xx x Ca 2Cl–
+2
CaCl2
(b). Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid state due to absence of free ions but they conduct electricity
in molten and aqueous state due to presence of free ions
33. Refractive index of water with respect to air is 1.33 and that of diamond is 2.42. (3)
(i) In which medium does the light move faster, water or diamond?
(ii) What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to water?
Ans. Refractive index = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium.
Since the refractive index of diamond is more, hence the speed of light is lesser in diamond.
Let speed of light in water vevw and in diamond bevd.
Refractive index of diamond w.r.t water is say n =
Speed of light in water / speed of light in diamond.
n = vw/vd
Dividing both numerator and denominator by speed of light [c] we get
n = (vw/c) ÷ (vd/c) = Inverse Ratio of refractive index of water and diamond.
n= 2.42/1.33 = 1.82 (approx.)
SECTION–D
34. Match the following pH values 1, 7, 10, 13 to the solutions given below: (5)
Milk of magnesia
Gastric juices
Brine
Aqueous Sodium hydroxide.
Amit and Rita decided to bake a cake and added baking soda to the cake batter.
Explain with a balanced reaction, the role of the baking soda. Mention any other use of baking soda.
OR
(i) Four samples A, B, C and D change the colour of pH paper or solution to Green, Reddish-pink,
Blue and Orange. Their pH was recorded as 7, 2, 10.5 & 6 respectively. Which of the samples has
the highest amount of Hydrogen ion concentration? Arrange the four samples in the decreasing
order of their pH.
(ii) Rahul found that the Plaster of Paris, which he stored in a container, has become very hard and
lost its binding nature. What is the reason for this? Also, write a chemical equation to represent
the reaction taking place.
(iii) Give any one use of Plaster of Paris other than for plastering or smoothening of walls.
Ans. Milk of magnesia 10
Gastric juices 1
Brine 7
Aqueous Sodium hydroxide 13
Baking soda undergoes thermal decomposition to form Na2CO3, CO2 and H2O; CO2 makes the cake fluffy &
soft
Heat
NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
Uses
Used in fire extinguishers/ antacid to neutralize excess acid in stomach to neutralize the effect of acid in
insect sting.
OR
(i) (a) B
(b) C, A, D, B
(ii) Due to moisture in the atmosphere it converted into Gypsum
CaSO4+1½ H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
(iii) Making toys/dolls or statues /fixing broken limbs/making decorative materials.
35. Trace the changes that take place in a flower from gamete formation to fruit formation. (5)
Ans.
Pollen grain
Stigma
Male germ-cell
Pollen tube
Ovary
Female
germ-cell
36. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps connected with a battery of 60V. (5)
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S?
(ii) Given r1> r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of the
magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
carrying conductor. (5)
Ans. The lamps are in parallel.
Advantages:
If one lamp is faulty, it will not affect the working of the other lamps. They will also be using the full
potential of the battery as they are connected in parallel.
The lamp with the highest power will glow the brightest.
P=VI
In this case, all the bulbs have the same voltage. But lamp C has the highest current.
Hence, for Lamp C, P=5 × 60 Watt = 300 W. (the maximum).
The total current in the circuit = 3 + 4 + 5 + 3 A = 15A
The Voltage = 60V
V=IR and hence R = V/I = 60/15 A = 4A
OR
(i) The magnetic field lines produced are into the plane of the paper at R and out of it at S.
(ii) Field at S > Field at P
Magnetic field strength for a straight current carrying conductor is inversely proportional to the distance
from the wire.
(iii) The current will be going from top to bottom in the wire shown and the magnetic field lines are now in the
clockwise direction on the plane which is perpendicular to the wire carrying current.
(iv) Right hand thumb rule. The thumb is aligned to the direction of the current and the direction in which the
fingers are wrapped around the wire will give the direction of the magnetic field.
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises three sections A, B and C. Attempt all the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Internal choice is given in each section.
4. All questions in Section A are one-mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and assertion-reason
type questions. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. All questions in Section B are three-mark, short-answer type questions. These are to be answered in
about 50-60 words each.
6. All questions in Section C are five-mark, long-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about
80-90 words each.
7. This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.
SECTION–A
1. Name the functional group present in propanone. 1
Ans. Ketone.
2. The change in magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric current in it. Name
the underlying phenomenon. 1
Ans. Electromagnetic induction.
Answer question numbers 3(a) to 3(d) and 4(a) to 4(d) on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraphs and the related studied concepts.
3. The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth
and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which
organisms increase their population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual
and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does
not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing
up children. Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size
of population.
(a) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls. 1
(b) What is the result of reckless female foeticide? 1
(c) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body? 1
(d) Write two factors that determine the size of a population. 1
Ans. (a) In girls and boys, some of these can be signs of possible early puberty, but sometimes are normal:
• pubic, underarm, or facial hair development.
• voice deepening.
• acne.
• “mature” body odor.
(b) Reckless female foeticide is the abortion of female foetus using illegal methods.
S-21
It results in abnormal Men: Women ratio. As the women number decreases, there would be fewer women
per 1000 men.
(c) The hormonal methods like oral pills create a change in the hormonal balance of the body.
(d) It is determined by birth and death rate in a given population.
4. Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component.
Food as well as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from
plants through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.
These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and
from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these
chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The
maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects
the health of our mind and body.
(a) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings? 1
(b) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to
some extent. 1
(c) Various steps in a food chain represent 1
(a) Food web (b) Trophic level
(c) Ecosystem (d) Biomagnification
(d) With regard to various food chain operating in an ecosystem, man is a: 1
(a) Consumer (b) Producer
(c) Producer and consumer (d) Producer and decomposer
Ans.
(a) The maximum concentration of pesticides is found in human beings because humans are at the top of
the food chain and due to biomagnification, the concentration of Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)
increases as one goes up the trophic levels.
(b) To consume the food produced through organic farming.
(c) Answer (b).
(d) Answer (a).
