Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CBSE Class 9 DPPs
CBSE Class 9 DPPs
I. Direction : Put in a/an or the where necessary. Leave an empty space (-) if the sentence is already
complete.
1 I don’t usually like staying at (a)__________hotels, but last summer we spent a few days at (b)__________very
nice hotel by (c)__________sea.
2 (a)__________tennis is my favourite sport. I play once or twice (b)__________week if I can, but I’m not
(c)__________very good player.
3 I won’t be home for (a)__________dinner this evening. I’m meeting some friends after (b)__________work
and we’re going to (c)__________cinema.
4 (a)__________unemployment is very high at the moment and it’s very difficult for (b)__________people to
find (c)__________work.
5 There was (a)__________accident as I was going (b)__________home last night. Two people were taken to
(c)__________hospital. I think (d)__________most accidents are caused by (e)__________people driving
too fast.
7. 'This is my laptop'. With the help of a possessive pronoun we can replace the same sentence as
(A) This laptop is his. (B) This laptop is her.
(C) This laptop is my. (D) This laptop is mine.
12. We have
(A) few holidays in school. (B) much holidays in school.
(C) a little holidays in school. (D) less holidays in school.
13. I have
(A) many work to do. (B) much work to do.
(C) the few work to do. (D) many a work to do.
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14. We were waiting at the bus stop and then left after
(A) a hour. (B) the hour.
(C) an hour. (D) some hour.
16. He gave me
(A) all the mangoes. (B) some the mangoes.
(C) every the mangoes. (D) few the mangoes.
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (FACTUAL)
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Lipsitz, on an average a healthy adult requires just over 8 hours of sleep at night. However, the amount varies
between individuals. Swarup Chatterjee, a 28 year old IIM graduate and Assistant Manager at a BPO in
Hyderabad, is deprived of good sleep. Swarup is completely stressed out due to overburden of work in his
professional and personal life and often feels tired. He also knows that it is bad for his health. In a study
conducted by sleep disorder experts, it was found that one-third of adults have been experiencing sleep
disorders. They get less than 7 hours of sleep every night. Another study shows that 29% of Indians went to
sleep only after midnight. The survey further mentioned that Indians were among the world’s earliest risers.
We should understand that ‘early to rise’ is good, provided that ‘early to bed’ principle is also followed.
2. Perhaps the environmental crisis at hand has not yet touched your life, but the time is shortly to come.
Recent NASA reports of a 60% loss of ozone over the Arctic provide an explanation for increased severity in
the world’s weather patterns which has only begun to affect us, whether directly or indirecdy. The social,
political and economic implications are difficult to imagine as our ozone layer continues to thin, forests
disappear and desertification is occurring at an alarming rate. Today, almost 1 million acres of forest disap-
pear each week. This alarming rate of deforestation is forcing many world economies to rethink their
business and manufacturing practices. A 70 feet tree cut for its hi iber takes 65 year to replace. A 70 feet
bamboo cut for the market can be replaced in less than 3 months, and bamboo is officially recognised as the
world’s fastest growing plant. Some species can grow 3 feet per day! Driven by the constantly growing
consumer demand for environmentally friendly products, bamboo is gaining momentum as a reliable source
of high quality and durable green building material over traditional non-sustainable products. Bamboo is
known to produce 30% more oxygen than a hardwood forest of comparable size, while preventing erosion,
restoring soil, providing sweet edible shoots and removing toxins from contaminated soil. Ecologists tout
bamboo as a logical, renewable source of building material. Many promote bamboo planting for erosion
prevention, and to reverse the effects of global warming. Being a grass, bamboo regenerates without replant-
ing after harvesting. Traditional hardwood lumber trees, such as oak, maple and birch, take 40-50 years to
regenerate. In the meantime, there is less oxygen produced, less carbon dioxide consumed, and more soil
run-off in the spot where those trees were harvested—all producing negative environmental effects. Our
planet is suffering from resource depletion, habitat loss, species extinction and ecosystem pollution. The
choice of bamboo as building material will greatly help reverse those negative trends.
a. Why is use of bamboo gaining momentum?
b. The greatest advantage of bamboo is that it__________
c. Why is deforestation alarming?
d. What does 'More soil run-off in the spot’ mean?
e. __________produces more oxygen than a 30% hardwood forest of comparable size.
f. __________take 40-50 year to regrow__________
g. What problems are troubling the Earth?
h. The author is promoting the use of__________as a building material.
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DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : TENSE
1. Rectify the errors in the given sentences and rewrite the correct sentences :
2. Choose the correct form of the verb from those given in the bracket.
(a) Abhishek will meet Aishwarya when he (will come, comes) back from work.
(b) Akshya (finished, has finished) writing a novel just now.
(c) My grandfather (is jogging, jogs) every morning.
(a) He ________ asleep while he was driving. (falls, fell, has fallen)
(b) I’m sure I ________ him at the party last night. (saw, have seen, had seen).
(c) John ________ here for the last five years. (worked, is working, has been working).
(d) Rakesh thanked me for what I ________. (have done, had done, have been doing)
(e) I ________ a strange noise. (hear, am hearing, have been hearing)
(f) I ________ him for a long time. (know, have known, am knowing)
(g) They ________ Maths for five years. (study, am studying, have been studying)
1. Ram friend Shyam was on holiday in Jamica. Read her letter to Chilli and complete it with the
correct verbs given in below :
invited stopped talked stayed travelled enjoyed
didn’t sleep didn’t go watched was listened
Dear Ram
I had a fantastic holiday in Jamica. It was hot and the sea was blue and lovely. I (a) ________by plane
London to Kingston. I really (b) ________the flight. It was eight hours long but I (c) ________at all because
I (d) ________so excited. During the flight (e) ________to music, (f) ________a film and (g) ________to the
girl in the seat next to me. I (h) ________ with my aunt and uncle in Kingsto. They (i) ________me on a trip
to Montego Bay. We (j)________at an Orchid Farm. It was brilliant. On my last night there I (k) ________to
bed until 3 o’clock in the morning!
See you soon !
Love
Shyam
2. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line against which a blank
has been given. Write the error and correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank
number. Remember to underline the word/phrase that you have supplied.
Error Correction
(a) Wrote effective letters is an art that everyone __________ __________
(b) mastered with practice. Nowadays although telephone, fax and __________ __________
(c) e-mail replacing personal (informal) letters, formal letters __________ __________
(d) will still in vogue. Commerce, trade, official correspondence. public __________ __________
representation, complaints, transactions and communication
(e) with people is still conducting through letters. Therefore, one __________ __________
(f) must cultivating the art and skill of letter writing. Different kinds __________ __________
(g) of letters following different conventions. Every letter __________ __________
(h) was wrote according to a plan which __________ __________
(i) are also calling the layour of the letter. In this, the sender’s __________ __________
(j) address writing at the top left hand corner. __________ __________
3. In the following passage, choose the most appropriate option from the ones given below to com-
plete the passage.
Mark Twain was the pen name of Sameul Langhorne Clements, (a) __________was one of
(b) __________greatest fiction writers of America. He grew up in a small town (c)__________the banks of the
Mississippi River. (d) __________ a small boy he moved to Hannibal on the banks of this river (e) __________
he experienced (f) __________ excitement of river travel.
(a) (i) which (ii) who (iii) that (iv) he
(b) (i) an (ii) a (iii) the (iv) his
(c) (i) on (ii) in (iii) at (iv) upon
(d) (i) Since (ii) From (iii) To (iv) As
(e) (i) when (ii) where (iii) whenever (iv) whence
(f) (i) a (ii) his (iii) an (iv) the
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4. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the inorrect word
and the correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number.
Incorrect Correct
(a) Once there was the man called Hasan. __________ __________
(b) He was one of the much great __________ __________
(c) lords at a court of a Persian king. __________ __________
(d) Hasan had the great wish to __________ __________
(e) find any way of making himself __________ __________
(f) invisible. To their good luck, he met __________ __________
(g) the magician who agreed to sell him __________ __________
(h) a magic wand for many gold. __________ __________
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD
14. Not only the students but also the teacher _________ present.
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25. The wages of sin _________ death.
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : ACTIVE-PASSIVE VOICE
II. Put the verb into the correct form, active or passive.
1. This house is quite old. It __________(build) over 100 years ago.
2. My grandfather was a builder. He __________(build) this house many years ago.
3. ‘Is your car still for sale? ‘No, I __________ (sell) it.’
4. ‘Is the house at the end of the street still for sale?’ ‘No, it, __________ (sell).’
5. Sometimes mistakes __________ (make). It’s inevitable.
6. I wouldn’t leave your car unlocked. It __________(might/setal).
7. My bag has disappeared. It__________(must/steal).
8. I can't find my hat. Somebody __________(must/take) it by mistake.
9. It’s a serious problem. I don’t know how it__________(can/solve).
10. We didn't leave early enough. We __________(should/leave) earlier.
11. Every time I travel by plane, my flight __________(Delay)’
12. A new bridge __________(build) across the river. Work started last year and the bridge __________(expect)
to open next year.
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III. Read these newspaper reports and put the verbs into the most suitable form.
1. CASLTE FIRE
Winton Castle (a) __________(damage) in a fire last night. The fire, which (b)__________ (discover) at about
9 o’clock, spread very quickly. Nobody (c) __________(injure) but two people had to (d) __________(rescue)
from an upstairs room. A number of paintings (e)__________ (believe/destroy). It (f) __________(not/know)
how the fire started.
2. SHOP ROBBERY
In Paxham yesterday a shop assistant (a) __________(force) to hand over £500 after (b) __________(threaten)
by a man with a knife. The man escaped in a car which (c)__________(steal) earlier in the day. The car
(d)__________(later/find) in a car park where it (e) __________(abandon) by the thief. A man
(f) __________(arrest) in connection with the robbery and (g) __________(still/question) by the police.
3. ROAD DELAYS
Repair work started yesterday on the Paxham-Longworth road. The road (a) __________(resurface) and
there will be long delays. Drivers (b)__________(ask) to use an alternative route if possible. The work
(c) __________(expect) to last two weeks. Next Sunday the road (d)__________ (close) and traffic
(e)__________(divert).
4. ACCIDENT
A woman (a) __________(take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Norstock
yesterday. She (b) __________(allow) home later after treatment. The road (c) __________(block) for an hour
after the accident and traffic had to (d) __________(divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman
was lucky. She could (e) __________(kill).’
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (DISCURSIVE)
1. Article 48A of the Constitution of India provides that the state shall endeavour to protect and improve the
environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. But what causes endless anguish is the
fact that laws are neither respected nor enforced in India. A recent report of our Parliament’s Estimates
Committee has highlighted the near catastrophic depletion of India’s forests over the last four decades. India,
according to reliable data, is losing its forests at the rate of 3.7 million acres a year. Large areas, officially
designated as forest land, “are already virtually treeless”. The actual loss of forests is estimated to be about
8 times the rate indicated by government statistics. There can be no doubt that the growth of world popula-
tion is one of the strongest factors distorting the future of human society. It took mankind more than a million
years to reach the first billion. That was the world population around the year 1800. By the year 1900, a
second billion was added, and the 20th century has added another 3.7 billion. The present world population
(as of August 2016) is estimated at 7.4 billion. Every 4 days, the world population increases by 1 million. The
rich get richer, and the poor beget children, which condemns them to remain poor. More children do not mean
more workers, merely more people wit' »u. It is not suggested that human beingc be treated like cattle, and
compulsorily sterilised. But there is no alternative to voluntary family planning without introducing an element
of coercion. The choice is really between control of population and perpetuation of poverty. For the first time
in human history, we see a transcending concern — the survival not just of the people but of the planet. We
have begun to take a holistic view of the very basis of our existence. The environmental problem does not
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necessarily signal our demise, it is our passport for the future. The emerging new world vision has ushered in
the era of responsibility. It is a holistic view, an ecological view, seeing the world as an integrated whole rather
than a dissociated collection of parts.
a. Article 48A of the Indian Constitution provides for what and what is the result of its non-enforcement?
b. How did the population of mankind grow from the year 1800 till today and how is it affecting society?
c. Why do the poor remain poor? What is the remedy suggested by the author?
d. What is the author's vision of the emerging new world?
e. What is the synonym of the word 'highlighted in paragraph 1?
f. The synonym of 'distorting' in paragraph 2 is__________
g. What is the transcendental concern as mentioned in the passage?
h. The strongest factor distorting the future of human society is__________
2. The first written public examinations were introduced over 1400 years ago with the establishment of the
imperial examination system in 606 AD in China. By the middle of the 19th century, competitive examina-
tions had been introduced in Britain and India to select government officials. Public examination in schools
have a shorter but still considerable history. At present, the examination systems in India are characterised
by heterogeneity. They differ in their vintage, organisational design, financial stability, autonomy, organisational
culture and credibility. For instance, the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) is unique in conducting
exams through the distance mode; the Indian School Certificate Examination confines itself only to private
schools; and the West Bengal Board of Madrasa Education is for Islamic educational institutions only. The
Amrik Singh Report (1997) on reorganising boards wondered, ‘Can there also be a system whereby it be-
comes possible to grade and categorise the boards in respect of how efficiently and honestly examinations
are organised?’ To do so, a set of parameters was chosen to measure effectiveness, transparency and
economic efficiency of the functioning of these organisations. These parameters include indicators like cost
incurred per student, fees charged per student, number of examinees per employee and number of affiliated
schools per employee. The functioning of a total of 20 boards was analysed in terms of 18 performance
indicators in 2005. The data collected from the states shows that most boards have an operating surplus.
The CBSE, along with the Maharashtra board, seem to fare the best. Another important measure of effective-
ness of the functioning of the boards is the time taken for declaration of examination results. It was found that
this ranged from a mere 26 days in the case of Karnataka Secondary Education Examination Board in 2005
to 48 days for class X in neighbouring Maharashtra. The Supreme Court has recently issued directions that
results should be declared within 45 days from the end of examinations. In 2005, 10 of the 20 boards, which
provided this information, coifl’d not declare results within 45 days.
a. When were the first written public examinations introduced?
b. Mention two features of the examination system in our country.
c. What conclusion did the Amrik Singh Report bring forth?
d. Which boards seem to fare the best in terms of operating surplus?
e. Mention the directions issued by the Supreme Court.
f. Give one feature of National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).
g. The examinations are characterised by__________
h. West Bengal Board of Madrasa Education is for__________institutions only.
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DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON SUBJECT VERB CONCORD AND ACTIVE-PASSIVE
This building, which is the oldest surviving example in the country, (a) _______ (say) to be the most expen-
sive house in Canada. Currently the house (b) _______ (sell) by the international auctioneers, McPhersons.
The house (c) _______(report) to be haunted and many people down the centuries
(d) _______(hear) strange footsteps and noises in the dark of night. The building (e) _______(build) in 1123
by Michel Davidson, and it (f) _______(have) a remarkable history ever since then. Many famous people are
said (g) _______(stay) in the house on many occasions including Oliver Cromwell. Henry Reede (h) _______(live)
in the house for the past ten years. While the house (i)_______(restore) some years ago, Mr Reede con-
ducted some research into the history of the house. “I (j)_______(read) that there are secret chambers
somewhere”, he said. “We (k) _______(look) for them for quite some time now but (I)_______(not find) them.
However, we do hope to find them some day.”
2. Complete the following passage with correct passive form of the verbs given in brackets.
She danced for two and a half hours and when she finished the performance (a) _______(appreciate) by the
audiences. That was her first performance, the first after the traumatic accident and she (b) _______ (turn)
into one of the most sensational stars of the country. Since then she (c) _______(invite) to perform all over
the world. She is Sudha Chandran, a national icon.
3. Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate option.
(a) Every pale tomatoe slice, wilted pickle, and brown lettuce leaf _______an extra 25 cents at Berine’s
Burger Emporium.
(i) costs (ii) cost (iii) costed (iv) had cost
(b) Not only the Smiths but also Tanya _______agreed to try one of the world- famous chocolate-broccolil
muffins.
(i) has (ii) have (iii) had (iv) has been
(c) The Smiths, along with Tonya, _______to avoid indigestion after eating these weired muffins.
(i) hopes (ii) hope (iii) hoped (iv) had hoped
(d) On the sidewalk _______many little lizards basking themselves on the hot concrete.
(i) is (ii) are (iii) was (iv) were
(e) Even though Antonio has many friends who love their Cherolets and Buicks, he has always believed that
General Motors _______lemons.
(i) makes (ii) make (iii) made (iv) had made
4. Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate option.
(a) My dog Floyed. together with Buster the car, _______to play with money; the cat swats crumpled bills
onto the floor where the dog shreds them to pieces.
(i) likes (ii) like (iii) liked (iv) had liked
(b) Latoya isn’t going to Daytone Beach for spring break because fourteen dollars _______all that she has
in her vacation fund.
(i) is (ii) are (iii) was (iv) were
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(c) Even though Johnson and Johnson _______consumers not to insert Q-tips into their ears, people refuse
to read directions and frequently rupture their eardrums.
(i) warns (ii) warn (iii) warned (iv) had warned
(d) All of my important keys _______now stuck in the drain pipe of my bathroom sink. Buster, my kitten,
doesn’t relaise how much his playfulness inconvenieces me.
(i) is (ii) are (iii) was (iv) were
(e) Grandpa claims that Martian measles _______ green and purple spots to erupt all over a person’s body.
(i) causes (ii) cause (iii) will cause (iv) had caused
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : MODALS
I. Complete B’s sentences using can / could / might / must / should / would + the verb in brackets.
In some sentences you need to use have: must have... / should have... etc. In some sentences you
need the negative (can’t/couldn’t etc.).
1. A: I’m hungry.
B: But you’ve just had lunch. You _______hungry already, (be)
2. A: I haven’t seen our neighbours for ages.
B: No. They _______away. (go)
3. A: What’s the weather like? Is it raining?
B: Not at the moment but it _______ later. (rain)
4. A: Where has Julia gone?
B: I’m not sure. She _______ to the bank. (go)
5. A: I didn’t see you at John’s party last week.
B: No, I had to work that evening, so I _______. (go)
6. A: I saw you at John’s party last week.
B: No, you didn’t. You _______ me. I didn’t go to John’s party. (see)
7. A: When did you post the letter to Mary?
B: This morning. So she _______it tomorrow. (get)
8. A: When was the last time you saw Bill?
B: Years ago. I _______him if I saw him now. (recognise)
9. A: Did you hear the explosion?
B: What explosion?
A: There was a loud explosion a few minutes ago.
B: You._______it. (hear) .