5. The compound obtained on reaction of iron with steam is/are: 1
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4
(c) FeO (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
Ans. (b)
OR
An element ‘X’ reacts with O2 to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is
also soluble in water. The element ‘X’ is likely to be: 1
(a) iron (b) calcium (c) carbon (d) silicon
Ans. (b)
6. The laws of reflection hold true in the following cases: 1
(a) plane mirrors only (b) concave mirrors only
(c) convex mirrors only (d) all reflecting surfaces
Ans. (d)
OR
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind
the mirror. This image is: 1
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
Ans. (d)
13. Assertion (A): In a homologous series of alcohols, the formula for the second member is C2H5OH
and the third member is C3H7OH.
Reason (R): The difference between the molecular masses of the two consecutive members of a
homologous series is 144. 1
Ans. (c)
14. Assertion (A): In the process of nuclear fission, the amount of nuclear energy generated by the
fission of an atom of uranium is so tremendous that it produces 10 million times the energy
produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal.
Reason (R): The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, when bombarded with low energy neutrons,
splits apart into lighter nuclei. The mass difference between the original nucleus and the product nuclei
gets converted to tremendous energy. 1
Ans. (b).
SECTION B
15. What is ‘rusting’? Describe with a labelled diagram an activity to investigate the conditions under
which iron rusts. 3
Ans. When iron is exposed to
- moist air
- acid ranged water for a long time it acquires a brownish coat. This is called rusting of iron.
Activity:
1. Take three test tubes and clean iron nails are placed in each of them.
2. Label the test tubes X, Y and Z.
3. In the test tube X, some water is poured then it is corked.
4. In test tube Y, boiled distilled water is poured, and about 1 mL of oil is added.
The oil will float on water and prevent the air from dissolving in the water.
5. Anhydrous calcium chloride is poured in test tube Z and corked.
Anhydrous calcium chloride will absorb the moisture, if any, from the air.
6. Leave these tubes for a few days.
X Y Z
Air Dry
air
Layer
of oil
(prevents
air
dissolving
Rusty in the
iron water)
nails
Water
Observations:
Nails in test tube X acquire rust because of air and water.
Nails in test tube Y do not get rusted because air was prevented from reacting with iron.
Nails in test tube Z do not get rusted because of same reason.
16. What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that homologous structures
always have a common ancestor? Justify your answer. 3
Ans. Homologous structures- are basic body structures of animals having similar structure but different function.
Eg:- Arm of Human, wing of bat, and front leg of horse all of them have similar basic structures but entirely
different functions.
Yes, It is necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor. As explained in the above
example, the basic structure of arm of human and wing of bat is similar but they are modified to perform
different functions in different vertebrates. Therefore, this shows that they have evolved from a common
ancestor.
17. Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State. 3
Ans. Tyndall effect is the phenomenon in which the particles in a colloid scatter the beams of light that are directed
at them. This effect is exhibited by all colloidal solutions.
When light is passed through a true solution, dissolved particles are too small to deflect the light. However,
dispersed particles of a colloid being larger do deflect light.
For example:
(1) When sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest.
(2) The Tyndall effect can be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole.
(3) When a beam of light is directed at the glass of milk, the light is scattered.
(4) Visible beams of headlights in fog is caused by the Tyndall effect.
OR
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism.
What happens when a narrow beam of a monochromatic light, and white light passes through
(a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? 3
Ans.
Glass slab Glass prism
In the case of a glass slab, the two interfaces the light In the case of a prism, the two interfaces the light
ray has to pass are parallel to each other. ray has to pass through are not parallel to each
other and are inclined at an angle.
In this case the emergent ray is also a white light In this case, the effects of the first interface are not
because the constituents of white light which are reversed and the colours separated at that first
refracted at different angles at the first interface interface continue along different paths upon
recombine at the second interface and emerge as a leaving the glass at the second interface.
single white light. Hence we observe a spectrum on the other side.
(i) (a) A Monochromatic light passes through the glass slab and refracts and emerges out. But we can
observe the same color throughout. Even after emerging out
(b) When it is passed through a glass prism, it refracts and the refracted ray is parallel to one side of
a prism. Here also, the colour of the light doesn’t change.
(ii) (a) White light refracts and simultaneously, dispersion happens and it gets split into its constituent
colours.
(b) Refraction happens and also dispersion happens and its constituent colours.
Ans.
(i)
Blue scattered away
sun appears reddish
(ii)
Sun nearly
overhead
Less blue
scattered
Observer
19. (a) List in tabular form two differences between binary fission and multiple fission. 3
(b) What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
Ans. (a)
Binary Fission Multiple Fission
Occurs during favourable conditions Occurs during unfavourable c onditions.
Divides only once Divides repeatedly
(b) When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length then mature spirogyra on attaining a con-
siderable length breaks into two or more fragments. These fragments then grow into complete organism.
20. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each. 3
Ans. The Chlor-alkali process is used in the electrolysis of NaCl. The important products formed in this process
are sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen gas.
2NaCl+2H2O ® 2NaOH+Cl2+H2
An electric current is passed through the brine to form H2 at the cathode and Cl2 at the anode, leaving a
solution of sodium hydroxide.
Uses:- NaOH - For soaps and detergents.
Cl2 - PVC, pesticides.
H2 - Fuels, production of NH3.
OR
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the
type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it. 3
Ans. Crystallisation.It is called as sodium carbonate decahydrate.
Na2CO3 + 10H2O ® Na2CO3•10H2O
Sodium carbonate is an organic sodium salt and a carbonate salt. Sodium Carbonate is the disodium salt
of carbonic acid with alkalinizing property. When dissolved in water, sodium carbonate forms carbonic acid
and sodium hydroxide.
It can remove temporary and permanent hardness from water. Sodium carbonate is soluble but calcium
carbonate and magnesium carbonate are insoluble. The water is softened because it no longer contains
dissolved calcium ions and magnesium ions.
21. 3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline
potassium permanganate is added first drop by drop to this solution, then in excess. 3
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared?
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What happens on adding
it in excess?
(iii) Write chemical equation of this reaction.
Ans. (i) 5% solution of KMnO4 is prepared by dissolving 5 g of KMnO4 crystals in 95 g of water.
(ii) Oxidising agent. The colour of KMnO4 does not disappear when added in excess.
KMnO4
(iii) CH2H5OH ——-> CH3COOH
22. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away.