10. A: We weren’t sure which way to go. In the end we turned right.
B: You went the wrong way. You_______left. (turn)
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2. I ate too much. Now I feel sick. (I shouldn’t / eat / so much)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
3. I wonder why Tom didn’t phone me. (he must / forget)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
4. Why did you go home so early? (you needn’t / go / home so early)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
5. You’ve signed the contract, (it / can’t / change / now)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
6. ‘What’s Linda doing?’ ‘I’m not sure.’ (she may / watch / television)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
7. Ann was standing outside the cinema, (she must / wait / for somebody)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
8. He was in prison at the time that the crime was committed, so (he couldn’t / do / it).
_______________________________________________________________________________________
9. Why weren’t you here earlier? (you ought / be / here earlier)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
10. Why didn’t you ask me to help you? (I would / help / you)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
11. I’m surprised nobody told you that the road was very dangerous, (you should / warn)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
12. George was in a strange mood yesterday, (he might not / feel / very well)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS
I. Put in one of the following prepositions: at, on, in, for, since, during, by, until.
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Prepositions (Place and other uses)
II. Put in the missing preposition.
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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON MODALS, PREPOSITIONS
1. Meera has written a dialogue between two friends. But she has used the wrong modals. Find
the incorrect modal and replace it with the correct one in each line. Incorrect Correct
(a) Vrehaan Where’s Anshul? He can have been here half an hour ago. __________ __________
(b) Vicky He should have got lost. He is still new to this town. __________ __________
(c) Vrehaan He can have forgotten all about the plan, I suppose. __________ __________
(d) Vicky He may not have forgotten. We were talking about it this morning __________ __________
(e) Vrehaan Well, something can have delayed him. __________ __________
You (a) ________help the teacher to maintain a neat and organised classroom. You (b) ________regularly
inspect classrooms and (c) ________assign duties to class monitors to participate. You (d) ________en-
sure drinking water is provided to all. You (e) ________impose a fine on students found littering.
3. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and
the correction in the space provided.
Incorrect Correct
(a) Life throws many options under us, but __________ __________
(b) the quality beyond our life depends __________ __________
(c) largely barring how we make choices. __________ __________
(d) We keep struggling beneath numerous __________ __________
(e) options. If a person chooses one option across __________ __________
(f) the others, he experiences loss without the other __________ __________
possibilities. We experience infinite conflicts
(g) all till our lifetime. __________ __________
We took a morning bus (a) ________ Arusha, and after checking (b) ________ a very simple hotel, started
our search for a safari company. We went to Sunny Safaris, but nothing seemed (c) ________ be going
soon. Next, we went (d) ________Cheetah Safaris. They have a safari going (e) ________Tuesday. It sounded
like a good deal (f) ________$65 a day; we didn’t want (g) ________search forever, so we chose them. While
walking (h) ________the town in the afternoon, we met Jo and Pery from Lamu. They introduced us (i)
________Senara who will be taking the Safari (j) ________us tomorrow. Later, we had dinner (k) ________a
less than exciting restaurant.
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONNECTORS
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5. __________you sow, so shall you reap.
6. He did not take the test __________he was suffering from fever.
7. Strike the iron __________ it is hot.
8. __________ she is very poor, she cannot pay her fee.
9. __________ he is in trouble, I must help him.
10. Do not disturb me __________I am busy in my studies.
11. The accident took place __________ the train was crossing a bridge.
12. Raghu was beaten __________he misbehaved with me.
II. Fill in the blanks with ‘than’, ‘just then’, ‘just because’, ‘until’:
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONNECTORS
1. The following passages have not been edited. There is a mistake in each line concerning the use
of a sentence connector. Write the correct connector in place of the wrong one. Underline your
answer as shown in example.
Incorrect Correct
Raju which was a slum-dweller wanted (a) __________ __________
to rent a flat. Since many days of fruitless (b) __________ __________
searching he was one day returning home as he (c) __________ __________
stopped to have a coconut. But while he slit open (d) __________ __________
the top, a huge genie materialized. Just Raju (e) __________ __________
was still thinking what it was, the genie offered to
carry out his orders.
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2. In the passages given below there is a sentence connector missing in each line. Find this missing
word I words and write it along with the word that comes before it and the word that comes after
it. Underline your answer as shown in example.
Before Missing After
Just our Madras-bound train halted at (a) ________ ________ ________
Nagpur, my wife wanted to read the Hindi (b) ________ ________ ________
magazine Kalki cried she saw a newspaper (c) ________ ________ ________
boy. “Kalki hai ? ” “Aaj ke hai, Madam” the (d) ________ ________ ________
boy was looking after the magazine replied (e) ________ ________ ________
The misunderstanding occurred just the (f) ________ ________ ________
boy thought that the lady asked for
Kalki wanted ‘yesterday’s or ‘tomorrow’s’ magazine.
3. Choose the most appropriate option from the brackets to complete the following passages. Write
the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank number. Do not copy the whole pas-
sage.
Raju (a) _______(which/that/who/how) was poor, wanted to rent a flat. (b) _______(Since/After/Before/Then)
many days of searching, he was very tired (c) _______(or/and/then/that) had lost hope. One day
(d) _______(when/then/while/as) returning home, he met a man. The man asked him (e) _______(that/what/
where/when) the matter was. Raju was pleased (f) _______(what/when/that/or) the man assured him that he
would get a house for him.
4. The underlined words in the following passages have not been used appropriately. Replace them
by choosing the most appropriate option from the ones given below the passage.
It was sometime (a) while Ratna rose. She was not so quick (b) what she happened to be. She was thinking
of things (c) what she had never thought before. It was all (d) so she had developed a feeling for the man (e)
which had come to the village as a postmaster.
(a) (i) when (ii) before (iii) after (iv) since
(b) (i) as (ii) while (iii) where (iv) when
(c) (i) where (ii) which (iii) why (iv) when
(d) (i) that (ii) while (iii) because (iv) till
(e) (i) why (ii) that (iii) since (iv) who
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CONDITIONALS
1. If you __________ a wallet in the street, what would you do with it? (find)
2. I must hurry. My friend will be annoyed if __________on time, (not/be)
3. I didn’t realise that Gary was in hospital. If I __________ he was in hospital, I would have gone to visit him.
(know)
4. If the phone __________, can you answer it? (ring)
5. I can’t decide what to do. What would you do if you __________in my position?(be)
6. A: What shall we do tomorrow?
B: Well, if it __________a nice day, we can go to the beach. (be)
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7. A: Let’s go to the beach.
B: No, it’s too cold. If it __________warmer, I wouldn’t mind going to the beach, (be)
8. A: Did you go to the beach yesterday?
B: No, it was too cold. If it __________warmer, we might have gone, (be)
9. If you __________enough money to go anywhere in the world, where would you go? (have)
10. I’m glad we had a map. I’m sure we would have got lost if we __________one. (not/have)
11. The accident was your fault. If you __________more carefully, it wouldn t have happened, (drive)
12. A: Why do you read newspapers?
B: Well, if I __________newspapers, I wouldn’t know what was happening in the world, (not/read)
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8. When we were in London last year, we didn’t have time to see all the things we wanted to see I wish
__________more time (we/have)
9. It’s freezing today. I wish__________so cold. I hate cold weather. (it/not/be)
10. What’s her name again? I wish__________remember her name. (I/can)
11. What I said was stupid. I wish__________anything. (I/not/say)
12. (in a car) You’re driving too fast. I wish__________a bit. (you/slow down)
13. It was a terrible film. I wish__________to see lt. (we/not/go)
14. You’re always tired. I wish __________to bed so late. (you/not/go)
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONDITIONALS
1. It’s raining. You want to go out, but not in the rain. You say: ...I wish it would stop raining.
2. You’re waiting for John. He’s late and you’re getting impatient.
You say (to yourself): I wish_____________________________________________________________
3. You can hear a baby crying and you’re trying to study.
You say_____________________________________________________________________________
4. You’re looking for a job - so far without success. Nobody will give you a job.
You say: I wish
somebody_____________________________________________________________________________
5. Brian has been wearing the same clothes for years. You think he needs some new clothes.
You say (to
Brian):_______________________________________________________________________________
For the following situations, write sentences with I wish...wouldn’t... .
6. Your friend drives very fast. You don’t like this.
You say (to your friend): I wish
you_________________________________________________________________________________
7. Jack always leaves the door open. This annoys you.
You say (to
Jack):_______________________________________________________________________________
8. A lot of people drop litter in the street. You don’t like this.
You say: I wish
people_______________________________________________________________________________
II. These sentences are about things that often happened in the past. Complete the sentences
using
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III. Put the verb into the correct form.
1. I didn’t know you were in hospital. If I’d know (I/know),. I would have gone (I/go) to visit you.
2. Ken got to the station in time to catch his train. If____________________________________(he/miss)
it,____________________________________(he/be) late for his interview.
3. It’s good that you reminded me about Ann’s birthday____________________________________(I/forget)
if____________________________________(you/not/remind) me.
4. Unfortunately, I didn’t have my address book with me when I was in New York. If _____________________(I/
have) your address,____________________________________(I/send) you a postcard.
5. A: How was your holiday? Did you have a nice time?
B: It was OK, but___________________________(we/enjoy) it more if___________________________(the
weather/be) better.
6. I took a taxi to the hotel but the traffic was very bad___________________________(it/be) quicker
if___________________________(I/walk).
7. I’m not tired. If___________________________(I/be) tired, I’d go home now.
8. I wasn’t tired last night. If___________________________l/be) tired, I would have gone home earlier.
1 I wasn’t hungry, so I didn’t eat anything. If I’d been hungry, If I would have eaten something.
2. The accident happened because the driver in front stopped so suddenly. If the driver in front_________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. I didn’t know that George had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him up. If I________________________
4. I was able to buy the car only because Jim lent me the money.
___________________________________________________________________________________
5. Margaret wasn’t injured in the crash because she was wearing a seat belt.
___________________________________________________________________________________
6. You didn’t have any breakfast - that’s why you’re hungry now.
___________________________________________________________________________________
7. I didn’t get a taxi because I didn’t have any money on me.
___________________________________________________________________________________
V. Imagine that you are in these situations. For each situation, write a sentence with I wish.....
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DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : REPORTED SPEECH
11. The old woman asked me, “ Do you live in that house ?”
12. Hari said to Shanker, “ Will you go to see the zoo today ?”
14. Father said to his son, “Have you brought sweets from the market ?”
15. “Can you sing a song for me,” “the fox asked the crow?
18. The teacher said, “What a pity ! She has not learnt good manners.”
19. “Will you not wash your hands” asked the master of the house.
22. “Sit down and learn your lesson, boys, “ said the teacher.
23. The old man said, “Good Heavens ! The hut has caught fire.”
24. The doctor said to the patient, “Do not take butter while you are under my treatment.”’
25. Mohan said to me, “Do not drive fast, as the road is very busy.”
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DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : CLAUSES
(d) The man__________I was talking to last week gave me another version of the events.
2. There is an error in following sentences. Find the error and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(c) The person which I wanted to see was not available until Monday.
(e) Mr Smith is going to Moscow where his daughter has been living for some time now.
3. Complete the following dialogue. There may be more than one possible answer.
(a) I was talking to a woman. Her husband was killed in the war.
(b) The man got on the bus. He was carrying a cat in a box.
(c) Somebody called while you were out. I can’t remember his name.
(d) I work mainly in the Marketing Department. It is the smallest department in the company.
(e) My boss decided to employ me as his assistant. His work takes him all over the worl .
5. Complete the following dialogue. There may be more than one possible answer.
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6. Join the following sentences paying particular attention to word order.
(a) The shoes are too big. My grandma bought them for me.
(e) The photographer could not develop the pictures. I had taken them in Australia.
(j) You are sitting on a bench. The paint on the bench is still wet.
DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMAMR BASED ON REPORTED SPEECH & CLAUSES
1. There is an error in follwing sentences, Find the error and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Mr Carlisle, whom I spoke last night, is very interested in our new project.
(c) Suzanna has many friends, most of which she went to school with.
(e) Melanie, that has just bought a house near Gatwick, is getting married.
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Direction : Read the followiing dialogue and then complete the report that follows.
3. Mansi Do you know who will be presiding over our annual function ?
Mansi Are you talking about the Indian poet, Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’ ?
The curiosity about the chief guest was uncertain amont the students on the annual day function. Mansi
asked Priya if she knew (a)__________over their annual day function. Priya replied that (b)__________an
eminent poet had been invited. Mansi enquired (c)__________about the Indian poet, Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’.
Priya replied in the affirmative and said that he had composed a numbe of patriotic songs.
Ankit asked Atula wehre (a)__________ Atul replied (b)__________airport. Ankit further asked him
(c)__________there in his car. Atul thanked him, adding that it would be a great help to him.
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DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
1. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be :
(A) Terminating (B) Ton-terminating non-repeating
(C) Non-terminating repeating (D) None of these
p
2. 1.54 , when expressed in the form of , gives :
q
154 155 153 153
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99 90 90 99
0.16 0.09
3. The value of (256) × (256) is :
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 256.25
5+ 7
4. After rationalizing the denominator of : we get :
7+ 3
7 + 35 - 21 - 15 7 + 21 + 35 - 15
(A) (B)
4 4
7 + 35 + 21 + 15 7 - 35 - 21 - 5
(C) (D)
4 4
x y 2 y x z
5. If m = a , n = a and a = (m .n ) then xyz is
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2
3 +1 3 -1 2 2
7. If a = and b = then the value of a + ab + b is
3 -1 3 +1
(A) 15 (B) –15 (C) 16 (D) –16
1 1
8. Two rational numbers between and are
8 2
3 5 1 3 1 3 1 5
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
8 8 4 8 4 4 6 6
9. Sum of 4 63 + 5 7 - 8 28 is
(A) 28 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 21
5- 3
10. Simplified form of is
80 + 48 - 45 - 27
(A) 4 + 15 (B) 4 - 15 (C) 15 - 4 (D) 15 + 2
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12. Simplify:
(i) (3 3 + 4 + 2 6 ) + (2 + 3 + 5 6 )
(ii) (6 2 + 3 5 ) – (3 2 - 5 5 )
(iii) (2 - 2 ) × (3 3 + 6 2 )
(iv) 6 2 ÷ 3 2
3
(v) 4 2 - 2 8 +
2
(vi) 48 - 72 - 12 + 2 18
1 1 1 1
(vii) + + + ........
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 8+ 9
2 2
13. Prove that 2a - 2b
+ =2
1+ x 1 + x 2 b - 2a
9 n ´ 32 ´ (3- n / 2 ) -2 - ( 27) n 1
14. If 3m 3
= , prove that m – n = 1.
3 ´2 27
1
15. (i) If x = 2 + 3 , find the value of x +
x
1
(ii) If a = 7 + 40 , find the value of a+
a
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
1 1 1 1
2. Evaluate: + + + :
2+ 5 5+ 6 6+ 7 7+ 8
(A) – 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 2 2 - 2 (D) None of these
5+ 5
3. The number is :
5- 5
(A) a whole number (B) a rational number
(C) an irrational number (D) none of these
4. An irrational number between 0.3101 and 0.333 ... is :
(A) 0.32010010001..... (B) 0.1010010001...
(C) 0.34 (D) 0.3
5. When 15 15 is divided by 3 3 , then the quotient is :
(A) 5 3 (B) 3 5 (C) 5 5 (D) 3 3
6. Which of the following are rational numbers ?
(A) 25 (B) 721 (C) 343 (D) All of these
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8. 5+ 8 + 3– 2 – 2 – 6 when simplified is :
(A) positive and irrational (B) negative and irrational
(C) positive and rational (D) negative and rational
p
12. Express each of the following in the form .
q
(i) 8.0025 (ii) -25.6875 (iii) 0.6 (iv) 1.27 (v) 15.712
p q –r 2 2 1
13. If 3 = 5 = 225 , then show that + + =0
p q r
x y z xy
14. If 3 = 4 = 12 then prove that (x + y)z = xy or z =
x+y
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : POLYNOMIAL
1. Which of the following expressions is a polynomial?
x -1
(A) x -1 (B)
x +1
2 2x 3 / 2
(C) x 2 - +5 (D) x 2 + +6
x2 x
2. 3 is a polynomial of degree
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
2
2
3. If (x +kx–3) = (x – 3)(x +1), then k = ?
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 3 (D) –1
3 2
5. If x + 2 divides 2x – 5x + 4x + p without remainder, p is -
(A) 44 (B) –44 (C) 33 (D) 22
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3 2 2
6. If 2x + 3x + px +q is divisible by x – x – 6 then p + q is -
(A) 47 (B) –47 (C) 13 (D) –13
3 2
7. If mx – 16x – x + 4 is divided by x – 4 without remainder then m is -
(A) – 4 (B) –3 (C) 4 (D) + 3
2
8. One of the zeroes of the polynomial 2x + 7x – 4 is :
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/2 (D) – 2
10. If p(x) = q(x) × g(x) + r(x), r(x) ≠ 0, where p(x), q(x), g(x), and r(x) are polynomials (where g(x) is divisor),
then :
(A) degree of r(x) = degree of g(x) (B) degree of r(x) > degree of g(x)
(C) degree of r(x) < degree of g(x) (D) degree of r(x) = 0
11. Write (i) a binomial of degree 100 (ii) a monomial of degree 23.
15. If (x3 + ax2 + bx + 6) has (x – 2) as a factor and leaves a remainder 3 when divided by (x – 3), find the
values of a and b.
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1 1
1. If x2 + 2
= 18 then the most suitable value of x - is –
x x
(A) 4 (B) ± 4 (C) –4 (D) ± 2
3 3 3
2. If a + b = c then a + b – c is equal to -
(A) 3abc (B) –3abc (C) abc (D) –abc
æ x2 y2 z 2 ö
3. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of çç + + ÷÷ is
è yz xz xy ø
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) –1
2 2
4. The factors of (x – 1 – 2a – a ) are -
(A) (x + a + 1) (x – a – 1) (B) (x – a – 1) (x – a + 1)
(C) (x + a – 1)(x – a + 1) (D) None of these
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3 b3
5. Factorize the following : 125a +
27
æ bö æ 2 5ab b 2 ö æ b öæ 2 5ab b 2 ö
(A) ç 5 a + ÷ ç 25a - + ÷÷ (B) ç 5 a - ÷ ç 25a + + ÷÷
è 3 ø çè 3 9 ø è 3 øçè 3 9ø
æ b 2 öæ 5ab b 2 ö
(C) çç 25a 2 + ÷÷çç 25a 2 - + ÷÷ (D) None of these
è 9 øè 3 9 ø
1 1 1
7. If x 2 + y 2 - z 2 = 0 then the value of (x + y – z)2 is :
(A) 2xy (B) 2yz (C) 4xz (D) 4xy
æ 1ö 1 æ 2 4 ö
8. If ç a - ÷ = , then ç 4a + 2 ÷ is equal to
è aø 2 è a ø
(A) 9 (B) – 9 (C) – 10 (D) 10
( x – y) 3 + ( y – z ) 3 + ( z – x) 3
9. The value of is :
( x 2 – y 2 )3 + ( y 2 – z 2 )3 + ( z 2 – x 2 )3
1
(A) (x – y) (y – z) (z – x) (B)
( x – y )( y – z )( z – x )
1
(C) (D) (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)
( x + y )( y + z )( z + x)
11. Factorise :
3 3 4 2 2 2
(i) 27 a b – 45a b (ii) 9x – 16y
(iii) x3 – x (iv) y2 – 4y + 3
(v) 6 – x – x2 (vi) 4x4 + 7x2 – 2
3 3 3
(vii) (p – q) + (q – r) + (r – p)
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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
5. Signs of the abscissa and ordinates of a point in the third quadrant are respectively :
(A) +, + (B) –, – (C) –, + (D) +, –
(A) (2, 0); (2, 2); (–2, 0) (B) (2, 0); (–2, 2); (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0); (0, 2); (–2, –2) (D) (2, 0); (2, 2); (0, 2)
9. If the perpendicular distance of a point P from the x-axis is 5 units and the foot of the perpendicular lies
on the negative direction of x-axis, then the point P has :
(A) x coordinate = – 5 (B) y coordinate = 5 only
(C) y coordinate = – 5 only (D) y coordinate = 5 or – 5
(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 2 sq. units (D) none of these
11. Draw the lines X'OX and YOY' as axes on the plane of a paper and plot the points given below:
(i) A(5, 3) (ii) B(–3, 2) (ii) C(–5, –4) (iv) D(2, –6)
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12. In which quadrants do the given points lie?
(i) (4, –2) (ii) (–3, 7) (iii) (–1, –2) (iv) (3, 6)
13. The three vertices of D ABC are A(1, 4), B(–2, 2) and C(3, 2). Plot these points on a graph paper and
calculate the area of D ABC.
DPP NO. 06
Topic : Linear Equation in two variables
3. If 2a – 3 = 5 and 3b + 1 = 2. Then 3b – 2a is -
(A) – 3 (B) –7 (C) 7 (D) – 9
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x –1 0 1 2
8.
y – 3 –1 1 3
11. Draw the graph of the lines 4x – y = 5 and 5y – 4x = 7 on the same graph paper and find the
coordinates of their point of intersection.
12. The points (2,3) lies on the graph of the linear equation 3x – (a–1)y=2a –1. If the same point also lies
on the graph of the linear equation 5x + (1–2a)y=3b, then find the value of b.
13. Find the condition such that ordered pair (m, n) satisfies the equation ax + by + c = 0.
x
14. Express x in terms of y given that + 2y = 5. Check whether (3, 2) is a solution of the given equation.
3
15. A lending library has a fixed charge for the first three days and an addition charge for each day
thereafter. Sarika paid Rs. 27 for a book kept for seven days. While Susy paid Rs. 21 for the book the
kept for five days. Find the fixed charge and the charge for each extra day.
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES
1. In the figure, l is a transversal to the lines m and n, where m and n are parallel. If Ð1 = 60° then Ð2 is :
1 m
n
2
A O B
D
(A) 18° (B) 38°
(C) 20° (D) 19°
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3. In the given figure alongside , three coplanar lines intersect at a point 'O' forming angles as shown. The
value of (c + d) – (a + b) is :
5. In the given figure, ÐABP = ÐACQ, ÐBAC = 68°. The the value of ÐCBR =
T S
A
68°
P B C Q
R U
6. In the figure, if ÐPOR = (4y + 2)° ÐQOR = (5y –20)° , then ÐQOS =
(4y+2)° (5y–20)°
×
P O Q
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7. In the given figure AB || CD and BC || DE, then the value of x =
(A) x > z > y (B) x > y > z (C) x < y < z (D) z > x > y
9. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Then the angles are :
(A) 20°, 60°, 80° (B) 80°, 40°, 60° (C) 40°, 60°, 80° (D) 60°, 40°, 80°
10. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 2 : 7, then the angles are :
(A) 35° 145° (B) 70°, 110° (C) 40°, 140° (D) 50°, 130°
11. In the adjoining fig., OP bisects ÐAOC & OQ bisects Ð BOC and OP ^OQ. Show that the points A,O
and B are collinear.
12. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 11 : 7, then find the angles.
C x D
14. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal then prove that the bisectors of two alternate interior
angles are parallel.
C D
50º
A B
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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC: CONGRUENT TRIANGLES
6. In a ΔABC, if ÐA = 45° and ÐC = 60°, then the shortest side of the triangle is:
(A) AB (B) AC
(C) BC (D) none of these
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10. In the following figure, AD bisects ∠ A. Then the relation between the sides AB, BD and DC is :
(A) AB < DC < AC (B) BD < AB < DC (C) AB > DC > BD (D) DC < BD < AB
11. In DABC, the angle bisectors of ÐB and ÐC meet at O. If ÐA = 70°, find ÐBOC.
12. In the adjoining figure, AD is the median of DABC. If BL and CM are drawn perpendiculars on AD and
AD produced, prove that BL = CM.
14. The sides AB and AC of DABC have been produced to D and E respectively. The bisectors of ÐCBD
and ÐBCE meet at O. If ÐA = 40°, find ÐBOC.
15. In the given figure, AD divides ÐBAC in the ratio 1 : 3 and AD = DB. Determine the value of x.
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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : QUADRILATERALS
2. When the diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular to each other then it is called :
(A) square (B) rectangle
(C) rhombus (D) parallelogram
4. LMNO is a trapezium with LM || NO. If P and Q are the mid-points of LO and MN respectively and LM =
5 cm and ON = 10 cm, then PQ =
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) 7.5 cm (D) 15 cm
5. In the adjoining figure, AP and BP are angle bisectors of ÐA and ÐB which meets at P on the
parallelogram ABCD. Then 2ÐAPB =
7. The given figure , ABCD is a trapezium in which ÐA =(x + 25º), ÐB = yº, ÐC = 95º and ÐD = (2x + 5)º.
Then the value of x and y are –
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8. The angles A, B, C, D , in the parallelogram ABCD are –
(A) 90º, 90º, 90º, 90º (B) 90º, 45º, 30º, 15º (C) 30º, 60º, 20º, 40º (D) 90º, 45º, 15º, 20º
KP 4
9. In figure, PQ || MN. If = and KN = 20.4 cm, then KQ =
PM 13
NT 9
10. In the figure, if = and if MB = 10 cm, then MN will be -
AB 5
12. In DABC, AD is the median through A and E is the mid-point of AD. BE produced meets AC in F. Prove
1
that AF = AC.
3
13. In the parallelogram, the value of “x” is :
14. Let ABCD be a parallelogram, with AE^DC and CF^AD. Let AB = 15 cm, AE = 8 cm and CF = 10cm.
Then AD equals (in cm).
15. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus. If ÐOAB = 35º, then find the value of x
D C
35º x
A B
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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : AREAS OF PARALLELOGRAM & TRIANGLES
1. In DABC, AD is a median and P is a point on AD such that AP : PD = 1 : 2, then the area of DABP = ?
1 2
(A) × Area of DABC (B) × Area of DABC
2 3
1 1
(C) × Area of DABC (D) × Area of DABC
3 6
2. In DABC, if D is a point in BC and divides it in the ratio 3 : 5 i.e., if BD : DC = 3 : 5 then, ar(DADC) :
ar(DABC) = ?
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 5 : 8 (D) 8 : 3
3. If the point D divides the side BC of DABC in the ratio p : q, then the ar (DABD) : ar(DADC) are in the
ratio :
2 2 2 2
(A) q : p (B) p : q (C) q : p (D) p : q
1
4. ABCD is a parallelogram. DDEC is drawn such that BE = AE. Sum of the areas of DADE and DBEC
3
is :
1 1
(A) area of parallelogram ABCD (B) area of parallelogram ABCD
3 2
2 1
(C) area of DDEC (D) area of DDEC
3 2
5. ABCD is a parallelogram. Points P and Q, on BC trisects it in three equal parts. PR and QS are also
drawn parallel to AB, then ar(APQ) = ........... ar(ABCD).
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 6
2
6. In figure, if ar(DABC) = 32 cm then ar (AEDF) =
7. In the figure, D and E are the mid-point of the sides AC and BC respectively of DABC. If ar(DBED) = 12
cm2, then ar (DAEC) =
2 2
(A) 48 cm (B) 24 cm
2
(C) 36 cm (D) none of these
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8. In the below diagram, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB. What is the ratio of the areas of DCEF
and that of the rectangle ?
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
6 8 9
9. In parallelogram ABCD, AB = 12 cm. The altitudes corresponding to the sides AB and AD are
respectively
9 cm and 11 cm. Find AD.
10. In figure, E is any point on median AD of a DABC. Show that ar(DABE) = ar(DACE).
1
11. If the medians of a DABC intersect at G, show that ar(DAGB) = ar(DAGC) = ar(DBGC) = ar(DABC).
3
12. P and Q are any two points lying on the sides DC and AD respectively of a parallelogram ABCD.
Prove that : Ar (DAPB) = Ar (DBQC).
13. In the figure, PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms and X is any point on side BR. Prove that :
15. In DABC, D is the mid-point of AB. P is any point of BC. CQ || PD meets AB in Q. Show that
1
ar(DBPQ) = ar(DABC).
2
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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : CIRCLES
1. Two parallel chords of a circle whose radius is 13 cm are respectively 10 cm and 24 cm. If they lie on
the opposite side of the centre then the distance between them is
(A) 7 cm. (B) 10 cm. (C) 13 cm. (D) 17 cm.
2. Two parallel chords of a circle whose radius is 117 cm, are 12 cm and 18 cm. Both chords are on the
same side of the centre. Then distance between the chords is
O
117
A 9 cm M 9 cm B
C 6 cm N 6 cm D
3. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle with centre O. The angle subtended by each side at the centre
is :
(A) 30°. (B) 45°. (C) 60°. (D) 90°.
4. In figure, a square is inscribed in a circle of radius 8 2 cm. Then the length of the sides of square is :
C
D
O
8 2
B
A
(A) 16 cm. (B) 12 cm. (C) 10 cm. (D) 8 cm
5. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, AB and CD are two chords such that OL is
perpendicular to AB and OM is perpendicular to CD. ÐAOB = 50°, AL = DM = 2 cm. The measure of
ÐCOD is
A
D
2 cm O 2 cm
L
M
B
C
(A) 50°. (B) 70°. (C) 90°. (D) 130°
6. In the figure, ÐBCF = 80°, The value of ÐCBE is
B C
A 80º
95º
D
E F
(A) 130°. (B) 100°. (C) 95°. (D) 85°.
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7. In the given figure, AB = BC = CD, If ÐBAC = 25º, then value of ÐAED is :
C
D
B
25º
A
E
(A) 50º (B) 60º (C) 65º (D) 75º
8. If @ then :
O
A 2 1 4 D
3
B C
(A) Ð1 = Ð2 (B) Ð3 = Ð4
(C) Ð2 = Ð3 (D) None of these.
9. A, B and C are three points on the circle whose centre is O. If ÐBAC = x, ÐCBO = ÐBCO = y,
ÐBOC = t, reflex ÐBOC = z, then :
A
(A) x + y = 90° x
B y y C
(B) x – y = 90°
(C) t + 2y° = 90° O
z
(D) None of these
10. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ÐAOC = 90°, then ÐABC is
D
O
90º
A C
11. A chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle. Find the angle subtended by the chord at a point
on the minor arc and also at a point on the major arc.
12. Prove that the quadrilateral formed (if possible) by the internal angle bisectors of any quadrilateral is
cyclic.
13. Two equal chords intersect within the circle, prove that the line joining the point of intersection and the
centre makes equal angles with the chords.
14. In the figure given below AB and CD are chords and PQ is the diameter. If ÐAEQ = ÐDEQ, prove that
AB = CD.
A
L
C E Q
P O
M
B
D
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15. If two sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are parallel, prove that the remaining two sides are equal and the
diagonals are also equal.
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONSTRUCTION
1. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 6 cm, ∠B = 45° is not possible when difference of
AB and AC is equal to :
(A) 6.9 cm (B) 5.2 cm (C) 5.0 cm (D) 4.0 cm
2. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 3 cm, ∠C = 60° is possible when difference of AB
and AC is equal to :
(A) 3.2 cm (B) 3.1 cm (C)3 cm (D) 2.8 cm
3. The construction of a triangle ABC in which AB = 4 cm, ∠A = 60° is not possible when difference of BC
and AC is equal to :
(A) 3.5 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C)3 cm (D) 2.5 cm
4. Which of the following angles cannot be constructed with the help of a ruler and a compass ?
1 1 1 1
(A) 7 (B) 22 (C) 30 (D) 37
2 2 2 2
5. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is not possible to construct an angle of :
(A) 37.5° (B) 40° (C) 22.5° (D) 67.5°
6. With the help of ruler and compass, it is not possible to construct an angle of :
(A) 60° (B) 15° (C) 38° (D) 135°
8. Angle of 90° can be constructed with the help of compass in the combination of
(A) 30°, 60°. (B) 45°, 45°. (C) 70°, 20°. (D) 80°, 10°.
10. In the given figure, BC = 4.5 cm, ∠B= 45°, AB - AC = 2.5 cm, the correct figure is
12. Construct a ΔABC in which ∠B = 30° and ∠C = 90° and the perimeter of the triangle is 11 cm.
14. Construct a right angled triangle PQR right angled at Q where base QR is 4 cm and the sum of other side and
hypotenuse is 8 cm.
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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : HERON'S FORMULA
1. The edges of a triangular board are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. The cost of painting it at the rate of 9 paise
2
per cm is :
(A) Rs 2.00 (B) Rs 2.16 (C) Rs 2.48 (D) Rs 3.00
2. The base of a right triangle is 8 cm and hypotenuse is 10 cm. Its area will be :
2 2 2 2
(A) 24 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 48 cm (D) 80 cm
2
4. Area of an equilateral triangle is 9 3 cm in find its side -
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 3 (D) 2 3
5. The length of the side of a rhombus is 30 cm and one of its diagonals is 48 cm long. Area of the
rhombus is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 432 cm (B) 864 cm (C) 300 cm (D) 216 cm
6. The sides of a triangle are 35 cm, 54 cm and 61 cm, respectively. The length of its longest altitude is :
(A) 16 5 cm (B) 10 5 cm (C) 24 5 cm (D) 28 cm
7. The length of the sides of a triangle are 5x, 5x and 8x. The area of the triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 144 x sq. units (B) 100 x sq. units (C) 24x sq. units (D) 12 x sq. units
8. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle and DEC is an equilateral triangle. Area of ΔDEC is :
10. Each equal side of an isosceles triangle is 13 cm and its base is 24 cm. Area of the triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 50 3 cm (B) 40 3 cm (C) 25 3 cm (D) 60 cm
11. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD are AB = 34 cm, BC = 20 cm and diagonal AC = 42 cm.
Find the area of the parallelogram.
12. Perimeter of a rhombus is 146 cm and one diagonal is 55 cm, find the other diagonal and area of the
rhombus.
13. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 25 m and 20 m and two other sides are 13 m and 12 m, then find
the area of the trapezium.
14. Find the area of quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 9 cm, BC = 40 cm, CD = 28 cm, DA = 15 cm and
ÐABC = 90°.
15. The perimeter of a triangle is 50 cm. One side of the triangle is 4 cm longer than the smaller side and
the third side is 6 cm less than twice the smaller side. Find the area of the triangle.
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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME
1. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated by the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The
volume of the cone so formed is :
3 3 3 3
(A) 12p cm (B) 15p cm (C) 16p cm (D) 20p cm
2. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is –
(A) 75 cu. m (B) 750 cu. m (C) 7500 cu. m (D) 75000 cu. m
3. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the celling is equal to the
sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is –
(A) 720 (B) 900 (C) 1200 (D) 1800
4. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres
will be :
(A) 84 (B) 90 (C) 168 (D) 336
5. A hollow iron pipe is 12 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm
3
and iron weights 8 g/cm , then the weight of the pipe is :
(A) 2112 kg (B) 2.112 kg (C) 211.2 kg (D) 21.12 kg
6. A boat having a length 3m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man
3
gets on it. The mass of the man is (density of water is 1000kg/m )-
(A) 12 kg (B) 60 kg (C) 72 kg (D) 96 kg
7. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day if the average
3
displacement of water by a man is 4 m , then the rise in the water level in the tank will be :
(A) 20 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 50 cm
8. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface
2 2 2 2
(A) 30pm (B) 40p m (C) 60p m (D) 80p m
9. A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet
surface is :
(A) 49 m2 (B) 50 m2 (C) 53.5 m2 (D) 55 m 2
10. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its corners, a
square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box
(in m 3) is :
(A) 4830 (B) 5120 (C) 6420 (D) 8960
11. There are two cones, the surface area of one cone is twice the surface area of the other cone. The
slant height of the latter is twice that of the former. Find the ratio of their radii.
12. A cylindrical vessel without lid, has to be tin coated on both the sides. If the radius of the base is 70 cm
2
and its height is 1.4 m, calculate the cost of tin- coating at the rate of Rs. 3.50 per 1000 cm .
13. A cone of radius 5 cm is filled with water. If the water is poured in a cylinder of radius 10 cm, the height
of the water rises by 2 cm , find the height of the cone.
14. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm,
each bullet being 4 cm in diameter.
15. A dome of a building is in the form of hemisphere. From inside, it was white washed at the cost of
Rs.498.96. If the cost of whitewashing it, is Rs.2.00 per square meter, find the inside surface area of
the dome and the volume of air inside the dome.
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DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : STATISTICS
1. If the mean of 6, 4, 7, p, p+1 and 10 is 9, The value of p is
(A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 16.
3. The mean of 10 numbers is 30. If 3 is subtracted from every number, Then the new mean is
(A) 10. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) 27.
4. The median of the observations 11, 12, 13, 15, 17, x-1, x+1, x+2, x+4, 33 and 35 is 24. The value of x is
(A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27.
5. The mean of 10 observation is 25. If one observation namely 25 is deleted. The new mean is
(A) 20. (B) 22. (C) 25. (D) 26.
7. The average of A and B is 25; B and C is 28; C and A is 22. The average of A, B and C is
(A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26.
8. The given bar graph is showing the height of six mountain peaks.
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13. Draw of histogram for the following data
Class-Interval 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
Frequency 5 15 23 20 10 7
14. Draw a bar chart of the data representing pass percentage of students during the period 1998-2003
given below
Year 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
Pass percentage 80% 75% 90% 70% 95% 85%
15. For what value of x the mode of the following data is 15.
15, 16, 13, 17, 16, 15, x + 10, 14, 17, 16, 15
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : PROBABILITY
1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. The probability that the
ticket drawn has a number which is multiple of 3 or 5 -
1 2 8 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 15 20
2. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. A balls are drawn at random. The probability that none
of the balls drawn is blue -
10 11 2 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21 21 7 7
3. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. The probability that
it is neither red nor green -
1 3 7 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 19 21
5. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at most two heads -
3 1 3 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 8 8
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is
even ?
1 3 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 8 16
7. Two coins are tossed 200 times and the following out comes are recorded
HH HT TH TT
56 50 60 34
What is the probability of occurrence of at least one Head in the above case :
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.34 (C) 0.66 (D) 0.83
8. In a sample study of 642 people, it was found that 514 people have a high school certificate. If a person
is selected at random, the probability that the person has a high school certificate is :
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8
9. From a normal pack of cards, a card is drawn at random. The probability of getting a jack or a king is
2 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
52 52 13
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10. Two dice are thrown at a time. The probability that the difference of the numbers shown on the dice is 1
is
5 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
18 36 6
11. The table given below shows the marks obtained by 40 students of a class in a test with maximum marks
100.
A student of the class is selected at random. What is the probability that he gets 60 or more marks ?
12. A die is thrown 300 times and the outcomes are noted as given below:
Blood group A B AB O
No. of students 9 11 4 6
If a student of this class is chosen at random, what is the probability that the chosen student has blood
group
(i) O ? (ii) A ? (iii) AB ?
14. On one page of a directory, there are 160 telephone numbers. The frequency distribution of the unit
place digit is given as under :
From this page, one of the numbers is chosen at random. What is the probability that the unit place digit
in the chosen number is 6 ?