State the immediate changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight
or run. 3
Ans. The following immediate changes coming in the squirrel’s body which make it able to either fight or run are:
(1) The amygdala reacts to threat.
(2) The hypothalamus activates the sympathetic nervous system and releases adrenaline from the adrenal
gland.
(3) The adrenaline causes an increase in heart-pumping rate, breathing rate.
(4) It also causes increased blood pressure, dilation of the pupil, etc.
(5) It suppresses the activities of the digestive system and reproductive system for that particular time.
OR
Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication
between cells in a multi-cellular organism? 3
Ans. Chemical communication is better than electrical impulses as a means of communication between cells in a
multi-cellular organism because
(1) It involves communication through hormones. It does not require any specialized tissue like nervous
tissues for signaling to take place.
(2) Electrical communication is limited to only those regions which are connected by nerves while chemical
coordination can take place throughout the body.
(3) Chemical communication can be done steadily & persistently whereas nervous coordination can be done
only at intervals.
23. (a) State the relation correlating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the voltage
applied across it. Also draw a graph to show this relationship.
(b) Find the resistance of a conductor if the electric current flowing through it is 0.35 A when the
potential difference across it is 1.4 V. [3]
Ans. (a) This relation is called Ohm’s law.
V µ I
Þ V = IR
SECTION–C
25. (a) What is thermit process? Where is this process used? Write balanced chemical equation for
the reaction involved.
(b) Where does the metal aluminium, used in the process, occur in the reactivity series of metals?
(c) Name the substances that are getting oxidised and reduced in the process. [5]
Ans.
(a) Reduction of metal oxides with aluminum powder in which a huge amount of heat is liberated is called
thermite process.
The reaction of iron (III) oxide with aluminium is a thermit reaction which is used to join railway tracks
or cracked machine parts.
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) ® 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(b) Aluminium metal belongs to category of metals of high reactivity in the reactivity series. It is more
reactive than zinc and less reactive than magnesium.
(c) Fe2O3 is getting reduced and Al is getting oxidised in this process.
26. (a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
(c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the electro-
magnet is fixed. 5
Ans.
(a) An electromagnet can be defined as a magnet which functions on electricity. Unlike a permanent magnet,
the strength of an electromagnet can be changed by changing the amount of electric current that flows
through it. If the current flow is cut, the property of magnetism ceases to exist.
But this is also an advantage of the electromagnet over a permanent magnet because controlling the
electric current also controls the magnetic field, in this case, i.e., the strength of electric field controls the
strength of magnetic field also. In fact, the poles of an electromagnet can even be reversed by reversing
the flow of electricity.
(b) Uses
(i) For lifting and transporting the large masses of iron scrap, grinders, plates etc.
(ii) For removing pieces of iron from wounds.
(c)
Coil
P Q
(d) The magnetic field strength inside the solenoid is greatly increased if a core of soft iron is used in making
an electromagnet
(i) By increasing the number of turns of winding.
(ii) By increasing the current.
27. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the formation of image, when the
object is placed: [5]
(i) Between optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens.
(ii) Anywhere in front of a concave lens.
(iii) At 2F of a convex lens.
Ans (i)
X¢
Y¢ Y
P
Convex lens
Q
m > 1
Sign of magnification – positive
(ii)
Concave lens
0≤ m < 1
(iii)
X
Y Y¢
X¢
Convex lens
OR
An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm.
5
(i) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp
image?
(ii) Find the size of the image.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
Ans. (i)
Given size of object = 4 cm
Now using the mirror’s formula.
1 1 1
= +
f v u
1 1 1
⇒ = +
–15 –25 v
⇒ v=
Þ v= 37.5cm
37.5 cm
he screen should be at 37.5 cm in front of the lens.
T
(ii) Size of the image
hi v
=– =
ho
u
i h
Þ = – (–37.5) / – 25
ho
hi
= 37.5 ´ 4 / 25
ho
h
Þ i = 150 / 25 = 6 cm
ho
Ans. (iii)
N
Y
X¢
Z X
6 cm
N¢
Y¢
Here XY = Object
X¢ Y¢ = Image
(i) Genetic drift: Over a generation, genetic drift may accumulate which leads to the formation of a new
species. (ii) Natural selection: Due to natural selection, variation may occur which leads to the formation
of a new species. (iii) DNA change: Variation during DNA copying often leads to the formation of a
new species.
29. The position of certain elements in the Modern Periodic Table are shown below:
Period\Group 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
1 G H
2 A I B C
3 D E F
Using the above table answer the following questions giving reasons in each case: 5
• Which element will form only covalent compounds?
• Which element is a non-metal with valency 2?
• Which element is a metal with valency 2?
• Out of H, C and F which has largest atomic size?
• To which family does H, C and F belong?
Ans.
(i) Element E
(ii) Element B
(iii) Element D
(iv) F has the largest atomic size
(v) H, C and F belong to noble gas family.
OR
Define atomic size. Give its unit of measurement. In the modern periodic table what trend is
observed in the atomic radius in a group and a period and why is it so?
Ans : Atomic size: The distance from the center of the nucleus of an isolated atom to the outermost shell containing
electrons is known as atomic size. The unit of measurement is Angstrom (A˚)
Variation in Group: In a group, the atomic radius increases downwards. In a group, as we move from one
element to the other, there is always an increase in the number of electrons shells by one so size increases.
Variation in the period: In a period, as we go from left to right, the atomic radius decreases because of an
increase in the effective nuclear charge. (Since electrons are gradually added in the same shell)
30. (a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial
organisms? Explain. 5
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label – pharynx, trachea, lungs, diaphragm
and alveolar sac on it.
Ans.
(a) The breathing in aquatic organisms is faster than terrestrial organisms.
The amount of oxygen in the water is less as compared to the air.
As water has diffused oxygen, so, t he aquatic organisms have a faster breathing rate than terrestrial
organisms because they get less amount of dissolved oxygen as compared to terrestrial organisms.
They breathe more rapidly to get more oxygen.
Some fishes take water through their mouths and it goes to their gills. Here the dissolved oxygen is taken
up by the blood which is flowing in blood vessels.