15. Two coins are tossed 1000 times and the outcomes are recorded as under:
Number of heads 2 1 0
Frequency 266 540 194
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SCIENCE
CLASS – IX (CBSE)
INDEX
PHYSICS – 01 - 22
CHEMISTRY – 23 - 36
BIOLOGY – 37 - 42
Dear Users,
This book is a part of Vibrant Academy series of books known for its
Though the material is kept at its best, however Vibrant Edge Division
welcomes suggestions and inputs from the readers to make it better in any
regard.
4. ABC is the shortest path length between the two points and ADC is the actual path length. Then which of the
two corresponds to displacement :
(A) ADC (B) ABC (C) Can’t say (D) None of these
10
Velocity
10
0 Time
(A) 4m/s (B) 5m/s (C) 3m/s (D) 6m/s
11. Distance and displacement are equal in some cases. Give reasons.
2. A body covered 30km in 10hr. The average speed for the whole journey would be :
(A) 3km/hr (B) 6km/hr (C) 2km/hr (D) None of these
3. A body travels equal distances in equal time intervals. Then motion is of following type :
(A) Uniform speed (B) Non-uniform speed
(C) Uniform velocity (D) Instantaneous speed
5m 5m
O F
A
5m 5m
D E
10m
A body moves from A to F along the path shown below in 10s.
8. A boy travels 50km with 5km/hr and then for next 4hr travels with a uniform speed of 20km/hr. What is the
average speed for the whole journey ?
(A) 62/7km/hr (B) 65/7km/hr (C) 60/7km/hr (D) 9km/hr
10. A body is moving in a circle with constant speed 10m/s. Circumference of the circle is 40m. Then the average
speed and average velocity 4s is :
(A) 10m/s and 10m/s (B) 10m/s and 0m/s (C) 10m/s and 5m/s (D) 0m/s and 0m/s
15. If a body travels 20m is 10s starting from rest then what is the acceleration of the particle?
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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : MOTION
1. A boy goes from one point to another with 40m/s and returns to the same point with a speed of 80m/s. Then
what would be the average velocity during the whole journey.
(A) 60m/s (B) Zero (C) 40m/s (D) 80m/s
2. What is the change in velocity when a body accelerates with 2m/s2 starting with an initial velocity of 5m/s for a
time of 10s.
(A) 20m/s (B) 25m/s (C) 15m/s (D) 30m/s
1 2
3. For the equation s = ut – at acceleration is in the :
2
(A) Opposite direction of velocity (B) Opposite direction of displacement
(C) Same direction of velocity (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. If a body covers a distance d with velocity v1 and another distance d with same velocity v2 ,then average
velocity for the whole journey would be equal to :
2v1v 2 v1v 2 v1 v 2 2(v1 v 2 )
(A) v v (B) v v (C) 2v v (D) v1v 2
1 2 1 2 1 2
5. If a body covers some distance with speed v1 for time t1 and some another distance with speed v2 for some
time t2. Then what would be the average velocity for the whole duration.
6. A body is covering equal distances in equal time intervals along a circle. Which quantities would remain
constant for his motion ?
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Displacement
10. What is the name given to change in velocity per unit time ?
(A) Average velocity (B) Acceleration
(C) Relative velocity (D) None of these
11. A car decelerates from 100m/s to 60m/s in time t and the distance covered is 200m. Find the time t.
12. A boy travels first 30s starting from rest with a uniform acceleration of 2m/s2 and then attains a uniform
velocity with which it travels for 30s more. Calculate the total displacement covered.
13. Can a body be at rest and motion at the same time ? Explain.
14. What is the acceleration required to change the velocity of an object from 20m/s to 40m/s across displacement
of 40m.
15. A boy starts from rest and starts moving with a uniform acceleration of 2m/s2. What is the displacement in
the first, second and third second of its motion ?
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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : MOTION
1. What would be the graph for a body moving with a velocity which is gradually (uniformly) increasing with
time?
(A) distance (B) distance (C) velocity (D) All are correct
a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D) Both (A) & (B) possible
b b b
a a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t t
displacement
displacement
t t t
5. The distance time graph shown below indicates motion with uniform speed for which part of the graph :
Distance D
B C
A time
(A) AB (B) BC (C) CD (D) Both BC and CD
6. Which of the following graph is possible ?
7. A body accelerates to a certain maximum velocity and then moves with negative acceleration for some time
such that the final velocity is opposite to initial velocity. Then graph for the above case would be :
v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D) v t
t t t
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8. If a body is travelling in a zig-zag path. Then which of the following quantities may be constant :
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Both (A) and (C)
10. The motion of a point on the rim of a wheel rotating about an axis fixed in a wall is :
(A) Circular (B) Linear (C) Linear and circular (D) Vibratory
11. The speed-time graph of a car is given below. The car weighs 1000 kg.
(a) What is the distance travelled by the car in the first two seconds ?
(b) What is the braking force applied at the end of 5 seconds to bring the car to stop within
1 second ?
B C
A t D
13. For the graph given below. Calculate.
(a) Displacement for the whole duration 10
Velocity
(b) Average velocity for the whole time (m/s)
(c) Average acceleration for the whole time 0 5 10 15
t
14. The displacement of a body increases with time gradually and then remains constant as shown below :
Displacement
0 2 10
time
15. (i) How can you get the speed of an object from its distance- time graph ?
(ii) When do we say that a body is at rest and when do we say that it is moving ? Explain.
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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
4. A number of forces acting on a body do not cause any change in its state of rest or of uniform motion, the
forces are
(A) Parallel (B) Unbalanced (C) Balanced (D) Inclined
5. Example of force is :
(A) Friction (B) Contact force (C) Weight (D) All of them
9. Friction is a/an :
(A) self adjusting force (B) necessary evil
(C) important force in daily life (D) all of these
10. Which of the following is responsible for the flow of water in rivers ?
(A) Magnetic force (B) Electrostatic force
(C) Force of friction (D) Gravitational force
12. How much force is required to keep a body moving with constant speed on a frictionless surface ?
14. Name the property of the bodies due to which they resist change in their velocity.
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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
3. When a net force acts on an object, the object will be accelerated in the direction of the force with an
acceleration proportional to :
(A) the force on the object (B) the velocity of the object
(C) the mass of the object (D) the inertia of the object
4. A body of mass 20 kg moves with an acceleration of 2ms-2. The rate of change of momentum in SI unit is:
(A) 40 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 1
6. A body of mass m strikes against wall with a speed v and rebounds with the same speed along opposite
direction. The change in magnitude of momentum is :
(A) Zero (B) mv (C) – mv (D) 2 mv
7. Force measures the rate of change of _______ of a body :
(A) Mass (B) Inertia (C) Velocity (D) Momentum
8. When a bus suddenly starts, the standing passengers lean backwards in the bus. This is an example of:
(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law
(C) Newton’s third law (D) None of these
9. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls behind him. The train
is moving :
(A) forward with uniform speed (B) backward with uniform speed
(C) forward with acceleration (D) forward with retardation
12. What is the name given to the product of mass and velocity ?
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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
5. A bullet in motion hits and gets embedded in a solid resting on a frictionless table. What is conserved :
(A) Momentum and K.E. (B) Momentum alone
(C) K.E. alone (D) None of these
7. For a jet plane flying with a very high speed, the forward motion of the plane could be accounted on the law
of conservation of :
(A) Force (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Momentum
8. Unit of impulse is :
(A) kg m/s2 (B) kg m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s2
9. A body of mass 20 kg is moving with a velocity of 4 m/s, what is the momentum with it?
(A) 100 kg m/s (B) 80 kg m/s (C) 40 kg m/s (D) 20 kg m/s
10. The change is momentum of a body is 50 kg m/s in time 4 s. What is the force acting on it ?
(A) 25 N (B) 50 N (C) 22.5 N (D) 12.5 N
11. What is momentum? What is its unit in S.I. and CGS system of units?
13. A body of mass 40 kg is accelerating at a rate of 9 m/s2. What is the rate of change of linear momentum?
14. The speed of a car (mass 2000 kg) increases from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. What is the change in momentum?
15. For hour much time should a force of 500 N act on a body of mass 10 kg so that it acquires a velocity of 50
m/s.
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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
2. China and glass wares are packed with soft material when transported. This is done to:
(A) Increase impulse (B) Reduce Impulsive force
(C) For cost cutting (D) None of these
6. A man walks on a rough surface in left direction. What is the direction of friction force acting on him?
(A) In left direction (B) In right direction
(C) In arbitrary direction (D) None of these
8. State whether the following pair of force could be on action-reaction pair or not ?
F2
F1
9. A book of weight 10 N is placed on a table. The force exerted by the surface of the table on the book will be :
(A) Zero (B) 10 N (C) 20 N (D) None of these
10. If A and B are two objects with masses 10 kg and 30 kg respectively then :
(A) A has more inertia than B (B) B has more inertia than A
(C) A and B have the same inertia (D) None of the two have inertia
11. Action and reaction are equal and opposite and act on different bodies. Explain.
12. When are jump on a heap of sand we didn’t get hurt but we get hurt when the floor is of concrete. Explain.
13. Wicket-keeper in a cricket match lowers his hand while catching a ball. Explain.
14. Give three practical examples of action and reaction. Explain each one of them.
15. Force of gravity attracts a body of mass m with a force W = mg. What is the force with which this object
attracts earth towards it. What is the direction of this force?
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DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. The earth attracts the sun with a gravitational force of 1022 N. Then the sun attracts the earth with a gravitational
force of :
(A) 10-20 N (B) 102 N (C) 1022 N (D) 1010 N
2. When the extra object is placed between two bodies, forces of gravitation between them :
(A) will increase (B) will decrease
(C) will change according to the environment (D) will not change
3. Force of attraction between two bodies depends upon :
(A) the gravitational constant (B) the distance between their centres
(C) the magnitude of their masses (D) all of these
11. What are S.I. and CGS units of universal gravitational constant?
12. What is the force of gravitation between two masses of 100 kg Each separated by a distance of 100 m?
–11
Nm2
(G = 6.67 × 10 )
kg2
13. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, if :
(a) The mass of one object is doubled?
(b) The distance between objects is doubled?
(c) The masses of both objects are doubled?
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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1 1
(A) Time of ascent = (time of descent) (B) Time of ascent = (time of descent)
4 2
(C) Time of ascent = time of descent (D) Time of ascent = 2 (time of descent)
2. The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ experienced by a ball when it is thrown upward is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) None of these
1 1
(A) 6 (B) 6 (C) (D)
6 6
7. The force acting on a ball due to earth has a magnitude Fb and that acting on the Earth due to the ball has
a magnitude Fe,then :
(A) Fb = Fe (B) Fb > Fe (C) Fb < Fe (D) Fe = 0
8. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 45 ms–1 then the time taken by the stone to rise
to its maximum height is :
(A) 2.5 s (B) 3.5 s (C) 4.5 s (D) 5.5 s
9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards and reaches to a maximum height of 20 m then the velocity with which the
ball was thrown upwards is :
(A) 20 m/s (B) 30 m/s (C) 40 m/s (D) 50 m/s
10. Which Kepler’s law led Newton to inverse square rule for gravitational force :
(A) Law of orbits (B) Law of areas
(C) Law of periods (D) None of these
12. The weight of a person on the earth is 80 N. What will be his weight on the moon ?
1
13. What will be the value of ‘g’ on the surface of the moon if its radius were th the radius of earth and its
4
1 th
mass is the mass of earth?
80
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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar ?
(A) At poles (B) At equator (C) At 45° latitude (D) At 40° latitude
2. A particle is taken to a height R above the earth surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The acceleration
due to gravity there is :
(A) 2.45 m/s2 (B) 4.9 m/s2 (C) 4.8 m/s2 (D) 19.6 m/s2
4. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit around the sun. The kinetic energy of the planet will be maximum
when the planet is at :
P4
(A) P1
(B) P2 P1 s P3
(C) P3
(D) P4 P2
9. A spring balance is graduated on sea-level. If a body is weighed with this balance at consecutively increasing
heights from earth’s surface, the weight indicated by the balance :
(A) Will go on decreasing continuously (B) Will go on increasing continuously
(C) Will remain same (D) Will first increase and then decrease
10. Which of the following graph represent the variation of g as we move from centre of earth to its surface?
r r r r
11. What are the two reasons for variation of ‘g’ with latitude ?
12. Explain the term weight lessness.
13. Explain, why a person can jump higher on the surface of moon than on the earth.
14. Moon has no atmosphere. Explain why ?
15. If weight of a body is W on the earth’s surface, then what will be the weight of the same body on the moon’s
surface ?
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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : FLUID
4. Thrust is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Tangential force (D) None of these
5. Pressure is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Normal force (D) None of these
13. You are provided with a hollow iron ball of volume 20 cc and mass 15g and a solid iron ball of same volume
and mass of 30g. Both are placed on the surface of water contained in a large tub. Which will float ?
14. Explain why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water.
15. A ship made of iron and steel does not sink in sea, but the same amount of iron and steel in form of a solid
sphere would sink. Why?
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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : FLUID
2. When a body is weighed in a liquid the loss in its weight is equal to?
(A) Weights of liquid displaced by the body (B) The difference in weights of body in air and liquid
(C) The upthrust of liquid on the body (D) All of these
3. The balloon stops rising up beyond a particular height when the density of gas inside the balloon :
(A) Exceeds the density of air outside (B) Equals the density of air
(C) becomes less than the density of air (D) None of these
4. A block metal weight 5 N in air and 2 N when immersed in a liquid. The buoyant force is :
(A) 3 N (B) 5 N (C) 7 N (D) Zero
5. The apparent weight of wood floating on water if its weights 100 g in air is :
(A) 400 g (B) 300 g (C) 100 g (D) Zero
6. Two pieces of metal when completely immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then :
(A) Both pieces must have equal weights (B) Both pieces must have equal densities
(C) Both pieces must have equal volumes (D) Both are floating to the same depth
7. A solid iron sphere of radius 1 m and solid iron cube of edge length 1 m are immersed in a liquid. Which of
them will experience greater upthrust :
(A) Cube (B) Sphere
(C) Both will experience equal upthrust (D) None of these
13. Imagine a body that is completely submerged in water, but whose depth of submergence can be varied. In
which case does it experience a larger upthrust, when it is submerged deep or shallow explain.
14. An object is immersed in different liquids. Does same buoyant force acts on the object due to all the liquids?
Explain.
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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FLUID
1. If a sample of metal weights 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in a liquid :
(A) R.D. of metal is 3 (B) R.D. of metal is 7
(C) R.D. of liquid is 7 (D) R.D. of liquid (1/3)
2. Equal volumes of alcohol (R.D. = 0.74) and water are mixed. The volume of the mixture is 0.96 of its original
volume. The R.D. of mixture is :
(A) 0.74 (B) 0.90 (C) 1.64 (D) 6.66
4. The density of wooden block that floats in water with 0.1 of its volume above water is :
(A) 0.1 g/cm3 (B) 0.9 g/cm3 (C) 1 g/cm3 (D) 9 g/cm3
5. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gwt. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing
70 gwt and having a volume of 10 cm3 is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker
containing water and the metal would be :
(A) 170 gwt (B) 160 gwt (C) 100 gwt (D) 30 gwt
6. A cylinder of wood floats vertically in water with one-fourth of its length out of water. The density of wood is :
(A) 0.25 g/cm3 (B) 0.5 g/cm3 (C) 0.75 g/cm3 (D) 1 g/cm3
7. Two solids X and Y float in water. X floats with half of its volume submerged while Y floats with one-third of its
volume out of water. The densities of X and Y are in the ratio of :
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 3
10. A piece of iron has dimensions 3cm × 1.5 cm ×6cm. If its mass is 205.2 gms, its density is -
(A) 5.6 gm cm–3 (B) 8.4 gm cm–3 (C) 7.6 gm cm–3 (D) 76 gm cm–3
11. The pressure of 2.5 Pa is applied on a surface of area 10 cm2. Find the force on the surface.
12. An empty chamber of petrol of volume 50 litre has a mass 8 kg. It is filled with petrol of relative density 0.7.
What is the mass of the petrol filled chamber ?
13. If a toy boat in a tank sinks, what will happen to the level of water ?
14. A solid of density 'D' is floating in a liquid of density 'd'. If 'v' is the volume of solid submerged in the liquid and
v
V is the total volume of the solid, What is the value of ?
V
15. Define atmospheric pressure. How does it vary with altitude.
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DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. A stone is tied to a string and then whirled in a circle. The work done on it by the string is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Undefined
3. A coolie with a suitcase on his head is climbing up on a ladder with uniform speed. The work done by the
coolie on the suitcase is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Undefined
8. When a player hits a football, it moves along the curved path and then falls to the ground. What is the work
done by the force of gravity on the football?
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Undefined
11. Define work and give its S.I. and c.g.s unit.
13. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
15. If the mass of the body is changed to ‘n’ times, then what should be the change in velocity such that its K.E.
remains same?
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DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
2. A man is climbing a staircase. The energy he uses does not depends upon :
(A) The height of the staircase (B) The weight of his body
(C) The time taken to reach the top (D) The mass his body
8. The balls of different masses have the same K.E. Then the :
(A) Heavier ball have greater momentum than the lighter ball
(B) Lighter ball has greater momentum than the heavier ball
(C) Both balls have equal momentum
(D) Both balls have zero momentum
11. The KE of a body is increased by 300%, find the percent increase in momentum.
12. Two bodies of masses ‘m’ and ‘2m’ thrown with a velocity of ‘v’ and ‘3v’ from the surface. What is the ratio of
potential energies at the highest point?
13. When the mass of a body is increased by 100% and velocity of the body is decreased by 50%. What is the
percentage change in its kinetic energy.
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DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. Horse power is the unit of :
(A) Work (B) Power (C) Energy (D) Force
2. If Rahul has done the same amount of work in less time compared to Rohan then :
(A) Rahul has more power (B) Rohan has more power
(C) Both Rahul and Rohan have equal power (D) Rahul has more energy than Rohan
5. If the total work done on an object by a force is zero along a closed path then the force is :
(A) Conservative force (B) Non-conservative force
(C) Zero (D) Negative force
8. A body of mass 0.1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m at a place where g = 10 ms–2. Its K.E. just before it
strikes the ground is :
(A) 1 J (B) 1.04 J (C) 3.5 J (D) 10 J
9. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped from a point where it posses an energy of 100 J. Then the K.E. when it
reaches ground would be :
(A) 1000 J (B) 100 J (C) 10 J (D) None of these
10. An object of mass ‘m’ is moving with a constant velocity v. How much work should be done on the object in
order to bring the object to rest : 1
(A) mv (B) mgv (C) mv2 (D) mv2
2
11. Calculate the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 30 km/h to 60 km/h, if the mass of the car is
1500 kg.
12. A lorry and a car moving with the same K.E. are brought to rest by application of brakes which provide equal
retarding forces which one of them will come to rest in a shorter distance. Explain.
13. m=1kg
50N 100N
If initial velocity of a block is zero, prove work energy theorem in a time interval of 5 second.
14. Define power. Give its S.I. unit and commercial unit.
15. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with a velocity V, the what will be power ?
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DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. Kilowatt-hour is :
(A) Commercial unit of electric energy (B) Board of trade unit
(C) Equivalent to kilovolt ampere-hour (D) All of these
4. 1 hp is equal to :
(A) 0.746 KW (B) 7.46 KW (C) 74.6 KW (D) 746 KW
11. A pump store 200 kg water in a tank located at height 10 metre in 5 minutes. What is the work done by
pump, in Joule ?
12. A car weighing 1000 kg and travelling at 30 m/s stops at a distance of 50 m decelerating uniformly. What is
the force exerted by the brakes ? What is the work done by the brakes ?
13. A body is pushed along a road with a force of 500 N through a distance of 90m in 1 minute . Calculate the
power used.
14. 20 Joules work is done in displacing a body by 4 metre in the direction of the force. What is the value of the
force applied in newton ?
15. A work of 4900 J is done on a load of mass 50 kg to lift it to a certain height. Calculate the height through
which the load is lifted ?
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DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : SOUND
2. The density of medium through which longitudinal wave propagates is minimum in a region which is called a:
(A) Crest (B) Compression (C) Trough (D) Rarefaction
5. In a slinky :
(A) Both transverse pulse as well as longitudinal pulse can be generated :
(B) Both types of pulse cannot be generated
(C) Only a transverse pulse can be generated
(D) Only a longitudinal pulse can be generated
12. Explain why, transverse mechanical waves cannot be propagated in liquids and gases.
14. Why flash of lighting from clouds is seen much earlier than the sound of thunder, although both occur
simultaneously ?
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DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : SOUND
1. Which of the following properties of wave, the one that is independent of the others is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency
2. When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Frequency (D) Wavelength
4. The speed of sound in a certain medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves pass over a certain point in 1 minute, the
wavelength is :
(A) 2 m (B) 4 m (C) 8 m (D) 16 m
5. The speed of sound waves having a frequency of 256 Hz compared with the speed of sound waves having a
frequency of 512 Hz in the same medium is :
(A) Half (B) Same (C) Twice (D) Four times
6. Sound takes sometime to travel from one place to another. It will be maximum :
(A) At night (B) During winter (C) During summer (D) Nothing can be said
10. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a
dark room?
(A) Pitch (B) Amplitude (C) Timbre (D) Wavelength
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DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : SOUND
3. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute :
(A) 100 (B) 1000 (C) 600 (D) 6000
6. The persistence of sound in a closed enclosure, due to continuous reflection at the walls, even after the
source has stopped producing sound is known as :
(A) The persistence of hearing (B) An echo
(C) A reverberation (D) The water sounds
7. In the inner ear the fluid which converts pressure variations into electrical signals is inside :
(A) Hammer (B) Anvil (C) Stirrup (D) Cochlea
9. The minimum distance between the source of round and the obstacle for on echo to take place is :
(A) 17.2 m (B) 172 m (C) 17 cm (D) 34.4 m
10. If ultrasonic, infrasonic and audio waves travel through a medium with speed v1, v2 and v3 respectively then:
(A) v1 = v2 = v3 (B) v1 > v3 > v2 (C) v1 < v3 < v2 (D) v3 v1 and v1 v3
15. Velocity of sound at a particular place is 400 m/s, then calculate the minimum distance between the source
of sound and the obstacle for an echo to take place.
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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited CLASS – IX (CBSE)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET
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LIST OF RADICALS
VALENCY OF IONS :
The valency of an ion is same as the charge present on the ion.
If an ion has 1 unit of positive charge, its valency is +1 and it is known as a monovalent cation. If an ion has
2 units of negative charge, its valency is –2 and it is known as a divalent anion.
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MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : PHYSICAL PROPERTIES AND STATES OF MATTER
5. Which of the following statement goes well with the liquid state ?
(A) particles are loosely packed in the liquid state.
(B) fluidity is maximum in the liquid state.
(C) liquids can be compressed easily.
(D) liquids take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.
2. The boiling point of alcohol is 78°C. What will be the value of this temperature in Kelvin scale ?
(A) 373 K (B) 351 K
(C) 341 K (D) 78 K
4. The temperature at which a liquid starts converting into solid without any rise in temperature is called -
(A) melting point (B) boiling point
(C) freezing point (D) none of these
7. In which of the following cities would there be maximum water vapor in the air on a sunny day in
December ?
(A) Srinagar (B) Delhi (C) Bhopal (D) Kochi
9. ……...............of a substance remains constant when it changes from one state to another at it's melting
or boiling point.
(A) Volume (B) Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Density
10. What characteristics of substances enable us to determine that a given sample is pure or not ?
(A) Boiling point (B) Melting point (C) Both A & B (D) None of these
11. How does sweating or perspiration helps in keeping our body cool on a hot day.
12. Explain why ice at 0ºC is more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature.
14. An inflated air balloon deflates when pricked with a pin. Which property of the gaseous state is shown
by this activity?
15. Kelvin scale of temperature is regarded as better than the Celsius scale by scientists. Can you give any
reason for the same?
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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : EVAPORATION AND FACTORS AFFECTING IT
7. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
(A) diffusion (B) liquefaction (C) osmosis (D) evaporation
9. Look at the following figures and suggest in which vessel rate of evaporation will be highest ?
Moving fan
13. We sweat more on a humid day. Support the statement with reason.
15. Doctors advice to put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high fever. Why ?
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IS MATTER AROUND US PURE ?
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MIXTURES
2. Two substances, A and B were made is react to form a third substance, A2B according to following
reaction
2A + B A2B
Which of the following statements concerning this reaction are incorrect ?
(i) The product A2B shows the properties of substances A and B.
(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition.
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a compound.
(iv) The product so formed is an element.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) i, iii and iv (D) i, ii and iv
3. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P which contains both X and Y. X
and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical reactions. Which of the
following concerning the species X, Y and P are correct ?
(i) P is a compound (ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X and Y are elements (iv) P has a fixed composition
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, ii and iv (C) ii, iii and iv (D) i, iii and iv
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DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : TYPES OF MIXTURES, CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS
4. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 g of 5 % solution of glucose by mass will be -
(A) 10 g (B) 12.5 g (C) 25 g (D) 5 g
7. Brass is a
(A) compound (B) element
(C) homogeneous mixture (D) heterogeneous mixture
10. Which of the following statement is not true about true solution ?
(A) It can pass through filter paper.
(B) It is homogeneous in nature.
(C) At constant temperature, particles of solute settle down.
(D) Solute can easily be recovered by evaporation or crystallization from a true solution.
13. How can you say that brass is a mixture not a compound.
15. To make saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K, then
calculate the concentration (by mass) at this temperature ?
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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
4. Amalgam is a solution of -
(A) solid in solid (B) solid in liquid (C) liquid in solid (D) liquid in liquid
8. How many grams of hydrochloric acid are formed when 2 grams of hydrogen combine with excess of
chlorine ?
(A) 35.5 gm (B) 36.5 cm (C) 73 gm (D) 37.7 gm
10. Which of the following obey the law of constant proportion in their formation ?
(A) mixtures (B) compounds (C) elements (D) colloids
12. A solution contains 110 g of sugar in 500 g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by
mass percentage of the solution.
13. The solubility of NaCl is 35. Calculate the max amount of NaCl that can be dissolved in 400g of H2O.
15. (a) Define the terms solute, solvent and solution. When is a solution said to be saturated ?
(b) State two ways by which a saturated sugar solution can be made unsaturated.
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DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : SEPARATION TECHNIQUES
1. Which of the following methods is used for obtaining pure solid from its impure form ?
(A) sublimation (B) crystallization
(C) diffusion (D) both A and B
3. In which of the following can filtration separate the components of the mixture ?
(A) starch and water (B) alum and water
(C) sand and water (D) both A and C
5. What will be the sublimate obtained when a mixture of sand, sulphur, common salt and iodine is kept in
open air ?
(A) sand (B) iodine (C) sulphur (D) common salt
7. The process of obtaining pure crystals of copper sulphate from aqueous solution of copper sulphate
solution is known as
(A) crystallization (B) galvanization (C) rusting (D) None of these
13. Two miscible liquids A and B are present in a solution. The boiling point of A is 60ºC while that of B is
90ºC. Suggest a method of separate them.
14. Name the technique that you will apply for the separation of different pigments from an extract of flower
petals.
15. The boiling points of argon, nitrogen and oxygen are – 180ºC, – 196ºC and – 183ºC respectively. Which
of these gases will distill first from their mixture in air ? Justify your answer.
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DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called
(A) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change.
(B) dissolution and it is a physical change.
(C) corrosion and it is a chemical change.
(D) dissolution and it is a chemical change.
2. Which of the following are chemical changes ?
(i) decaying of wood. (ii) burning of wood.
(iii) sawing of wood. (iv)hammering of a nail into a piece of wood.
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii (C) iii and iv (D) i and iv
3. Which of the following are physical changes ?
(i) melting of iron metal. (ii) rusting of iron.
(iii) bending of an iron and (iv) drawing a wire of iron metal.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, ii and iv (C) i, iii and iv (D) ii, iii and iv
4. Which of the following is a chemical changes ?
(A) Twinkling of stars (B) Cooking of vegetables (C) Cutting of fruits (D) Boiling of water
5. Which of the following is not a chemical change ?
(A) Rusting of iron (B) Cooking of food (C) Freezing of water (D) Sugar solution
6. Which of the following is a chemical change ?
(A) souring of milk (B) stretching of rubber (C) melting of wax (D) magnetization of iron
7. Identify a physical change among the following
(A) respiration (B) digestion of food (C) burning of wax (D) glowing of an electric bulb
8. What is observed when iron nails are added to copper sulphate solution ?
(A) The solution becomes pale green and reddish brown deposit is seen on the nails.
(B) The solution becomes colorless.
(C) There is no reaction.
(D) The solution becomes pale green and no change is observed in the iron nails.
9. What is the color of precipitate when sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride ?
(A) Brown (B) Black (C) Blue (D) White
10. The gas evolved during reaction of zinc with dilute H2SO4 acid is
(A) a supporter of combustion (B) a potential fuel
(C) non-combustible (D) soluble in water
11. Write any two differences between physical and chemical change.
12. Burning of coal is physical change or chemical change. Comment.
13. Identify physical and chemical changes from the following :
Rusting of iron, cooking of food, freezing of water, burning of candle, melting of wax, glowing of a bulb.
14. On heating calcium carbonate gets converted to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
(a) Is this a physical or a chemical change.
(b) Can you prepare one acidic and one basic solution by using the products formed in the above
process ? If so, write the chemical equation involved.
15. Classify each of the following as a physical or chemical change. Give reasons -
(a) Drying of a shirt in the sun. (b) Rising of hot air over a radiator.
(c) Burning of kerosene in a lantern. (d) Change in the color of black tea on adding juice to it.
(e) Churning of milk cream to get butter.
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ATOMS AND MOLECULES
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : DALTON'S THEORY, LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION, SYMBOLS AND ATOMIC MASS
1. The atomic theory of matter was proposed by
7. A particle has 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 10 electrons. The particle is most likely to be
8. A particle has 8 protons, 8 neutrons and 10 electrons, the particle is most likely to be
13. Every molecule of ammonia always has formula NH3 irrespective of method of preparation or sources
i.e. 1 mole of ammonia always contains 1 mol. of N and 3 mole H. In others words 17 g of NH3 always
contains 14 g of N and 3 g of H. Now find out % of each element in the compound.
14. 1.80 g of a certain metal burnt in oxygen gave 3.0 g of its oxide; 1.50 g of the same metal heated in
steam gave 2.50 g of its oxide. Show that these results illustrate the law of constant proportion.
15. The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y atom,
how many atoms are present in 2x g of B ?
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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : Mole Concept
3. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is
(A) 11% (B) 1.10% (C) 0.110% (D) 110%
Total no.
Molecular Mass of No. of No. of
S.No. Substance of
Mass Substance moles atoms
molecules
1 PH3 17 g
2 HCl 3 mole
23
3 CH4 1.5 × 10
4 H2S 68 g
13. From 160 g of SO2(g) sample, 1.2046 × 1022 molecules of SO2 are removed then find out the volume of
left over SO2(g) at STP.
14. 14 g of nitrogen gas and 22 g of CO2 gas are mixed together. Find the volume of gaseous mixture at
STP.
15. Show that in the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH (g), mass is conserved.
3
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STRUCTURE OF ATOM
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY
1. Canal rays were named positive rays by -
(A) Dalton (B) Goldstein (C) Thomson (D) Chadwick
2. Dalton’s atomic theory is based on -
(A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite proportion
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
3. The name atom belongs to which language ?
(A) Latin (B) English (C) French (D) Greek
4. What happens when an electron jumps from a higher orbit to a lower orbit ?
(A) Energy is released (B) Energy is absorbed (C) A & B both (D) None of these
5. Cathode rays are deflected towards
(A) positive electrode (B) negative electrode (C) both electrodes (D) none of the electrodes
6. The nucleus of the atom consists of -
(A) Proton and neutron (B) Proton and electron
(C) Neutron and electron (D) Proton, neutron and electron
7. An electron is -
(A) alpha-ray particle (B) beta-rays particle (C) Hydrogen ion (D) Positron
8. Who discovered neutron ?
(A) James Chadwick (B) William Crooks (C) J.J. Thomson (D) Rutherford
9. Complete the following statements:
(i) The sum of number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is known as ------- of the atom.
(ii) Isotopes have same ………….number but different …………. number.
(iii) Isobars have same …………. number but different …………. number.
(iv) …………. contain same number of neutrons in their atoms.
(v) An atom of an element having 11 protons, 11 electrons and 12 neutrons, the atomic mass of the
atom would be ………….
10. The ratio of e/m for a cathode ray –
(A) varies with the gas in a discharge tube (B) is fixed
(C) varies with different electrodes (D) is maximum if hydrogen is taken
11. Write the isotopic symbols of the following nuclei
(i) Helium with one neutron.
(ii) Nitrogen with same number of protons and neutrons.
(iii) Argon with two more neutrons than protons.
(iv) An atom having 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons.
12. Match the following
Column I Column-II
(i) Cathode rays (a) Helium nuclei
(ii) Dumb-bell (b) Uncertainty principle
(iii) Alpha particles (c) Electromagnetic radiation
(iv) Moseley (d) p-orbital
(v) Heisenberg (e) Atomic number
(vi) X-rays (f) Electrons
13. What are isotopes? Give one example.
14. Four elements A, B, C and D are given
A shows the presence of 20 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
B shows the presence of 18 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
C shows the presence of 10 neutrons, 9 protons and 10 electrons.
D shows the presence of 4 neutrons, 3 protons and 2 electrons.
State which of the above is
(a) an anion (b) a cation (c) a pair of isotopes
Also write the formula of the compound formed between D and C.
15. Explain the reason for chemical reactivity of an atom with reference to its electronic configuration.
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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : ATOMIC MODELS AND ISO-TERMS
(A) 74
34 X
37 X
(B) 17 40 X
(C) 34 40 X
(D) 20
7. Among the following groups which represents the collection of isoelectronic species ?
(A) NO+ , C2–
2 , O2 , CO
–
(B) N2 , C2–
2 , CO, NO
10. Mass number of three elements A, B and C are 35, 37 and 39 respectively. The number of neutrons in
A, B and C are 18, 20 and 20 respectively. Which two elements will show similar chemical properties ?
(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and A (D) None of these
11. 10 B and 11B are two isotopes of boron. If average mass number of boron is 10.2, what is the
5 5
percentage of each isotope ?
12. (a) Name an element whose nucleus does not contain any neutron.
13. The relative mass of an element A is 16.2. There are two isotopes 16 18
8 A and 8 A of the element.
Calculate the percentage of these two isotopes present in the element.
14. What type of information is obtained about the atom by -particle scattering experiment?
15. Explain the drawbacks of Rutherford's model and how Neil Bohr improved upon his experiment.
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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited CLASS – IX (CBSE)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC: THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
1. Who coined the term ‘cell’ ?
(A) Robert Brown (B) Darwin (C) Robert Hooke (D) Lamarck
13. Which type of ribosomes are found in prokaryotic cell? What are its two sub units ?
14. When plant cell is placed under hypotonic & hypertonic solution respectively than what will happen with
plasma membrane in both condition ?
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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : TISSUE
(A) epithelial tissue (B) connective tissue (C) muscular tissue (D) nervous tissue
(A) Companion cells (B) RBCs (C) Vessels (D) Sieve tube cells
(A) tubulins (B) contractile proteins (C) carrier proteins (D) globulin
(A) cork cambium (B) procambium (C) secondary cortex (D) vascular cambium
15. What are the different type of parenchyma ? Write their special features.
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DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
1. Plant’s with hidden reproductive organs are included in
(A) gymnosperms (B) angiosperms (C) phanerogams (D) cryptogams
4. Which of the following kingdom includes many kinds of unicellular eukaryotic organism?
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia
12. Write the two characters of "Kingdom Monera" with two examples.
15. Make the chart of classification for plant kingdom into their divisions & for animal kingdom into their
phylum.
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DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : WHY DO WE FALL ILL
1. Haemophilia is a
(A) chronic disease (B) congenital disease (C) acute disease (D) deficiency disease
4. Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect
(A) gut (B) lungs (C) liver (D) lymph node
5. An animal that transmits a disease from infected person or its stools etc to other potential host is called
(A) primary host (B) secondary (C) parasite (D) vector
9. Rabies is caused by
(A) rabies virus (B) clostridium (C) giardia (D) HIV
11. Name the disease that occurs due to imbalance of insulin hormone.
12. Give symptoms, mode of transmission & control/preventive measures of one of the following diseases.
(i) Diarrhoea (ii) Hepatitis (iii) Malaria
4. One of the following processes is not a step involved in the soil formation
(A) physical weathering
(B) chemical & biological weathering
(C) sedimentation
(D) decomposition of organic matter followed by humification & minerialization
6. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will
(A) increase
(B) go on decreasing
(C) increase during day & decrease during night
(D) be unaffected
7. One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature
(A) molecular form of hydrogen (B) water
(C) wind (D) polythene bags
12. What is biomagnification ? Name two heavy metals which, when magnified, result in disease in human
beings.
13. Explain ozone layer, its depletion and effects of ozone depletion.
15. What do you understand by nitrogen fixation. Differentiate between nitrogen fixation of nitrification.
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DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES
1. Murrah, Surti and Mehsana are the indigenous breeds of
(A) cows (B) buffaloes (C) poultry (D) pigs
7. Manure is
(A) organic in nature (B) harmful for crops (C) inorganic in nature (D) artificially synthesized
9. Vermicompost includes
(A) insects (B) worms (C) earthworm (D) ants
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VIBRANT ACADEMY SOCIAL SCIENCE
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
DPP-1
TOPIC : INDIA-SIZE AND LOCATION
1. Indian Standard Time is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time ?
(A) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (B) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(C) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (D) None of these
2. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km ?
(A) Suez Canal (B) Pananma Canal
(C) Indira Ghandhi Canal (D) Buckingham Canal
3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north ?
(A) Longitudinal extent (B) Latitudinal extent
(C) Standard Meridian (D) All the above
4. The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30’E passes through which of the following places ?
(A) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (B) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Kachch in Gujarat (D) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh
5. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show
in Gujarat, if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) 4.00 am (B) 7.44 am (C) 6 am (D) 5.44 am
6. From Gujarat to Arunchal Pradesh there is a time lag of -
(A) 24 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 2 hours (D) 30 minutes
7. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of
India, which of the following alternatives do you observ about India’s size?