(b)
Pharynx
Trachea
Alveoli
Right
Lung
Left
Lung
Diaphragm
OR
(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body. 5
Ans. (a) The organs that form the excretory system in human beings are:
• A urethra • A pair of ureters
• A pair of kidneys • A urinary bladder
(b) Each kidney consists of millions of functional units called nephrons. Urine is formed in the kidneys
through a filtration of blood. The urine is then passed through the ureters to the bladder, where it is
stored. During urination, the urine is passed from the bladder through the urethra to the outside of the
body.
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises five Sections A, B, C, D and E. You are to attempt all the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Internal choice is given in Sections B, C, D and E.
(iv) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section–A are one-mark questions. They are to be answered in one word
or in one sentence.
(v) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section–B are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about
30 words each.
(vi) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section–C are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about
50 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section–D are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about
70 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section–E are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks
questions. These are to be answered in brief.
SECTION–A
1. State Ohm’s law.
Ans. Ohm’s law states that the current I flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential
difference V applied across its ends, provided the temperature and other physical conditions remain
unchanged.
V I or V = RI
R is the resistance of the conductor.
2. Name any two nutrients that the spent slurry has in the biogas plant.
Ans. Spent slurry in the biogas plant has Nitrogen and Phosphorus nutrients.
SECTION–B
3. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray
of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle of
reflection on it.
Ans. The ray diagram is shown below:
r
A i M
P F C
S-33
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S-34 CBSE BOARD EXAMINATION PAPER–2019
4. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for
the following cases and give reasons for the same in each case:
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
Ans. (a) The deflection of the compass needle increases because of the increase in the strength of the magnetic
field.
(b) The deflection of the compass needle decreases because of the decrease in the strength of the magnetic
field.
5. Out of HCl and CH3COOH, which one is a weak acid and why? Explain with the help of an example.
OR
‘‘Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt.” Justify this statement. How is it converted into washing
soda?
Ans. HCl is a strong acid and CH3COOH is a weak acid as HCl completely dissociates into ions in a solution, while
CH3COOH dissociates partially into ions in a solution.
OR
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt because it is formed from a strong base NaOH and a weak acid
H2CO3. Further on hydrolysis it gives strong base.
NaOH + H2CO3 NaHCO3 + H2O
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is strongly heated to produce sodium carbonate, which then recrystallises to
produce washing soda.
2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Na2CO3 + 10H2O Na2CO3.10H2O
SECTION–C
6. Define genetics. Why is decrease in the number of surviving tigers a cause of concern from the point
of view of genetics ? Explain briefly.
Ans. The branch of biology which deals with heredity and variations is known as genetics.
The tigers have very less variation in genetic characteristics among each other and if the natural conditions
would change drastically no tiger may survive. For example, if a deadly disease infects the tigers, all the
tigers may die from it as there would be less variations in the genotype to combat with the disease. Decrease
in population of tigers also indicates that tiger variants are not adapted to the existing environment
and soon they may become extinct.
7. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a 4 cm tall
object be placed so that it forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror ? Also calculate the
size of the image formed.
OR
A real image 2/3rd
of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is at a distance
of 12 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens.
Ans. Here f = – 20 cm, h = + 4 cm, v = – 30 cm.
1 1 1
Using mirror formula,
u v f
1 1 1
or =
u 30 20
1 1 1 23 1
or = =
u 30 20 60 60
or u = – 60 cm
So the object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from the concave mirror.
h v
As m=
h u
vh ( 30 cm) ( 4 cm)
Image size, h = =– = – 2 cm
u ( 60 cm)
OR
h v
For a lens, m=
h u
2
For the real image, m =
3
Object distance, u = – 12 cm
2 v
=
3 12
or v = + 8 cm
Using lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 32 5
= = = =
f v u 8 12 8 12 24 24
24
f= = + 4.8 cm
5
8. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.
OR
You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a china dish, the reddish brown
surface of copper powder becomes coated with a black substance.
(a)Why has this black substance formed ?
(b) What is this black substance ?
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(d)How can the black coating on the surface be turned reddish brown ?
Ans. (a) The green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals on heating loses water of crystallisation and becomes
anhydrous ferrous sulphate.
The colour first changes from light green to white and then brown solid ferric oxide is formed.
(b) It is a decomposition reaction.
OR
(a) The black colour is due to the oxidation of copper to give copper oxide.
(b) When copper is heated, it forms a black-coloured compound copper oxide.
Dendrites of one
neuron
Nucleus
Axon
Dendrites of
next neuron
Synapse
Finally impulse passes Chemicals cross the Electrical impulse From cell body
from one neuron to other gap or synapse and causes release of to ends of axon
cell or effector organ start similar electrical some chemicals (f)
(i) impulse in the dendrites at the ends of
of next neuron axon
(h) (g)
Flow of signal cannot occur in reverse direction. It will always follow the path shown above i.e. flow of signal
in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron.
14. Mention the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy. List four steps you
would suggest to reduce the consumption of energy.
Ans. Environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy:
Fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy and can get exhausted faster if increasingly used.
Burning of fossil fuels produces smoke which causes severe environmental pollution.
Gases produced upon combustion of fossil fuels lead to the greenhouse effect, which is responsible for
global warming.
Steps to reduce energy consumption:
Use of electricity and electrical appliances must be reduced
Prefer to use public transport or bicycles for commuting
Prevent unnecessary wastage of water
Use solar heaters in place of electrical heaters wherever possible
15. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of
ore with one example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore ? Also write
the chemical equations for the reactions involved in the process.
Ans. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence, so the ore must be carbonate
ore.
Example: Zinc carbonate (ZnCO3)
Steps required to obtain metal from the enriched ore:
Calcination:
Carbonate ores are converted to metal oxides by the process of calcination, i.e. heating in the absence of air.
ZnCO3(s) ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Reduction:
Metal oxides are reduced to their respective metals by using a suitable reducing agent such as carbon.
ZnO(s) + C Zn(s) + CO(g)
SECTION–D
16. (a)State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4– anions, but forms covalent bonds.
Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds
(i) are bad conductors of electricity.
(ii) have low melting and boiling points.
(b) Write the structural formula of benzene, C6H6.
OR
(a) Define the term ‘isomer’.
(b) Two compounds have same molecular formula C3H6O. Write the name of these compounds and
their structural formula.
(c) How would you bring the following conversions:
(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Propanol to propanoic acid
Ans. (a) The carbon atom has 4 electrons in its valence shell. It requires four electrons to complete its octet. The
removal of four valence electrons will require a large amount of energy, so it does not form C4+ cations.
Also the cation so formed will have two electrons and six protons which make it highly unstable.
The nucleus of the carbon atom consists of 6 protons which are unable to hold ten electrons to form an
anion by gaining 4 electrons. Therefore, the carbon is unable to form C4 – anions.
But it can achieve a stable electronic configuration by sharing its four electrons with other atoms.
Therefore, it forms a covalent bond by sharing electrons.
(i) In a covalent compound there are no free electrons present to conduct electricity; therefore, covalent
compounds are bad conductors of electricity.
(ii) The intermolecular force of attraction in covalent compounds is weak, so less energy is required to
break the bond. Therefore, they have low melting and boiling points.
(b) The structural formula of benzene (C6H6) is
Benzene
OR
(a) Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural formula are called isomers.
(b) Isomers of C3H6O are propanal and propanone.
O O
CH3—CH2—C—H CH3—C—CH3
Propanal Propanone
(c) (i) Conversion of ethanol to ethane
When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, it gets dehydrated to form
ethene.
Conc. H2SO4 , 443 K
H3C H2C OH CH2 CH2 H2O
Ethanol Ethene
(ii) Propanol to propanoic acid
Propanoic acid is formed by the oxidation of propanol by using an oxidising agent such as alkaline
KMnO4 or acidified K2Cr2O7.
Alkaline KMnO ; Heat
H3C H2 C CH 2 OH + 2(0)
4
CH3 CH2 COOH + H2 O
Propanol Propanoic acid
17. (a) A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20
cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the
image formed.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing object distance, image distance and focal length in the
above case.
Ans. (a) Object size, h = + 5 cm
Focal length, f = + 20 cm
Object distance, u = – 30 cm [f is + ve for a convex lens]
Image distance, v = ?; Image size = ?
1 1 1
For a lens, =
v u f
1 1 1 1 1 23 1
= = = =
v u f 30 20 60 60
or v = + 60 cm
For size of image
hi u 60
m=
ho v 30
hi = 5 × 2 = 10 cm
The positive sign of v shows that the image is formed at a distance of 60 cm to the right of optical centre of
the lens. Therefore, the image is real and inverted.
A
(b)
O F2 2F2 B′
2F1 B F1
A′
18. (a)How does metallic character of elements in Modern Periodic Table vary on moving from
(i) left to right in a period ?
(ii) top to bottom in a group ?
Explain with the help of an example in each case.
(b) If an element X is placed in group 14, what will be the nature of bond in its chloride ? Write the
chemical formula of the compound formed.
(c) An element X has mass number = 35 and number of neutrons = 18. What is the atomic number of
X ? Write electronic configuration of X and determine its valency.
Ans. (a) (i) On moving from left to right in a period in the periodic table, the metallic character of the element
decreases.
On moving across a period, the nuclear charge increases and the atomic size decreases, and hence,
elements cannot lose electrons easily. Therefore, the metallic nature decreases across a period on
moving from left to right.
Example: In the 2nd period, lithium is the most metallic element and fluorine is the least metallic.
(ii) In the periodic table, on moving down a group, the metallic character of the element increases.
On moving down a group, the atomic size increases and electrons are away from the nucleus and can
lose electrons easily.
Example: In group 1, lithium is the least metallic element, while francium is the most metallic
element.
(b) An element X is placed in group 14.
So, the valency of element X is 4. (2, 8, 4)
Therefore, to achieve the stable electronic configuration, it will share its four electrons with chlorine to
form a covalent bond.
The formula of chloride formed is XCl4.
(c) Given:
Mass number of X = 35
No. of neutrons = 18
Mass number = No. of protons + No. of neutrons
No. of protons = 35 – 18
So, the atomic number = 17
No. of electrons = 17
Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 7
There are 7 valence electrons; therefore, the valency of element X is –1.
19. Compare the power used in 2 resistor in each of the following circuits:
OR
A bulb is rated 40 W; 220 V. Find the current drawn by it, when it is connected to a 220 V supply. Also
find its resistance. If the given bulb is replaced by a bulb of rating 25 W; 220 V, will there be any
change in the value of current and resistance? Justify your answer and determine the change.
Ans. For circuit A : Total resistance, R = 1 + 2 = 3 .
Potential difference, V = 6V
V 6V
Current, I= = =2A
R 3
Power used in 2 resistor, P1 = I2R = 4 × 2 = 8 W
For circuit B : Power used in 2 resistor,
V2 4 4
P2 = =8W
R 2
Clearly, P1 : P2 = 1 : 1
OR
When a bulb of 40 W, 220 V is connected to the battery of 220 V,
P=V×I
40
So, I= = 0.18 A
220
Thus, current drawn by a bulb of 40 W is 0.18 A.
The resistance of the bulb is given by
V2
P=
R
(220)2
or R=
40
R = 1210
V2
P=
R
(220)2
or R=
25
or R = 1936
There is a change in the resistance.
The resistance of low-power devices is more than high-power devices.
20. (a)Distinguish between cross-pollination and self-pollination. Mention the site and product of
fertilization in a flower.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of a pistil showing the following parts:
Stigma, Style, Ovary, Female germ cell
OR
(a)Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts:
(i) which produce an egg.
(ii) where fertilization takes place.
(b) List two bacterial diseases which are transmitted sexually.
(c) What are contraceptive devices ? Give two reasons for adopting contraceptive devices in humans.
Ans. (a) The transfer of pollen grain from anther of stamen to the stigma of carpel is called pollination. It is of
two types: Cross-pollination and self-pollination.
Differences between cross-pollination and self-pollination.
Cross-pollination Self-pollination
1. The transfer of pollen from the 1. The transfer of pollen from the
anther of one flower to the stigma anther of a flower to the stigma of
of another flower is cross-pollination. the same flower or a flower on the
same plant is called self-pollination.