(A) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(B) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(C) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(D) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent
8. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north east ?
(A) Seas (B) Lava Plateaus
(C) Young Fold Mountains (D) Sandy Desert
9. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world ?
(A) First (B) Third (C) Fourth (D) Seventh
10. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass ?
(A) 2.4 million square km (B) 3.28 million square km
(C) 32.8 million square km (D) 3.28 million km
11. Discuss the location of India.
12. What is a sub continent?
13. The latitudinal and longitudinal expanse is about 30° but the east – west expanse seems to be smaller than
the north – south expanse. Why?
14. Why do we need Standard Meridian in India? Explain.
15. What is the importance of Suez Canal ?
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DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
1. The Third Estate comprised
(A) Poor servants, small peasants and landless labour
(B) Peasants and artisans
(C) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc.
(D) All the above
5. What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789 ?
(A) Education became difficult (B) Rapid increase in the demand for foodgrains
(C) Housing problem occurred (D) None of the above
6. What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third Estate ?
(A) Tithe (B) Livre (C) Taille (D) All of these
10. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right ?
(A) John Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Montesquieu (D) Voltaire
13. What is the National Anthem of France and who composed it?
15. Explain how the new political system worked in the France?
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DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR
8. The factor of production which combines and arranges all the factors of production is
(A) land (B) labour (C) capital (D) entrepreneur
13. Explain the type of non-farming activities in which people of village Palampur are engaged?
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DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA
1. Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India ?
(A) Difference in rock formations (B) Weathering
(C) Erosion and deposition (D) Land use
2. Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features?
(A) Geological formations (B) Population density
(C) Weathering (D) Erosion and deposition
3. Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of conti-
nents and oceans and the various landforms ?
(A) Theory of Motion (B) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(C) Theory of Evolution (D) Theory of Relativity
4. According to the ‘Theory of plate Tectonics’, the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates ?
(A) Three (B) Five (C) Seven (D) Ten
5. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics’, the movement of the plates result in some geological activity.
Which one of the following is not such a geological activity ?
(A) Volcanic activity (B) Folding (C) Faulting (D) Glaciation
6. The wet and swampy belt of the Northern Region is known locally as
(A) Bhabar (B) Bhangar (C) Doab (D) Terai
10. Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India ?
(A) Kunlun Mountains (B) Plateau of Tibet
(C) River Brahamaputra (D) The Himalayas
12. Describe any three features of the Purvanchal Range of the Himalayas.
13. Which three river systems form the Northern Plains ? Explain the diverse relief features of the Northern
Plains
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DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
2. After Independence, who became the first Prime Minister and then the President of Ghana?
(A) Patrice Lumamba (B) Jomo Kenyatta (C) Sam Nujoma (D) Kwame Nkrumah
6. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occured in the world ?
(A) 1932-36 (B) 1958-61 (C) 2001-02 (D) 2004-07
8. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(A) 3050 (B) 3000 (C) 4000 (D) 2000
9. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held
there?
(A) Army participates in election
(B) Government is not accountable to the people
(C) Some parts of China are not represented at all
(D) Government is always formed by the Communist Party
10. Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(A) Revolutionary Party (B) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(C) Institutional Revolutionary Party (D) Institutional Party
12. What was the major decision taken by General Perez Musharraf in 1999?
14. ‘A democratic government rules within the limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights’. Explain?
15. Which methods were adopted by the PRI in Mexico to win the election?
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DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
7. Which one among the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(A) Agriculture (B) Fisheries (C) Poultry farming (D) Mining
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DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SOCIALISM IN EUROPE & THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION
3. To coordinate the efforts of socialists all over Europe, an international body was formed in Europe (in 1889)
called the
(A) Second International (B) Commune
(C) Labour Party (D) Social Democratic Party
4. According to the views held by the people of Europe regarding social change, they came to be called
(A) liberals (B) radicals (C) conservatives (D) all of these
6. What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(A) Reduction of working time to eight hours (B) Increase in wages
(C) Improvement in working conditions (D) All the above
13. Who was Lenin? Name the three demands of Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.
14. Describe the incident of ‘Bloody Sunday’ during the Russian Revolution?
15. What social changes were seen in the society after industrialization?
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DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : DRAINAGE
1. The river that causes great destruction during floods in north- eastern states of India is
(A) Brahmaputra River (B) Ganga River (C) Meghna River (D) Teesta River
7. India can only use 20% of water of Indus due to one of following treaty
(A) Chenab treaty, 1965 (B) Jhelum treaty 1961
(C) Ravi treaty 1972 (D) Indus Water Treaty 1960
9. The waterfall made by the river kaveri that supplies hydropower to Bangalore, Mysore and Kolar is
(A) Jog falls (B) Krishna falls (C) China falls (D) Sivasamudram falls
10. An appropriate reason to the fact that in Tibet, Brahmaputra does not create devastation by floods is
that it
(A) carries large volume of water
(B) carries smaller volume of water and less silt
(C) is very cold in this region and it remain frozen most of the year
(D) is very small stream in this area
13. Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau?
14. Why are most of the peninsular rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal ? Give reasons.
15. What are the causes of water pollution ? How can it be controled ?
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DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN
10. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had a role.
(A) Baldev Singh (B) Somnath Lahiri (C) Jaipal Singh (D) K.M. Munshi
14. ‘Like South Africa, India’s constitution was also drawn up under very difficult circumstances.’ Explain.
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DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
1. AAY stands for
(A) Anti Allergic Yojana (B) Antyodaya Anna Yozana
(C) All Anna Yozana (D) Anti Action yozana
4. For the year 2011-12, the poverty line for rural areas is fixed at
(A) Rs. 816 per month. (B) Rs. 428 per month. (C) Rs. 528 per month. (D) Rs. 628 per month.
7. One of the important anti-poverty measure taken by the government to remove poverty is
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme (B) Foreign Direct Investment Programme
(C) National Food for Work Programme (D) Rural Electricity Programme
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DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : ELECTORAL POLITICS
2. The famous slogan ‘Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus’ was given by
(A) Alluri Sitaramaraju. (B) P Chidambaram.
(C) N. T. Rama Rao. (D) D. Rama Naidu.
3. In India the minimum age of voting was 21 years till the year
(A) 1967 (B) 1976 (C) 1989 (D) 1990
4. Fraud and malpractices indulged by a party or candidate to increase its votes is termed as
(A) booth robbery. (B) political extortion. (C) swindling. (D) rigging.
7. As per the 73rd amendment of the constitution, the number of seats reserved for women in the Panchayati
Raj are
(A) one-third. (B) one-fourth. (C) one-fifth. (D) one-sixth.
8. Before contesting elections, every candidate has to make a legal declaration giving full details of his
(A) family and friends. (B) political party.
(C) vehicle number. (D) educational qualification
10. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the scheduled tribes ?
(A) 40 (B) 47 (C) 51 (D) 71
12. Explain the term ‘Booth capturing’ used in the context of elections.
15. Why the candidates are required to give a detailed account of their property?
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DPP NO. 12
3. The meaning of the term ‘Ghetto’ is a separately marked area used for keeping
(A) jews (B) officers
(C) landlords (D) the police force
4. The Article 48 in Weimar Republic constitution makes it more unstable form of republic because
(A) President’s decree based on this article makes him more powerful than the republic
(B) Weimer republic was a fragile experiment
(C) The unstable nature of republic made it unpopular in public
(D) the Republic could not fulfill the aspirations of German public
5. The Great Depression in Germany gave Nazism a new lease of life because.
(A) during the Great Depression Nazi propaganda stirred hopes of better future among people
(B) Nazi party earned huge fortunes in election
(C) Hitler became a force to reckon with
(D) Nazis were favoured by the people of Germany
7. Using Darwins idea to advocate his racial needs Hitler intervened in the
(A) natural process of selection (B) Biased process of selection
(C) idealogical process of selection (D) negative process of selection
8. The Act which gave Adolf Hitler wider powers as a dictator of Germany was
(A) Fire decree (B) Chancellor Act
(C) Enabling Act (D) Repression Act
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9. Name the book written by Charlotte Beradt about dreams of Jew :
(A) Fearfull Drams (B) Third Reich of Dreams
(C) Dreams of Death (D) Dreams of Reich
10. The most suitable meaning for the term Lebensraum projected by Nazi ideology was
(A) Acquisition of more territories
(B) Living space for Germans, which required annexation of new territories
(C) Capture of Poland only
(D) Defeat of Russia only
13. What do you mean by Holocaust? How the world came to know about it ?
14. Explain why the attack on Soviet Union by Hitler is termed as a Historic Blunder.
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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : CLIMATE
1. From which of the followign presssure belts do the north-easterly trade winds originate ?
(A) Equatorial low pressure belt
(B) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northen hemisphere
(C) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Southern hemisphere
(D) Tropical low pressure belt of the Northen hemisphere
2. Due to which of the following reasons are the southwest monsoons rainbearing winds ?
(A) They blow from low pressure area of northeastern India towards the seas
(B) they are seasonal winds
(C) They blow over warm Indian Ocean and gather moisture
(D) They strike the Himalayas
3. Main cause behind peninsular India not having well defined cold season is
(A) Monsoon. (B) low pressure.
(C) moderate sea weather. (D) high pressure.
4. ‘Loo’ is experienced in
(A) northeast part of India. (B) northwestern part of India.
(C) northernmost part of India. (D) southern part of India.
6. Bengal, Orisaa and Andhra Pradesh coasts are frequented by cyclones because
(A) The level coastline makes the cyclones penetrate these areas earlier
(B) These areas ae close to a volcano
(C) Low pressure conditions in northwest India lead to the creation of depression over Andaman sea.
(D) Heavy rainfall in these parts encourage strong wind conditions
7. The fast flowing cold air currents in the upper atmosphere are called
(A) Coriolis Force. (B) Jet streams. (C) Trade winds. (D) Western disturbance.
8. Mango showers occur in which one of the following group of two states ?
(A) Bihar and West Bengal (B) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka and Kerala (D) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
10. In winter the western cyclonic disturbances originate from which sea?
(A) Mediterranean Sea (B) Indian Ocean (C) Caspian Sea (D) Arbian Sea
12. What are jet streams and how do they afffect the climate of India?
14. What are the major controls of the climate of a place? Explain them.
15. Inspite of Deccan plateau lying in leeward side, it still receives little rainfall? Give reason.
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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA
3. The stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of
India is called
(A) buffer stock. (B) distribution of stock. (C) storage of stock. (D) foodgrain stock.
7. Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) foodgrains given per family per month is
(A) 40 Kg (B) 35 Kg (C) 25 Kg (D) 20 Kg
13. Describe the negative effects of increase in Minimum Support Price of foodgrains in India.
14. Explain the role of Co-operatives in providing food and related items in different parts of the country.
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DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS
5. The disputes between the government and the citizens over the decisions of the government are settled by
(A) non governmental organisation. (B) supreme court.
(C) committee members. (D) civil servants.
6. Political association occupying a definite territory, having an organized government and possessing power to
make domestic and foreign policies is known as
(A) State. (B) Government. (C) Parliament. (D) Executive.
10. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill ?
(A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 15 days (D) 1 month
14. Explain the major powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
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DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
1. The most dominant species of trees found in the tropical deciduous forest is
(A) sal. (B) shisham. (C) teak. (D) deodar.
3. Natural vegetation grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by the humans for a long
time is called as
(A) endemic vegetation. (B) virgin vegetation.
(C) flora. (D) endangered.
4. Arid areas of Rann of Kutch and Thar desert is a natural habitat for
(A) elephants. (B) lions.
(C) one horned rhinoceros. (D) wild ass and camels.
5. The percentage suitable for any area for the forest cover in a region is
(A) 25%. (B) 26%. (C) 33%. (D) 36%.
9. Guindy is a
(A) medicinal plant. (B) national park
(C) Indian blue bull. (D) tibetan wild association.
10. The scripture associated with medicinal plants, herbs and shrubs is
(A) Ayurveda. (B) Samveda. (C) Rigveda. (D) Yajurveda.
12. Distinguish between the Tropical Evergreen Forest and Tropical Deciduous Forest.
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DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS
1. What is meant by the term writ?
(A) written laws (B) a document containing an order of the court
(C) basic features of the constitution (D) none of these
2. Fundamental rights are universal, which means that they are granted to all the
(A) ambassadors. (B) citizens of India. (C) aliens. (D) diplomats.
5. Right to property was ommitted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the
(A) Congress Government. (B) CPI Government.
(C) Janta Government. (D) BJP Government.
8. Non-Muslim residents in Saudi Arabia follow their religion in private and not in
(A) temple. (B) mosque. (C) public. (D) church.
13. What do you understand by fundamental rights? Discuss the various fundamental rights mentioned in the
Indian Constitution.
14. Why did Dr. Ambedkar consider the right to constitutional remedies as ‘soul of the constitution’?
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DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : POPULATION
5. Which one of the following states has very high population density?
(A) West Bengal (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Arunachal Pradesh
12. What is a Census? When was the census first held in India? Why is the Census of India important?
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DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : FOREST, SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM
2. Alluri Sitarama Raju, one of rebels against the colonial domination of the forest areas was from
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Bengal (C) Bombay (D) Madras
3. The Bastar kingdom was merged with Kanker kingdom and became Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh in
the year
(A) 1917 (B) 1927 (C) 1937 (D) 1947
7. The number of families that followed the ideas of Surontiko Samin by 1907 was
(A) 1,000 (B) 2,000 (C) 3,000. (D) 4,000
8. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 was amended two times in the years
(A) 1878 and 1927 (B) 1890 and 1900 (C) 1895 and 1928 (D) 1943 and 1945
9. The book The Forests of India written in the year 1923 was authored by
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Dalhousie (C) E.P. Stebbing (D) E.P.Thompson
10. The new system introduced by the Imperial Forest institute was
(A) Scientific forestry (B) Scientific farming (C) Scientific irrigation (D) Scientific plantation
11. How did the Forest Act affect the common man’s life in India?
12. How did commercial farming lead to a decline in forest covers during colonial period?
13. Where is Bastar located? Discuss its history and its pepole.
14. What is shifting cultivation? Why did the European foresters regard this practice as harmful for the forests?
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DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD
1. The autumn crop that is usually harvested between September and October is known as
(A) Kharif (B) kuruvai (C) Rabi (D) Samba
11. Where do the Gujjar cattle herders live in summer and winter?
13. What were the efforts taken by the colonial government to bring waste lands under cultivation? How did it
create problems for pastoralists?
14. What happened to the animal stock when pasture lands were turned into cultivated lands?
15. What restrictions were imposed by the colonial rule on the African pastoralist?
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DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : PEASANT AND FARMERS
2. The quantity of tea imported to England from China in 1785 was about
(A) 15 million pounds. (B) 17 million pounds.
(C) 19 million pounds. (D) 21 million pounds.
3. Till the 1780s, white America settlement was confined to a small narrow strip of coastal land in the
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
6. In the 17th century the crop that improved the fertility of the soil and was a good fodder crop was
(A) Carrot. (B) Spinach.
(C) Clover. (D) Turnip.
7. Why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(A) the land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(B) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and minerals
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) It was a committed policy of the US Government.
8. The American leader under whom maximum expansion of wheat cultivation took place was
(A) President Wilson. (B) President Lincoln.
(C) President Bush. (D) President Clinton.
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10. With the rise in the price of wool, rich farmers
(A) increased wages of the labour. (B) started enclosing common land.
(C) moved westward. (D) started fighting with natives.
11. What was the impact of the westward expansion of the settlers in the USA ?
12. ‘From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA’. Give four
reasons for this expansion.
15. How were unwilling cultivators made to produce opium in India? Explain.
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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
Find the missing term :
1. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 28
2. 2, 20, ?, 110, 182
(A) 56 (B) 72 (C) 90 (D) 96
3. 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?
(A) 1194 (B) 1094 (C) 1095 (D) 1093
4. 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(A) 130 (B) 125 (C) 147 (D) 132
5. 7, 21, 11, 33, 17, ?
(A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 54 (D) 51
6. 495, 270, 126, 45, 9, ?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 0
7. 210, 120, ?, 24, 6, 0
(A) 64 (B) 48 (C) 35 (D) 60
8. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
(A) 194 (B) 210 (C) 252 (D) 258
9. 3, 8, 35, 48, ?, 120
(A) 72 (B) 64 (C) 80 (D) 99
10. 20, 40, 60, 100, 220, 700, ?
(A) 2620 (B) 2200 (C) 1120 (D) 3100
Find the wrong term :
11. 297, 272, 245, 216, 185, 153, 117
(A) 117 (B) 153 (C) 185 (D) 216
12. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
(A) 200 (B) 136 (C) 87 (D) 80
13. 376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, –2
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 188
14. 572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5
(A) 14 (B) 32 (C) 72 (D) 5
15. 13, 22, 31, 41, 49
(A) 41 (B) 22 (C) 31 (D) 13
16. 1, 2, 6, 21, 84, 445, 2676
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 21 (D) 84
17. –15, 2, 21, 42, 67
(A) – 15 (B) 67 (C) 42 (D) 21
18. 2, 5, 11, 23, 48, 95, 191, 383
(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 23 (D) 48
19. 9, 25, 46, 73, 107, 139
(A) 9 (B) 46 (C) 139 (D) 107
20. 0, 10, 24, 68, 130
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 68 (D) 130
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DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES
Find the missing term :
1. FLP, INS, LPV, ?
(A)ORX (B) PRY (C) ORY (D) OSY
2. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR (C) GKS (D) FLR
3. DC, DE, FE, ?, HG, HI
(A) DE (B) ED (C) FG (D)GF
4. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ?
(A) 27V24 (B) 47U15 (C) 45U15 (D) 47V14
5. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P
(A) I11T (B) L11S (C) L12T (D) L11T
6. AN, OB, CP, QD, ?
(A) ER (B) ES (C) FR (D) EQ
7. 1BR, 2EO, 6HL, 15KI, ?
(A) 22NF (B) 31NF (C) 31NE (D) 28NF
8. (ABC)-6, (DEF)-15, (GHI)-24, ?
(A) (IJK)-33 (B) (JKM)-33 (C) (IJK)-32 (D) (JKL)-33
Find the wrong term :
9. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N (B) G10T (C) J20R (D) D4V
10. DOU, EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) HTY (B) EPV (C) FQW (D) ITZ
A K P S W
11. , , , ,
1 2 7 3 5
S K P W
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 7 5
12. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) G4T (B) J10R (C) M20P (D) P43N
13. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, X18O, Z23R
(A) V12L (B) X18O (C) Z23R (D) R5F
14. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, Y88F
(A) S2E (B) W21C (C) Y88F (D) Q1F
15. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW (B) GRX (C) HTY (D) ITZ
Fill in the blanks :
16. pq _ r _ q _ r _ qrr
(A) rppp (B) rprp (C) rpqr (D) rppr
17. uv _ uww _ _ xu _ v
(A) vwxu (B) vuvu (C) uvxu (D) vuxv
18. aba _ baca _ ba _ bacaabac _ aca
(A) cacb (B) ccab (C) cabc (D) abcc
19. a_ _b_a_ab_aa
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a (C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
20. k _ mk _ lmkkl _ kk _ mk
(A) lklm (B) lkmk (C) lkmm (D) lkml
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DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES
Find the missing term :
1.