2. The transfer of pollen grains may take 2. No such agency is required.
place through some agency like wind,
water, air, insect, birds, etc.
3. Cross pollination occurs when the 3. Self-pollination can occur when
flowers are open. the flowers are closed.
4. The anthers and stigma mature at 4. Both anthers and stigmas mature
different times. simultaneously.
5. It gives rise to progeny with variations. 5. It produces pure lines.
Stigma
Anther Stigma
Stamen
Style
Style Filament
Ovary
Sepal Female gamete cell or
egg (female gamete)
Sperm
(male gamete)
Fig. (a) Structure of flower showing Fig. (b) Structure of carpel with pollen
its parts for part (a) grain on stigma and pollen tube
reaching the egg (female gamete)
As shown in the figure, a flower has four parts: sepal, petal, stamen and carpel.
Stamen is the male part and carpel or pistil is the female part of the plant.
Fertilization is the fusion of male gamete (sperm) with the female gamete (egg). Fertilization
occurs inside the ovule of ovary so it is the site of fertilization. Fertilization results in the formation of
zygote so product of fertilization is zygote.
(b) Figure (B) is the struture of carpel or pistil with parts labelled.
OR
(a)
Oviduct or
Fallopian tube
(site of fertilisation)
Ovary
(production of egg)
Uterus
(site of implantation)
Cervix
Vagina
(entry of sperm)
Fig.
Bird Insect
(a) (b)
(ii) The second way of dating fossils is by detecting the ratios of different isotopes of same element in the
fossil material.
SECTION–E
22. What would you observe on adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution?
Give reason for your answer.
Ans. When zinc granules are added to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution, a black coating is formed due to
the formation of iron due to displacement of iron by zinc. This displacement reaction occurs as:
Zn + FeSO4 ZnSO4 + Fe
Black
23. How is the presence of an acid tested with a strip of red litmus paper?
OR
A student is performing an experiment to study the properties of acetic acid. Answer the following
questions:
(i) Name the substance he must add to acetic acid to produce carbon dioxide.
(ii) Give the relevant chemical equation for the reaction.
(iii) How would he test CO2 gas in the laboratory ?
Ans. The red litmus paper does not show colour change with acid solution. So, first dip it in an alkaline solution,
and the colour will change to blue. Then it can be used to test the acid which will show the colour change
from blue to red again.
OR
(i) Sodium carbonate
(ii) Na2CO3 + CH3COOH CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
(iii) Lime water is used to test the presence of CO2.
When CO2 is passed through lime water, lime water turns milky due to formation of white calcium
carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 H2O
Insoluble
If excess of CO2 is passed through the solution, then the solution becomes clear due to the formation of
soluble calcium bicarbonate.
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 Ca(HCO3 )2
soluble
24. A teacher gives a convex lens and a concave mirror of focal length of 20 cm each to his student and
asks him to find their focal lengths by obtaining the image of a distant object. The student uses a
distant tree as the object and obtains its sharp image, one by one, on a screen. The distances d1 and
d2 between the lens/mirror and the screen in the two cases and the nature of their respective sharp
images are likely to be
(a)(20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and erect)
(b) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(c) (20 cm, 20 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(d)(20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and inverted)
Give reason for your answer.
Ans. (c) In both cases real and inverted image is formed at focus.
d1 = – 20 cm, real and inverted image
d2 = + 20 cm, real and inverted image.
25. The rest position of the needles in a milliammeter and voltmeter, not in use, are as shown in Figure
A. When a student uses these instruments in his experiment, the readings of the needles are in the
positions shown in Figure B. Determine the correct values of current and voltage the student should
use in his calculations.
OR
In the experiment to study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V) across a
resistor, a student obtained a graph as shown.
(i) What does the graph depict about the dependence of current on the potential difference ?
(ii) Find the current that flows through the resistor when the potential difference across it is 2.5 V.
(c) These stained peels are then mounted on a clean slide in a drop of glycerine and it is covered with
coverslip. Glycerine prevents drying of the peel and keeps it moist for longer period of time.
(d) Then this slide is focussed under microscope to observe stomata which are stained red with safranine
stain.
27. Draw labelled diagram to show the following parts in an embryo of a pea seed:
Cotyledon, Plumule, Radical
OR
A student observed a permanent slide showing asexual reproduction in Hydra. Draw labelled
diagram in proper sequence of the observations that must have been made by the student. Name
the process of reproduction also.
Ans. Pea seed is cut open to show parts of embryo.
(Future shoot)
↓
Plumule
Cotyledon
Radical
↑
(Future root) Single embryo
with plumule
and radical
New
Bud
organism
Developing New Hydra separates
Parent bud attached from parent
Hydra (outgrowth) on parent hydra
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises of two Sections A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and Section B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) There is an internal choice in three questions of three marks each, two questions of five marks each in Section A and
in one question of two marks in Section B.
(v) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one
sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks question. These
are to be answered in brief.
SECTION–A
1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny?
Ans. According to Mendel experiment, Monohybrid cross between:
Plants bearing violet Plants bearing white
flowers flowers
PP X pp (P1 generation)
P P p p
p p
P Pp Pp
(F1 generation)
P Pp Pp (purple flowers bearing plants)
(½)
All plants are bearing Violet flowers, in F1 generation, because as per Mendel’s rule of “Law of dominance” all
the offsprings in F1 generation are having dominant traits. (½)
2. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant.
Ans. At a hydropower plant, the potential energy of water is first converted into kinetic energy which is then
converted into electrical energy. (1)
3. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound
‘Y’, ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the
equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of sulphuric acid in
the reaction.
Ans. Ethanol on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid gives ethene. The following reaction takes place.
conc.
CH3CH2OH
H SO
CH2 == CH2 (½)
2 4
(X) (Y)
Na
CH3CH2OH CH3CH2ONa + H2 (½)
(X) (Z)
So ‘X’ is ethanol; ‘Y’ is ethene and ‘Z’ is H2. Sulphuric acid in above reaction acts as dehydrating agent. (1)
S-48
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SCIENCE–X S–49
4. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an
electrical impulse.
Ans. (a) Gustatory receptors [Ex.: Taste buds] are helpful in Taste and are found in tongue.
Olfactory receptors are helpful in smell and they are found in nose. (1)
(b) Here
a = cyton
and b = Axon
Hence electric impulse flow chart is as follows:
Dendrite Cyton Axon End point of Neuron (1)
5. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is
always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support
your answer.
Ans. The spherical mirror is convex.
M
A
N
A¢
B P B¢ F C
(2)
Fig. Image formed by a convex mirror with the object
between pole and infinity
6. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking
down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied
in the form of heat, light and electricity.
Ans. Three types of decomposition reactions:
(a) Thermal decomposition: Limestone (CaCO3) decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide on heating.
Heat
CaCO3 CaO + CO2 (1)
(b) Light decomposition: Silver chloride break up to give silver (grey solid) on exposure to light.
Light
2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) (1)
(c) Electrolytic decomposition: Water decomposes to give H2 and O2 when electricity is passed through
it.
Electricity
H2O(l) H2(g) + O2(g). (1)
7. 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a
test tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution
before testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas.
Name the gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong
acid.
OR
The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical
equation for its formation. List its two uses.
Ans. Zn warm
+ 2NaOH Na 2ZnO2 + H2 (1)
(Zinc granules) Sodium zincate
Hydrogen formed, forms bubbles in soap solution and which explode with a pop sound on burning. (1)
The same gas, i.e., H2 is also formed when zinc granules reacts with dilute acids.
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2 (1)
OR
Sodium bicarbonate in the form of baking powder is used to make tasty and crispy pakoras. (1)
Preparation: Carbon dioxide is passed through a saturated solution of sodium carbonate. Sodium bicarbonate
being sparingly soluble in water gets precipitated which is washed and dried. Requisite amounts of corn
starch and hydrogen tartrate are then added to sell as baking powder. (1)
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O 2NaHCO3(s)
Uses of sodium bicarbonate:
1. As a cooking agent.
2. In fire extinguishers. (1)
8. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged
in a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound.
Ans. (a) Most carbon compounds are formed due to sharing of electrons between atoms and no charged ions are
formed, hence such compounds are poor conductor of electricity. (1½)
(b) Buckminster fullerene is an allotrope of carbon with 60 carbon atoms (sixty single bonds) arranged in the
shape of a football.
(1½)
• ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) controls the blood and mineral levels in the body by affecting water
retention by the kidneys. (1)
(c) Pancreas: Hormones secreted: insulin and glucagon
Functions:
• Glucagon ( cells): Helps absorb glucose into liver to form glycogen.
• Insulin ( cells): Helps absorb glucose from blood to tissue and also release from liver. (1)
10. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is
likely to have comparatively better chances of survival – the one reproducing asexually or the
one reproducing sexually? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. Difference between Sexual reproduction and Asexual reproduction:
In sexual reproduction genetic material from two parents is combined.
In asexual reproduction offsprings are produced genetically identical to the one parent. (1)
Sexually reproducing species is likely to have better chances of survival, because:
1. In sexually reproducing organisms, natural selection might take place which may give advantage for
survival. (1)
2. During sexual reproduction, there might be errors in the DNA copying. This leads to variations which
might promote survival advantage.
In asexually reproducing organisms, DNA copying is errorless as they tend to preserve their similarities
and offsprings are exact copies of parents. (1)
11. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and
write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
OR
What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm
and another of – 20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
Ans. Laws of refraction of light: The refraction of light obeys the following two laws:
First law: The incident ray, the refracted ray and normal to the surface of separation at the point of incidence,
all lie in the same plane. (1)
Second law: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and the sine of the angle of refraction is constant
for a given pair of media. Mathematically,
sin i
= n21 (a constant).
sin r
The ratio n21 is called refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium. The second
law of refraction is also called Snell’s law of refraction. (1)
Absolute refractive index: The absolute refractive index of a medium for a light of given wavelength is
defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to its speed in that medium.
Speed of light in vacuum c
n= = (1)
Speed of light in medium v
OR
Power of a Lens: The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length (f) expressed in metres.
1 100
P= (1)
f (in m) f (in cm)
SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre (D). It is the power of a lens of focal length 1 metre.
100
When f = + 40 cm, P = D = + 2.5 D (Convex lens) (1)
40
100
When f = – 20 cm, P = D = – 5 D (Concave lens) (1)
20
12. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 so that the equivalent resistance
of the combination is (i) 13.5 , (ii) 6
OR
(a) Write Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to
electric mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply
voltage is 220 V.
Ans. (i) When the parallel combination of two resistors is connected in series with the third resistor,
R1R 2 99
Req = + R3 = 9
R1 + R 2 99
= 4.5 + 9 = 13.5 (1)
(ii) When the series combination of two resistors is connected in parallel with the third resistor,
1 1 1 R + R2 + R3
= + = 1
R eq R1 + R 2 R 3 (R1 + R 2 ) R3
(R1 + R 2 ) R3 (9 9) 9
Req = =
R1 + R 2 R3 999
18 9
= =6 (2)
27
OR
(a) Joule’s law of heating: It states that the heat produced in a conductor is directly proportional to
(i) the square of current I through it (ii) proportional to its resistance R and (iii) the time t for which the
current is passed. Mathematically,
I2Rt
P = I2Rt joule = cal (1)
4.18
(b) Total power consumed in the circuit
= 100 + 60 = 160 W
Voltage, V = 220 V
But, Power = VI
Power 160
Current, I = = (2)
V 220
= 0.727 A.
13. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity?
Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Ans. (a) Factors on which the resistance of a conducting wire depends:
(i) Length of the wire (R L) (1)
1
(ii) Area of cross-section of the wire R
A
(iii) Nature of the material of the wire.
L L
R or R=
A A
is called the resistivity of the material of the wire.
(b) Metals have large number of free electrons which help in the conduction of electricity. Glass has very few
free electrons. So it conducts electricity with difficulty. (1)
(c) As compared to pure metals, alloys have higher resistivity. When a current is passed through an element
made of alloy, a large amount of heat is produced. (1)
14. Students in a school listened to the news read in the morning assembly that the mountain of
garbage in Delhi, suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people
were also injured and there was traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session the teacher
also discussed this issue and asked the students to find out a solution to the problem of garbage.