2.
3.
4.
3 ?
2 15 54 6
5. 4 67 75 3
7 8
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
6.
(A) 65, 36, 63 (B) 53, 24, 63 (C) 49, 32, 53 (D) 51, 25, 61
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
8.
1 2 1 ? 10 24
15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 ?
9. 18 9
22 11
12 3
6 1 9
2 12 4 4 12 2 2 ? 3
10.
3 3 15
11.
12.
13.
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14.
15.
93 27 79 38 67 16
63 37 42
16.
3 4 ?
11 9 15 7 25 21
18.
40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425
12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
19.
6 8 ?
(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 9 (D) 6
5 3 7 5 3 2 5
8 6
174 336 ?
20.
5
3 2 9 2 7 9 6 4
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DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING
1. In a certain code language, tim nac means blue shirt, pit mit tim means shirt and pant and nac pit
means blue pant. Which word in that language means and ?
(A) tim (B) pit (C) nac (D) mit
4. In a certain code 253 means Books are old, 546 means old man gold and 378 means Books and pen.
What stand for are in that code ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
5. If pen is called pencil, pencil is called scale, scale is called bag and bag is called book which is used to
carry the books ?
(A) Scale (B) Pen (C) Book (D) Bag
Directions : (6 to 11) In the following questions Column II contains codes for the respective words given in Column
I. Understand the coding pattern and answer the questions.
Column I Column II
(1) FAMOUS (A) jcqhxp
(2) SATIRE (B) hqdbyn
(3) FRIGHT (C) ybcnke
(4) TANGLE (D) zewhnd
(5) ROVING (E) epbmyw
(6) HUNTER (F) wdnbxk
12. In a certain code language, 3a, 2b, 7c means Truth is Eternal, 7c, 9a, 8b, 3a means Enmity is not
eternal, 9a, 4d, 2b, 8b means Truth does not perish. Which of the following does mean Eternal in that
language ?
(A) 3a (B) 2b (C) 7c (D) Cannot be determined
Directions : (13 to 15) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For each letter
in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) not
in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that
code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded differently.
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13. MAGIC
(A) km (B) eg (C) ik (D) ce
14. PRISM
(A) r (B) o (C) h (D) q
15. QUITE
(A) hj (B) su (C) tv (D) pr
Directions (16 to 20) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For each letter in
that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) not in
the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that
code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded differently.
16. APRIL
(A) s (B) l (C) u (D) o
17. LIGHT
(A) w (B) o (C) l (D) k
18. ACTED
(A) g (B) w (C) d (D) a
19. BOXES
(A) b (B) s (C) e (D) x
20. MAILS
(A) o (B) n (C) c (D) u
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : LOGICAL ALPHABET NUMBER AND TIME SEQUENCE TEST
1. If the first and second digits in the sequence 5981327438 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits,
the fifth and the sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your right ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 1
2. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?
12346342593674123676543
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these
3. In a queue of boys Sohan is 9th from the back. Ramesh’s place is 8th from the front. Radhey is standing in
between the two.What could be the minimum number of boys standing in the queue?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
4. In a row of girls, Rina and Mona occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left end,
respectively. If they interchanged their places, Rina and Mona occupy seventeenth place from the right and
eighteenth place from the left, respectively. How many girls are there in the row ?
(A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) Data inadequate
5. In the following list of numerals, how many 2.s are followed by 1 but not preceded by 4 ?
421214211244412212144214212124142124146
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
6. If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order then
what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
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7. How many pair of letters are there in the word REPURCUSSION which have as many letters between them
in the word as in the alphabet.
(A) Three (B) One (C) Two (D) More than three
8. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. Which of the following
series is observing the rule ?
(A) BGKNPR (B) CINRTU (C) EJNQST (D) LQUXAP
9. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is in the order of 12, 22, 32.Which of the
following series observes the rule given above ?
(A) EGLV (B)GINQ (C)GINR (D) TVYB
10. How many pairs of letters in the word CONTRACTOR have as many letters between them in the word as in
the alphabet ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) more than 4
11. How many odd numbers are there in the above sequence which are immediately preceded and also immedi-
ately followed by an even number ?
51473985726315863852243496
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
12. How many A are in the given letter series which does not has B just before it but has C just after it
DACBACDACBCACBACBADC
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
13. How many c(s) are there in between two consonants in the following series ?
cabcdcdcecfcocicjckcck
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 11
14. How many pairs of letters in the word “DABBLE” have as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabets ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
15. If the first and the fifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third
and the seventh and so on what will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangement ?
(A) R (B) (C) Y (D) N
16. If the first four letters of the word ‘ANTHROPOMORPHISM’ are rewritten in the reverse order followed by the
next four rewritten in the reverse order followed by the next four letters in the reverse order and so on, which
letter will be twelfth from the left end in the rewritten order ?
(A) O (B) H (C) M (D) P
Directions : (17 to 20) Study the following information to answer the given questions :
(1) In a class of boys and girls, Amar’s rank is 12th and Meeta’s rank is 8th.
(2) Amar’s rank among the boys is 6th and Meeta’s rank among girls is 3rd.
(3) In the class Meeta’s rank is 52nd from the other end.
(4) From the other end, Amar’s rank among the boys is 26th.
17. How many boys are there in the class ?
(A) 31 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) Can’t be determined
18. Which of the following is Meeta’s rank among the girls from the other end ?
(A) 23rd (B) 28th (C) 26th (D) Can’t be determined
20. How many boys are there between Amar and last rank (assuming it is a girl) in the class ?
(A) 25 (B) 47 (C) 22 (D) Can’t be determined
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DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATION
2. f ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘–’ , ‘C’ means ‘x’, then what will be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46
Directions : (3 to 4) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. If ‘$’ represents ‘+’, ‘’
represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions based on the
above given representation.
5. Find out two sign to be interchanged for making the question correct
5 – 9 × 45 + 15 ÷ 3 = 5
(A) + and – (B) × and + (C) × and ÷ (D) × and –
6. The simple interest of an amount is calculated by multiplying P and T and R and dividing the value by 100.
This can be written as :
(A) P T R100 (B) (P T) R100 (C) (P T R) 100 (D) can’t be determined
7. A receives X number of balls. He gives 10% of his ball to B, 15% of his ball to C and 12% of his ball to D. How
many balls does he have with him now ?
(A) X X (10 100) X (15 100) # X (12 100)
(B) X X (10 100) X (15 100) X (1 100)
(C) X # [X (10 100) X (15 100) X (12 100)]
(D) None of these
Direction : (8 & 9) If > denotes +, < denotes –, + denotes , denotes ×, – denotes =, × denotes > and = denotes
<, choose the correct statements in each of the following questions.
(36 4) 8 4
=?
4 8 2 16 1
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16
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Directions (12 to 13) : The sign marked () stand for different mathematical signs. The mathematical signs in the
proper sequence are given in the alternatives signs given in one of the alternatives, When () is replaced by
the mathematical signs given in one of the alternatives, in the same sequence, the equation becomes
correct. Find the correct alternative. Rule
12. 24 * 9 * 2 * 6
(A) = + × (B) × = + (C) = × + (D) + × =
13. 24 * 16 * 5 * 8
(A) + × = (B) + = × (C) = × + (D) × = +
Directions (14 to 17) : The given equation becomes correct when symbols and numbers are interchanged as given
in one of the options. Find the correct option.
14. 27 3 – (4 + 7) × 18 = – 1
(A) and × (B) + and – (C) – and (D) × and +
15. 6 + 45 – 9 4 × 2 = 3
(A) × and – (B) and + (C) and – (D) + and ×
16. 40 + 3 1 × 3 – 26 = 15
(A) and × (B) + and × (C) – and × (D) + and
17. (27 – 8) 24 + 7 × 3 = 13
(A) + and × (B) and × (C) and + (D) × and –
19. If – means + means ×, ÷ means –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct?
(A) 52 4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (B) 43 × 7 5 + 4 – 8 = 25
(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5 3= 420 (D) 36 – 12 × 6 3 + 3= 60
20. If x stands for 'add', y stands for ‘subtract', z stands for ‘divide', and p stands for 'multiply,' then what is the
value of (7 p 3) y 6 x 5 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 15 (D) 20
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT
Direction : (1 to 3) Study the given information and answer the questions that following.
(i) P, Q, R, S T, U and V are sitting in a row facing East.
(ii) R is on the immediate right of S.
(iii) Q is at an extreme end and has T as his immediate neighbour.
(iv) V is exactly between T and U.
(v) S is sitting third from the South end.
2. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends ?
(A) PQ (B) PS (C) QR (D) UB
3. Name the person who is at the third place from the North end.
(A) T (B) U (C) V (D) S
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Direction : (4 & 5) Six girls J, K, L, M, N, and P are sitting in a circle facing the centre and playing cards. L has J
sitting to her left and P to her right. N is sitting opposite to L and K is sitting opposite to J.
Direction : (6 to 10)
i. Eleven students, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K, are sitting in the first row of the class facing the teacher.
ii. D who is to the immediate left of F is second to the right of C.
iii. A is the second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.
iv. J is the immediate neighbour of A and B and third to the left of G.
v. H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I.
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements ?
(A) There are three students sitting between D and G.
(B) K is between A and J.
(C) B is sitting between J and I.
(D) G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H.
10. If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following pairs of students
is sitting at the ends ?
(A) D and E (B) D and K
(C) K and F (D) D and A
11. Which of the cars are on both the sides of Maruti car ?
(A) Fargo and Mercedes (B) Ambassador and Fargo
(C) Cardilac and Mercedes (D) Bedford and Ambassador
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14. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of Ambassador ?
(A) Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti (B) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
(C) Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo (D) Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo
Direction : (16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions
Eight friends P, M, R, T, Q, U, V & W are sitting in two opposite rows, facing each other. Each row has 4
persons. P is between U and V and is facing north. W is opposite to Q who is to the immediate left of M. R
is between T and M. W is to the immediate right of V.
17. Which of the following pairs has the person sitting opposite each other ?
(A) RP (B) RV (C) TV (D) UR
18. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) TP (B) RV (C) QP (D) QV
19. Which of the following pairs of persons has second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
(A) UP (B) VP (C) QM (D) RT
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST
Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a group. Each student can opt for only three choices
out of the six which are music, reading, painting, badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.
2. Who among the following students likes both tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C (C) B and D (D) D
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Directions (6 to 10) : Study the following infirmation carefully and answer the given questions :
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III-tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a
different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. They
occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper
berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are
not on the middle berth and their profession are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is
neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor.
Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There is a group of six students - M, N, O, P, Q and R - in a class. Each of the six students opt for two
subjects one compulsory and one optional. Pís optional subject was geography while three others have it as
a compulsory subject. Q and R have chemistry as one of their subjects. Rís compulsory subject is physics
which is an optional subject of both O and Q. Geography and English are Mís subjects, as compulsory and
optional subjects respectively. Biology is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female student in
the group is the one who has geography as the optional and English as the compulsory one.
13. Which of the following has the same compulsory / optional set as that of R?
(A) M (B) Q (C) O (D) None of these
14. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same combination as
that of P ?
(A) M (B) N (C) O (D) Q
15. Which of the following groups of students have geography as their compulsory subject ?
(A) M, O and P (B) O, N, and P (C) O, P and R (D) M, N and O
Directions : (16 to 17) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.
A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one Joker were there with Sujith, Ajay are
Sanjay.
I. Ajay had two cards, Sujith had three cards, and Sanjay had four cards.
II. The man with the most cards did not have the joker.
III. Everyone has at least one king.
Directions : (18 to 20) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates ; C, D, P,
Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers. Some teams are to be selected from amongst these eleven
persons subject to the following conditions :
A, P and U have to be together. B cannot go with D or R. E and Q have to be together. C and T have to be
together. D and P cannot go together. C cannot go with Q.
18. If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the team
are
(A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S (C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S
19. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T, the members
of the team are :
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U (C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U
20. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the
members of the team are :
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T (C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CALENDAR
3. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the week
is today ?
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
8. Sangeeta remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of December.
Her sister Natasha remembers that their father’s birthday was definitely after ninth but before fourteenth of
December. On which date of December was their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th (B) 11th (C) 12th (D) Data inadequate
9. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth day of the
month ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday
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10. A baby who was born on 29th Feb. 1896, when did he celebrate his first birthday.
(A) 28th Feb. 1897 (B) 29th Feb. 1900 (C) 29th Feb. 1904 (D) 20th Feb. 1908
11. Sonika is 10 weeks elder then Mala and Mala is 91 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on Monday
then on what day of a week Sonika was born.
(A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) None of these
12. Monika is 20 weeks elder than Priyanka and Priyanka is 63 days younger than Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on
Sunday then on what day of a week Monika was born.
(A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) None
14. If the sixth day of a month is fourth day after Sunday then which day of the weak will be on 19th day of that
month
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (C) Saturday (D) Tuesday
15. If Sripalís birthday falls on Thursday 20th March, 2000, then on which day of the week his birthday falls in the
year 2001 ?
(A) Wednesday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday
17. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap year).
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C)Thursday (D) Wednesday
19. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar will be -
(A) 2001 (B)2002
(C) 2004 (D) 2006
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM
Directions : (1 to 4) Each question below contains three groups of things. You are to choose from the
following four numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the
three groups of things in each question.
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Directions : (5 to 10) Select the diagram that best represents the given relationship.
Directions : (11 to 15) The following questions are based on the diagram given below. In the diagram, circle repre-
sents tall children, the square, obese children, rectangle, the energetic children and the triangle, girl chil-
dren. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.
11. Which area represents girls who are tall and obese but not energetic ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
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12. Which of the following areas represents the tall, obese and energetic girls ?
(A) Only 3 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following area represents children who are tall, obese and energetic but are not girls?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 9
14. Which areas represent energetic children who are not obese ?
(A) 1, 13 and 15 (B) 13 and 15 (C) 1, 11 and 15 (D) 6, 13 and 15
15. Which of the following areas represent obese and energetic children, who are neither girls nor tall ?
(A) 2 and 12 (B) 3 and 10 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 11 and 12
Directions : (16 to 20) Study the figure below and answer the following questions.
16. Find out the number of families which have all the four things mentioned in the diagram.
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 20
18. Find out the number of families which have V.C.R. and T.V. both
(A) 84 (B) 24 (C) 104 (D) 100
19. Find out the number of families which have only one thing, that is, either V.C.R. or T.V. or Scooter or Maruti.
(A) 160 (B) 184 (C) 225 (D) 254
20. Find out the number of families which have T.V. and scooter both but have neither V.C.R. nor Maruti.
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 4 (D) 50
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : SYLLOGISM
Directions (Questions 1 to 10) : In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclu- sions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows;
(b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows;
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows;
(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
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1. Statements : All men are dogs. All dogs are cats.
Conclusions : I. All men are cats.
II. All cats are men.
4. Statements : Some dedicated souls are angels. All social workers are angels.
Conclusions : I. Some dedicated souls are social workers.
II. Some social workers are dedicated souls.
Directions (11 to 20) : In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by three or four conclu-
sions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements : All branches are flowers. All flowers are leaves.
Conclusions : I. All branches are leaves. II. All leaves are branches.
III. All flowers are branches. IV. Some leaves are branches.
(A) None follows (B) Only I and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) All follow
12. Statements : All politicians are honest. All honest are fair.
Conclusions : I. Some honest are politician. II. No honest is politician.
III. Some fair are politician. IV. All fair are politician.
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow (D) Only I and III follow
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13. Statements : All terrorists are guilty. All terrorists are criminals.
Conclusions : I. Either all criminals are guilty or all guilty are criminals.
II. Some guilty persons are criminals.
III. Generally criminals are guilty.
IV. Crime are guilt go together.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only I and III follows
(C) Only II follows (D) Only II and IV follow
14. Statements : All aeroplane are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions : I. Some aeroplane are chairs.
II. Some chairs are aeroplane.
III. Some chairs are trains.
IV. Some trains are aeroplane.
(A) None follows (B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II and III follow (D) Only II and IV follow
15. Statements : Some bottles are drinks. All drinks are cups.
Conclusions : I. Some bottles are cups. II. Some cups are drinks.
III. All drinks are bottles. IV. All cups are drinks.
(A) Only I and II follow (B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II and IV follow (D) Only III and IV follow
17. Statements : Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.
Conclusions : I. No cloth is a bag. II. All marbles are bags.
III. Some bags are clothes. IV. No marbles is a cloth.
(A) Only either I or IV follows (B) Only either I or II follows
(C) None follows (D) Only either I or III follows
19. Statements : Some tables are TVs. Some TVs are radios.
Conclusions : I. Some tables are radios. II. Some radios are tables.
III. All radios are TVs. IV. All TVs are tables.
(A) None follows (B) All follows
(C) Only I and III follow (D) Only II and IV follow
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DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES
Directions : (1 to 20) In the following questions, some figures are given in a sequence. Find out the figure
from the alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the sequence.
Problem Figures Answer Figure
1.
2.
3. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. ?
7. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8.
9.
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10. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)
11. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)
12. ? D
13. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14.
15.
16. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)
17. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)
19. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (A) (B) (C) (D)
20. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
Directions : (1 to 10) There is some relationship between the two figures/pair of letters/numbers on the left
of the sign (::). The same relationship exists between the two terms on the right of which one is
missing. Find the missing one from the given alternatives.
1. : :: :?
2. : :: :?
3.
4. : :: :?
5. : :: :?
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6. : :: :?
7.
: :: ?:
8. : :: :?
9.
10.
Directions : (11 to 20) In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does not
correlate with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.
11.
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12.
13.
14.
15.
×
+
×
+ + +
+ +
16. × × × ×
× + ×
(A) (B) (C) (D)
S = =
17. = S
= S S
18. S S S S
19.
20.
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DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CUBE TEST & DICE TEST
Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured red on two opposite faces, blue on two adjacent faces and yellow on
two remaining faces. It is then cut into two halves among the plane parallel to the red faces. One
piece is then cut into four equal cubes and the other one into 32 equal cubes.
4. How many cubes have each a yellow face with other faces without colour ?
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C) 17 (D) 20
Directions : (6 to 10) A cube of 5 cm has been painted on its surfaces in such a way that two opposite
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent surfaces have been painted red. Two remain-
ing surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
7. How many cubes will have at least red colour on its surfaces ?
(A) 50 (B) 48 (C) 45 (D) 46
8. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on its surfaces ?
(A) 48 (B) 45 (C) 32 (D) 50
9. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 20 (D) 18
11. A dice has been thrown four times and produces following results.
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12. What should be the number opposite 4 ?
13.
Directions : (14 to 15) In each of the following questions how does the figure look like when folded into
a cube along the marked lines ?
14.
15.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 6
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17. Which of the following dices is identical to the unfolded figure as shown here ?
18. Three positions of the same dice are given below. Observe the figures carefully and tell which number will
come in place of ?
19.
20.