Finally they arrived at two main points-one is self management of the garbage we produce and
the second is to generate less garbage at individual level.
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As an individual, what can we do to generate the least garbage? Give two points.
(c) List two values the teacher instilled in his students in this episode.
Ans. (a) Garbage produced can be managed by the following methods:
1. We can adopt the 5R’s for the minimal production of garbage.
2. Sewage treatment
3. Landfill (1)
(b) By following ways, we can generate the least garbage:
1. Recycle everything we can
2. Start relying on reusable containers.
3. Donate clothes
4. Purchase items made from recycled products (1)
(c) Values exhibited by teacher: The teacher has excellent general awareness about garbage management
and duty towards the society and the nation. He suggested students to generate least garbage and
described various garbage management procedures. (1)
15. What is a dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? While building large dams, which three
main problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people? Mention
them.
Ans. Dam: Dams are massive reservior built across rivers and streams to collect and utilize the flow of water
for various purposes like irrigation and generation of hydroelectricity. (1)
We seek to build large dams in order to:
1. transfer water to different locations in adequate quantities.
2. allow equitable distribution of water because people near the source grow water intensive crops.
3. store large quantity of water for irrigation and electricity generation. (1)
The construction of dams causes:
1. It leads to environmental problems due to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
2. Displacement of large number of people without rehabilitation or adequate compensation.
3. Economic problems due to huge inputs without proportionate or benefits. (1)
16. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series
from their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by chemical
equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper.
Carbonate Sulphide
ore ore
Calcination Rosting
Oxide of metal
Reduction to metal
Purification (2)
(b) Copper occurs as sulphide (Cu2S). Steps involved are:
(i) Enrichment of ore: Impurities such as soil, sand etc. called gaugue.
(ii) Froth flotation process: Sulphide ore is further enrichment by this process.
(iii) Roasting: It is the process of heating the ore in the presence of excess air. The sulphide ore (Cu2S)
is first converted to oxide which on further heating with remaining Cu2S is converted to metal.
Heat
2Cu2S(s) + 3O2(g) 2Cu2O(s) + 2SO2(g)
Heat
2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) 6Cu(s) + SO2(g).
(iv) Copper metal so obtained is further refined electrolytically. In the refining of impure copper, anode
is taken in the form of strip of pure copper. Copper sulphate solution is taken as electrolyte. The set
up is shown in Fig.
–
Key ®e
® Battery
–
e
– +
Anode
Cathode
2+
Cu
2+
Acidified copper
Cu sulphate solution
Anode mud
On passing current, the following reaction takes place
CuSO4 Cu2+ + SO42–
At cathode: Cu2+ + 2e– Cu (Pure copper deposits)
At anode: Cu– + 2e– Cu2+
(Impure copper goes into solution)
Thus pure copper is deposited at cathode. (3)
17. (a) The modern periodic table has been evolved through the early attempts of Dobereiner, Newland
and Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of all the three attempts.
(b) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more
fundamental property than its atomic mass.
(c) State Modern periodic law.
(b) Nephrons are the microscopic basic filtration units of the kidney. (1)
(c)
Kidney (i)
Ureter (ii)
Urinary bladder
(iii)
19. (a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct
(iii) Uterus
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta.
Ans. (a) (i) Ovary: Production of the egg (ovum).
Production of the hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Oviduct (fallopian tube):
It is the site of fertilization.
It carries egg (ovum) or fertilized ovum (zygote) to the uterus.
(iii) Uterus: Here embryo develops.
It is made up of muscle tissue. It protects and nourishes the embryo. ( 3)
(b) Structure of placenta: Disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall. It has villi on the embryo’s
side and blood species on the mother’s side which surround the villi.
Function of placenta:
• It transports oxygen and nutrition from the mother’s blood to the embryo.
• It removes the excretory substances from embryo into the mother’s blood. (2)
20. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance
of approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the
possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle? Explain.
OR
(a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris
(iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by
an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. (a) The boy is suffering from myopia.
Cause of myopia:
(i) The eyeball gets elongated along its axis.
(ii) The focal length of the eye lens becomes very short.
Rays from a F I
distant object I
Far point of
myopic eye
(a) (b)
(2)
F I
SECTION–B
22. A student added few pieces of aluminium metal to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous
solutions of iron sulphate and copper sulphate. In the second part of her experiment, she added
iron metal to another test tubes C and D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium sulphate
and copper sulphate.
In which test tube or test tubes will she observe colour change? On the basis of this experiment,
state which one is the most reactive metal and why.
Ans. In the first case there will be colour change in both test tubes A and B. So aluminium is more active than iron
and copper. (1)
In the second case no change is found in tube C but there is colour change in tube D. Thus iron is less active
than aluminium but more active than copper.
Thus aluminium is the most reactive metal as it displaces metals from solutions of both iron and
copper. (1)
23. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride
taken in a test tube? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of
reaction in this case.
Ans. A white precipitate is formed when sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride taken in a test
tube. The reaction is:
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (1)
Barium sulphate ppt.
Elongation of Development
Nucleus nucleus of groove
Two
daughter
cells
Division of
nucleus and
cytoplasm
Binary Fission in Amoeba (2)
OR
f = 20 cm
A
4 cm F¢ 2F¢ B¢
B F O
8 cm
u = 30 cm
A¢
v = 60 cm
(1)
Size of object AB = + 4 cm
Size of image AB = – 8 cm (by measurement)
Size of image 8
m= = =–2 (1)
Size of object 4
Negative sign shows that the image is inverted.
27. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding
values of potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below:
4.0 2.0
=
0.8 0.4
2
= =5 (1)
0.4
4.5
4.0 (0.8, 4)
3.5
(0.6, 3)
3.0
V(V) 2.5 (0.5, 2.5)
(0.4, 2)
2.0
1.5 (0.3, 1.5)
(0.2, 1)
1.0
0.5 (0.1, 0.5)
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0
I(A) (1)
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI
Committed to Educate the Nation NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS
LONDON • NEW DELHI • NAIROBI