(i) (ii)
Which number is on the opposite face of 2 ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
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DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET
ANSWER KEY
CLASS – IX (CBSE)
INDEX
PHYSICS – 01 - 03
CHEMISTRY – 04 - 05
BIOLOGY – 06
MATHEMATICS – 07 - 09
ENGLISH – 10 - 19
SOCIAL SCIENCE – 20 - 22
MENTAL ABILITY – 23 - 24
8. A 9. D 10. B 13. : 2 2
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : MOTION
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. B 13. 6 km/hr. 14. 10 m/s2 15. 0.4 m/s2
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MOTION
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. 2.5 s 12. 270 m 14. 15 m/s2 15. 1:3:5
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : MOTION
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. D 10. D
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D
2
8. A 9. C 10. D 15. 4 m/s
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D
2
8. B 9. B 10. D 13. 360 kg m/s 14. 10,000 kg m/s 15. 1s
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. B
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DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
–11
8. B 9. C 10. C 12. 6.67 × 10 N 13.(a) 2 times; (b) 1/4 times; (c) 4 times
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. A
2
8. C 9. A 10. C 12. 40/3 N 13. 1.96 m/s
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. A
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : FLUID
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. D 10. C
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : FLUID
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. D
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FLUID
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. 25 N
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. B
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. B 11. 100% 12. 1:9 13. Reduce by 50%
DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. 6,250 J
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DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. C
4 5
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. 2 × 10 J 12. 9,000 N, 4.5 × 10 J
13. 750 W 14. 5N 15. 10 m
DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : SOUND
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. A
DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : SOUND
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. C
DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : SOUND
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. A 15. 20 m
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VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : PHYSICAL PROPERTIES AND STATES OF MATTER
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. C
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : INTER CONVERSION OF STATES OF MATTER
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. C
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : EVAPORATION AND FACTORS AFFECTING IT
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. D
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE ?
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MIXTURES
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. C 12. 80 g. O2
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : TYPES OF MIXTURES, CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. C 15. 26.47%
DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. B 12. 18.03% 13. 140g
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : SEPARATION TECHNIQUES
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. A
DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. B
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ATOMS AND MOLECULES
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : DALTON’S THEORY, LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION, SYMBOLS AND ATOMIC MASS
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. B 13. N = 82.35% ; H = 17.64% 14. 1.5
15. y atoms
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : Mole Concept
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. A
12. 10NA 13. 51.52 liter 14. 22.4 liter
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : DALTON’S ATOMIC THEORY
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. 10. B
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : ATOMIC MODELS AND ISO-TERMS
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
10 11
8. A 9. C 10. D 11. % of 5 B = 80 ; % of 5 B = 20
16 18
13. % of 8 A = 90 ; % of 8 B = 10
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VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
DPP - 01
TOPIC : TOPIC: THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. C
DPP - 02
TOPIC : TISSUE
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. A
DPP - 03
TOPIC : DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C
8. D 9. C 10. C
DPP - 04
TOPIC : WHY DO WE FALL ILL
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. C 9. A 10. C
DPP - 05
TOPIC : NATURAL RESOURCES
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. D
DPP - 06
TOPIC : IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. A
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VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. B
47 21 5 19 41 6
11. (i) 6 – 35 (ii) (iii)
2 5 30
3
(v) (vi) 2 3 (vii) 2
2
2 2 4 5
15. (i) 4 (ii)
3
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. C
2
15. (i) a = 2, b = 1 (ii) a = –1, b = 1 (iii) a = 0, b =
3
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. C
11. (i) x100 – 3 (there could be many answers) (ii) y23 (there could be many answers)
12. (i) 1 (ii) 3 (iii) 0 (iv) 7 (v) 10 (vi) 2
13. a = 23, b = – 14 15. a = –3, b = – 1
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. B
3 2
11 (i) 9a b (3b – 5c) (ii) (3x + 4y)(3x – 4y) (iii) x(x + 1)(x – 1)
(iv) (y – 3)(y – 1) (v) (x + 3)(2 – x) (vi) (x + 2)(2x + 1)(2x – 1)
(viii) 3(p – q)(q – r)(r – p)
12. (i) 9,801 (ii) 99,70,02,999
13. 9 15. 341
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DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. C 10. C
12. (i) Fourth Quadrant (ii) Second Quadrant (iii) Third Quadrant (iv) First Quadrant
13. 5 square units
14. (i) x-axis (ii) y-axis
15. (i) B(–5, 2), C(–2, 3), E(3, –1) (ii) F (iii) 1 (iv) 0
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. C
1
11. (2, 3) 12. b= 13. c=-(am+bn) 14. x = 15 - 6y, Yes
3
15. Fixed charge = Rs.15, charge for each extra day = Rs.3
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. C
12. 110º, 70º 13. x = 100º 15. x = 50º
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : TRIANGLES
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. A 11. BOC = 125º 14. BOC=70º 15. x=90
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : QUADRILATERALS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. A 13. x = 70º 14. 12 15. x = 55º
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : AREAS OF PARALLELOGRAM & TRIANGLES
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. A 9. A
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : CIRCLES
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. 150º, 30º
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONSTRUCTION
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. A
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DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : HERON'S FORMULA
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. D
11. 672 cm2
12. Other diagonal = 48 cm, Area = 1320 cm2
13. 270 m2
14. 306 cm2 15. 20 30 cm
2
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. 4:1 12. Rs. 539 13. 24 cm
2 3
14. 2541 15. 249.48 m , 523.91 m .
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : STATISTICS
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. D 12. O ,AB 15. 5
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : PROBABILITY
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. D 9. C 10. A
9 11 1 3 2 3
11. 12. 13. (i) (ii) (iii) 14. 15. 0.734
40 20 5 10 15 32
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VIBRANT ACADEMY ENGLISH
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
TOPIC : DETERMINERS
I. 1. (a) - (b) a (c) the
2. (a) - (b) a (c) a
3. (a) - (b) - (c) the
4. (a) - (b) - (c) -
5. (a) an (b) - (c) - (d) - (e) -
6. (a) an (b) the (c) - (d) an (e) the
7. (a) the (b) the (c) the (d) - (e) the (f) the
8. (a) the (b) a (c) - (d) the (e) - (f) - (g) - (h) -
II.
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C
15. C 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
DPP-2
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (FACTUAL PASSAGE)
2. a. Use of bamboo is gaining momentum because it is a reliable source of high quality and durable green
building material.
b. is a renewable source of building material.
c. Deforestation is alarming because it will hunder world economies, business and manufacturing prac-
tices.
d. It means that soil erosion takes place where hardwood lumber trees are harvested.
e. Bamboo
f. Traditional hardwood lumber trees, after harvesting
g. The problems of resource depletion, habitat loss, species extinction and ecosystem pollution are dis-
turbing the Earth.
h. bamboo
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DPP-3
TOPIC : TENSE
1. (a) Abhishek had left for Chennai before Jaya reached there.
(b) Do you think you have seen him sometimes earlier also.
(c) Karina bought a new book last week.
(d) You won’t succeed until you work hard.
2. (a) comes (b) has finished (c) jogs
3. (a) fell (b) saw (c) has been working (d) had done
(e) hear (f) have known (g) have been studying
4. (a) is going (b) are working (c) are sleeping (d) has cooked
(e) sang (f) slept
DPP-4
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON TENSES AND DETERMINERS
1. (a) travelled (b) enjoyed (c) didn’t sleep (d) was (e) listened (f) watched
(g) talked (h) stayed (i) invited (j) stopped (k) didn’t go
2. Error Correction
(a) Wrote Writing
(b) mastered can master
(c) replacing have replaced
(d) will are
(e) is still conducting are still conducted
(f) cultivating cultivate
(g) following follow
(h) was wrote is written
(i) are also calling is also called
(j) writing is written
3. (a) (ii) who (b) (iii) the (c) (i) on (d) (iv) as
(e) (ii) where (f) (iv) the
4. Incorrect Correct
(a) the a
(b) much many
(c) a the
(d) the a
(e) any some
(f) their his
(g) the a
(h) many some
DPP-5
TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD
Fill in the blanks with suitable verbs.
1. The horse and carriage is at the door.
2. The crown and glory of life is character.
3. A black and white cow was grazing.
4. A black and a white cow were grazing.
5. Every teacher in the school was present.
6. Neither party is ready to surrender.
7. Either you or your brother has done it.
8. Neither he nor his brother is responsible for this.
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9. You or he is to be blamed for this.
14. Not only the students but also the teacher was present.
DPP-6
TOPIC : ACTIVE-PASSIVE VOICE
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III.
1 (a) damaged (b) was discovered
(c) was injured (d) be rescused
(e) are believed to have been destroyed (f) is not known
2. (a) was forced (b) being threatened
(c) had been stolen (d) was later found
(f) had been abandoned (g) has been arrested
(h) is still being questioned
3. (a) is being resurfaced (b) are asked/ are being asked/ have been asked
(c) is expected (d) will be closed
(e) will be diverted
4. (a) was taken (b) was allowed
(c) was blocked (d) be diverted
(e) have been killed
DPP-7
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION
1. a. Article 48A of the Indian Constitution provides for the government to protect and improve the environment
and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. The result of its non-enformcement is that the
forests of the country are depleting at a very fast rate.
b. The population of mankind was about 1 billion in the year 1800, 2 billion in 1900 and the 20th century
added 3.7 billion. Today the population is estimated at 7.4 billion. This population growth has affected
society by distorting its future, with the rich getting richer and the poor remaining planning.
c. The poor remain poor because they beget children, which means more people without work. The remedy
suggested by the author is to control population by resorting to family planning.
d. The author’s vision of the emerning new world is that it has ushered in an era of responsibility of visualising
the world as an integrated ecological whose, rather than a dissociated collectino of parts.
e. spotlighted
f. changing
g. The transcendental concern is the survival not just of the people but of the planet.
h. growth of world population.
2. a. The first written public examinations were introduced with the establishment of the imperial examination
system in 606 AD in China.
b. The two features of the examination system in our country are its organisational design and the au-
tonomy.
c. The Amrik Singh Report (1997) made an analysis and reached the conclusion that CBSE. along with
Maharashtra board fared the best.
d. In terms of operating surplus, the CBSE board and Maharashtra board fare the best.
e. The Supreme Court issued directions that results should be declared within 45 days from the end of
examinations.
f. The National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) conducts examinations through the distance mode.
g. heterogeneity
h. Islamic educational
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DPP-8
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON SUBJECT VERB CONCORD AND ACTIVE-PASSIVE
1. (a) is said (b) is being sold (c) is reported (d) have heard
(e) was built (f) has had (g) to have stayed (h) has been living
(i) was being restored (j) had read (k) have been looking (l) did not find
2. (a) was appreciated (b) was turned (c) has been invited
3. (a)(i) costs (b)(i) has (c)(ii) hope (d) (ii) are
(e) (i) makes
4. (a)(i) likes (b)(i) is (c)(i) warns
(d)(ii) are (e)(i) cause
DPP-9
TOPIC : MODALS
II. (1) she might be having lunch. (2) I shouldn’t have eaten so much.
(3) He must have forgotten. (4) You needn’t have gone home so early.
(5) It can’t be changed now. (6) She may be watching television.
(7) She must have been waiting for somebody. (8) he couldn’t have done it.
(9) You ought to have been here earlier. (10) I would have helped you.
(11) You should have been warned.
(12) He might not have been warned. very well./ He might not have felt very well.
DPP-10
TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS
I. (1) in (2) on
(3) at 9.30 on Tuesday (4) at
(5) on (6) at
(7) In (8) at
(9) during/in (10) on Friday.. since tehn
(11) for (12) at
(13) at the moment ... until Friday (14) by
II. (1) in (2) by
(3) at (4) on
(5) on your cheek ... .in the mirror (6) to a party at Linda’s house
(7) on (8) on
(9) to ... to (10) in Vienna .. at the age of 35
(11) in this photograph ... on the left (12) to the theatre ... in the front row
(13) on the wall by the door (14) at
(15) on (16) in a tower block .... on the fifteenth floor
(17) on (18) pay in cash or pay cash ... by credit card
(19) On the bus ... by car (20) on ... on
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DPP-11
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON MODALS AND PREPOSITIONS
1. Incorrect Correct
(a) can should
(b) should may
(c) can could
(d) may not can’t
(e) can must
2. (a) must (b) should (c) can (d) must (e) may
3. Incorrect Correct
(a) under at
(b) beyond of
(c) barring on
(d) beneath between
(e) across over
(f) without of
(g) till through
4. (a) to (b) into (c) to (d) to (e) on (f) at (g) to (h) around (i) to (j) with (k) at
DPP-12
TOPIC : CONNECTORS
I. 1. As 2. since 3. while 4. as
5. As 6. since 7. while 8. Since
9. As 10. while 11. while 12. since.
II. 1. just because 2. than 3. until 4. than
5. just because 6.than 7. until 8. until
9. just because 10. just then 11. than 12. just because
13. just then 14. just then 15. just because
DPP-13
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONNECTORS
1. Incorrect Correct
(a) which who
(b) since after
(c) As when
(d) while when
(e) Just while
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DPP-14
TOPIC : CONDITIONALS
II. (1) Liz didn’t go to bed so late, she wouldn’t be tired all the time.
(2) came (to see us now)
(3) wouldn’t have disturbed you.
(4) If you hadn’t provoked the dog, it wouldn’t have attacked you.
(5) They would be upset if I told them what happened. /... what had happened
(6) I wouldn’t have got (so) wet if I’d had an umbrella
(7) If he hadn’t been (so) nervous, he wouldn’t have failed.
III. (1) I wasn’t feeling so tired. (2) I hadn’t had so much to do.
(3) I would have forgotten Jane’s (4) you hadn’t taken so long to get ready.
(5) I would have gone to the concert. (6) you were in trouble?
(7) there was no traffic. (8) people would go out more.
DPP-15
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONDITIONALS
I. 2. I wish John would come. / I wish he would come.
3. I wish the baby would stop crying.
4. I wish somebody would give me a job.
5. I wish you would buy some new clothes, or ...get some new clothes.
6. I wish you wouldn’t drive so fast.
7. I wish you wouldn’t (always) leave the door open.
8. I wish people wouldn’t drop litter in the street.
II. 2. would shake
3. would always forget
4. would share
III. 2. he’d missed / he had missed ... he
would have been / he’d have been
3. I would have forgotten / I’d have
forgotten ... you hadn’t reminded
4. I’d had /I had had ... I’d have sent
/I would have sent
5. we’d have enjoyed / we would have
enjoyed ... the weather had been
6. It would have been ... I’d walked /
I had walked
7. I was /I were
8. I’d been tired /I had been tired
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IV. 2. If the drivef in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident
wouldn’t have happened.
3. If I’d /I had known that George had to get up early, I’d /I would have woken him up.
4. If Jim hadn’t lent me the money, I wouldn’t have been able to buy the car. or ...I couldn’t have bought the car.
5. If Margaret hadn’t been wearing a seat belt, she’d / she would have been injured.
6. If you’d / you had had (some) breakfast, you wouldn’t be hungry now.
7. If I’d /I had had some money on me, I’d /I would have got a taxi.
DPP-16
TOPIC : REPORTED SPEECH
2. The girl exclaimed with joy that it had been a fine picnic.
3. The leader said that many students had died in the agitation.
4. The teacher said that God helps those who help themselves.
8. Ram exclaimed with sorrow that they had lost the match.
12. Hari asked Shanker if he would go to see the zoo that day.
14. Father asked his son if he had brought sweets from the market.
15. The fox asked the crow if he could sing a song for her.
16. Mohan asked his brother if he would give him some money the following day.
18. The teacher exclaimed and said that it was a pity she had not learnt good manners.
19. The master of the house asked if he would not wash his hands.
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20. The master ordered his servant to bring him a cup of milk.
22. The teacher addressed the boys and asked to sit down and learn his lesson.
23. The old man exclaimed with surprise that the hut had caught fire.
24. The doctor forbade the patient to take butter while he was under his treatment.’
25. Mohan advised me not to drive fast as the road was very busy.
DPP-17
TOPIC : CLAUSES
1. (a) who (b) who (c) where (d) whom (e) whose
3. (a) what you are doing (b) that I am doing my homework (c) that you have committed many mistakes
4. (a) I was talking to a woman whose husband was killed during the war.
(b) A man, who was carrying a cat in a box, got on the bus.
(c) Somebody, whose name I can't remember, called while you were out.
(d) I work mainly in the Marketing Department, which is the smallest in the company.
(e) My-boss, whose work takes him all over the world, decided to employ me as his assistant.
5. (a) where you|bought these trousers from (b) that is in the main market
(c) if I can find a similar pair for myself
6. (a) The shoes, my grandma bought for me, are too big.
(b) The boy I know from school is very nice.
(c) The chicken, we ate at the restaurant, was delicious.
(d) The new words, I have to learn, are very difficult.
(e) The photographer could not develop the pictures I had taken in Australia.
(f) Do you know the girl who is talking to Tom?
(g) The bananas George bought are on the table.
(h) The man Kamal helps is my teacher.
(i) The film, I watched last night, was interesting.
(j) The paint, on the bench you are sitting on, is still wet.
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DPP-18
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMAMR BASED ON REPORTED SPEECH & CLAUSES
1. (a) Mr Carlisle, to whom I spoke last night, is very interested in our new project.
(b) She couldn’t come to the conference, which was a pity.
(c) Suzana has many friends, most of whom she went to school with.
(d) She tried on several jackets, none of which fit her.
(e) Melanie, who has just bought a house near Gatwick is getting married.
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VIBRANT ACADEMY SOCIAL SCIENCE
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
TOPIC : INDIA-SIZE AND LOCATION
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. D 10. B
DPP-2
TOPIC : THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP-3
TOPIC : THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. D
DPP-4
TOPIC : PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. D
DPP-5
TOPIC : WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. D 10. C
DPP-6
TOPIC : PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. D 9. D 10. C
DPP-7
TOPIC : SOCIALISM IN EUROPE & THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. A
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DPP-8
TOPIC : DRAINAGE
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. B
DPP-9
TOPIC : CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. C
DPP-10
TOPIC : POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. C
DPP-11
TOPIC : ELECTORAL POLITICS
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. D 9. A 10. B
DPP-12
TOPIC : NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. B
DPP-13
TOPIC : CLIMATE
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. A
DPP-14
TOPIC : FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. A
DPP-15
TOPIC : WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. B
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DPP-16
TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP-17
TOPIC : DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. C 9. C 10. B
DPP-18
TOPIC : POPULATION
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. A
DPP-19
TOPIC : FOREST, SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. A
DPP-20
TOPIC : PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. D
DPP-21
TOPIC : PEASANT AND FARMERS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. B
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VIBRANT ACADEMY MENTAL ABILITY
(India) Private Limited CLASS IX - CBSE
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C
15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. D
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : CODING-DECODING
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. A
15. D 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : LOGICAL ALPHABET NUMBER AND TIME SEQUENCE TEST
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATION
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. 20. D
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C
15. A 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D
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DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : PUZZLE TEST
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. A
15. D 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CALENDAR
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B
15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : VENN DIAGRAM
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A
15. D 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : SYLLOGISM
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. D
15. A 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. C
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL SERIES
1. 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. D
15. A 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. D
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : NON-VERBAL ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B
15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. D
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CUBE TEST & DICE TEST
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B
15. C 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. D
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